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Computer Science Part 1

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions related to computer science concepts, including machine learning, data mining, networking, and programming. It covers various topics such as learning models, database interfaces, error detection, and digital transmission systems. The questions are designed to assess knowledge in areas like algorithms, data structures, and system design.

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Antony Rajesh
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
10 views16 pages

Computer Science Part 1

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions related to computer science concepts, including machine learning, data mining, networking, and programming. It covers various topics such as learning models, database interfaces, error detection, and digital transmission systems. The questions are designed to assess knowledge in areas like algorithms, data structures, and system design.

Uploaded by

Antony Rajesh
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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PG - TRB (COMPUTER SCIENCE)

23.06.2019

1. It is a class of machine learning C) Graphical user interface


techniques that make use of both D) Natural language interface
labelled and unlabelled examples where
learning models are called 6. The casual users access the stored
A) Semi supervised learning database by ______
B) Active learning A) Executing privileged commands
C) Supervised learning B) Executing DDL statements
D) Unsupervised learning C) Executing interactive query
D) Application programs
2. The cosine measure and the tanimato
coefficient are used for applications 7. In datamining, one of the objective
involving ______ measures of pattern interestingness
A)Sparse numeric data vector where confidence is defined as
B) Asymmetric binary A) (X=>Y) = P(X ∪ Y)
C) Numerical B) (X=>Y) = P(Y/X)
D) Qualitative C) (X<=>Y) = P(X ∪ Y)
D) (X/Y) = P(X=>Y)
3. If itemsets X and Y are both frequent but
8. What helps the user to find interesting
rarely occur together, then itemsets are
projections of multi-dimensional data?
said to be negatively correlated and
A) Hierarchical visualization
indicated as
B) Pixel oriented visualization
A) Sup(X ∪ Y) < Sup(X)
C) Geometric projection visualization
B) Sup(X∩Y) < Sup(X)
D) Icon based visualization
C) Sup(X ∪ Y) < Sup(X) x Sup (Y)
D) Sup(X ∪ Y) < Sup(X) / Sup (Y) 9. Which one of the measure is not used for
computing the dissimilarity of objects
4. Which method quantizes the object described by numeric attributes?
space into a finite number of cells? A) Euclidean B) Manhattan
A) Hierarchical C) Minkowski D) Geodesic
B) Grid
C) Density based 10. Dissimilarity between 2 objects „i‟ and „j‟
D) Clustering and Evaluation can be computed on the ratio, where „m‟
is the number of matches and „p‟ is the
5. Which interfaces accept request written total number of attributes then
in some other language to understand A) d(i,j) =p-m
them with database? B) d(i,j) =m/p
A) Menu based for web clients C) d(i,j) =(p-m)/p
B) Form based interface D) d(i,j) =m/p – 1
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11. Dimensionality reduction is not applied A) C= 6 Mbps and L=4
for B) C= 4 Mbps and L=6
A) Wavelet Transform C) C= 6 Kbps and L=4
B) Removing irrelevant attributes D) C= 4 Kbps and L=6
C) Principal component analysis
D) Log linear models 17. A code scheme has a hamming distance
d min =4. This code guarantees the
12. In datamining, the addition of new detection of errors up to _______.
attributes from the given set of attributes A) 4 bit B) 3 bit
is called as ______ C) 2 bit D) 1 bit
A) Smoothing
B) Feature construction 18. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit
C) Aggregation frames on a shared channel of 200 Kbps.
D) Normalization What is the throughput if the system(all
stations together) produces 1000 frames
13. per second?
A) 200 frames B) 135 frames
C) 1000 frames D) 800 frames

A) Cardinality ratio 1:N for E1:E2 in R 19. Assume that in a stop-and-wait system,
B) Total participation of E2 in R the bandwidth of the line is 1 Mbps, and
C) Partial participation of E2 in R 1 bit takes 20 ms to make a round trip.
D) Structured constraint on participation What is the bandwidth delay product? If
of E1 and E2 in R the system data packets are 1000 bits in
length, what is the utilization percentage
14. Which one of the following is not the data of the link?
model for a data warehouse? A) 20000 bits and 5%
A) Star Schema B) 20000 bits and 20%
B) Single dimensional Schema C) 20000 bits and 2%
C) Fact Constellation D) 20000 bits and 50%
D) Snowflake Schema
20. Which of the following uses multiple
15. Black box testing finds ________ carrier signals at different frequencies
A) interface errors sending some of the bits on each
B) syntax errors channel?
C) coding errors A) Discrete Multitone
D) design errors B) SONET
C) POTS
16. We have a Channel with a 1 MHz D) ALOHA
bandwidth. The SNR for this channel is
63. What are the appropriate bit rate and
signal level?

