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Sample Papers With Solution

The document is a sample paper for CBSE Biology Class 12, consisting of 33 compulsory questions divided into five sections with varying marks. It includes multiple-choice questions, assertion-reason questions, and descriptive questions covering various biology topics. The paper aims to assess students' understanding of biological concepts and their applications.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
53 views18 pages

Sample Papers With Solution

The document is a sample paper for CBSE Biology Class 12, consisting of 33 compulsory questions divided into five sections with varying marks. It includes multiple-choice questions, assertion-reason questions, and descriptive questions covering various biology topics. The paper aims to assess students' understanding of biological concepts and their applications.

Uploaded by

khabilesh7a1
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

CBSE Biology Class 12 Sample Paper 2 Page 1

Sample Paper 3
Biology (044)
Class XII Session 2022-23
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section—A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section—B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section—C has
7 questions of 3 marks each: Section—D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section—E has 3
questions of 5 marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to
attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION-A
1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding ZW-ZZ type of sex determination?
(a) It occcurs in birds and some reptiles

(b) 1 : 1 sex ratio is produced in the offsprings

(c) Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic

(d) All of these

2. Which of the following statements regarding the asexual reproduction is incorrect?


(a) It is uniparental and usually occurs in unicellular organisms.

(b) It does not contribute to evolution and speciation.

(c) Both mitotic and meiotic division occurs.

(d) There is no variation and the offsprings have the same phenotype and genotype.

3. DNA replication is
(a) semiconservative and discontinuous

(b) semiconservative and semi discontinuous

(c) conservative and discontinuous

(d) conservative

4. The site of origin of the new plantlets in potato, dahlia, ginger and banana is
(a) nodes of modified stem.

(b) internodes of modified stem.

(c) floral buds present on stem.


(d) adventitious buds present on root.
5. Plasmid has been used as vector because
(a) It transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.

(b) it can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

(c) both its ends show replication.

(d) it has antibiotic resistance gene.

6. ABO blood group system is due to


(a) multiple allelism

(b) incomplete dominance

(c) multifactor inheritance

(d) epistasis

7. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with
(a) DNA polymerase

(b) endonucleases

(c) DNA ligase

(d) exonucleases

8. Refer the given figure of nucleosome and select the option that correctly identifies the parts A, B and C.

A B C
(a) DNA Histone octamer H1 histone
(b) Histone octamer H1 histone DNA
(c) Histone octamer DNA H1 histone
(d) DNA H1 histone Octamer
9. According to size of air pollutants, range and types of chemical the device given below is best used to control
which of the following pollutants?

(a) Dissolved gases

(b) charged particulate matter

(c) large particulates

(d) fine particles

10. Inbreeding depression


(a) usually reduces fertility and productivity

(b) usually reduces productivity only.

(c) usually increases fertility only.

(d) usually increases fertility and productivity

11. The kangaroo rats of North American deserts do not need to drink water because
(a) they are able to concentrate urine, to minimize water loss.

(b) they meet their water requirement through internal fat oxidation when the water is a byproduct.

(c) they do not have sweat glands.

(d) all of the above

12. The ‘mule’ is the result of


(a) inbreeding depression

(b) inter-specific hybridization

(c) cross-breeding

(d) out-breeding
DIRECTION : [Link]. 13-16: Consist of two statements—Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting
the appropriate option given below:

13. Assertion: Insects visit flowers to gather honey.


Reason: Attraction to flowers prevents the insects from damaging other parts of the plant.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is False but R is true.

14. Assertion: Curdling is required in the manufacture of cheese.


Reason: Lactic acid bacteria are used for the purpose.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is False but R is true.

15. Assertion: Female mosquito is an example of temporary parasite.


Reason: Plasmodium is an endoparasite.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is False but R is true.

16. Assertion: Insulin is said to be anabolic hormone.


Reason: Failure of insulin secretion causes diabetes.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is False but R is true.

SECTION-B
17. Write about the importance of family planning programme in India ?

18. Why are angiosperm anthers called dithecous? Describe the structure of microsporangium and draw a well labelled
diagram.
19. What is meant by transgenic animal? List any four areas in which transgenic animals have wide applications.

20. Make a list of any three outbreeding devices that flowering plants have developed and explain how they help to
encourage cross-pollination.

21. Sex determination is based on particular chromosomes in both birds and humans. State two points of difference
between their mechanisms of sex determination.

SECTION-C
22. Study the figure given below and answer the questions.

(a) What does the figure express?


(b) When does the transcription of lac mRNA stop?
(c) Name the enzymes transcribed by the genes ‘z’ and ‘a’.
 o
(a) Name the scientist who suggested that the genetic code should be made of a combination of three nucleotides.
Explain the basis on which he arrived at this conclusion.
(b) Name two salient features of genetic code.

