ELEMENTS

1. The unending sequence of integers

formed according to the rule that each
integer is the sum of the preceding two.

A. Fermats last theorem

B. Fibonacci numbers
C. Goldbach conjecture
D. Triangular number
 2. It was the conjecture that the number in
the form, F2 = 22+1 will always result to a
prime number, now ever proved wrong.
What do you call the numbers obtained
using the said formula?

A. Mersene numbers
B. Fermats numbers
C. Eulers numbers
D. Pseudo prime
 3. A theorem which states that if n > 2, the
equation x2 + y2 = zn cannot be solved in
positive integers x, y and z.

A. Pythagorean theorem
B. Mersenne theorem
C. Goldbach conjecture
D. Fermats theorem
 4. The number π = 3.141592563… If only four
decimals are required , it becomes 3.1415.
This process is called

A. Rounding off
B. Truncation
C. Rounding up
D. Rounding down
 5. A set of all subsets to a given set,
containing the empty set and the original
set.

A. Empty
B. null
C. power set
D. union
 6. A set containing the elements that is
common to the original sets.

A. union
B. intersection
C. normal set
D. subset
 7. If
an infinite series has a finite sum, it is
referred to as a

A. convergent series
B. divergent series
C. geometric series
D. none of the above
 8. If an infinite series has no sum, it is
referred to as a

A. convergent series
B. divergent series
C. geometric series
D. none of the above
 9. The sum of the factorial 1 + 1/1! + ½! + 1/3!
+ ¼! + …is

A. π
B. e
C. √2
D. √3
 10. Refers exclusively to equations with
integer solutions.

A. Determinate equations
B. Indeterminate equations
C. Diophantine equations
D. L’Hospital’s equations
 11. “My Dear Aunt Sally” is the basic rule
used in operation of algebra. Which is used
in determining the signs of trigonometric
functions in all quadrants?

A. All chemist thick solution

B. All students can think
C. All students take chemistry
D. All teachers can sing
 12. The investigation of numbers, space and
many generalizations of these concepts
created by the intellectual genius of man.

A. Science
B. Arts
C. Mathematics
D. Astronomy
 13. QED is often written at the end of a proof
to indicate that its conclusion has been
reached. This means

A. Quod erat daciendum

B. Duos erat demonstrandum
C. Quod erat decientrandum
D. None of the above
 14. A sequence of numbers where the
succeeding term is greater than the
preceding term.

A. Isometric series
B. Divergent series
C. Dissonant series
D. Convergent series
 15. The process of reasoning wherein a final
conclusion is obtained by experimental
method.

A. Mathematical deduction
B. Mathematical opposition
C. Mathematical conversion
D. Mathematical induction
 16. A sequence having a defined first and last
terms is called

A. Infinite sequence
B. Convergent sequence
C. Divergent sequence
D. Finite sequence
 17. A series is said to be _____________ if it
converges when the terms are replaced by
their absolute value.

A. Absolute convergent
B. Conditional convergent
C. Infinite convergent
D. Finite convergent
 18. A convergent series is said to be ________
if it diverges when the terms are replaces by
their absolute values.

A. Absolute convergent
B. Conditional convergent
C. Infinite convergent
D. Finite convergent
 19. Refers to the product of the several prime
numbers occurring in the denominations,
each taken with its greater multiplicity.

A. Least common denominator

B. Least common multiple
C. Least square
D. A or B
 20. The sum of exponents of the several
variables of the term is referred to as
_____of the term.

A. Power
B. Degree
C. Partial product
D. Absolute power
 21. Venn diagram is a pictorial
representation which helps us visualize the
relations with sets.

A. John Venn
B. Jan Michael Venn
C. James Venn
D. Stephen Venn
 22. The symbol of equality (=) was
introduced in 1557 by

A. Bhaskara
B. Brahmagupta
C. Leonhard Euler
D. Robert Recorde
 23. In Physics, if Lf and Lv are the latent heat
of fusion and vaporization, respectively,
which of the following equations apply in
determining the amount of energy needed
to freeze a liquid?