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21. The use of a set of parity bits for a block 26. The web has a phenomenon known as
of characters such that there is a parity ________, in which a website that was
bit for each bit position in the character is previously an unknown and unvisited, all
called, of a sudden becomes the Center of the
A) Longitudinal Redundancy Check Known Universe.
B) Bit Stuffing A) Cookies B) Flash Crowds
C) CRC C) Trojan Horse D) Worms
D) Checksum
27. Which of the following is immune to all
22. A digital transmission system is capable present and future attacks, no matter
of transmitting signals with a bandwidth how much computational power the
of 8 MHz. It transmits binary data and intruder has?
the data transfer rate is 4 Mbps. Then A) Quantum Cryptography
one bit occurs every ______. B) Steganography
A) 0.5 µsec B) 0.05 µsec C) Transposition Cipher
C) 0.25 µsec D) 0.15 µsec D) One Time Padding

23. Birthday attack takes_________ 28. Node-to-Node delivery of the data unit is
operations to subvert m-bit message the responsibility of the _____ layer.
digest. A) Physical B) Data link
A) 2m B) 2 m+1 C) Network D) Transport
(m+1)/2
C) 2 D) 2 m/2
29. ______ has filtering capability
24. Match the following: A) Repeater B) Bridge
1) Network Layer - a) Switch C) Hub D) Host
2) Physical Layer - b)Router
3) Transport Layer - c) Hub 30. _______ can run for distances of 40 km,
4) Data link Layer - d) Gateway making it suitable for wide area
A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c applications
B) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a A) 10GBase – ER B) 10GBase – SR
C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a C) 10GBase – LR D) 10GBase – Cx4
D) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
31. _______ let the physical topology be
25. Node look up in peer-to-peer networks divided into different logical topologies
speedup the lookup process by using A) Wireless LAN
A) Finger Table B) Virtual LAN
B) Lookup Table C) Wired LAN
C) Hashing Table D) Parameterized LAN
D) Index Table

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32. ________ keeps all the old frame format 38. The flags in the flag register does not get
interfaces and procedural rules, but affected by __________
reduce the bit time from 100 nsec to 10 A) Data transfer instructions
nsec. B) Arithmetic instructions
A) Fast Ethernet C) Logic instructions
B) Gigabit Ethernet . D) Branch instructions
C) Terabit Ethernet
D) Megabit Ethernet 39. Expand PSW
A) Process Status Work
33. Digital Signature cannot provide B) Program Status Work
A) Message integrity C) Process Status Word
B) Authentication D) Program Status Word
C) Non Repudiation
D) Confidentiality 40. The transformation of data from main
memory to cache memory is referred to
34. ________ refers to set of procedures as ____
used to restrict amount of data the A) Mapping process
sender can send before waiting for B) Transformation process
acknowledgement. C) Transfer process
A) Buffering D) Direct process
B) Error control
C) Congestion control 41. The unconditional branching instructions
D) Flow control are _____, CALL and RET
A) JC B) JM
35. The type of Ethernet destination address C) JNC D) JMP
47:20:1B:2E:08:EE is
A) Unicast address 42. Floating point is always interpreted to
B) Broadcast address represent a number in the following form.
C) Multicast address A) m + re B) m x re
D) IP address C) m – re D) m / r e

36. The bubbles in bubble memory pack are 43. Speed of microprocessor depends on
created with the help of A) width of data bus
A) Electric field B) Magnetic field B) width of control bus
C) Laser beam D) Laser rays C) access time
D) response time
37. Name the addressing mode which
assumes that the operand is in
accumulator and has only opcode field
A) Register addressing
B) Immediate addressing
C) Implied addressing
D) Register indirect addressing
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44. Compared to CISC processors, RISC 50. Which of the following flip flops is free
processors contain from race around problem?
A) more registers and smaller A) D flip flop
instruction set B) T flip flop
B) less registers and smaller C) SR flip flop
instruction set D) Master slave JK flip flop
C) less registers and large instruction
set 51. The simplified SOP (Sum of Product)
D) more registers and large instruction form of the Boolean expression
set (P+Q'+R').(P+Q'+R).(P+Q+R') is
A) (P'.Q+R') B) (P+Q'.R')
45. Accumulator is used for C) (P'.Q+R) D) (P.Q+R)
A) Arithmetic and logic operations
B) I/O and load/store operations 52. Find the logic function implemented by
C) Arithmetic operations the circuit below (ground implies a logical
D) Arithmetic, logic, I/O and “0”)
load/store operations

