SCIENCE ASSIGNMENT-STD.

-10
3 MARKS - SECTION - C
LESSON 1: CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
1. What is the difference between displacement and double displacement reactions? Write
relevant equations for the above.
ANSWER:
A displacement reaction is the one when a more reactive substance displaces a less reactive
one from its salt solution whereas a double displacement reaction is the one where a mutual
exchange of ions happens between two compounds.
In a displacement reaction, only a single displacement takes place whereas in the double
displacement reaction, as the name suggests two displacement takes place between the
molecules.
Example:
Displacement reaction
Mg+2HCl→MgCl2+H2
Double displacement reaction
2KBr+BaI2→2KI+BaBr2

2. What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Explain by giving examples.

ANSWER:
When two solutions containing soluble salts are combined, a double displacement reaction
takes place in which the ions are exchanged between the compounds. When one of such
compounds formed is in solid form (that is insoluble in aqua) then it settles down at the
bottom of the container. This solid is known as the precipitate and the respective reaction is
termed as the precipitation reaction. Few examples of precipitation reactions are:
CdSO4(aq)+K2S(aq)→CdS(s)+K2SO4(aq)
2NaOH(aq)+MgCl2(aq)→2NaCl(aq)+Mg(OH)2(s)

3. Explain the following in terms of gain of oxygen with two examples each.
(a) Oxidation
(b) Reduction
ANSWER:
(a) In a chemical reaction, when the oxygen is added to the element to form its respective
oxide it is the element being oxidised. Example:
4Na(s)+O2(g)→2Na2O(s) H2S+O2→H2O+SO2

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 (b) In a chemical reaction, when the oxygen is being removed from the compound then it is
said to be reduced. Example:
CuO(s)+H2(g)→Cu(s)+H2O(l) 2HgO→2Hg+O2

4. Explain the following terms with one example each.

(a) Corrosion
(b) Rancidity
ANSWER:
(a) Corrosion is a process where a refined metal is oxidised by atmospheric oxygen to form a
more stable compound such as oxides. The metal gradually degrades during the corrosion
process. Rusting of iron is a good example of corrosion where the iron is converted to Iron
oxide. Millions of dollars are spent annually in preventing rusting from bridges and other
monuments.

(b) The condition produced by the aerial oxidation of the oil and fat present in the food
material that produces an unpleasant taste and smell. The rancidity is retarded when the
food is kept inside the refrigerator since the low temperature does not promote the
oxidation reaction.

5. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions in which energy is supplied in the
form of heat, light or electricity.
ANSWER:
(a) Thermal decomposition reaction (Thermolysis)
Decomposition of potassium chlorate: When heated strongly, potassium chlorate
decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen. This reaction is used for the preparation of
oxygen.
2KClO3+Heat→2KCl+3O2

(b) Electrolytic decomposition reaction (Electrolysis)

Decomposition of sodium chloride: On passing electricity through molten sodium chloride, it
decomposes into sodium and chlorine.
2NaCl→electricity 2Na+Cl2

(c) Photodecomposition reaction (Photolysis)

Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide: In the presence of light, hydrogen peroxide
decomposes into water and oxygen
2H2O2 (light) → 2H2O+O2

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6. What happens when a piece of
(a) zinc metal is added to copper sulphate solution?
(b) aluminium metal is added to dilute hydrochloric acid?
(c) silver metal is added to copper sulphate solution?
Also, write the balanced chemical equation if the reaction occurs
ANSWER:
(a) When Zinc is added to copper sulphate solution Zinc displaces copper to form Zinc
sulphate.
Zn(s)+ CuSo4(aq)→ ZnSo4(aq)+ Cu(s)
(b) Alluminium metals reacts with dilute HCl to for Aluminum Chloride and Hydrogen gas is
evolved in the reaction.
2Al (s)+ 6HCl(aq)→ 2AlCl3(aq)+ 3 H2
(c) When silver metal is added to Copper Sulphate solution there will not be any reaction as
silver is non-reactive metal.

7. Write a note on Combination reaction.

ANSWER:
Take a small amount of calcium oxide or quick lime in a beaker.
slowly add water to this
Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slacked lime (calcium hydroxide)
releasing a large amount of heat.
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + Heat
Quick lime water slacked lime

In this reaction, calcium oxide and water combine to form a single product, calcium
hydroxide. Such a reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants is
known as a combination reaction.
for eg;,
(1) Burning of Coal
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
(2) Formation of water from H2 (g) and O2 (g)
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)
When two or more substances (elements or compounds) combine to form a single product,
the reactions are called combination reactions.

