LAW ENFORCEMENT

ADMINISTRATION

Prepared by,
Gonaranao Asnar U. Disomangcop Jr, Rcrim
Dansalan Polytechnic College Instructor
Magna Cum Laude, Class Valedictorian
1.The NAPOLCOM exercises administrative
control and supervision over the Philippine
National Police. What law created
NAPOLCOM?
A. RA. 6975
B. RA. 4864
C. RA. 8551
D. PD. 765
2. The Provincial Governor shall choose the
Provincial Director from a list of____eligible
recommended by the Regional Director, preferable
from the same province, city, municipality.
A. two (2)
B. three (3)
C. four (4)
D. five (5)
3. Under the lateral entry program in the
PNP, a criminologist who applied and
selected will have the initial rank of
A. Senior Inspector
B. Inspector
C. Police Officer I
D. Chief Inspector
4. A promotion granted to PNP personnel
who dies while in the performance of duty is
called;
A. Regular
B. Temporary
C. Posthumous
D. Special promotion
5. Decision by the Chief, PNP in
administrative cases where the penalty is
dismissal, demotion and forced resignation
may be appealed before this body.
A. Regional Appellate Board
B. National Appellate Board
C. Office of the President
D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
6. The maximum tenure of office of the
Chief of PNP or the Director General
of the PNP is;
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 9 years
7. Benefits derived by a PNP officer
qualified for Early Retirement.
A. one rank higher
B. two ranks higher
C. his present rank
D. one year gratuity
8. He shall be the Ex- officio
Chairperson of the NAPOLCOM?
A. DILG Secretary
B. Chief, PNP
C. President of the Philippines
D. Mayor
9. The first Filipino Chief of the Manila
Police Department.
A. Col. Lamberto Javalera
B. Col. Antonio Torres
C. Col. Antonio Lacson
D. Col. Lamberto Avellana
10. The First Chief of the Philippine
Constabulary;
A. Capt. Henry T. Allen
B. Gen. Rafael Crame
C. Col. Lamberto Javalera
D. Capt. Nicholas Piatt
11. The first Chief of Police of Manila
Police department was;
A. Capt. George Curry
B. Capt. Henry Allen
C. Capt. Columbus Piatt
D. Capt. Howard Taft
12. Citizen’s complaint may be brought
before the Chief of Police, City or Municipal
Mayors and
A. Chief, PNP
B. Provincial Director
C. Regional Director
D. PLEB
13. He introduced the mounted constables
in 1902 as part of the campaign against
insurgents.
A. Henry Allen
B. Rafael Crame
C. Mariano Castañeda
D. Fidel V. Ramos
14. Generally, PNP promotions are
subject to the confirmation of the:
A. Civil Service Commission
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Commission on Appointment
D. President of the Philippines
15. How many police Regional Offices
(PRO) are there in the PNP Organizational
Chart?
A. Fourteen
B. Fifteen
C. Sixteen
D. Seventeen
16. The administrative support unit in charge
of delivering the necessary supplies and
materials to all PNP units in the field is
called;
A. Finance Service
B. Logistics Support Service
C. Engineering Service
D. Communications & Electronics Service
17. The nature of which, the police officer is
free from specific routine duty is the definition
of________.
A. On duty
B. Special duty
C. Leave of absence
D. Off duty
18. An Act passed on July 18, 1901,
providing for the organization of the Insular
Constabulary whose power includes
inspection of the Municipal Police is _____.
A. RA 4864
B. Act No. 175
C. PD 765
D. PD 1184
19. What is the nature of appointment
of PNP personnel under the waiver
program?
A. Permanent appointment
B. Contractual appointment
C. Temporary appointment
D. Probationary appointment
20. The law that grants automatic eligibility
for those who passed any licensure
examination administered by the
Professional Regulations Commission is;
A. Republic Act No. 6506
B. Republic Act No. 1080
C. Presidential Decree. 907
D. Republic Act No. 1040
21. This is the equivalent rank of SPO3
in the Philippine Army.
A.Sergeant
B.Technical Sergeant
C.Staff Sergeant
D.Master Sergeant
22. What is the duration of the
PNP Field Training Program?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months
23. The lowest administrative penalty
given to police personnel.
A. Forfeiture of Pay
B. Restricted to Specified limits
C. Withholding of Privilege
D. Admonition
24. Period given for a PNP Member
admitted under the educational attainment
waiver to finish his B.S. Degree.
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years
25. What is given to a PNP member for
every 5 years of satisfactory service
rendered?
A. Promotion
B. Longevity pay
C. Additional allowance
D. Retirement benefits
26. Also referred to as Monthly
Retirement Benefits.