A. Q = -mLf
B. Q = -mLv
C. Q = mLv
D. Q = mLf
 24. Steels can be strengthen by all of the
following practices, EXCEPT:

A. Annealing
B. Work hardening
C. Quenching and tempering
D. Grain refinement
 25. __________ is the quality of being
physically elongated.

A. Flexibility
B. Ductility
C. Malleability
D. Plasticity
 26. When the total kinetic energy of system
is the same as before and after collision of
two bodies, it is called

A. Plastic collision
B. Inelastic collision
C. Elastic collision
D. Static collision
 27. Momentum is a property related to the
object’s _________.

A. Motion and mass

B. Mass and acceleration
C. Motion and weight
D. Weight and velocity
 28. The amount of heat needed to change
solid to liquid is

A. Condensation
B. Cold fusion
C. Latent heat of fusion
D. Solid fusion
 29. The energy stored in a stretched elastic
material such as a spring is

A. Mechanical energy
B. Elastic potential energy
C. Internal energy
D. Kinetic energy
 30. According to this law, “the force between
two charges varies directly as the magnitude
of each charge and inversely as the square of
the distance between them”,

A. Law of universal gravitation

B. Coulombs law
C. Newton’s Law
D. Inverse square law
 31. A free falling body is a body in a
rectilinear motion with constant _________.

A. Acceleration
B. Speed
C. Deceleration
D. Velocity
 32. Centrifugal force ___________.

A. Directly proportional to the radius of the

curvature
B. Directly proportional to the square of the
tangential velocity
C. Inversely proportional to the square of
tangential velocity
D. Directly proportional to the square of the
weight of the object
 33. The fluid pressure is the same in all
directions. This is known as

A. Pascal’s principle
B. Bernoulli’s theorem
C. Ideal fluid principle
D. Archimedes principle
 34. The reciprocal of bulk modulus of any
fluid is called

A. Volume stress
B. Compressibility
C. Shape elasticity
D. Volume strain
 35. Momentum is a product of mass
and ____________.

A. Acceleration
B. Velocity
C. Force
D. Time
 36. One horsepower is equivalent to

A. 746 watts
B. 7460 watts
C. 74.6 watts
D. 7.46 watts
 37. Which statement about area moment of inertia
is false?

A. I = ∫ d2 (dA)
B. The area of the moment of inertia arises
whenever the magnitude of the surface forces
varies linearly with distance.
C. The moment of inertia of a large area is equal to
the summation of the inertia of the smaller area
within the large area.
D. The areas closest to the axis of interest are the
most significant.
 38. Which of the following affects most of the
electrical and thermal properties of materials?

A. The atomic weight expressed in grams per

gram-atom
B. The electrons, particularly the outermost
ones
C. The magnitude of electrical charge of the
protons
D. The weight of the atoms
 39. Which of the following is NOT a
method of non-destructive testing of steel
casting and forgings?

A. Radiography
B. Magnetic particle
C. Ultrasonic
D. Chemical analysis
 40. Compressive strength of fully cured
concrete is most directly related to:

A. Sand-gravel
B. Water-cement ratio
C. Aggregate gradation
D. Absolute volume of cement
 41. According to the ACI code, the modular
ratio, n, of structural concrete with a 28-day
ultimate compressive strength, f’c, of 3000 is
nearest to:

A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
 42. What are valence electrons?

A. The outershell electrons

B. Electrons with positive charge
C. The electrons of the complete quantum
shells
D. The K-quantum shell electrons
 43. What are Van der Waals forces?

