MPPSC ASST. PROF.
(COMMERCE) – 2024
1. Question: Which type of product in the BCG matrix has a low market share in a low
growth market and may generate low or negative returns?
(A) STARS
(B) DOGS
(C) QUESTION MARKS
(D) CASH COWS
2. Question: Which industry is most likely to use skimming pricing for new product
launches?
(A) Fast-food
(B) E-commerce
(C) Grocery
(D) Electronics and Technology .,
3. Question: Arrange the marketing research process in logical order.
a. Collect the information, analyse the information.
b. Develop the research plan
c. Define the problem and research objectives.
d. Present the findings, make the Decisions.
4. Question: Which is an industry where differential pricing based on customer
characteristics is commonly applied?
(A) Restaurants
(B) Airlines
(C) Grocery Stores
(D) Gas Stations
5. Question: Who is often credited with the development of the concept of Total Quality
Management (TQM)?
(A) Philip Kotler
(B) W. Edwards Deming
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Michael Porter
6. Question: ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5:3. They admitted
'R' giving him 3/10 share of profit. If ‘R’ acquires 1/5 share from ‘P’ and 1/10 from ‘Q’,
the new profit sharing ratio will be
Options:
A) [Link]
B) [Link]
C) [Link]
D) [Link]
7. Question: Revenue is generally recognized being earned at the point of time when:
Options:
A) Order is received
B) Production is completed
C) Goods are delivered
D) Cash is received
8. Question: When a company is wound up, all members who ceased to be shareholders
within a year before the winding up are placed in:
Options:
A) List D of contributories
B) List C of contributories
C) List B of contributories
D) List A of contributories
9. Question: At the time of liquidation, a company has the following liabilities:
1. Creditors Rs. 10,000,
2. Legal Expenses Rs. 3,000,
3. Liquidation Expenses Rs. 580,
4. Preference share capital Rs. 14,400.
What will be the order of payment while preparing the Liquidator’s Final Statement of
Account?
Options:
A) 2, 1, 4, and 3
B) 3, 2, 1, and 4
C) 3, 2, 4, and 1
D) 2, 3, 1, and 4
10. Question: It is given that net assets available to equity shareholders amount to Rs.
90,000/-. The share capital consists of 10,000 equity shares of Rs. 5 each on which Rs.
2 per share are paid. The intrinsic value per equity share is:
Options:
A) Rs. 11
B) Rs. 9
C) Rs. 5
D) Rs. 2
11. Question: Under customs duty, in some cases for specified goods, tariff values are
fixed by:
Options:
A) Central Government
B) State Government
C) Local Government
D) Custom Inspector
12. Question: The term “Prohibited Goods” has been defined under Customs Duty Act,
1962, Section:
Options:
A) Section 2(31)
B) Section 2(32)
C) Section 2(33)
D) Section 2(34)
13. Question: Refund claims up to Rs. 10,00,000 are approved by:
Options:
A) Commissioner of Income Tax
B) Chief Commissioner of Income Tax
C) Central Board of Direct Taxes
D) Income Tax Inspector
14. Question: Perquisites allowed by the Government to its employees posted abroad
will be:
Options:
A) Fully taxable
B) Fully tax free
C) Partly taxable
D) None of the above
15. Question: From the following information, the annual value of house property will
be:
Municipal value: Rs. 1,60,000
Fair rental value: Rs. 1,40,000
Rent received: Rs. 20,000 p.m. = Rs. 2,40,000
Municipal tax/local taxes: Rs. 16,000
Options:
A) Rs. 1,44,000
B) Rs. 1,24,000
C) Rs. 2,40,000
D) Rs. 2,24,000
16. Question: Random sample method is the best method of sampling because:
Options:
A) It is less expensive
B) It is time-saving
C) It is labor-saving
D) The selection of units is unbiased
17. Question: Whose statement is the following: “Stratified random sampling balances
the uncertainty of random sampling against the bias of deliberate selection”?