23. Name a disorder, give the karyotype and write the symptoms where a human male suffers as a result of an
additional X-chromosome.

24. “Stability of a community depends on its species richness.” Write how did David Tilman show this experimentally.

25. (a) A mixture of fragmented DNA was electrophoresed in an agarose gel. After staining the gel with ethidium
bromide, no DNA bands were observed. What could be the reason?
(b) Do eukaryotic cells have restriction endonucleases? Justify your answer.

26. Explain adaptive radiation and convergent evolution by taking example of some of Australian marsupials and
Australian placental mammals.
 o
Australian Marsupials and placental mammals are suitable examples of adaptive radiation and convergent
evolution. Explain giving reasons.
27. (i) Write the scientific name of most common species of honeybee reared.
(ii) Mention the kind of areas that are suitable for bee keeping practices.
(iii) Mention any two uses of bee-wax.

28. (i) Explain the events taking place at the time of fertilisation of an ovum in a human female.
(ii) Trace the development of the zygote up to its implantation in the uterus.
(iii) Name and draw a labelled sectional view of the embryonic stage that gets implanted.

SECTION-D
29. Read the following and answer any four questions from 29(i) to 29(iv) given below:
Events of Menstrual Cycle:
The major events of the menstrual cycle are as follows as the cycle starts with the menstrual phase, when
menstrual flow occurs and it lasts for 3-5 days. The menstrual flow results due to breakdown of endometrial lining
of the uterus and its blood vessels which forms liquid that comes out through vagina. Menstruation only occurs if
the released ouvm is not fertilised. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy. However, it may also be
caused due to some other underlying causes like stress, poor health etc. The menstrual phase is followed by the
follicular phase.
During this phase, the primary follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle and
simultaneously the endometrium of uterus regenerates through proliferation. These changes in the ovary and the
uterus are induced by changes in the levels of pituitary and ovarian hormones. The secretion of gonadotropins (LH
and FSH) increases gradually during the follicular phase, and stimulates follicular development as well as secretion
of estrogens by the growing follicles. Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the middle of cycle (about 14th
day). Rapid secretion of LH leading to its maximum level during the mid-cycle called LH surge induces rupture of
Graafian follicle and thereby the release of ovum (ovulation). The ovulation (ovulatory phase) is followed by the
luteal phase during which the remaining parts of the Graafian follicle transform as the corpus luteum.
The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of the endometrium.
Such an endometrium is necessary for implantation of the fertilised ovum and other events of pregnancy. During
pregnanacy, all events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation. In the absence of fertilisation,
the corpus luteum degenerates. This causes disintegration of the endometrium leading to menstruation, marking
a new cycle. In human beings, menstrual cycles cease around 50 years of age; that is termed as menopause. Cyclic
menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive phase and extends between menarche and menopause.
(i) What causes menstrual flow?
(ii) Why secretory phase is also known as luteal phase?
(iii) What happen if LH secreted rapidly?
(iv) Which of the hormone has no role in menstruation?

30. Read the following and answer any four questions from 30(i) to 30(iv) given below:
Bt Cotton:
Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that kill certain insects such as lepidopterans (tobacco
budworm, armyworm), coleopterans (beetles) and dipterans (flies, mosquitoes). B. thuringiensis forms protein
crystals during a particular phase of their growth. These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein. Why does
this toxin not kill the Bacillus. Actually, the Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins but once an insect ingest
the inactive toxin, it is converted into an active form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilise
the crystals. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and creates pores that cause cell
swelling and lysis and eventually cause death of the insect. Specific Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus
thuringiensis and incorporated into the several crop plants such as cotton (Figure 12.1). The choice of genes
depends upon the crop and the targeted pest, as most Bt toxins are insect-group specific. The toxin is coded by a
gene named cry. There are a number of them, for example, the proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and cryIIAb
control the cotton bollworms that of cryIAb control corn borer.
(i) What is role of cry II Ab and cry I Ab?
(ii) Specific Bt toxin gene was isolated from which organism?
(iii)Name the gene that encodes for Bt protein specific to cotton bollworm?
(iv) Consider the following statements (A-D) about organic farming
(A) utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton
(B) uses only naturally produced inputs like compost
(C) does not use pesticides and urea
(D) produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) B, C and D
(b) C and D only
(c) B and C only
(d) A and B only

SECTION-E
31. Mr. Oberoi angrily says to his daughter not to marry Mohan since their family is known to inherit haemophilia.
The daughter objected to her father’s order. Mr. Oberoi was adamant and threatened also. Brijmohan’s daughter
explained the biological interpretation of his fear and convinced her father.
(a) Briefly discuss the inheritance pattern of haemophilia.
(b) Mohan was not haemophilic though his father is haemophilic. Explain the condition of Mohan by considering
following three conditions of his mother:
(i) Normal mother
(ii) Carrier mother
(iii) Haemophilic mother
(c) Is there any fear of haemophilia if Mr. Oberoi daughter marries Mohan (non-haemophilic)?
 o
How Hershey and Chase proved that DNA is the genetic material?