A. Weak secondary bonds between atoms

B. Forces between electrons and protons
C. Primary bonds between atoms
D. Forces not present in liquids
 44. All of the following statements about air entrained
concrete are correct, EXCEPT:

A. Air entrained is recommended when concrete is

exposed to severe frost action.
B. With air entrainment, the quantity of water to
produce a given consistency (slump) is reduced.
C. With air entrainment, the quantity of water to
produce a specified 28 day compressive strength is
reduced.
D. Air entrainment reduces resistance to the freeze –
thaw that occurs when salt is used to melt ice or snow.
 45. A particle is in a one-dimensional box of
length 2L. What is the energy level of the
ground state?
h^2
A. 32mL^2

h^2
B. 16mL^2

h^2
C. 8mL^2

h^2
D. 4mL^2
 46. Which of the following statements about
nuclear fusion is false?

A. A typical fusion reaction releases less energy than

a typical fusion reaction.
B. Because of the energy required to produce nuclear
fusion, it cannot yet be used by man.
C. A typical fusion reaction releases more energy per
unit mass than a typical fission reaction.
D. Fusion has advantages over fission because of a
greater availability of fuel and a lack of some of
the dangers fission.
 47. What is the total relativistic energy of a
particle if its mass is equal to 1 slug when it
is traveling with a certain speed, v?

A. 1
B. C2 – 1
C. C2
D. C2 + 1
 48. A sequence denotes ________.

A. Order
B. Permutation
C. Combination
D. Series
 49. A series is defined as the _______.

A. Sum
B. Quotient
C. Difference
D. Product
 50. If the series has an infinite number of
terms, then it is _________.

A. An infinite series
B. A series
C. A finite series
D. A function
 51. If the sequence has n terms, then it is
________.

A. A finite sequence
B. An infinite sequence
C. A series
D. A function
 52. The terms of an arithmetic sequence has
a common __________.

A. Factor
B. Difference
C. Product
D. Quotient
 53. Lessening of the value of an asset due to
the decrease in the quantity available
(referring to the natural resources, coal, oil,
etc.)

A. Depreciation
B. Depletion
C. Inflation
D. Incremental cost
 54. Is the simplest form of business
organization.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Enterprise
D. Corporation
 55. An association of two or more persons
for a purpose of engaging in a profitable
business.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise
C. Partnership
D. Corporation
 56. A distinct legal entity which can
practically transact any business transaction
which a real person could do.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Enterprise
C. Partnership
D. Corporation
 57. Double taxation is a disadvantage of
which business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. Enterprise
 58. Which is not a type of business
organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Corporation
C. Enterprise
D. Partnership
 59. What is the minimum number of
incorporators in order that a corporation be
organized?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 7
 60. In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

A. The partners are not liable for the liabilities

of the partnership.
B. The partnership assets (excluding the
partners’ personal assets) only will be used to
pay the liabilities.
C. The partners’ personal assets are attached to
the debt of the people.
D. The partners may sell stock to general
additional capital.
 61. Which is true about corporation?

A. It is the not best form of business

organization
B. The minimum number of incorporators to
start a corporation is three.
C. Its life is dependent on the lives of the
incorporators.
D. The stockholders of the corporation are only
liable to the extent of their investments.
 62. Which is true about partnership?

A. It has a perpetual life.

B. It will be desolved if one of the partners
ceases to be connected with the
partnership.
C. It can be handed down from one
generation of partners to another.
D. Its capitalization must be equal for each
partner.
 63. Represent ownership and enjoys certain
preferences than ordinary stock.

A. Authorization capital stock

B. Preferred stock
C. Common stock
D. Incorporators stock
 64. All of the following processes strengthen metals,
EXCEPT:

A. Annealing above the recrystallization temperature.

B. Work hardening by mechanical deformation below the
recrystallization (cold working).
C. Heat treatment such as quenching and tempering, for
production of a finer microstructure.
D. Precipitation processes, such as age hardening, which
produce high strength by formation of sub microscopic
phases during low temperature treatment.
 65. The valence band model used to explain metallic
conduction is based on all of the following statements,
EXCEPT:
A. Each valence band may contain up to 2n electrons/n
atom; each electron lies at a discretely different level.
B. Fermi energy level, Ef, is essentially temperature
independent, and is the energy at which 50% of
available energy states are occupied.
C. A conduction band lies at the next higher set of
electronic energy levels above those occupied at the
ground state.
D. Conduction occurs when an electron remains in its
extent valence band.
 66. Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically
conducive, with electrons as majority
carriers, when doped with which of the
following?