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8. Write a note on: Displacement reaction.
ANSWER:
Take three iron nails and clean them by rubbing with sandpaper.
Take two test-tubes marked as (A) and (B) . In each test tube, take about 10ml copper
sulphate solution
Tie two iron nails with a thread and immerse them carefully in the copper sulphate solution
in test tube (B) for about 20 minutes.Keep one iron nail aside for comparison. After 20
minutes, take out the iron nails from the copper sulphate solution.

Compare the intensity of the blue color of copper sulphate solutions in test tubes (A) and (B).
Also compare the color of the iron nails dipped in the copper sulphate solution with the one
kept aside.
The following chemical reaction takes place in this activity
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 Fe(S) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
copper sulpahte iron sulphate

In this reaction, iron has displaced or removed another element , copper , from copper
sulphate solution. This reaction is known as displacement reaction.
Other examples of displacement reactions are
Zn(S) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
copper sulphate zinc sulphate

Pb(S) + CuCl2 (aq) → PbCl2(aq) + Cu(s)

copper chloride lead chloride

Zinc and Lead are more reactive elements than copper. They displace copper from its
compounds.

9. Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of Combination reactions? Write
equations for decomposition reactions.
ANSWER:
Combination reaction is said to be the reaction between two or more molecules to form a
larger molecule; whereas the decomposition reaction is defined as the splitting of larger
molecules into two or more smaller molecules. This essentially explains that the
decomposition reaction is the opposite of the combination reaction.
In most of the cases the decomposition reaction is endothermic since heat from the
surrounding or induced heat is used to break the bonds of the larger molecule. Few
examples of decomposition reactions are:
ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2
CaCO3 + Energy → CaO + CO2
2HgO → 2Hg + O2

10.Write the balanced equation for the following chemical reactions

(1) Hydrogen + Chlorine Hydrogen Chloride
(2) Barium Chloride + Aluminium Sulphate BariumSulphate + Aluminium Chloride
(3) Sodium + Water Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
ANSWER:
(1) H2 + Cl2 2HCl
(2) 3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 3BaSO4 + 2AlCl3
(3) 2Na + 2H2O 2NaOH + H2

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11. Write a short note on exothermic reaction with chemical equations.
ANSWER:
Reactions in which heat is released along with the formation of products are called
exothermic chemical reactions.
Examples of exothermic reactions are –
(1) Burning of natural gas
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
(2) We need energy to stay alive. We get this energy from the food we eat. During
digestion, food is broken down into simpler substances. For example, rice, potatoes and
bread contain carbohydrates. These carbohydrates are broken down to form glucose. This
glucose combines with oxygen in the cells of our body and provides energy. The special name
of this reaction is respiration.
C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(aq) 6CO2(aq) + 6H2O(l) + energy
(Ask this question for 2 point, What is respiration?)
(3) The decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is also an example of an
exothermic reaction.

12. Write a short note on decomposition reaction.

(1) Thermal decomposition
(2) Electrolytic decomposition (Activity 1.7)
(3) Photolytic decomposition
ANSWER:
(1) THERMAL DECOMPOSITION:
• Let take about 2 g ferrous sulphate crystals in a dry boiling tube.
• The colour of ferrous sulphate crystal is green.
• Heat the boiling tube over the flame of a burner or spirit lamp.(fig t.b. pg. no. 8)
2FeSO4(s) heat Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + SO3(g)
(Ferrous sulphate) (Ferric oxide)
In this reaction a single reactant breaks down to give simpler products. This is a
decomposition reaction.
• Ferrous sulphate crystals (FeSO4,7H2O) lose water when heated and the colour of the
crystals changes. It then decomposes to ferric oxide (Fe2O3), sulphur dioxide (SO2) and
sulphur trioxide (SO3). Ferric oxide is a solid, while SO2 and SO3 are gases.

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(2) ELECTRIC DECOMPOSITION:
• Take a plastic mug. Drill two holes at its base and fit rubber stoppers in these holes.
Insert carbon electrodes in these rubber stoppers.
• Connect these electrodes to a 6 volt battery.
• Fill the mug with water such that the electrodes are immersed. Add a few drops of
dilute sulphuric acid to the water.
• Take two test tubes filled with water and invert them over the two carbon electrodes.
• Switch on the current and leave the apparatus undisturbed for some time.
• You will observe the formation of bubbles at both the electrodes. These bubbles
displace water in the test tubes.
• Once the test tubes are filled with the respective gases, remove them carefully.
• Test these gases one by one by bringing a burning candle close to the mouth of the
test tubes.