32. Briefly explain the lifecycle of plasmodium. What measures would you take to control malaria?
 o
(a) What measures do you suggest for prevention and control of alcohol and drug abuse among adolescents?
(b) The outline structure of a drug is given below.

(i) Which group of drugs does this represent? Name the plant from which it is obtained.
(ii) What are the modes of consumption of these drugs?
(iii) Name the organ of the body which is affected by consumption of these drugs.

33. Mention the factors which cause changes in the size of population of a species.
 o
(a) State how ex-situ conservation helps in protecting biodiversity. Name four types of ex-situ methods.
(b) Explain the importance of sacred groves.

******
Page 1 Sample Paper 2 Solutions CBSE Biology Class 12

Sample Paper 3 Solutions


Biology (044)
Class XII Session 2022-23
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section—A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section—B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section—C has
7 questions of 3 marks each: Section—D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section—E has 3
questions of 5 marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to
attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

3. DNA replication is
SECTION-A (a) semiconservative and discontinuous
(b) semiconservative and semi discontinuous
1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding ZW- (c) conservative and discontinuous
ZZ type of sex determination? (d) conservative
(a) It occcurs in birds and some reptiles
 Ans : (a) semiconservative and discontinuous
(b) 1 : 1 sex ratio is produced in the offsprings
(c) Females are homogametic and males are In semi conservative replication of DNA in each
heterogametic replica one half is the old strand and the other half is
a new strand synthesised over it. Also, one strand is
(d) All of these
synthesised continuously and other discontinuously,
Ans : (c) Females are homogametic and males are hence called discontinuous.
heterogametic
4. The site of origin of the new plantlets in potato,
dahlia, ginger and banana is
2. Which of the following statements regarding the
(a) nodes of modified stem.
asexual reproduction is incorrect?
(a) It is uniparental and usually occurs in (b) internodes of modified stem.
unicellular organisms. (c) floral buds present on stem.
(b) It does not contribute to evolution and (d) adventitious buds present on root.
speciation.  Ans : (a) nodes of modified stem.
(c) Both mitotic and meiotic division occurs.
(d) There is no variation and the offsprings have
the same phenotype and genotype. 5. Plasmid has been used as vector because
(a) It transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.
 Ans : (c) Both mitotic and meiotic division occurs.
(b) it can move between prokaryotic and
When offspring is produced by a single parent with eukaryotic cells.
or without the involvement of gamete formation, (c) both its ends show replication.
the reproduction is called asexual. As a result, the
(d) it has antibiotic resistance gene.
offspring that are produced are not only similar
to one another but are also exact copies of their Ans : (a) It transfer the piece of DNA attached to
parent. Only mitotic division occurs in asexual it.
reproduction.
Plasmids is a genetic structure in a cell that can
replicate independently of the chromosomes. It
is typically a small circular DNA strand in the
cytoplasm of a bacterium or protozoan. Plasmids
are much used in the laboratory manipulation of A B C
genes.
(a) DNA H i s t o n e H1 histone
octamer
6. ABO blood group system is due to
(a) multiple allelism (b) H i s t o n e H1 histone DNA
octamer
(b) incomplete dominance
(c) multifactor inheritance (c) H i s t o n e DNA H1 histone
octamer
(d) epistasis
(d) DNA H1 histone Octamer
 Ans : (a) multiple allelism
The mode of inheritance in case of multiple alleles is  Ans : (a)
called multiple allelism. A well known and simplest
example of multiple allelism is the inheritance of
ABO blood groups in human beings. In human 9. According to size of air pollutants, range and types
population, 3 different alleles for this characters are of chemical the device given below is best used to
found — IA, IB and IO. A person is having only control which of the following pollutants?
two of these three alleles and blood type can be
determined.

7. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the


plasmid vector became possible with
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) endonucleases
(c) DNA ligase
(d) exonucleases
(a) Dissolved gases
 Ans : (c) DNA ligase
(b) charged particulate matter
The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the
(c) large particulates
plasmid vector became possible with DNA ligase.
DNA ligase is an enzyme that is able to join together (d) fine particles
two cut portions of DNA and therefore plays an  Ans : (a) Dissolved gases
important role in DNA repair. DNA ligase is also
The given diagram in question shows a device
used in recombinant DNA technology as it ensures
known as scrubber that can remove gases like
that the foreign DNA is bound to the plasmid into
sulphur dioxide. In a scrubber, the exhaust is passed
which it is incorporated.
through a spray of water or lime.