Options:
A) Grohman
B) Yule and Kendall
C) Snedecor
D) Bowley
18. Question: Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation is always:
Options:
A) More than +1
B) Less than -1
C) Between -1 and +1
D) More than 0 (zero)
19. Question: In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘STATISTICS’ be arranged?
Options:
A) 50,000
B) 10,000
C) 20,000
D) 50,400
20. Question: A bag contains 5 white, 4 black, 7 yellow, and 6 red balls. What is the
probability of drawing a black or red ball at random?
Options:
A) 11/22
B) 20/22
C) 10/22
D) All of the above
21. Question: In which year was the Asian Development Bank established?
Options:
A) 1955
B) 1945
C) 1966
D) 1977
22. Question: Which of the following Export Processing Zones (EPZ) is exclusively
associated with the export of electronics and gem and jewellery items?
Options:
A) Santacruz (Mumbai)
B) Cochin (Kerala)
C) Kandla (Gujarat)
D) Falta (West Bengal)
23. Question: What is the primary purpose of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?
Options:
A) To encourage discrimination among member nations
B) To ensure overall economic development based on the principles of free trade
C) To establish import duties and quotas for member nations
D) To restrict economic growth for certain countries
24. Question: Which of the following holds that a country can increase its wealth by
encouraging exports and discouraging imports?
Options:
A) Mercantilism
B) Capitalism
C) Socialism
D) All of the above
25. Question: What distinguishes Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) from other modes
of investment?
Options:
A) Lower risk and minimum financial commitment
B) Higher risk and greater financial commitment
C) Solely trade-related activities
D) Transfer-related choices exclusively
26. Question: The rate of vanaspati ghee and pure ghee are Rs. 8 and Rs. 16 per Kg
respectively. Shyam buys 6 Kg vanaspati ghee and 4 Kg pure ghee. Later, the price of
vanaspati ghee is Rs. 8 per Kg and pure ghee is Rs. 24 per Kg; then his demand for
vanaspati ghee is 8 Kg and pure ghee is 3 Kg. The elasticity of substitution will be:
Options:
A) 3/7
B) 5/7
C) 7/5
D) 7/3
27. Question: “It is locus of the points representing pairs of quantities between which
the individual is indifferent, so it is termed as indifference curve.” Above sentence is
related to:
Options:
A) J.K. Smith
B) A.L. Mayers
C) Handerson and Quandt
D) Ferguson
28. Question: When the law of diminishing returns is applied in the production of goods,
then the increase in production leads to marginal cost and average cost:
Options:
A) Both increase
B) Both decrease
C) Marginal cost increases and average cost decreases
D) Marginal cost decreases and average cost increases
29. Question: If the change in demand is more than the change in supply, then there will
be a demand-side effect on equilibrium price:
Options:
A) Unaffected
B) Will be more
C) Will be less
D) Cannot say anything
30. Question: In equilibrium of the firm in the short run (Perfect competition), the
amount of profit of the firm is maximum or the amount of loss is minimum when the
Marginal Cost (MC) and Marginal Revenue (MR) of the firm are:
Options:
A) Marginal cost = Marginal revenue
B) Marginal cost > Marginal revenue
C) Marginal cost < Marginal revenue
D) All the above whatever suits the situation
31. Question: The daily allowance received by a member of Parliament is:
Options:
A) Exempt
B) Taxable
C) To be included in total income for tax purposes
D) None of these
32. Question: Concealment of income or false claims to reduce tax liability are cases
of:
Options:
A) Tax evasion
B) Tax planning
C) Tax avoidance
D) Tax management
33. Question: Which of the following shall not be regarded as a capital asset?
Options:
A) Jewellery
B) Rural agricultural land
C) Archaeological collections
D) Paintings
34. Question: For the purpose of valuation of the perquisite in respect of medical
facilities, family means:
Options:
A) Spouse of individual
B) Children of individual
C) Dependent parents, brothers, and sisters of individual
D) All of the above
35. Question: Minimum alternative tax is applicable in the following cases:
Options:
A) Limited liability partnership
B) Partnership
C) Co-operative society
D) None of the above
36. Question: If the two regression lines cut each other at the right angle, then the value
of the coefficient of correlation (r) will be:
Options:
A) Zero
B) 1
C) -1
D) More than 1
37. Question: A main step of statistical investigation is:
Options:
A) Collection of data
B) Local correspondent
C) Enumerator
D) None of the above
38. Question: Which one of the following is not an essential factor of a sample?
Options:
A) Representativeness
B) Adequacy
C) Similarity
D) Dependence
39. Question: Prof. Bailey has described the editing process:
Options:
A) For uniformity
B) For completeness
C) For accuracy
D) All of the above
40. Question: Which type of application software is Tally?
Options:
A) Statistics package
B) Spreadsheet package
C) Accounting package
D) All of the above
41. Question: Heckscher-Ohlin theory is usually formulated on the two factors of
production. These factors are:
Options:
A) Labour and Capital
B) Labour and Land
C) Land and Capital
D) Land and Entrepreneurship
42. Question: The International Trade ‘Theory of Comparative Advantage’ was
propagated by:
Options:
A) Adam Smith
B) Paul Krugman
C) David Ricardo
D) Raymond Vernon
43. Question: What is the primary focus of International Business?
Options:
A) Local resource utilization
B) National production
C) Transfer of resources across national boundaries
D) Regional trade agreements
44. Question: Which IMF facility primarily offers concessional interest rate loans to
low-income countries?
Options:
A) Compensatory Financing Facility (CFF)
B) Supplemental Reserve Facility (SRF)
C) Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF)
D) Stand-By Arrangements (SBA)
45. Question: What does the term “World Bank” encompass?
Options:
A) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)
B) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
C) International Finance Corporation (IFC) and Multilateral Investment Guarantee
Agency (MIGA)
D) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and International
Development Association (IDA)
46. Question: In case of a company limited by guarantee, the liability of the members
can be enforced:
Options:
A) Only at the time of winding-up of the company
B) Only by an order of the court
C) At any time when the company so decides
D) Only by an order of the registrar of companies
47. Question: An Additional Director appointed by the Board of Directors shall
continue to hold office up to the due date of the next:
Options:
A) Board of Directors Meeting
B) Annual General Meeting
C) Extra-Ordinary General Meeting
D) Committee Meeting
48. Question: Paid-up capital and turnover of the small company shall not exceed:
Options:
A) Rs. 4 crores and 20 crores respectively
B) Rs. 4 crores and 40 crores respectively
C) Rs. 2 crores and 20 crores respectively
D) Rs. 2 crores and 40 crores respectively
Answer: B) Rs. 4 crores and 40 crores respectively
Explanation: As per the Companies Act, a small company is defined as one with a paid-
up capital not exceeding Rs. 4 crores and a turnover not exceeding Rs. 40 crores.
Note: Students should refer latest limits in respect of legal provisions before their exam.
49. Question: According to the Competition Act, 2002, the Chairperson and other
members shall hold office up to the maximum age of:
Options:
A) Chairperson 67 years and members 65 years
B) Chairperson 65 years and members 62 years
C) Chairperson 70 years and members 65 years
D) Chairperson 62 years and members 60 years
-
50. Question: Which of the following is not a source of ethical standards?
Options:
A) The utilitarian approach
B) The trusteeship approach
C) The justice approach
D) The virtue approach
51. Question: Who is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog?
Options:
A) Nirmala Sitaraman
B) Amit Shah
C) Suman Bery
D) Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi
52. Question: When did the Competition Commission of India (CCI) form?
Options:
A) 1st January, 2001
B) 14th October, 2003
C) 14th October, 2013
D) 1st April, 2005
53. Question: The “Consumer Protection Act, 1986” notification was issued for the first
time in India on:
Options:
A) 1st April, 1987
B) 15th April, 1987
C) 1st January, 1986
D) 15th July, 1986
54. Question: “In India, the Consumer Grievances Redressal Cell” was formed by:
Options:
A) Consumer Protection Council
B) ISI
C) COPRA
D) Consumer Forum Council
55. Question: Disinvestment strategy includes:
Options:
A) The sell or liquidation of a portion of a business or major division, profit center,
subsidiary of business unit
B) The management no longer wishes to remain in business either partly or wholly due
to continuous losses and unviability
C) The merger is considered to be a process when two or more companies come
together to expand their business operations
D) They safeguard its existing interests and strengths to pursue well-established and
tested objectives
56. Question: Setting a temporary price of a product below the list price and sometimes
even below cost to increase short-run sales is termed as:
Options:
A) Reference pricing
B) Byproduct pricing
C) Discount pricing
D) Promotional pricing
57. Question: What is the full form of “PIMS” in marketing management?
Options:
A) Product Information and Management System
B) Process Information Management System
C) Personal Information Management System
D) Profit Impact of Market Strategy
58. Question: Which of the following is not one of Porter’s Five Forces?
Options:
A) Bargaining Powers of Buyers
B) Power of Advertising
C) Power of Substitution
D) Threat of new entrants
59. Question: Which model helps decision-makers to understand the possibility of
moving from the current state to any future state?
Options:
A) Brand aid model
B) Queuing model
C) Markov-process model
D) Sales-Response model
60. Question: Product, price, place, promotion are the 4 Ps of the traditional marketing
mix. What are the additional 3 Ps of the online marketing mix?
Options:
A) People, Processes, and Physical Evidence
B) People, Patent, and Physical Evidence
C) People, Patent, and Processes
D) Processes, Patent, and Physical Evidence
61. Question: Current assets and current liabilities of a company are Rs. 10,20,000 and
Rs. 3,20,000 respectively. What will be the amount of maximum permissible bank
finance as per the second method of Tandon Committee?
Options:
A) Rs. 5,25,000
B) Rs. 7,80,000
C) Rs. 4,45,000
D) Rs. 5,75,000
62. Question: As per Walter’s approach, what should be the optimum dividend payout
ratio when the internal rate of return (r) is 15% and the cost of equity (Ke) is 18%?
Options:
A) Zero
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 100%
63. Question: Marginal cost of capital is the cost of:
Options:
A) Additional interests
B) Marginal revenue
C) Additional funds
D) Additional revenue
64. Question: Given:
Earnings before tax = Rs. 45,00,000
Operating fixed cost = Rs. 30,00,000
Interest = Rs. 15,00,000
Operating leverage will be:
Options:
A) 1.5
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1.33
65. Question: Which of the following institution is categorized as a specialized financial
institution in India?
Options:
A) Export-Import Bank of India
B) Small Industrial Development Bank of India
C) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
D) All the above
66. Question: “The term monopolist defines a state in which goods are produced by a
single firm and there are no close substitutes.” The above definition is given by:
Options:
A) D.S. Watson
B) Prof. Lerner
C) Prof. Chamberlin
D) Handerson and Quandt
67. Question: Product differentiation is the characteristic of which market?
Options:
A) Pure competition
B) Perfect competition
C) Imperfect competition
D) Monopoly
68. Question: Choose the correct one.
Options:
A) National Income = Net National Product – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies
B) National Income = Net National Product – Indirect Taxes – Subsidies
C) National Income = Net National Product + Indirect Taxes + Subsidies
D) National Income = Net National Product + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies
69. Question: Which of the following is not a method of measuring National Income?
Options:
A) Census of Production Method
B) Census of Income Method
C) Census of Distribution Method
D) Census of Expenditure Method
70. Question: The market value of all final goods and services produced in a country in
a period of one year is called:
Options:
A) Net National Product
B) Personal Income
C) Gross National Product
D) Disposable Income
71. Question: Statutory (legal) business environment includes:
Options:
A) Such factors as interest rates, inflation rates, changes in disposable income of
people, stock market index and value of rupees
B) Focus relating to scientific improvements and innovations, goods and service
delivery techniques, operating techniques of machinery
C) Various legislations passed by the government, administrative orders issued by
states or central government, court judgments and decisions etc.