(3)PHOTOLYTIC DECOMPOSITION:
• Take about 2 g silver chloride in a china dish.
• Its colour is white crystal.
• Place this china dish in sunlight for some time.
• White silver chloride turns grey in sunlight.
• This due to the decomposition of silver chloride into silver and chloride by light.
2AgCl(s) sunlight 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
• Silver bromide also behaves in the same way.
2AgBr(s) sunlight 2Ag(s) + Br2(g)
• The above reactions are used in black and white photography.
• The decomposition reactions require energy either in the form of heat, light or
electricity for breaking down the reactants. Reactions in which energy is absorbed are
known as endothermic reactions.

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13. Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them:
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a
precipitate of barium sulphate.
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
ANSWER:
(a) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Nitrogen hydrogen ammonia
(b) 2H2S(g) + 3O2(g) 2SO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
Hydrogen oxygen sulphur water
Sulphide dioxide
(c) BaCl2(aq) + Al2(SO4)3 2AlCl3(aq) + 3BaSO4(s)
Barium aluminium aluminium Barium
Chloride sulphate chloride sulphate
(d) 2K(s) + 2H2O(l) 2KOH + H2
Potassium water potassium Hydrogen
Hydroxide

14. Balance the following chemical equations:

(a) HNO3 + Ca(OH)3 Ca(NO3)2 + H2O
(b) NaOH + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + H2O
(c) NaCl + AgNO3 AgCl + NaNO3
(d) BaCl2 + H2SO4 BaSO4 + HCl
ANSWER:
(a) 2HNO3 + Ca(OH)3 Ca(NO3)2 +2 H2O
(b)2 NaOH + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + 2H2O
(c) NaCl + AgNO3 AgCl + NaNO3
(d) BaCl2 + H2SO4 BaSO4 + 2HCl

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15. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions:
(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide Carbon carbonate + water
(b) Zinc + Silver nitrate Zinc nitrate + Silver
(c) Aluminium + Copper Chloride Aluminium chloride + copper
(d) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate Barium Sulphate + Potassium chloride
ANSWER:
(a) Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
(b) Zn(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Zn(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
(c) 2Al(s) + 3CuCl2(aq) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3Cu(s)
(d) BaCl2(aq) + K2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2KCl(aq)

16. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following and identify the type of reaction in
each case.
(a) Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq) → Potassium iodide (aq) + Barium
bromide (s)
(b) Zinc carbonate (s) → Zinc oxide (s) + Carbon dioxide (g)
(c) Hydrogen (g) + Chlorine (g) → Hydrogen chloride (g)
(d) Magnesium(s) + Hydrochloric acid(aq) → Magnesium chloride (aq) + Hydrogen (g)
ANSWER:
(a) 2KBr(aq) + Bal2(aq) → 2KI(aq) + BaBr2(s)
(b) ZnCO3(s) → ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
(c) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
(d) Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)

17. Explain electrolysis of water.

ANSWER:
• Take a plastic mug. Drill two holes at its base and fit rubber stoppers in these holes.
Insert carbon electrodes in these rubber stoppers.
• Connect these electrodes to a 6 volt battery.
• Fill the mug with water such that the electrodes are immersed in it. Add few drops of
dilute sulphuric acid to the water.
• Take two test tubes filled with water and invert them over the two carbon electrodes.
• Switch on the current and leave the apparatus undisturbed for some time.

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• Observe that the formation of bubbles at both the electrodes. These bubbles displace
water in the test tubes.
• Once the test tubes are filled with the respective gases, remove them carefully.
• Test these gases one by one by bringing a burning candle close to the mouth of the
test tubes.
• The volume of the gas collected in both the test tubes are not same.
• When a burning candle is brought close to the mouth of the test tubes, O2(g) produces
a bright flame and no pop sound, while H2(g) burns with popping sound and mini
explosion.

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 LESSON 3: METALS AND NON-METALS
1. (i) Write the electron-dot structures for sodium, oxygen and magnesium.
(ii) Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
(iii)What are the ions present in these compounds?
ANSWER:
(i) 1. Sodium:

2. Oxygen:

3. Magnesium:

(ii) Formation of Magnesium oxide:

When magnesium reacts with oxygen, the magnesium atom transfers its two
outermost electrons to an oxygen atom. By losing two electrons, the magnesium atoms
form a magnesium ion (Mg2+) and by gaining two electrons, the oxygen atom forms an
oxide ion (O2-).

Mg: + → MgO
Formation of Sodium oxide:
Two sodium atoms transfer their 2 outermost electrons to an oxygen atom. By losing
two electrons, the two sodium atoms form tow sodium ions ( 2Na+). And by gaining two
electrons, the oxygen atom forms an oxide ion (O2-).