46. Zero has two representations in _______


A) sign magnitude method
B) five‟s compliment method
C) two‟s compliment method
D) nine‟s compliment method

47. The Excess-3 code has ______ invalid


codes
A) 7 B) 4 A) F=AND (P,Q) B) (P+Q'.R')
C) 6 D) 5 C) (P'.Q+R) D) (P.Q+R)

48. A ______ gives the output state for each 53. Determine the base of the numbers for
possible input state combinations the given operation to be correct.
A) grid chart A) 6 B) 8
B) K - map C) 11 D) 2
C) ruth table
D) tabulation method 54.

49. The dual of the switching x + yz is


A) X + y B) X + y Z
C) X + y + z D) 𝐗 (𝐲 + 𝐙 )

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A) bˈdˈ 61. The running time of an algorithm is
B) bˈdˈ+bˈcˈ given by
T(n) = T(n − 1) + T(n − 2) – T(n − 3) if n > 3
C) bˈdˈ+aˈbˈcˈdˈ 0 otherwise
D) bˈdˈ+bˈcˈ+cˈdˈ The order is
A) O(n) B) O(log n)
55. The state of a 12 bit register is C) O(n2 ) D) O(nn )
100010010111. What is its content if it
represents the three decimal digits in the 62. The expression tree shown below
excess-3 code and in BCD? indicates the arithmetic expression
A) 565, 897 B) 564, 879
C) 565, 879 D) 564, 897

56. C++ provides inline functions to reduce


function call overhead, mainly for
A) Small functions
B) Large functions
C) Member function
D) Sub function

57. Functions defined outside the class can


be accessed using
A) Scope resolution operator A) (A+B*C ) – (D*E+FG/)
B) Logical operator B) (D*E+F/G) – (A+B*C )
C) Reference C) G/+F*DE – A+*BC
D) Arithmetic operator D) (A+B*C) – ((D*E)+F/G)

58. The maximum number of nodes possible 63. The following statement
in a binary tree of height 'h' is FRONT = (REAR+1) mod LENGH indicates
A) 2 h -1 B) 2h+1 A) Circular queue is full
C) 2h D) 2 h-1 B) Circular queue is empty
C) Circular queue is double
59. The total storage space required in radix D) Circular queue is invalid
sort is
A) S(n)=b*n B) S(n)=(b–1)*n 64. The prefix notation of the input:
C) S(n)=(b+1)*c D) S(n)=(b*2)*c ((A+((B^C)–D)*(E–A/C))) is
A) A *+A–^BCD–E/AC
60. Divide and conquer principle is adopted B) ABC^D–+EAC/–*
in C) AB*C^D–+EAC/*–
A) Bubble sort B) Shell sort D) ((+A((^BC)–D))*E–/(AC)))
C) Bucket sort D) Quick sort