D) Political conditions such as general stability and peace in the country, agenda of
political parties during elections in the country and states
72. Question: Which of the following are included in NITI Aayog’s 7 pillars of
objectives of effective governance?
Options:
A) Pro-people, Pro-activity, Planning, Delegation
B) Equality, Transparency, Pro-people, Pro-activity, Participation
C) Pro-people, Pro-rata, Organisation, Participation, Strategy
D) Participation, Pro-people, Pro-activity, Co-operative, Equality
73. Question: What was the percentage increase of Gross Value Added (GVA) of the
industrial sector in India in the first half of the financial year 2023?
Options:
A) 3.7%
B) 4.1%
C) 2.7%
D) 5.3%
74. Question: Liberalization means:
Options:
A) Policy of planned disinvestment
B) Integration among policies
C) Reduced government control and restrictions
D) None of the above
75. Question: When was NITI Aayog established?
Options:
A) 1st January, 2015
B) 1st April, 2015
C) 1st April, 2016
D) 1st July, 2016
76. Question: All of the following are advantages of spreadsheet software, except:
Options:
A) It is simple to use and easy to understand
B) Calculations can be easily done in a spreadsheet
C) Grouping and regrouping of accounts
D) Double entry is not automatically completed
77. Question: If Fixed Cost is Rs. 10,000, Profit is Rs. 5,000 and Break-Even Point is
Rs. 20,000, then the amount of sales is:
Options:
A) Rs. 45,000
B) Rs. 20,000
C) Rs. 30,000
D) Rs. 35,000
78. Question: In case of Joint Products, the cost incurred up to the point where
individual products can be identified is called:
Options:
A) Prime cost
B) Average cost
C) Separation cost
D) Joint cost
79. Question: As per AS-14, the types of Amalgamation are:
Options:
A) Nature of Merger and nature of absorption
B) Nature of purchase and nature of reconstruction
C) Nature of merger and nature of purchase
D) None of the above
80. Question: Which of the following is a profitability ratio?
Options:
A) Proprietary ratio
B) Debt-Equity ratio
C) Price-Earnings ratio
D) Fixed assets turnover ratio
81. Question: The decision “to make or buy” is influenced by:
Options:
A) Availability of financial resources
B) Investment required in fixed assets
C) Availability of suppliers
D) All of the above
82. Question: Which of the following incomes are tax-exempted incomes?
Options:
A) Dearness allowance
B) City compensatory allowance
C) Foreign allowance
D) Medical allowance
83. Question: What is the rate of surcharge applicable to individuals having a total
income exceeding Rs. 1 crore?
Options:
A) 15%
B) 5%
C) 2.5%
D) Nil
84. Question: Out of the following, which expense is not an admissible expense?
Options:
A) Bad debts
B) G.S.T.
C) Income tax
D) Excise duty
85. Question: Under which Section, interest shall be charged on deferment of advance
tax?
Options:
A) 234A
B) 234B
C) 234C
D) 234D
86. Question: F-12 (shortcut key) is known for:
Options:
A) Company features
B) Company configuration
C) Accounting features
D) None of the above
87. Question: In which type of voucher is credit sales recorded in Tally?
Options:
A) F5: Payment
B) F6: Receipt
C) F7: Journal
D) F8: Sales
88. Question: Which option is used to view stock items or stock groups?
Options:
A) Accounts books
B) Inventory info
C) Statutory books
D) Display
89. Question: Small Samples Test of significance is based on:
Options:
A) Student’s t-Distribution
B) F-distribution
C) Fisher's Z-Distribution
D) All of the above
90. Question: What are the main uses of the Chi-square test (χ²)?
Options:
A) Test of independence
B) Test of goodness of fit
C) Test of homogeneity
D) All of the above
91. Question: Which of the following economists is not associated with the wealth-
related definition of Economics?