A. Lump sum
B. Gratuity
C. Pension
D. Allowance
27. SPO4 Ricardo Dalisay has a basic salary of 45,
000. 00 pesos and has already served 20 years of
active service in the PNP. If he will retire, how much
is his Monthly Retirement Benefits?
A. 29, 500
B. 31, 500
C. 45, 562
D. 50, 625
28. SPO4 Dalisay receives a base pay of
Php 45, 000.00. He had been in the service
for 27 years. How much is his longevity pay?
A. 18, 200
B. 22, 500
C. 26, 000
D. 27, 000
29. MPSA or Master’s in Public Safety
Administration is offered and administered
by an institution known as
A. PPSC
B. NAPOLCOM
C. National Defense College
D. National Police College
30. The Performance Evaluation Rating
in the PNP is done how many times per
year?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Thrice
D. Four
31. The law that merges the Philippine
Constabulary as the nucleus and Integrated
National Police into the PC- INP.
A. Act No. 175
B. R.A. 7080
C. R.A. 6040
D. P.D. 765
32. The National Appellate Board Office
of the NAPOLCOM is located in what
city?
A. Quezon City
B. City Of Manila
C. Mandaluyong City
D. Makati City
33. Number of year of non-promotion
before a PNP Member can be attrited.
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 20 years
34. It is the orderly organized physical
movement of elements or units of the
PNP.
A. Deployment
B. Employment
C. Potential
D. Performance
35. The 1987 Philippine Constitution
provides that the State shall establish and
maintain one police force which shall be
A. National in scope
B. Civilian in scope
C. National in character
D. Military in character
36. Who can grant waivers for
applicants in the PNP?
A. President
B. DILG Secretary
C. Chief, PNP
D. NAPOLCOM
37. The highest award given to a PNP
member is_________.

A. Medalya ng Kadakilaan
B. Medalya ng Kagitingan
C. Medalya ng Katapangan
D. Medalya ng Kabayanihan
38. A supervisor’s Span of Control is generally
determined in terms of:
A. Number of subordinates directly reporting to
him
B. Number of superiors to who one reports
C. Number of superiors from who he takes
orders
D. Number of tasks assigned
39. The law that grants eligibility to
Criminology Board Exam passers.
A. RA 6506
B. RA 9263
C. EO. 226
D. EO. 292
40. Which of the following administer the
PNP Entrance and Promotional Exam for
policemen as provided for under Republic
Act No. 8551?
A. Civil Service Commission
B. PNP
C. NAPOLCOM
D. IAS
41. A fact finding probe to determine a plant
adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of
security, with the corresponding
recommendation is:
A. Security Inspection
B. Security Survey
C. Risk Assessment
D. Formal Inspection
42. What is the most common and
most annoying type of human hazard?
A. Sabotage
B. Pilferage
C. Theft
D. Espionage
43. These are manually operated and
movable search lights; used for lighting for a
short period of time.
A. Stationary lighting
B. Portable Lighting
C. Emergency Lighting
D. Protective Lighting
44. Of the three major aspects of security, this is
considered as the most important since security
involves people, both as an asset to be protected
and as source of security threats.
A. Physical Security
B. Document Security
C. Air Cargo Security
D. Personnel Security
45. This is a local alarm system in which a bell or
siren is sounded with no predictable response.
The hope is that a neighbor or passing patrol car
will reach the alarm and call for police assistance,
but such a call is purely a matter of chance.
A. Auxiliary alarm system
B. Local alarm by chance
C. Central alarm system
D. Local alarm system
46. These are records which
reproduction will cause considerable
expense and labor, or considerable
delay.
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
47. These are security and safety measures
like physical barriers, security lightings,
safes and vaults, locks and other devices
designed to detect and impede hazards.
A. Detection measures
B. Deception measures
C. Passive measures
D. Active measures
48. These records are daily files,
routine in nature even if lost or
destroyed, will not affect operation or
administration.
A. Vital documents
B. Important documents
C. Useful documents
D. Non- essential documents
49. It projects wide beam illumination in long
and narrow horizontal strips, approximately
180 degrees in the horizontal plane and 15
to 30 degrees in the vertical plane.

A. Fresnel lights
B. Flood lights
C. Search lights
D. Street lights
50. It is the potential damage or loss of an
asset.

A. Hazard
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality
51. It is instilled as part of the building which holds
up to 10,000 cubic meters of essential items. At
least 12 feet in height, with enough ventilation and
fire proof of at least 1 hour.
A. Safe
B. Vault
C. File room
D. Protective cabinet
52. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistant
container usually a part of the building structure
used to keep and protect cash, document and
negotiable instruments.