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65. A node in a linked list consists of 71. The Programme for International
______ and ______ Students Assessment (PISA) is a
A) Store, retrieve B) Data, link triennial international survey which aims
C) Structure, data D) Insert, delete to evaluate education systems worldwide
by testing the skills and knowledge, is a
66. Which of the following sorting method is worldwide study by the ___________.
stable? A) UNICEF B) World Bank
A) Insertion sort B) Binary sort C) UNESCO D) OECD
C) Shell sort D) Heap sort
72. The individual reveals himself very
67. Which one is correct method for frankly because he does not know that
declaring doubly linked list using he is revealing himself. Which
dynamic implementation? personality test does this indicate?
A) StrUCt node { int info; A) Personality inventory
StrUCt *right, *left;} B) Case history
B) StrUCt node { StrUCt node *right } C) Questionnaire
StrUCt node *left; D) Projective test
C) StrUCt node { StrUCt node *right;
StrUCt node left;} 73. Which one of the following terms is not a
typedef strUct node; part of the acronym 'POSDCORB' widely
D) StrUCt node { int info; used in the field of educational
StrUCt node *left,*right;} management and administration?
A) Supervision B) Budgeting
68. An AVL tree is identical to a binary C) Coordinating D) Directing
search tree, except that for every node in
the tree, the height of the left and right 74. In a classroom a student falls sick often
sub-trees can differ by at most due to which his grades are
A) 0 B) 1 discouraging. Which of the following
C) -1 D) 2 should be focused to achieve better
results?
69. Which of the following is not an inherent A) Classroom climate
application of stack? B) Factors affecting attention
A) implementation of recursion C) Group behaviour
B) Evaluation of post fix expression D) Role of rewards
C) Job scheduling
D) Reverse a string 75. Which one of the following disability is
not mentioned in the National Trust
70. Which one of the following array
(1999) Act?
represents a binary max heap?
A) Autism
A) [26,13,17,14,11,9,15]
B) Hearing Impairment
B) [26,15,14,17,11,9,13]
C) Cerebral Palsy
C) [26,15,17,14,11,13,9]
D) Mental Retardation
D) [26,15,13,14,11,9,17]
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76. When an apple is offered to a child, he 80. Everyone of us have an inherent desire
thinks for a moment and at once refuses to get an opportunity to dominate others,
to take it, his thinking at that point of time it may vary in intensity but it is surely
is ____________ thinking. exhibited by all of us in one or other
A) Conceptual situation, this is the need for
B) Reflective ____________.
C) Creative A) Self - assertion
D) Perceptual B) Social approval
C) Self - expression
77. The individual's attention always remains D) Gaining Independence
on track and the activity proceeds
systematically without any serious 81. 'O' Blood group man gets married with
distraction, this is termed as 'AB' Blood group woman. What are the
____________. impossible blood group for their child.
A) Sustained attention A) 'A' and 'B' Blood group
B) Split attention B) Blood group 'B' only
C) Span of attention C) 'O' and 'AB' Blood group
D) Division of attention D) 'AB' and 'B' Blood group

78. In Thorndike's test of intelligence, 82. Match the Following


emphasizing of performance of complex 1. Public sector - a. Banking
tasks and selecting carefully the items, 2.Private sector - b. Poultry
four types of items were included 3. Primary sector - c. Profit motive
namely, vocabulary, arithmetical 4. Tertiary sector - d. Service motive
problems, sentence completion and A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - c
_______________. B) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 - d
A) Spatial relations C) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a
B) Logical reasoning D) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 – d
C) Critical thinking
D) Following directions 83. In 2016 at the Rio Paralympic,
Mariappan from Tamilnadu won gold
79. In Rorschach ink blot test when medal in the men's high jump T- 42 event
excessive reaction upon colour is with a leap of __________
expressed by the subject it represents A) 1.89 m B) 1.88 m
the subject's ______________. C) 1.87 m D) 1.90 m
A) Subtlety of thought
B) Impulsiveness
C) Compulsion Neurosis
D) Spontaneity of emotional expression