Options:
A) Adam Smith
B) J.B. Say
C) Walker
D) Pigou
92. Question: Business Economics is called:
Options:
A) Positive economics
B) Normative Economics
C) Applied Economics
D) Managerial Economics
93. Question: In which part of Business Economics is the study of Linear Programming
included?
Options:
A) Demand and Supply
B) Production and Cost
C) Allocation of Resources
D) Capital Budgeting
94. Question: “Elasticity of demand is a measure of the responsiveness of quantity
demanded to a change in price.” The above statement is related to:
Options:
A) Prof. Cairncross
B) Prof. Mayers
C) Prof. Eastham
D) Prof. Marshall
95. Question: Which of the following line-drawings relates to perfectly inelastic
demand?
Options:
96. Question: The congruence of the Human Resource Management function with
organizational goals is termed as:
Options:
A) Human Resource Values
B) Organizational Culture
C) Strategic Human Resource Management
D) Human Resource Planning
97. Question: Lack of fit between Knowledge, Skills, and Abilities (KSA) and job
requirements can be classified as:
Options:
A) Selection
B) Placement
C) Mismatch
D) Job fit
98. Question: They said that “He is formally dressed up in the office. He must be an
efficient employee.” This is an example of bias in performance appraisal. It is:
Options:
A) Halo effect
B) Rater bias
C) Horn effect
D) Stereotyping
99. Question: The appraisal feedback of an interview provides:
Options:
A) Provide more opportunity
B) Increase danger
C) Clears misunderstanding
D) All of the above
100. Question: Employee benefits enhance the appeal of an organization to employees
because they:
Options:
A) Provide additional compensation
B) Attract and retain employees
C) Increase job productivity
D) Legal responsibility
101. Question: What is the primary goal of the agreement on Trade-related Aspects of
Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)?
(A) To create variation in intellectual property protection worldwide
(B) To establish common international rules for the protection of intellectual property
rights
(C) To limit innovation and research in technology
(D) To exclude developing countries from the multilateral trading system
102. Question: What characterizes the Crawling Peg exchange rate system ?
(A) Fixed exchange rate with no variation
(B) Freely floating exchange rate
(C) Automatic revision around a par value within a specified percentage
(D) Intervention by central banks based on market demand
103. Question: When was the South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation
(SAARC) established ?
(A) April 2007
(B) August 1983
(C) December 1985
(D) January 2006
104. Question: What does current account convertibility primarily involve ?
(A) Freedom to convert domestic currency for financial assets
(B) Freedom to convert domestic currency for current account transactions
(C) Limitations on converting domestic currency into other currencies
(D) Control over international trade transactions
105. Question: What does the current account of the balance of payments include ?
(A) Transactions related to financial assets
(B) All international economic transactions with income or payments flows occurring
within the current year
(C) Transfers of financial assets and acquisition of non-financial assets
(D) Capital transactions and financial assets classification
106. Question: 'The Golden Book of Management' was written by:
Options:
A) Mary Parker Follett
B) George Elton Mayo
C) Lyndall Urwick
D) Robert Owen
107. Question: Which of the following is not an element of communication?
Options:
A) Decoding
B) Receiver
C) Channel
D) Grapevine
108. Question: Which of the following is an exception to the Rule- “No consideration,
No contract”?
Options:
A) Promise given out of natural love and affection
B) Promise to compensate for involuntary services
C) Promise to pay a time-barred debt
D) Contracts of agency
109. Question: Which of the following agency is irrevocable?
Options:
A) Agency for particular work
B) Agency by necessity
C) Agency for a certain fixed period
D) Agency coupled with interest
110. Question: A contract of insurance is:
Options:
A) Wagering contract
B) Quasi contract
C) Contingent contract
D) Unilateral contract
111. Question: If the current ratio is 2.2:1, liquidity ratio is 1.5:1 and the net working
capital is Rs. 36,000, then the amount of Current Assets is:
Options:
A) Rs. 79,200
B) Rs. 30,000
C) Rs. 66,000
D) Rs. 25,200
112. Question: Inter process profit arises when output of one process is transferred to
another process at which price?