8. Refer the given figure of nucleosome and select the


10. Inbreeding depression
option that correctly identifies the parts A, B and
(a) usually reduces fertility and productivity
C.
(b) usually reduces productivity only.
(c) usually increases fertility only.
(d) usually increases fertility and productivity
 Ans : (a) usually reduces fertility and productivity
Inbreeding increases homozyosity. It involves the
mating of movie closely related individuals within
the same breed for 4-6 generations.
11. The kangaroo rats of North American deserts do of flower whorls and produce nectar. Nectar is a
not need to drink water because sweet substance that attracts insects towards the
(a) they are able to concentrate urine, to minimize flowers. The rough and sticky pollens are stuck on
water loss. the bodies of visiting insects and are transferred to
(b) they meet their water requirement through sticky stigma of other flower. Attraction of insects
internal fat oxidation when the water is a towards flowers facilitates cross pollination. This
byproduct. makes Reason an incorrect statement. Insects visit
(c) they do not have sweat glands. flowers for nectar only honeybee forms honey out of
nectar. This makes Assertion incorrect.
(d) all of the above
 Ans : (d) all of the above
The Kangaroo rats of North American deserts do
not need to drink water because of the following
reasons, like- they meet their water requirements
through internal oxidation fats when water is a
byproduct, they are able to concentrate their urine
thereby minimizing the loss of water from their
body and also they do not have sweat glands so no
perspiration occurs in the animals.

12. The ‘mule’ is the result of


(a) inbreeding depression
14. Assertion: Curdling is required in the manufacture
(b) inter-specific hybridization of cheese.
(c) cross-breeding Reason: Lactic acid bacteria are used for the
(d) out-breeding purpose.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
 Ans : (b) inter-specific hybridization
explanation of A.
The mule is a hybrid between male donkey and female (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the
horse. It is the result of interspecific hybridization correct explanation of A.
in which crossing is done between the members of
(c) A is true but R is false.
different species. Mules show hybrid vigour. They
are sturdier than the horse and larger than donkeys. (d) A is False but R is true.
Both male and female mules are infertile. Ans : (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A.

DIRECTION : [Link]. 13-16: Consist of two statements— The manufacture of cheese requires two main
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions steps: curdling and the ripening. Curdling the
selecting the appropriate option given below: milk proteins forms a solid material from which
the liquid is drained away. The curdling process is
microbiological, since acid production of lactic acid
13. Assertion: Insects visit flowers to gather honey. bacteria is sufficient to coagulate milk proteins.
Reason: Attraction to flowers prevents the insects
from damaging other parts of the plant.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 15. Assertion: Female mosquito is an example of
explanation of A. temporary parasite.
Reason: Plasmodium is an endoparasite.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
correct explanation of A.
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the
(d) A is False but R is true. correct explanation of A.
 Ans : (c) A is true but R is false. (c) A is true but R is false.
Insect pollinated flowers are large, conspicuous, (d) A is False but R is true.
bright coloured and have pleasant smell. They have Ans : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
nectarines on receptacles or on spurs at the base explanation of A.
16. Assertion: Insulin is said to be anabolic hormone. dehiscene of anther. Tapetum nourishes the
Reason: Failure of insulin secretion causes diabetes. developing microspores.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is False but R is true.
Ans : (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Anabolic hormones are those which help in
the formation of muscles, cellular growth and Figure : (a) Transverse section of a young anther
development and an overall increase in size. Insulin, (b) Enlarged view of one microsporangium
growth hormone, testosterone are known as human
anabolic hormones.
Insulin results in the transport of glucose into
19. What is meant by transgenic animal? List any
the cell of the body. When insulin fails to do so
four areas in which transgenic animals have wide
there is an increase in the amount of glucose in the
applications.
bloodstream and this will result in diabetes.
 Ans :
The term transgenic animal refers to an animal
SECTION-B carrying foreign genes. Foreign DNA is introduced
into the animal, using recombinant DNA technology.
The potential of the technology has also made it
17. Write about the importance of family planning possible to consider employing cattle, sheep and
programme in India ? goats as processing units to manufacture proteins
 Ans : or as organ donors.
Applications :
Our nation was the first nation in the world to
(i) In medical research, transgenic animals are
initiate various action plans at national level
used to identify the functions of specific factors
towards attaining healthy society.
in complex homeostatic system through over-
or under-expression of a modified gene (the
inserted transgene).
(ii) In the pharmaceutical industry, targeted
production of pharmaceutical proteins, drug
production and product efficacy testing.
(iii) Developing animals specially created for use
xenografting.