A. Safe
B. Vault
C. File room
D. Protective Cabinet
53. This is the final line of defense at any facility
where papers, records, plans or cashable
instrument, precious jewelries or other especially
valuable assets are protected.
A. File room
B. Vaults
C. Protective cabinet
D. Both a & c
54. This is an additional outward inclined fixed
structure usually barbed wires placed above a
vertical fence to increase physical protection from
intruders of a certain area, this is known as;
A. Cellar Guard
B. Guard Control Station
C. Top Guard
D. Tower
55. It is a natural or man-made structure or
physical device which is capable of restricting,
deterring, or delaying illegal access to an
installation.
A. Protective alarm
B. Building wall
C. Barrier
D. Perimeter barrier
56. Under the standards on private security, the
minimum age required for a Security Manager or
Operator of a security agency is –
A. 40 years old
B. 35 years old
C. 30 years old
D. 25 years old
57. Conducted for a period of at least 4 hours, its
concern is to reiterate to employees that security is
an additional burden imposed on everyone who is
part of the company.
A. Refresher conference
B. Training conference
C. Security reminders
D. Debriefing
58. This serves as a forum to resolve
security problem and explain new rules and
regulations.
A. Refresher conference
B. Training conference
C. Security reminders
D. Debriefing
59. A lock which is commonly installed in safe
deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is
operated by utilizing combinations by means of a
dial.
A. Lever lock
B. Code operated lock
C. Electromagnetic lock
D. Card operated lock
60. A disc tumbler lock which is used in
automobiles would afford delay of at
least;
A. 5 to 10 minutes
B. 10 to 15 minutes
C. 15 to 20 minutes
D. 20 to 30 minutes
61. Under the law, the maximum ratio of a
firearm to every security guard in the
employment of private security agencies is:
A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:3
D. 1:4
62. A private security agency must initially
procure at least _____ pieces of licensed
firearms for use of its security guards.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 50
D. 70
63. A security unit operated and maintained by any
government entity other than the military or the
police, which is established and maintained for the
purpose of securing the office or compound and/or
extension of such government entity.
A. Company Security Force
B. Agency Security Force
C. Government Security Unit
D. None of these
64. Refers to the association of all licensed
security agencies and company security
forces.
A. PADPAO
B. PNP SOSIA
C. PNP SAGSD
D. PNP CSG
65. A security consultant must have at least
____ years experience in the operation and
management of security business.
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 20 years
66. Classification of one who steals due to
irresistible urge primarily because of
unexpected opportunity and little chance of
detection.
A. Systematic pilferer
B. Ordinary pilferer
C. Pickpocket
D. Casual pilferer
67. A regular license granted as private
security license card is valid for;
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
68. The exterior and interior parallel area near the
perimeter barrier of an industrial compound to afford
observation and patrol movement is known as
_______.
A. Clear zone
B. Exclusion area
C. Limited area
D. Restricted area
69. Areas which are always in close
surveillance.
A. Controlled areas
B. Limited areas
C. Exclusion areas
D. Clear zones
70. The simplest form of lock which uses
a bolt containing a notch called talon.
A. Warded locks
B. Pin tumbler lock
C. Cylinder locks
D. Tubular locks
71. A type of light wherein the intensity is
focused to the intruder while the
observer remains in comparative
darkness.
A. Glare projection
B. Controlled lighting
C. Stationary light
D. Search light
72. It is a mechanical, electrical,
hydraulic or electronic device designed
to prevent entry into a building, rooms
and etc.
A. Barriers
B. Keys
C. Safe
D. Locks
73. Minimum acceptable height for a
fence used as a security barrier.
A. 5 feet
B. 8 feet
C. 10 feet
D. 12 feet
74. To deny outsiders from visual
access in a certain facility what must be
constructed.
A. Full view fence
B. Chain link fence
C. Solid fence
D. Multiple fence
75. From the standpoint of security,
when should locks be changed?
A. At least once a year
B. At least twice a year
C. At least three times a year
D. On a quarterly basis
76. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the
use of electronic hardware, human guards and even
animals. In England, an owner to protect his compound
used this and they are not only effective but also the
cheapest to maintain. This man is using ______.
A. Doberman dogs
B. Geese
C. Tamed tigers and lions
D. Ducks
77. As a security chief of an industrial firm, inventory shows
that pilferage is rampant in the warehouses. What will be
your choice of action?
A. Tighten checking at exits of vehicles of the
compound/complex
B. Prepare your protective plans and confer with
management for immediate implementation
C. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage prone areas to catch
the culprits
D. To resign as you have failed your job
78. It is the susceptibility of a plant or
establishment to damage, loss or disruption
of operations due to various hazards.