A. Nothing
B. Antimony
C. Boron
D. Germanium
 67. Which of the following is standard
temperature and pressure (STP)?

A. 0 K and one atmospheric pressure

B. 0 F and zero pressure
C. 32 F and zero pressure
D. 0 C and one atmospheric pressure
 68. When the emitter to base of an npn transistor
is forward biased, and base to collector is reverse
biased, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:

A. Electrons are majority carriers in the n- emitter

and n- collector regions.
B. Electrons are minority carriers in the p – base
region.
C. Holes are majority carriers in the p – base region.
D. The emitter is positive with respect to the
collector.
 69. All of the following statements about solid solutions
are correct, EXCEPT:
A. Solid solutions can result when basic structure of the
solvent can accommodate solute additions
B. In solid solution larger solute atoms occupy the
interstitial space between solvent atoms that are located
at the lattices sites
C. Solid solutions may result by substitution of one atomic
species for another, provided radii and electronic
structure are compatible
D. Order – disorder transitions that occur at elevated
temperature in solid solutions involve changes due to
thermal agitation from preferred orientation to random
occupancy of lattice sites
 70. What is the strong bond between
hydrogen atoms known as?

A. The ionic bond

B. Ionic and metallic bond
C. The metallic bond
D. The covalent bond
 71. All of the following statements about ferromagnetic
are correct, EXCEPT:
A. Magnetic domains are small volumes existent within a
single crystal where atomic magnetic moments are
unidirectionally aligned.
B. Domains are randomly oriented when unmagnetized.
On magnetization, domains oriented with the external
field grow at the expense of the unaligned domains.
C. Impurities, inclusions and strain hardening interfere
with change of domain boundaries, and to the
permanency of a magnet.
D. High magnetic susceptibility of ferromagnetic
materials disappears below the Curie temperature.
 72. All of the following statements about steels are correct,
EXCEPT:
A. Yield strength of commercially available heat treated alloy
steels does not exceed 200, 00 psi
B. High temperature alloys used in jet engine turbine blades
can withstand 2000 F continuously over extended periods
C. Intergranular corrosion of chromium – nickel stainless
steels is reduced when stabilized by addition of columbium
(niobium), titatium or tantalum to preferentially form
carbides and prevent chromium depletion and chromium
carbide precipitation is grain boundary areas
D. Abrasion resistance of extra strength steels may be
obtained by increasing hardness to 225 – 400 Brinell at the
expense of some ductility and toughness
 73. The center of gravity of an isosceles
triangle whose height is H on the median
line

A. 2/3 H from the base

B. 1/3 H from the vertex
C. ¾ H from the vertex
D. 2/3 H from the vertex
 74. The standard equation of a straight line y
– y1 = m(x – x1) is called

A. Point – slope form

B. Slope form
C. Slope – intercept form
D. Two – point form
 75. Which of the following is most suited in
evaluating and comparing alternatives with
different lives?

A. ROR method
B. ROI method
C. Present worth method
D. Uniform annual cost method
 76. Share of participation in a corporation

A. Partnership
B. Stock
C. Franchise
D. Monopoly
 77. To be responsible and in-charge of the
preparation of the plans, design and
estimates of a mechanical plant.