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84. Match the Column – I With Column – II 87. Arrange the following in chronological
and Select the correct answer order.
ColUmn – I ColUmn – II 1) Battle of Kanwah
(Vitamin) (Symptoms) 2) First battle of Panipat
1. Vitamin – D (a) Inability to 3) Battle of Ghagra
reproduce 4) Battle of Chanderi
2. Vitamin – B12 (b) Defective A) 2 1 4 3 B) 2 4 1 3
CalCifiCation of C) 2 3 4 1 D) 2 1 3 4
bones
3. Vitamin – B5 (c) DestrUCtion of 88. Who remarked "The light has gone out of
RBC our lives and there is darkness
4. Vitamin – E (d) Dementia, everywhere"?
Dermatitis, A) Jawaharlal Nehru
diarrhoea B) Gandhiji
A) 1-(c), 2-(a), 3-(b), 4-(d) C) Subash Chandra Bose
B) 1-(c), 2-(b), 3-(d), 4-(a) D) Vallabhai Patel
C) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(d), 4-(a)
D) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a), 4-(d) 89. The book 'Castes and Tribes of Southern
India' was written by
85. Identify the wrong pair A) Charles Mason
I. The President of India is elected by the B) Alexander Burnes
Members of an electoral college C) Alexander Cunningham
consisting of the elected members of D) Edgar Thurston
both Houses of Parliament
II. The elected members of the 90. Choose the correct match of the
Legislative Assemblies of all the States following one
and Union Territories in India A) Thyroxine - Diabetes
III. The members nominated to either B) Adrenaline - Breathing rate
House of Parliament or the Legislative C) Pituitary - Metabolism
Assemblies of States are eligible to be D) Pancreas - Master gland
included in the electoral college
A) II only B) I only 91. Optimal algorithm uses the concept of
C) III only D) I and II only A) Replacing a page that has not been
used for longest period of time.
86. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution
B) Replacing a page that has not been
adopted on 26 th November, 1949 did
used for shortest period of time
not include the terms.
C) Replacing a page that will not be
1. Socialist 2. Secular
used for shortest period of time
3. Integrity 4. Republic
D) Replacing a page that will not be
Select the correct answer using the code
used for longest period of time
given below.
A) 1, 2 and 3 B) 2, 3 and 4
C) 1, 2 and 4 D) 3 and 4
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92. Associative registers used to implement C) A single contiguous memory that
page tables are also called as _______ is used in olden days for running
A) Association registers large programs by swapping
B) Page table length registers D) A single contiguous memory
C) Buffer registers overloaded with many files.
D) Translation look-aside buffers
98. If all resources have only a single
93. Compaction is possible only if _______ instance, then we can define a deadlock
A) Relocation is dynamic and done at detection algorithm that uses a variant of
execution time the resource allocation graph called
B) Relocation is dynamic and done at A) Wait-for graph
load time B) Directed acyclic graph
C) Relocation is static and done at C) Cyclic graph
execution time D) Notation graph
D) Relocation is static and done at load
time 99. Throughput of a system is
A) Number of programs processed by
94. Name the malware computer program it per unit time
that replicates itself in order to spread to B) Number of times the program is
other computers invoked by the system
A) Trojan horse B) Virus C) Number of requests made to a
C) Trap door D) Worm program by the system
D) Number of i/o requests completed
95. Fork system call is used for, per unit time
A) A dispatching of a task
B) Creation of a new job 100. Thrashing
C) Creation of a new process A) Reduces page I/O
D) A dispatching of a job B) Implies excessive page I/O activity
C) decreases the degree of
96. Which one of the following algorithm will multiprogramming
never suffer from Belady‟s anomaly? D) improves the system performance
A) FIFO page replacement
B) Optimal page replacement 101. What is the output of the following code
C) LRU page replacement segment?
D) LRU approximation page int a = 5
replacement Cout <<” FIRST” << (a<<2)<<”
SECOND”
97. Overlay is ________ A) FIRST 52 SECOND
A) A part of an operating system B) FIRST 20 SECOND
B) A single memory location C) SECOND 25 FIRST
D) error message

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102. Which of the following remarks about the 107. Coroutines in python,
difference between constructors and A) suspended by using a function
destructors are correct? suspend()
A) Constructors can take arguments B) process a sequence of inputs send
but destructors cannot take to it
arguments C) takes a single set of input arguments
B) Constructors can be overloaded D) created by create()
but destructors cannot be overloaded
C) Destructors can take arguments but 108. Overloading the function operator
constructors cannot take arguments A) Requires a class with an
D) Destructors can be overloaded but overloaded operator
constructors cannot be overloaded B) Requires a class with overloaded [ ]
operator
103. If the language has the capability to C) Use of the constructor always that
produce new data types, it is called as takes arguments
_________ D) Use of the destructor always that
A) Reprehensible B) Encapsulated takes arguments
C) Overloaded D) Extensible
109. Run time polymorphism is achieved by
104. The directive required in any C++ A) Friend function
program that uses either cin or cout is B) Virtual function
A) <iomanip.h> B) <iostream.h> C) Operator overloading
C) <locale.n> D) <output.h> D) Function overloading

105. The function abort() in C++ is declared in 110. Which statement gets affected when i++
the header file _____ is changed to ++i ?
A) <math.h> B) < stdlib.h> A) i = 20;i ++
C) < iostream.h> D) < stdio.h> B) for (i=0;i<=20;i++){ }
C) a=i +i++;
106. The keyword void is used to D) While (i++=20) Cout <<;
A) declare a member function that is
defined in a sub class 111. Match list I and II and select the correct
B) indicate that the function does not answer.
return anything List I List II
C) declare objects that can be modified P) Public members 1. grants access to
outside of program control the private members of
D) declare a synonym for an existing the class to the non -
type member function
Q) Friend function 2. are accessible
only within the class