A. Relative criticality
B. Relative vulnerability
C. Risk assessment
D. Risk analysis
79. For new applicants trying to acquire
a security guard license, the maximum
age is;
A. 30
B. 35
C. 40
D. 50
80. Who among the following exercises the
power to revoke, for cause, licenses issued
to security guards?
A. Chief of the PNP
B. Secretary, DILG
C. Undersecretary for Peace and Order
D. Chairman of the NAPOLCOM
81. The following are types of patrol
shift except one;
A. Staggered shift
B. Relief shift
C. Peak period shift
D. Midnight Shift
82. The advantage of this patrol is that, it can cover
the area that are not accessible by patrol cars & are
to wide to cover on foot & it can be useful for
surveillance in high crime area;
A. Bicycle patrol
B. Dog patrol
C. Horse patrol
D. Foot patrol
83. The following are strategic objective of police
omnipresence, except?
A. Feeling of confidence that the police are
constantly available to respond to any situation
B. Feeling of security on the part of the law abiding
citizen
C. Enhancement of traffic enforcement
D. Feeling of fear on the part of the would be
criminals
84. They are tasked to provide protection to our
waters from poachers & smuggling, illegal fishing &
all other illegal activities which directly affect the
water resources of the country.
A. Saturation patrol
B. Marine patrol
C. Aircraft patrol
D. Mounted patrol
85. In other countries this kind of patrol unit is very useful &
effective during special events as means of crowd control,
both the officer & the unit used for patrol must undergo
complete 40 hours training & certification before becoming
a member of patrol unit;
A. Bicycle patrol
B. Aircraft patrol
C. Horse patrol
D. Water craft patrol
86. The first automobile patrol was
introduced on what particular year by the
Manila Police Department;
A. May 16, 1954
B. May 17, 1954
C. May 18, 1954
D. May 19, 1954
87. The primary responsibility of this
type of patrol is to enhance traffic laws.
A. Foot Patrol
B. Bicycle Patrol
C. Automobile Patrol
D. Motorcycle Patrol
88. The responsibility of this unit is to conduct foot
patrol in areas of high crime, respond to unsecured
building to conduct searches and assist fellow
officers in tracking down wanted criminals.
A. Mounted patrol
B. Marine patrol
C. Aviation unit patrol
D. Canine Patrol
89. Compared to human’s ability to
smell, a dog is capable of recognizing
an odor -
A. 10 hundreds times
B. 10 thousands times
C. 10 million times
D. 10 billion times
90. As a standard operating procedure in patrol operations,
interrupt another officer’s radio transmission only -
A. When that officer is having a chat with the police
dispatcher
B. If your message is more important than what he is
transmitting
C. When you can not use the telephone or cellular phone to
contact the headquarters
D. In the case of an emergency
91. It is a common police patrol practice particularly
in high-crime areas where persons whose behavior
is suspicious are accosted on the street,
interrogated and frisked.
A. High visibility patrol
B. Reactive patrol
C. Stop and frisk
D. Interview/ Interrogation
92. It is based on the premise that the “aura
of police omnipresence” in the community
can reduce certain types of crimes.
A. High visibility patrol
B. Low visibility patrol
C. Proactive patrol
D. Reactive patrol
93. What is the patrol pattern performed at
the start of the 8- hour tour of duty of the
patrol officer?
A. Straightway and criss-cross
B. Clockwise
C. Zigzag or free wheeling
D. Counter- clockwise
94. Persons, places, things, situations or conditions
possessing a high potential for criminal attack or for
creation of any other type of problem necessitating
a demand for immediate police service.
A. Hazard
B. Police Hazard
C. Police Discretion
D. Police Problems
95. It is restricted to small areas and used to
deal with special problems of prevention and
repression that cannot be handled by the
officers in radio cars.
A. Foot patrol
B. Motorcycle patrol
C. Low visibility patrol
D. High visibility patrol
96. The most extensively used and effective means
of transportation for police patrol. It covers wider
area, provide constant availability to public calls and
provides an element of surprise, especially when a
crime is in progress.
A. Motorcycle Patrol
B. Automobile Patrol
C. Plainclothes Patrol
D. Helicopter Patrol
97. Most frequently used and so far the
best suited for all around police work.
A. Doberman Pinchers
B. German Shepherd
C. Bloodhounds
D. Giant Schnauzers
98. It is large or disorderly crowd which is
bent on riotous or destructive action is
known as_______.
A. Mob
B. Agitated Crowd
C. Psychological crowd
D. Expressive crowd
99. Patrol officers perform specific
predetermined preventive functions on a
planned and systematic basis.