A. PME
B. CPM
C. ME
D. CPM, ME, or PME
 78. What is the unit of force in SI?

A. Joule
B. Newton
C. Watt
D. Hp
 79. Any influence capable of producing a
change in the motion of an object

A. Force
B. Vector
C. Velocity
D. Acceleration
 80. Finding the resultant of two or more
forces is called

A. Composition of forces
B. Concurrent forces
C. Resolution of forces
D. Collinear forces
 81. An oblique equilateral parallelogram:

A. Square
B. Rectangle
C. Rhombus
D. Trapezoid
 82. All of the following statements about mechanical failure are
true, EXCEPT:

A. Brittle fracture occurs with little plastic deformation and

relatively small energy absorption
B. Ductile fracture is characterized by significant amounts of
energy absorption and plastic deformation (evidenced by
elongation and reduction in cross-sectional area)
C. Ductile – brittle transition in failure mode occurs at reduced
temperature for most materials, because fracture strength
remains constant with temperature while yield strength
increases as temperature is reduced. At high temperature
yield strength is least; at low temperature fracture strength is
least.
D. Fatigue failure due to cyclic stress frequency dependent.
 83. All of the following statements about rusting
are correct, EXCEPT:

A. Contact with water, and oxygen are necessary for

rusting to occur.
B. Contact with a more electropositive metal
reduces rusting.
C. Halides aggravate rusting, a process which
involves electrochemical oxidation-reduction
reactions.
D. Pitting occurs in oxygen – rich anodic areas, and
the rust is deposited nearby.
 84. An amount of money invested at interest
per annum will double in approximately

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years
 85. The 72 rule of thumb is used to
determine

A. How many years money will triple

B. How many years money will double
C. How many years to a mass 1 million
D. How many years to quadruple the money
 86. To triple the principal, one must use

A. Integration
B. Derivatives
C. Logarithms
D. Implicit functions
 87. A currency traded in a foreign exchange
market for which the demand is consistently
high in relation to its supply.

A. Money market
B. Hard currency
C. Treasury bill
D. Certificate of deposit
 88. Everything a company owns and which
has a money value is classified as an asset.
Which of the following is classified as an
asset:

A. Intangible assets
B. Fixed assets
C. Trade investments
D. All of these
 89. Which is an example of intangible
assets?

A. Cash
B. Investment in subsidiary companies
C. Furniture
D. Patents
 90. Land, buildings, plant and machinery
are examples of

A. Current assets
B. Trade investments
C. Fixed assets
D. Intangible assets
 91. An increase in the value of a capital asset
is called

A. Profit
B. Capital gain
C. Capital expenditure
D. Capital stock
 92. The reduction in the money value of a
capital asset is called

A. Capital expenditure
B. Capital loss
C. Loss
D. Deficit
 93. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank
in lieu of a term deposit.

A. Time deposit
B. Bond
C. Capital gain
D. Certificate of deposit
 94. Any particular raw material or primary
product (e.g. cloth, wool, flour, coffee) is
called

A. Utility
B. Necessity
C. Commodity
D. Stock
 95. It denotes the fall in the exchange rate of
one currency in terms of others. The term
usually applies to floating exchange rates.

A. Currency appreciation
B. Currency devaluation
C. Currency float
D. Currency depreciation
 96. The amount of company’s profit that the
board of directors of the corporation decides
to distribute to ordinary shareholders.

A. Dividend
B. Return
C. Share stock
D. Par value
 97. A certificate of indebtness of a
corporation usually for a period not less
than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage
in certain assets of the corporation.

A. Bond
B. T-bill
C. Preferred stock
D. Common stock
 98. A form of fixed interest security issued
by central or local government, companies,
banks or other institutions. They are usually
a form of long-term security, buy may be
irredeemable, secured or unsecured.

A. Bond
B. T-bills
C. Certificate of deposit
D. All of these
 99. A type of bond where the corporation
pledges securities which it owns (i.e. stocks,
bonds of its subsidiaries).

A. Mortgage
B. Registered bond
C. Coupon bond
D. Collateral bond
 100. A type of bond which does not have
security except a promise to pay by the
issuing corporation.

A. Mortgage
B. Registered bond
C. Collateral bond
D. Debenture bond