Options:
A) Cost plus profit price
B) Cost price
C) Actual price
D) None of the above
113. Question: Which of the following is a Basic Accounting Equation?
Options:
A) Assets = Capital + Liabilities
B) Capital + Liabilities – Assets = Zero
C) Assets – Liabilities – Capital = Zero
D) All of the above
114. Question: Realization Account is:
Options:
A) Nominal Account
B) Real Account
C) Personal Account
D) Profit and Loss Account
115. Question: Consider the following items:
1. Debentures
2. Accrued Interest
3. Prepaid Rent
4. Bank overdraft
Which of them are current liabilities?
Options:
A) 1, 2, 3, and 4
B) 4
C) 2, 3, and 4
D) 1, 2, and 3
116. Question: “Marketing is the delivery of a standard of living”. Whose statement is
this?
Options:
A) P.F. Drucker
B) Paul Mayur
C) Hanson
D) Philip Kotler
117. Question: What is the external factor of the marketing environment?
Options:
A) Technology factor
B) Nature of product
C) Position of institute
D) All of the above
118. Question: “The approach to marketing from the managerial side is referred to as
marketing management”. Whose statement is this?
Options:
A) Phelps and Westing
B) Johnson
C) Philip Kotler
D) Cundiff and Still
119. Question: Who used the word “Marketing Mix” for the first time ever?
Options:
A) Prof. Neil Borden
B) Prof. Frey
C) Philip Kotler
D) Lipson and Darling
120. Question: Which of the following is not the type of marketing planning?
Options:
A) Long-term planning
B) Medium-term planning
C) Short-term planning
D) Project planning
121. Question: ______ is not an internal source of recruitment in a business
organization.
Options:
A) Job rotation
B) Promotion
C) Transfer
D) Placement
122. Question: Intercultural competence training for global employees includes a wide
range of skills:
Options:
A) Cognitive skill
B) Behavioral skill
C) Emotional skill
D) All of the above
123. Question: Manpower planning does not involve:
Options:
A) Course of action in the area of manpower planning
B) Manpower forecast
C) Analysis of requirements of manpower
D) Intuitive judgment
124. Question: ______ means perceived fairness between what a person does and what
the person receives.
Options:
A) Procedural justice
B) Equity
C) Distributive justice
D) Internal validity
125. Question: Decisions about employee compensation must always consider:
Options:
A) Market competitiveness
B) Competency-based pay
C) Team rewards
D) All of the above
126. Question: Raj Ltd. has issued 1200 equity shares of Rs. 100 fully paid up. The
market price of these shares is Rs. 170 per share. The company has paid a dividend of
Rs. 12 per share. Find out the cost of capital.
Options:
A) 7.5%
B) 7.25%
C) 7.05%
D) 15%
127. Question: Fixed cost Rs. 40,000, Variable cost Rs. 1,40,000, Sales Rs. 2,00,000,
10% Interest on loan of Rs. 1,00,000. Combined leverage will be:
Options:
A) 4
B) 3
C) 6
D) 2
128. Question: According to Walter and Gordon’s theory, dividend decision for the
valuation of the firm is:
Options:
A) Relevant
B) Irrelevant
C) Integral
D) None of these
129. Question: National Stock Exchange was established in:
Options:
A) 1992
B) 1993
C) 1994
D) 1995
130. Question: Credit rating is affected by:
Options:
A) Unpaid debt and its nature
B) Available security assets
C) Stability of cash flow
D) All of these
131. Question: The MRTP Act, 1969 was repealed and replaced by a new act and
notified. Which was the name of the new act and its notification date among the
following?