A. High Visibility patrol
B. Directed deterrent patrol
C. Low visibility patrol
D. Split force patrol
100. It is the inflection of the voice ,
emphasis to given words, gestures,
behaviors or expressions of the body that
impart information to a receiver.
A. Formal communication
B. Informal communication
C. Verbal communication
D. Non- verbal communication
101. This is the process of designating a
police officer at a particular function, duty or
responsibility.
A. Police Assignment
B. Police Management
C. Police Training and Development
D. Police Placement
102. What is the ideal Police response
time in a particular incident?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
103. Which type of patrol would enable the
Police officer to have the advantage of
mobility and stealth?
A. Bicycle patrol
B. Automobile patrol
C. Foot patrol
D. Horse Patrol
104. It is a fixed point or location to which an
officer is assigned for duty, such as a
designated desk or office.
A. Post
B. Sector
C. Unit
D. Route
105. Which of the following is not true about
patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police
department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the police
department that can be eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police department
106. This patrol tactic is designed to increase
the number of apprehension of law violator to
engage in certain types of crimes:
A. Preventive Patrol
B. High-Visibility Patrol
C. Low-Visibility Patrol
D. Proactive Patrol
107. What is the new concept, police strategy which
integrates the police and community interests into a
working relationship so as to produce the desired
organizational objectives of peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol
B. Directed Patrol
C. Community Relation
D. Team policing
108. The police must make an effort to ascertain and amaze
upon the law abiding citizens and would be criminals alike
that the police are always existing to respond to any situation
at a moment’s notice and he will just around the corner at all
times. This statement refers to:
A. Police Omnipresence
B. Police Patrol
C. Police Discretion
D. None of these
109. Is the most powerful tool of mass
communication and corner stone in
civilization?
A. Written Language
B. Speech
C. Spoken Language
D. None of these
110. It is the primary objective of police
patrol operations:
A. Crime Prevention
B. Protect and Serve
C. Law enforcement
D. All of these
111. Police dogs used for patrolling, are especially
useful in high crime areas, dangerous search
situations, dealing with street gangs, dispersing
crowd, taking fleeing suspects into custody,
guarding suspects, searching alleys, parks, schools
and other large building. Police dogs are believed to
be first used by the:
A. Europeans
B. Egyptians
C. Japanese
D. Americans
112. The act of expelling a squatter by
the legal process is called:
A. Eviction
B. Demolition
C. Expulsion
D. Deployment
113. What plan is needed to accomplish the
purpose of patrol, crime investigation, traffic,
vice, and juvenile control.
A. Operational plan
B. Tactical plan
C. Procedural plan
D. Strategic plan
114. What patrol method allows the officer to
effectively patrol high-crime areas with the
necessary physical protection and security?
A. Automobile patrol
B. Foot patrol
C. Dog patrol
D. TV patrol
115. What do passive dogs do when
exposed to fumes, odor or illegal drugs?
A. Sit
B. Bark
C. Scratch’
D. Bite
116. A crew which is assigned to a
mobile car usually consist of:
A. A driver and intelligence agent
B. A driver and traffic man
C. A driver and a recorder
D. A driver, recorder and supervisor
117. This patrol method utilizes disguise,
deception and lying in wait rather than upon
high- visibility patrol techniques.

A. Low- visibility patrol

B. Directed deterrent patrol
C. Decoy patrol
D. High-visibility patrol
118. Subordinates should only be under the
control of one (1) supervisor. This is the
principle of _________.
A. Unity of command
B. Delegation of authority
C. Span of control
D. Chain of command
119. Which among the following is the
most expensive type of patrol to put up?
A. Foot Patrol

B. Automobile Patrol
C. Bicycle Patrol
D. Aircraft Patrol
120. Its primary purpose is to eliminate
the desire and opportunity to commit
crime.
A. Patrol
B. Foot patrol
C. Police patrol
D. Mobile patrol
121. It is the product resulting from the collection,
evaluation, analysis, integration and interpretation of
all available information which should be known in
advance to initiate course of action.
A. Information
B. Intelligence
C. Police Intelligence
D. National Intelligence
122. It is the timely conveyance of
information by any suitable means to
those who need it.
A. Planning
B. Collection
C. Processing
D. Dissemination
123. Is a place, building, enclosed mobile, or
an apartment where police undercover men
meet his action agent for debriefing and
reporting purposes?
A. Drop
B. Safe House
C. Leapfrog
D. House
124. Persons who give information in
consideration of price or reward or
promise.