18. Why are angiosperm anthers called dithecous? 20. Make a list of any three outbreeding devices that
Describe the structure of microsporangium and flowering plants have developed and explain how
draw a well labelled diagram. they help to encourage cross-pollination.
 Ans :  Ans :
(i) The anthers of androecium of angiospermic Three outbreeding devices discussed that help to
flowers are bilobed and each lobe is divided encourage cross-pollination are as follows-
into two parts or theca. Thus, the anther of (i) Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not
angiosperms are dithecous. synchronised.
(ii) Structure of microsporangium (ii) Self-incompatibility, is a genetic phenomenon
A typical microsporangium is surrounded by of preventing growth of pollen tube on the
four wall layers, L e., epidermis, endothecium, stigma of the same flower.
middle layers and the tapetum. Outer three (iii) Production of unisexual flowers, i.e., autogamy
layers are protective in function and help in is prevented.
21. Sex determination is based on particular This 26. repressor protein binds to the operator
chromosomes in both birds and humans. State two region of the operon and stops transcription.
points of difference between their mechanisms of sex (c) The gene ‘z’ codes for beta-galactosidase
determination. enzyme and gene ‘a’ codes for transacetylase
 Ans : enzyme.
 o
Sex determination in organisms is based on the type
of sex chromosomes. Two main differences between  Ans :
them are — (a) George Gamow suggested that the genetic code
(i) Sex determination in humans is XY type while should be made up of a combination of three
those in birds is ZW type. nucleotides.
(ii) In human XY is male, XX is female while in He proposed that if 20 amino acids are to be
birds ZZ is male, ZW is female. coded by 4 bases, then the code should be made
up of three nucleotides i.e., 43 = 64 (42 = 16)
, which is less than 20. So, the codon was
SECTION-C proposed to be triplet.
(b) The salient features of genetic codes are as
follows
22. Study the figure given below and answer the (i) Genetic codes are universal.
questions. (ii) Genetic codes are unambiguous.
(iii) The code is degenerate: The occurrence of
more than one codon for a single amino acid
is referred to as degenerate.
(iv) The code is non-overlapping.
(v) The code is comma less.