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R) Private members 3. are similar to II. Inheritance provides code reuse.
private members but Which of the following statement is
inheritable correct?
S) Protected members 4. are accessible A) Both the statement I and II are
throughout the program correct
A) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 B) Neither the statement I and II are
B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 correct
C) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 C) Statement I is correct and II is
D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 incorrect
D) Statement I is incorrect and II is
112. In C++, late binding is implemented correct
through
A) Virtual functions 116. If a data item is declared as a protected
B) Overloading access specifier then it can be accessed
C) Single inheritance A) Anywhere in the program
D) Multiple inheritance B) By the base and derived classes
C) Only by base class
113. Which of the following is false? D) Only by derived class
A) A pointer variable contains the
address of a variable in memory 117. Which of the following is used to make
B) You should declare a pointer variable an Abstract class?
before you use it A) Making at least one member
C) Pointers are typically initialized to function as virtual function
the empty string B) Making at least one member function
D) A pointer's data type must match the as friend function
data type of the variable to which it C) Declaring as Abstract class using
points virtual keyword
D) Declaring as Abstract class using
114. Which of the following is not correct for static keyword
virtual function in C++?
A) Must be declared in public section of 118. The library function isalpha () requires
class the ________ header file
B) Virtual function can be static A) <ctype.h> B) < math.h>
C) Virtual function should be accessed C) < time.h> D) < String.h>
using pointers
D) Virtual function is defined in base 119. Which of the following statement is true?
class A) Can change the precedence of the
C++ operators
115. Consider the following two statements B) Can change the associativity of the
I. A publicly derived class is a sub class C++ operators
of its base class. C) Cannot change operator templates
D) Can create new C++ operators

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120. Exception handling is targeted at D) In a row of relational table, an
A) Run time error attribute can have exactly one value or
B) Compile time error Null value
C) Logical error
D) Dynamic time error 124. Suppose (A, B) and (C, D) are two
relation schemas. Let r 1 and r 2 be the
121. INSERT corresponding relation instance.
INTO Students (sid, name, login, age, B is a foreign key that refers to C in r 2 .
gpa) If data in r 1 and r 2 satisfy referential
VALUES (null, „Mike‟, „mikeey‟, 17,3.4) integrity constraints, which of the
In a database of 50 records following is always TRUE?
A) Will insert the record null, „Mike‟, A) 𝛑𝐁 𝒓𝟏 − 𝛑𝒄 𝐫𝟐 = ∅
„mikkey‟, 17,3.4 B) πC 𝑟2 − π𝐵 r1 = ∅
B) Will insert the record, „Mike‟, C) πB r1 = π𝐶 r2
„mikkey‟, 17,3.4 D) πB r1 − π𝑐 r2 ≠ ∅
C) Will generate error
D) Will insert the record 51, „Mike‟, 125. Consider the following two tables
„mikkey‟, 17,3.4 Emp (name, dept, salary, city)
Department(dept, designation, city)
122. Consider a schema R (A,B,C,D) and Which of the following query will display
functional dependencies A->B and C->D. the department of employee earning the
Then the decomposition of R into R 1 higher salary?
(A,B) and R 2 (C,D) is A) Select dept from Emp where salary
A) Dependency preserving and loss >= all (select salary from emp);
less join B) Select max(salary) from Emp;
B) Loss less join but not dependency C) Select dept from Department where
preserving dept = (select dept from emp where
C) Dependency preserving but not max(salary));
loss less join D) Select salary from Emp;
D) Not dependency preserving and not
loss less join 126. Consider a schema R(A B C D E) and
FDS { AB->C, C->D, B-> EA} find the
123. Which of the following regarding basic super key?
ER and relational models is A) AB and B
INCORRECT? B) EA and D
A) An attribute of an entity can have C) CD
more than one value D) ED
B) An attribute of an entity can be
composite
C) In a row of relational table, an
attribute can have more than one
value