A. Informer
B. Informant
C. Mercenaries
D. All of these
125. It is the product resulting from the collection
evaluation analysis integration and interpretation of
criminal activity and which is immediately or
potentially significant to police planning.
A. Strategic Intelligence
B. Police Intelligence
C. Intelligence
D. Information
126. Employed where the general
impression of the subject’s habit and
associate are required.
A. loose tail shadowing
B. close tail shadowing
C. rough tail shadowing
D. none of these
127. It is a convenient, secure,
unsuspecting place where a police asset
and handler leaves a note.
A. Stake out
B. Convoy
C. Drop
D. Safe house
128. It is the combination of analyzed
data to form a logical picture.
A. Integration
B. Infiltration
C. Penetration
D. Deception
129. The information is obtained through direct
inter- communication in which the other party is
unaware of the specific purpose of the
conversation.
A. Penetration
B. Infiltration
C. Elicitation
D. Surveillance
130. Considered as the most
dangerous type of informant.
A. Double crosser informant
B. Woman informant
C. Mercenary informant
D. False informant
131. MOSSAD is for Israel, NICA is for
what?
A. Philippines
B. Great Britain
C. Russia
D. USA
132. If the information or documents are
produced openly without regard as to whether
the subject of the investigation becomes
knowledgeable of the purpose/s for which it is
being gathered.
A. Overt operation
B. Covert operation
C. Made surveillance
D. All of these
133. Which of the following is the most
common reason why an informer gives
information to the police?
A. Wants to be known to the police
B. Monetary reward
C. As good citizen
D. Revenge
134. In surveillance, the following are done to hide
the appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT.
A. Changing license plate of surveillance vehicle
B. Putting on and removing hats, coats and
sunglasses
C. Change of setting arrangement within the
surveillance vehicle
D. Keep the cars behind the subjects car
135. The intelligence officer submits a
regular report consistent within itself to his
commander, in the parlance of intelligence
cycle, this means:
A. Reliability
B. Accuracy
C. Pertinence
D. Integration
136. It is a kind of Surveillance involving the
used of scientific devices such as video
camera, telescope, video recorder and others
is called:
A. Mustard Plaster surveillance
B. Stakeout Surveillance
C. Technical Surveillance
D. Intermittent Surveillance
137. What type of cover uses an
actual or a true background?
A. Artificial Cover
B. Multiple Cover
C. Natural Cover
D. Cover within a cover
138. The type of undercover operation wherein
techniques are applies for longer time and is
considered as the most different investigative
activity yet the most rewarding.

A. Casing
B. Penetration
C. Undercover Operation
D. Surveillance
139. The act of assigning the classification of
classified matter to category higher than that
previously assigned to it.
A. Declassify
B. Classify
C. Upgrading
D. Regrading/ Reclassify
140. An agent through whom false
information is leaked to the enemy.
A. Expandable agent
B. Double agent
C. Agent in place
D. False Agent
141. It is the insertion of action
agent inside the target organization.
A. Penetration
B. Infiltration
C. Surveillance
D. Elicitation
142. It is an art or science of making,
devising, inventing or protecting codes
and cipher.
A. Cryptanalysis
B. Cryptography
C. Steganography
D. Cipher
143. One of the most brilliant intelligence
agent. He is the Chief of the Austro-
Hungarian secret service and at the same
time agent of Russia.
A. Napoleon Bonaparte
B. Karl Schulmeister
C. Alfred Redl
D. Romano Sertoriuos
144. It is a type of counter-intelligence
measure designed to ensure safeguarding of
information.
A. Denial Measure
B. Detection Measure
C. Deception Measure
D. Preventive Measure
145. He was the famous author of
the book entitled “The Art of War”?
A. Mao Tse Tung
B. Gautama Buddha
C. Confucius
D. Sun Tzu
146. In intelligence evaluation, the evaluation
rating of A-1means;
A. Completely reliable – Confirmed by other
sources
B. Not Usually reliable – Possibly true
C. Fairly reliable – Probably true
D. Usually reliable – Probably true
147. What form of intelligence is involved when
information is obtained of the person against whom
the information or document may be used, or the
information is clandestinely acquired?
A. Covert operation
B. Overt operation
C. Active operation
D. Undercover
148. When the subject identifies or obtains
knowledge that the investigator is conducting
surveillance on him, the latter is,
A. Sold out
B. Burnt out
C. Cut out
D. Get out
149. Known as the “Father of Modern
Political espionage”?
A. Joseph Fouche
B. Frederick the Great
C. Delilah
D. Moses
150. Disguise or secret observation of places,
persons or vehicles for purpose of obtaining
information.