(a) What does the figure express? 23. Name a disorder, give the karyotype and write the
(b) When does the transcription of lac mRNA symptoms where a human male suffers as a result of
stop? an additional X-chromosome.
(c) Name the enzymes transcribed by the genes ‘z’  Ans :
and ‘a’.
It is chromosomal disorder called Klinefelter ‘s
 o
syndrome, which occurs in males. Human males
(a) Name the scientist who suggested that the
have XXY sex-chromosome (47 chromosomes)
genetic code should be made of a combination
instead of XY.
of three nucleotides. Explain the basis on which
Symptoms
he arrived at this conclusion.
(i) Sex of the individual is masculine but possess
(b) Name two salient features of genetic code.
feminine characters.
 Ans : (ii) Gynaecomastia, i.e., development of breasts.
(a) The given figure shows lac operon. This operon (iii) Poor beard growth and often sterile.
includes inducer (i), promoter (p), operator (o), (iv) Feminine pitched voice.
and three structural genes (z, y, a). In presence
of an inducer (such as lactose or allolactose), 24. “Stability of a community depends on its species
the repressor is inactivated on interaction with richness.” Write how did David Tilman show this
the inducer. experimentally.
(b) During transcription of lac mRNA, the repressor
of the operon is synthesised from the i gene.  Ans :
Species richness refers to the number of different (habitat) is called adaptive radiation. Australian
species present per unit area. marsupials are a good example.
Ecosystems with higher biodiversity (e.g. tropic Many Australian marsupials, each different from
forests) are more productive than with lower the other, e.g., kangaroo, sugar glider, etc., evolved
biodiversity (temperate forest). David Tilman from a common ancestral stock, but all within the
found that plots with more species showed less year Australian island continent.
to year variation in total biomass. He also showed When more than one adaptive radiation occur
that increased diversity contributed to higher in an isolated geographical area, it can be called
productivity. as convergent evolution. Australian placental
mammals also show adaptive radiation in evolving
into varieties of such placentral mammals, each
25. (a) A mixture of fragmented DNA was
one of which appear similar to a corresponding
electrophoresed in an agarose gel. After staining the
marsupial, e.g., placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf,
gel with ethidium bromide, no
anteater and numbat, etc.
DNA bands were observed. What could be the
reason?
(b) Do eukaryotic cells have restriction
endonucleases? Justify your answer.
 Ans :
(a) DNA bands may not be observed when a mixture
of fragmented DNA was electrophoresed, due
to following reasons-
(i) Concentration of agarose in the gel was
27. (i) Write the scientific name of most common species
not proper, as greater the concentration of
of honeybee reared.
agarose gel, greater will be the facilitation
(ii) Mention the kind of areas that are suitable for
of the separation of small DNA fragments,
bee keeping practices.
whereas smaller the concentration of aga-
(iii) Mention any two uses of bee-wax.
rose higher will be the resolution of bands.
(ii) If the concentration of salt in the buffer was  Ans :
not proper. (i) Apis indica
(iii) If DNA sample is contaminated with RNA (ii) It can be practiced in any area, where there
or any other impurity or if the concentration are sufficient bee pastures of some wild shrubs,
of DNA is very less. fruit orchards and cultivated crops.
(b) (i) No, eukaryotic cells do not have restriction (iii) Beeswax is used in the preparation of cosmetics
en donucleases. and polishes of various kinds.
(ii) This is because the DNA of eukaryotes is
highly methylated by a modified enzyme, 28. (i) Explain the events taking place at the time of
called methylase. Methylation protects fertilisation of an ovum in a human female.
the DNA from the activity of restriction (ii) Trace the development of the zygote up to its
enzymes. These enzymes are present in implantation in the uterus.
prokaryotic cells where they help to prevent (iii) Name and draw a labelled sectional view of the
the invasion of DNA by virus. embryonic stage that gets implanted.
 Ans :
26. Explain adaptive radiation and convergent evolution
by taking example of some of Australian marsupials (i) (a) Fertilisation occurs in human beings in
and Australian placental mammals. ampullaryisthmic junction of the Fallopian
 o tube.
Australian Marsupials and placental mammals (b) A sperm contacts with zona pellucida layer
are suitable examples of adaptive radiation and of the ovum. It induces changes in the
convergent evolution. Explain giving reasons. membrane that blocks the entry of additional
sperms.
 Ans : (c) Acrosome in head part of sperms helps
The process of evolution of different species in a to digest the zona pellucida and plasma
given geographical area starting from a point and membrane of the ovum (secondary oocyte)
literally radiating to other areas of geography and enter into the cytoplasm.
(d) Entry of sperm induces the completion of
second meiotic division of the secondary
SECTION-D
oocyte. It leads to the formation of a second
polar body and a large ootid. 29. Read the following and answer any four questions
(e) Nucleus of the sperm and that of ootid fuses from 29(i) to 29(iv) given below:
to form a diploid zygote. Events of Menstrual Cycle:
(ii) Development of zygote up to implantation The major events of the menstrual cycle are as
(a) Cleavage division (mitotic) starts in zygote follows as the cycle starts with the menstrual phase,
as it moves through the isthmus of fallopian when menstrual flow occurs and it lasts for 3-5
tube towards the uterus. days. The menstrual flow results due to breakdown
(b) This division results into 2, 4, 8 and 16 of endometrial lining of the uterus and its blood
daughter cells called blastomeres. vessels which forms liquid that comes out through
(c) The embryo with 8-16 blastomeres is called vagina. Menstruation only occurs if the released
morula. ouvm is not fertilised. Lack of menstruation may
(d) Morula continues to divide and transforms be indicative of pregnancy. However, it may also
into blastocyst as it moves further into be caused due to some other underlying causes