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127. Consider the following relation 130. Match list and II and Select the correct
Cinema (theater, address, capacity) answer using the codes given below the
Which of the following options will be lists.
needed at the end of the SQL query List I List II
SELECT P1.address FROM Cinema P1 P) Determinants 1. No attribute can
Such that it always finds the addresses be adde
of theaters of theaters with maximum Q) Candidate Key 2. Uniquely
capacity? identified a row
A) WHERE P1.capacity >= All (select R) Non – redundancy 3. A constraint
P2.capacity from Cinema P2) between two attributes
B) WHERE P1.capacity >= Any (select S) Functional
P2.capacity from Cinema P2) dependency 4. Group of
C) WHERE P1.capacity > All (select attributes on the left hand
max(P2, capacity) from Cinema P2) side of arrow of Functional
D) WHERE P1.capacity > Any (select A) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
max(P2, capacity) from Cinema P2) B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
128. For a database relation R(a,b,c,d) where D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
the domains of a, b, c, d include only
131. Which of the following html tag uses
atomic values, only the following
absolute URL?
functional dependencies and those that
A) <img src = “plUto.gif”>
can be inferred from them hold.
B) <A href =
a --->c
“http://WWW.rupert.com/rup.html>
b --->d
C) <A href = “rupert.html”>
This relation is
D) <A href = WWW.rup.com/rup.html
A) In First Normal Form but not in
Second Normal Form 132. What does the asterisk indicates in the
B) In Second Normal Form but not in frameset tag?
Third Normal Form < frameset Cols = “240, *”>
C) In Third Normal Form A) 50% of pixels
D) None of these B) 240 pixels
C) Remainder of available viewing
129. Which of the following is/are correct space
A) An SQL query automatically D) Syntax error in html code
eliminates duplicates
133. Which of the following way is not used to
B) An SQL query will not work if there
authoring/publishing the web pages?
are no indexes on the relation
A) Through ISP
C) SQL permits attributes names to be
B) Own server
repeated in the same relation
C) Corporate Information Services
D) DISTINCT keyword is used to
department
remove duplicates
D) Local desktop without
connectivity
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134. Which of the following is not true about 140. The driver used in OLE DB is called as
virtual domain? _____________
A) Consistent address even if ISP A) Provider B) ODBC
changed C) DSN D) ADO
B) Server name cannot be changed
C) Easy expansion of website as the 141. In JavaScript , what does NaN function
need grows do?
D) Changes the address to eliminate A) Return false, if the argument is not a
the special folder number
B) Return true, if the argument is not
135. Any alignment specified at the cell level a number
overrides C) Return true, if the argument is a
A) Any default alignments number
B) Any alignments specified in a <TR> D) None of these
tag
C) Any default alignments and any 142. A family of graphic characters that
alignments specified in a <TR> tag usually includes many type sizes and
D) None of the above styles is called
A) typeface B) font
136. Main Container for <td> <th> <tr> is C) point D) Link
A) < Caption> B) < Data>
C) < Group> D) < Table> 143. TIFF stands for
A) Transitional Image File Format
137. The web standard allows programmers B) Total Inclusion File Format
on many different computer platforms to C) Tagged Interchange File Format
dispersed format and display the D) Transposition Interchange File
information. These programs are called Format
A) HTML B) Browser
C) Protocols D) Tags 144. The file format that uses a shorthand
representation of musical notes and
138. The directive used to make variable duration stored in numeric form is
declaration compulsory in ASP is A) AIFF B) DSP
A) option implicit C) MIDI D) QuickTime
B) option explicit
C) option implicit and option explicit 145. The process of recording sound, stored
D) none of these in the form of thousands of individual
measurements, each at a discrete point
139. Instr function returns zero
in time is called
A) if string1 is empty
A) Sampling B) Synthesizing
B) if string2 is not found in string1
C) Sizing D) Quantizing
C) if start is greater than the length of
string2
D) all of these
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146. The focus and blur events are also part
of
A) Element events
B) Handler events
C) Window events
D) Scroll events

147. In general, the animation may appear


jerky and slow if each frame is displayed
for more than about
A) 1/30 of a second
B) 1/15 of a second
C) 1/4 of a second
D)1/2 of a second

148. Predict the Output of the following


javascript code
< Script type = “text/javascript‟>
Var a = “Computerengineering”;
Var x = a. lastlndexOf (“e”);
document . write (X);
</Script>
A) 6 B) 7
C) 14 D) 15

149. What is the correct Syntax for referring


to an external script called “sample.js”?
A) < Script Src = “Sample. js”>
B) < Script href = “Sample. js”>
C) < Script ref = “Sample. js”>
D) < Script name = “Sample. js”>

150. Predict the output of the following:


Var a1 = {“mass”, “Weight”, “Volume”};
Var a2 = a1;
a2[0]=”density”;
alert (a1);
A) density, weight, volume
B) mass, weight, volume
C) undefined, weight, volume
D) mass, density, weight, volume

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