A. Undercover work
B. Surveillance
C. Casing
D. Infiltration
151. Wiretap is a concealed listening or recording
device connected to a communications circuit, while
_____ is an electronic listening device, such as a
hidden microphone, used in surveillance.
A. Bugging
B. Eavesdropping
C. Listen in
D. Transmission
152. It is consider the best equipment in
counter- intelligence operations as far as air
and maritime surveillance is concerned.
A. Computer
B. CCTV – Camera
C. Video Recorder
D. Radar
153. The requirement that the dissemination of
classified matters be limited strictly to those
persons who are police officials.
A. Classified matters
B. Compromise
C. Need to know principle
D. Compartmentation
154. A document information was supplied by the
Regional Office of the National Bureau of
Investigation in response to an inquiry of a Police
Intelligence Unit. The said document will be treated
as a record coming from:
A. Local Agency Check
B. National Agency Check
C. International Agency Check
D. Local Clearance Check
155. Intelligence cycle is very important in the processing of information.
A sea of information is useless if they are not processed and analyzed,
what the order of the intelligence cycle is.
1. Dissemination and use
2. Processing of Information
3. Collecting of information
4. Planning of the collection effort.
A. 4231
B. 3241
C. 3421
D. 4321
156. John furnishes regularly an intelligence
information to the operatives of the military
intelligence group for a fee. What is john’s
classification in the intelligence world?
A. Informer
B. Surveillant
C. Informant
D. Undercover
157. Because of the highest level of security required
to an agent handler. An intelligence operative should
always keep the following points in mind except:
A. Never use offensive terms
B. Treat informants fairly
C. Permit informant to take charge of the operation
D. Meet informant on Neutral Ground
158. The following is the order of the phases of informant
activity.
1. Utilization Phase
2. Recruitment Phase
3. Training Phase
4. Termination Phase
A. 1234
B. 3214
C. 2341
D. 2314
159. A logical and orderly examination of
the intelligence factors affecting the
accomplishment of the mission:
A. Situation Map
B. Intelligence Summary
C. Intelligence Files
D. Intelligence Estimate
160. Roger, a suspected drug dealer noticed that he
is being followed by a group of person every time he
is in town doing illegal business with some of his
partner. In surveillance, this is called:
A. Fixed Surveillance
B. Moving Surveillance
C. Shadowing
D. Convoy
161. What type of organizational structure in
which quick decisions are made because of
direct line authority and discipline is easily
administered?
A. Line and Staff Organization
B. Functional Organization
C. Line Organization
D. Organization
162. The placement of subordinate into
the position for which their capabilities
best fit them is referred to as;
A. Staffing
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Planning
163. What is the method of separation
from the police service after completing
the required age for length of service?
A. Retirement
B. Dismissal
C. Demotion
D. AWOL
164. Complaints against personnel of the
Internal Affairs Office shall be brought to
the,
A. NAPOLCOM
B. Internal Affairs Service
C. Inspector General’s Office
D. PLEB
165. It is the basic process of selecting
goals and determining how to achieve
them.
A. Plan
B. Planning
C. Police Plan
D. Police Planning
166. It is the process of allocating authority,
responsibility and accountability to people, as well as
the establishment of channels of inter-group
communication of secure coordination and efficiency.
A. Organizing
B. Police Organization
C. Coordinating
D. Controlling
167. Defined as saying and doing the
right thing at the right way. The
lubricating oil in human relationship.
A. Tact
B. Initiative
C. Loyalty
D. Courtesy
168. It involves what are to be done in
the form of orders or broad statement of
action.
A. Direction
B. Supervision
C. Policy Formulation
D. Execution
169. The waiving of initial appointment
are done in the following sequence:
A. Age, Weight, Height, Education
B. Age, Height, Weight, Education
C. Age, Education, Weight, Height
D. Age Education, Height, Weight
170. It is the planned and progressive
development skills, knowledge, and
understanding, attitudes, interest and the will to
work.
A. Career Development
B. Training
C. Schooling
D. Education
171. It refers to a status of change of a policeman
amounting to dynamic elevation of qualified or
deserving members as opportunities occurs, to
assignment or duties of greater importance.
A. Demotion
B. Promotion
C. Upgrading
D. Recognition
172. It shall be accomplished by the investigator or
member making the preliminary investigation of
crimes reported to the police and shall submit this
report at the end of his tour of duty.
A. Investigative Report
B. Complaint record
C. Case Report
D. Progress Report
173. An account in writing, print or in some other
permanent form intended to perpetrate knowledge
of facts or events. They are the primary means of
communication among the members of the police
department.
A. Report
B. Police Blotter
C. Records
D. Miscellaneous Records
174. It shall be used as the second and
succeeding page of all kinds of report.