uterus. like stress, poor health etc. The menstrual phase is
(e) Blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged followed by the follicular phase.
into an outer layer called trophoblast and During this phase, the primary follicles in the
inner group of cells attached to trophoblast ovary grow to become a fully mature Graafian
called inner cell mass. follicle and simultaneously the endometrium of
(f) Trophoblast layer then gets attached to the uterus regenerates through proliferation. These
endometrium and the inner cell mass gets changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced
differentiated as the embryo. by changes in the levels of pituitary and ovarian
(g) After attachment the uterine cells divide hormones. The secretion of gonadotropins (LH
rapidly and cover the blastocyst. It leads to and FSH) increases gradually during the follicular
blastocyst’s embedding in the endometrium phase, and stimulates follicular development as well
of the uterus. This is called implantation. as secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles.
(iii) Blastocyst stage implants in the uterus. Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the middle
of cycle (about 14th day). Rapid secretion of LH
leading to its maximum level during the mid-cycle
called LH surge induces rupture of Graafian follicle
and thereby the release of ovum (ovulation). The
ovulation (ovulatory phase) is followed by the luteal
phase during which the remaining parts of the
Graafian follicle transform as the corpus luteum.
The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of
progesterone which is essential for maintenance of the
endometrium. Such an endometrium is necessary for
implantation of the fertilised ovum and other events
of pregnancy. During pregnanacy, all events of the
menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation.
In the absence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum
degenerates. This causes disintegration of the
endometrium leading to menstruation, marking
a new cycle. In human beings, menstrual cycles
cease around 50 years of age; that is termed as
menopause. Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of
normal reproductive phase and extends between
menarche and menopause.
(i) What causes menstrual flow?
(ii) Why secretory phase is also known as luteal
phase?
(iii) What happen if LH secreted rapidly?
(iv) Which of the hormone has no role in
menstruation?
 Ans : Which of the above statements are correct?
(i) Menstrual flow occur due to lack of Progesterone. (a) B, C and D
(ii) Secretory phase is also called luteal phase (b) C and D only
because during this phase remained part of (c) B and C only
graafian follicle transform as the corpus luteum. (d) A and B only
(iii) Rapid secretion of LH (Luteinizing Hormone)  Ans :
leading to its maximum level during the (i) Cry II Ab and Cry IAb produce toxins that
mid-cycle called LH surge induces rupture of control cotton bollworms and corn borer
graafian follicle and there by the release of respectively.
ovum. (ii) Specific Bt toxin gene were isolated from
(iv) TSH (Thyroid stimulating Hormones) has no Bacillus thuringiensis
role in menstruation. (iii) The gene that encodes for Bt protein specific to
cotton bollworm is cry II Ab.
30. Read the following and answer any four questions (iv) (c)
from 30(i) to 30(iv) given below:
Bt Cotton:
Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce
proteins that kill certain insects such as
lepidopterans (tobacco budworm, armyworm),
coleopterans (beetles) and dipterans (flies,
mosquitoes). B. thuringiensis forms protein crystals
during a particular phase of their growth. These
crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein. Why
does this toxin not kill the Bacillus. Actually, the Bt
toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins but once an
insect ingest the inactive toxin, it is converted into
SECTION-E
an active form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of
the gut which solubilise the crystals. The activated 31. Mr. Oberoi angrily says to his daughter not to
toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells marry Mohan since their family is known to inherit
and creates pores that cause cell swelling and lysis haemophilia. The daughter objected to her father’s
and eventually cause death of the insect. Specific Bt order. Mr. Oberoi was adamant and threatened
toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis also. Brijmohan’s daughter explained the biological
and incorporated into the several crop plants such interpretation of his fear and convinced her father.
as cotton (Figure 12.1). The choice of genes depends (a) Briefly discuss the inheritance pattern of
upon the crop and the targeted pest, as most Bt haemophilia.
toxins are insect-group specific. The toxin is coded (b) Mohan was not haemophilic though his father
by a gene named cry. There are a number of them, is haemophilic. Explain the condition of Mohan
for example, the proteins encoded by the genes by considering following three conditions of his
cryIAc and cryIIAb control the cotton bollworms mother:
that of cryIAb control corn borer. (i) Normal mother
(i) What is role of cry II Ab and cry I Ab? (ii) Carrier mother
(ii) Specific Bt toxin gene was isolated from which (iii) Haemophilic mother
organism? (c) Is there any fear of haemophilia if Mr. Oberoi
(iii) Name the gene that encodes for Bt protein daughter marries Mohan (non-haemophilic)?
specific to cotton bollworm?  o
(iv) Consider the following statements (A-D) about How Hershey and Chase proved that DNA is the
organic farming genetic material?
(A) utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt  Ans :
cotton
(B) uses only naturally produced inputs like (a) Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs
compost the body’s ability to make blood clots, a process
(C) does not use pesticides and urea needed to stop bleeding. It is usually inherited
(D) produces vegetables rich in vitamins and with an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern.
minerals. (b) (i) In case of normal mother,
In this case, there will be 50% chances of
normal male. This shows, Mohan will not be
haemophilic if his mother is normal female
while his father is haemophilic male.
(ii) In case of carrier mother,