Options:
A) Competition Act, 2009 and Notification date was 25 August, 2009
B) Monopoly Act, 2002 and Notification date was 25 August, 2002
C) Competition Act, 2002 and Notification date was 28 August, 2002
D) Competition Act, 2002 and Notification date was 28 August, 2009
132. Question: An important factor causing ‘globalisation’ is:
Options:
A) More income
B) Expansion of markets
C) Urbanisation
D) Technological development
133. Question: “Economic planning” comes under which list of the Indian
Constitution?
Options:
A) Concurrent list III of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution
B) 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution
C) Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution
D) Concurrent list II of the 9th Schedule of the Indian Constitution
134. Question: Which of the following does not characterize the “Business
Environment”?
Options:
A) Complexity
B) Employees
C) Relativity
D) Uncertainty
135. Question: “The business environment can be categorized into two broad categories
i.e., Micro-environment and Macro-environment. Micro-environment is related to a
small area or immediate periphery of an organization while Macro-environment has
broader dimensions.” Among the following which is not related to macro-environment
dimension?
Options:
A) Political
B) Consumer (Customer)
C) Cultural
D) Technological
136. Question: “Whatever a manager does, he does it through making decisions” - Who
said this?
Options:
A) Peter F. Drucker
B) Koontz and Weihrich
C) F.W. Taylor
D) Henri Fayol
137. Question: Which theory of organization originated from the findings of the famous
Hawthorne Experiment?
Options:
A) Classical Organization Theory
B) Neoclassical Organization Theory
C) The Comparative Theory
D) Modern Organization Theory
138. Question: Match List – I with List – II.
List - I: a. Need Hierarchy Theory, b. Two Factor Theory, c. X and Y Theory, d. Z Theory
List - II: i. McGregor, ii. Willium Ouchi, iii. Fredrick Herzberg, iv. Abraham Maslow
Options:
A) a-iv b-iii c-i d-ii
B) a-iii b-iv c-ii d-i
C) a-iv b-ii c-iii d-i
D) a-ii b-iv c-i d-iii
139. Question: “Leaders are born, not made,” which theory states this?
Options:
A) Trait Theory
B) Behavioural Theory
C) Situational / Contingency Theory
D) Great man Theory
140. Question: Which of the following steps is not part of the process of control?
Options:
A) Setting objectives
B) Establishing standards
C) Measurement of performance
D) Comparison of performance with standards
141. Question: The objectives of the formation of SEBI are:
Options:
A) Investor interest protection
B) Development of securities market
C) Securities market regulation
D) All of the above
142. Question: Not included under the functions of RBI is:
Options:
A) Issue of currency
B) Banker of the Bank
C) Banker of the Govt.
D) Accepting deposit on interest
143. Question: An important function of a bank is:
Options:
A) Providing legal advice to persons
B) Development of agriculture
C) Creation of credit
D) Creation of cooperative spirit in the society
144. Question: Industrial Development Bank of India was established:
Options:
A) On 1st July 1963
B) On 1st July 1964
C) On 1st July 1965
D) On 1st July 1966
145. Question: ICICI was merged with ICICI Bank in the year:
Options:
A) 2001
B) 2002
C) 2003
D) 2004
146. Question: Employee health is promoted by employers at several levels to improve:
Options:
A) Organisational efficiency
B) Employee productivity
C) Organisational facilities
D) A) and B)
147. Question: _____ is (are) concerned with developing a pool of candidates in line
with the human resource plan.
Options:
A) Recruitment
B) Training
C) Development
D) All of the above
148. Question: Harmonious industrial relations is not the basis of:
Options:
A) Higher production
B) Low cost
C) Higher profit
D) Higher compensation
149. Question: From the following, which is/are unfair labour practices on the part of
employers?
Options:
A) By way of victimization
B) By acts of force or violence
C) Abolish the work of a regular nature
D) All of the above
150. Question: The Act prohibit the employment of young persons on dangerous
machines.
Options:
A) Workmen Compensation Act
B) Factory Act
C) Industrial Disputes Act
D) None of the above