A. Wanted Person Report
B. Accident Report
C. Technical Report
D. Continuation Report
175. The interview shall aid in determining the
likeableness, affability, attitude towards,
outside interest, forcefulness, conversational
ability, disagreeable mannerism, etc.
A. Character and Background Investigation
B. Neuro - Psychiatric Test
C. Final Committee Interview
D. Initial evaluation
176. It manifest lack of adequate ability and fitness for the
satisfactory performance of police duties. This has reference
to any physical, moral or intellectual quality the lack of which
substantially incapacitates one to perform the duties of a
peace officer.
A. Dishonesty
B. Incompetency
C. Oppression
D. Violation of Law
177. These are report required for all
persons arrested.
A. Case Records
B. Arrest Records
C. Identification Records
D. Jail Booking Records
178. These present an analytical overview of
data, showing an activity or relationship in the
simplest manner. They often contain a
legend.
A. Collection plan
B. Chronological tables
C. Charts
D. Conclusions
179. These are specific and measurable
ways to accomplish the goals.
A. Mission
B. Goals
C. Objectives
D. None of these
180. It is a field of management involving planning,
organizing, directing and controlling the efforts of the
group of people toward achieving a common goal
with maximum dispatch and minimum expense.
A. Management
B. Police personnel management
C. Personnel management
D. All of these
181. What is the minimum rank of
Indonesia National Police?
A. PO1
B. Junsa
C. Police Constable
D. 2nd bhayangkara
182. If PNP has NAPOLCOM, Japan’s
NPA has ___________________.
A. Ministry of Public Security
B. National Public Safety Commission
C. Ministry of Internal Affairs
D. Department of Home Affairs
183. PNP: Director General;
Indonesian Police:
A. Police Commissioner General
B. Police General
C. Inspector Police
D. Inspector General
184. The present Police Force of the
Republic of Singapore.
A. Republic of Singapore Police Force
B. Singapore Federal Police
C. Singapore Police Force
D. Singapore National Police
185. The highest rank of the police
system of London is –
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Commissioner
C. Police General
D. General
186. What is the minimum educational
qualification for a Royal Thai Police
Officer?
A. High School Graduate
B. Baccalaureate Degree Holder
C. Upper Secondary School Graduate
D. Master’s Degree
187. This is the official police force
for Indonesia.
A. The Federal Police of Indonesia
B. Indonesia Federal Police Force
C. Indonesia Republic National Police
D. The Indonesian Police
188. The Philippines has PNP; the
Hong Kong has ________________.
A. Royal Hong Kong Police Force
B. Hong Kong National Police
C. Federal Police of Hong Kong
D. Hong Kong Police
189. What is the minimum rank of
Police Nationale de France Officer?
A. Trooper
B. Probation Constable
C. Constable
D. Keeper of Peace
190. Retirement age for the Royal
Malaysian Police is attainment at
age__________.
A. 56 years old
B. 58 years old
C. 60 years old
D. 70 years old
191. Highest ranking officer for
People’s Police Force of Myanmar.
A. Director General
B. Commissioner of police
C. Police General
D. Police Constable
192. State Police of United States of America is
under the Department of Laws and Public Safety with
the highest ranking officer of Superintendent. What is
their lowest ranking officer?
A. Constable
B. Trooper
C. Probation Constable
D. Keepers of the peace
193. Highest ranking officer of
Federal Police of Germany?
A. Inspector of Police
B. Chief Superintendent
C. Superintendent
D. Police General
194. Philippine National Police is under the
Department of Interior and Local Government.
Police Nationale de France is
under_________.
A. Ministry of Interior
B. Ministry of Defense
C. Ministry of Home Affairs
D. None of these
195. Retirement age for the officers of
State Police of United States of America.
A. 55
B. 56
C. 60
D. 62
196. INTERPOL means _________.
A. International Criminal Police
Organization
B. International Police Organization
C. International Police
D. International Organization of Police
197. It was considered as the supreme
governing body of INTERPOL.
A. General Secretariat
B. General Assembly
C. Executive Committee
D. Advisers
198. The present INTERPOL`s
Executive Committee President.
A. Wei Menghong
B. Meng Hongwei
C. Jolly R. Bugarin
D. Kim Jong Yang
199. The General Secretariat of
INTERPOL is located at?
A. Vienna, Austria
B. Bangkok, Thailand
C. Lyon, France
D. Buenos Aires, Argentina
200. The following are the seven (7) seven (7)
Regional Offices of INTERPOL`s General
Secretariat; Except.
A. Canada
B. Zimbabwe
C. Kenya
D. Argentina
THANK YOU!
Naay question?