Figure : Hershey and Chase Experiment

(b) Procedure
In this case, there is only 25% chance that (i) Some bacteriophage virus were grown
Mohan will not be haemophilic. on a medium that contained radioactive
(iii) In case of haemophilic mother, phosphorus (32P) and some in another
medium with radioactive sulphur (35S).
(ii) Virus grown in the presence of radioactive
phosphorus (32P) contained radioactive
DNA.
(iii) Similar viruses grown in presence of
radioactive sulphur (35S) contained
radioactive protein.
(iv) Both radioactive virus types were allowed to
infect [Link] separately.
In this case Mohan will be diseased.
(v) Soon after injection, the bacterial cells were
We can conclude that in case (i) and (ii),
gently agitated in blender to remove viral
Mohan will be normal.
coats from the bacteria.
(c) No, there remains no fear if they married, as
(vi) The culture was also centrifuged to separate
the girl’s not a carrier of haemophilia. If the
the viral particle from the bacterial cell.
girl is a carrier, then the chance for the son to
(c) Observation and conclusion: Only radioactive
be haemophilic is 50%. 32
P was found to be associated with the bacterial
 o
cell, whereas radioactive 35S was only found in
 Ans : surrounding medium and not in bacterial cell.
(a) In 1952, Alfred Hershey and Martha This indicates that only DNA and not protein
Chase conducted a series of experiments coat entered in bacterial cell. It proves that
on bacteriophage to prove that DNA is a DNA is a genetic material, which passes from
genetic material. They did two experiments to virus to bacteria.
prove that DNA is the carrier of the genetic
information.
32. Briefly explain the lifecycle of plasmodium. What (i) Drug education and counselling programme
measures would you take to control malaria? : It is important to provide drug education
 o beginning with prospective drug users,
(a) What measures do you suggest for prevention essentially childrens and teens. Educate
and control of alcohol and drug abuse among young people about the dangers associated
adolescents? with drug use and abuse.
(b) The outline structure of a drug is given below. (ii) Seeking helps from parents and peers :
Parents need to be responsible and aware of
what their children do and where they are at
all time. They should spent more time with
them in order to educate them properly and
have better relationships with their children.
Drug prevention enforcement should begins
at home and should continue in school and
after school.
(b) (i) Cannabinoids, Cannabis sativa
(i) Which group of drugs does this represent? (ii) The mode of consumption is inhalation or
Name the plant from which it is obtained. oral ingestion.
(ii) What are the modes of consumption of these (iii) Organs affected are heart and cardiovascular
drugs? system. Such drugs cause illusions delusions
(iii) Name the organ of the body which is affected (halluciations) and change the feelings or
by consumption of these drugs. perception.

 Ans :
Plasmodium (malarial parasite) enters the body
as sporozoite through the bite of infected female
Anopheles mosquito. Sporozoite multiply in liver 33. Mention the factors which cause changes in the size
cells and then attack RBCs resulting in their of population of a species.
rupture. The ruptured RBCs release a toxin called  o
haemozoin, which is responsible for the chill and (a) State how ex-situ conservation helps in
high recurring fever every three to four days. When a protecting biodiversity. Name four types of ex-
female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, situ methods.
these parasites enter into the mosquitoe’s body (b) Explain the importance of sacred groves.
and undergo further development. The parasites  Ans :
multiply to form sporozoites that are stored in
their salivary glands. When these mosquitoes bite a There are usually four factors which are actually
human, the sporozoites are introduced into his/her involved in causing the changes in population
body. Thus, malarial parasite requires two hosts- size. These are births, deaths, immigration
man and mosquito to complete lifecycle. Following and emigration. Out of which, the births and
are the measures to control malaria — immigration increases the size of the population of
(i) Screen all habitations from mosquitoes with a species in a favourable habitat, whereas, deaths
wire-gause over doors, windows and ventilators and emigration lower down the size of population in
(ii) Avoiding stagnation ofwater is and around a less favourable habitat.
residential areas. Natality (Birth rate) : If refers to the number of
(iii) Use of mosquito nets and insect repellents. births during a given period of time in the population
(iv) Introduction of fishes like Gambusia in ponds, that are added to the initial density.
which feed on mosquito larvae. Mortality (Death rate) : Mortality is the number of
(v) Spraying of insecticides such as DDT and BHC deaths in a population during a given period.
is ditches, drains and swamps. Immigration : It is the number of individuals of
 o the same species that have come into the habitat
from elsewhere during the time period under
 Ans : consideration.
(a) Some of the important measures for the Emigration : Emigration is the number of
prevention and control of alcohol and drug individuals of the population who left the habitat
abuse among adolescents are as follows - and gone elsewhere during the time period under
consideration.

The change in the size of population can be


represented by the following equation —
Nt = No + 6^B + I h − ^D + E h@
Where, Nt = Net population size
No = Size of the population at the beginning
B = Birth rate or Natality
I = Immigration rate
D = Death rate or Mortality
E = Emigration rate
 o
 Ans :
(a) • Ex situ conservation is the method of
preserving components of biological diversity
outside their natural habitats. These will play
an important role in recovery programmes for
endangered species. Considering the rate of
habitat loss worldwise, ex situ conservation is
becoming increasingly important as compare to
in situ conservation.
• Four types of advanced ex situ methods are
as follow:
(i) Cryopreservation technique
(ii) Zoological parks
(iii) Botanical gardens
(iv) Seed banks
(b) (i) The sacred groves are the areas that are
protected due to some religious or cultural
beliefs. These are important as these are the
last refuges for a large number of rare and
threatened plants. Such groves are found in
Khasi and Jaintia hills in Meghalayas, Aravalli
hills of Rajasthan, Western Ghats regions of
Karnataka and Maharashtra.
(ii) They are the repositories of rich medicinal
plants, wild relatives of crops and many
important species, which act as the valuable
gene pool. They give much ecological
and genetically significance and play an
important role in wildlife conservation also.

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