(iii) The ions present in sodium oxide compound (Na2O) are sodium ions (2Na+) and oxide
ions (O2-).
The ions present in Magnesium oxide compound (MgO) are magnesium ions Mg2+ and
oxide ions (O2-).

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2. Give reasons
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.
(c) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make utensils for cooking.
(d) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of
extraction
ANSWER:
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery for these metals are very less
reactive hence they are not affected by air, water or most chemicals. These metals have a
lot of lustre and they are malleable and ductile in nature.
(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium readily reacts with water to produce a lot of heat. As a
result Hydrogen evolved in the reaction results in fire. On exposure to water they react
with moisture (water droplets) present in the atmosphere, In order to prevent contact
with water hence these metals are stored under oil.
(c) Aluminium is highly reactive metal. It reacts with oxygen of air to form aluminium oxide,
which gas deposited as thin layer on the surface of aluminium. This layer acts as
protective layer and prevents further reaction of aluminium with oxygen. Moreover it is
light in weight and a good conductor of heat. Also, it’s manufacturing cost is very low in
comparison to other metals. Therefore, most of the utensils for cooking are made from
aluminium.
(d) It is easier to obtain a metal from its oxide. Hence, it is essential to convert carbonate and
sulphide ores into oxide ores during the extraction of metal. Extraction of metal by
reduction of oxide ores is easier than extraction from its carbonate or sulphide ores.

3. Differentiate between metal and non-metal on the basis of their chemical properties.
ANSWER:

Metals Non-metals

When metals are heated with oxygen, When non-Metals are heated with oxygen,
they form ionic oxides which are basic in they form covalent oxides which are acidic in
nature and form bases on dissolving with nature which form acid on dissolving with
water. This turn red litmus paper to blue. water. This turn blue litmus paper to red.

They are electro positive, lose electrons They are electro negative, gain electrons and
readily and become a positive ion. become negative ions.

Metals are lustrous. Non-metals are non-lustrous; graphite is the

exception
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 Reducing agents. Good oxidizing agents.

Metals are the good conductors of Non-metals are non-conductors of electricity

electricity and heat. and heat; graphite is the exception

All metals are solids except mercury. Non-metals are in solid-liquid and gaseous
states

4. Explain the formation of sodium chloride.

ANSWER:
Formation of NaCl
In sodium chloride; sodium is a metal (alkali metal) and chlorine is non-metal.
Atomic number of sodium = 11
Electronic configuration of sodium: 2, 8, 1
Number of electrons in outermost orbit = 1
Valence electrons = Electrons in outermost orbit = 1
Atomic number of chlorine = 17
Electronic configuration of chlorine: 2, 8, 7
Electrons in outermost orbit = 7
Therefore, valence electrons = 7
Sodium has one valence electron and chlorine has seven valence electrons. Sodium requires
losing one electron to obtain stable configuration and chlorine requires gaining one electron
in order to obtain stable electronic configuration. Thus, in order to obtain stable
configuration sodium transfers one electron to chlorine.
After loss of one electron sodium gets one positive charge (+) and chlorine gets one negative
charge after gain of one electron. Sodium chloride is formed because of transfer of electrons.
Thus, ionic bond is formed between sodium and chlorine. Since, sodium chloride is formed
because of ionic bond, thus it is called ionic compound. In similar way; potassium chloride
(KCl) is formed.

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5. Write a note on alloy.
ANSWER:
Alloy
An Alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals, or a metal and a non-metal. It is
prepared by first melting the primary metal, and then, dissolving the other elements in it in
definite proportions. After that it is cooled at room temperature.
• If one metal is mercury then the alloy is known as amalgam.
• Solder is an alloy of lead and tin (Pb and Sn). It has low meting point and is used for welding
electrical wires together.
Properties of Alloys
1. Electric conducting of an alloy is less than the pure metals.
2. Melting point of alloy is less as compared to pure metals.

6. Refining of Metals
ANSWER:
The metals obtained through reduction process are not pure. They can impurities which
must be removed to obtained pure metal. The method used for refining impure metal
is electrolytic refining. In this process, the impure metal is used as anode and strip of pure
metal is used as a cathode. The solution of metal salt is used as an electrolyte. On passing the
current through the electrolyte, the pure metal from the anode dissolve into the electrolyte.
An equivalent amount of pure metal from the electrolyte is deposited on the cathode. The
soluble impurities go into the solution, whereas, the insoluble impurities settle down at the
bottom of the anode and are known as anode mud.

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7. State the formation of MgCl2.
ANSWER:
Formation of MgCl2
The atomic number of magnesium is 12
Electronic configuration of magnesium: 2, 8, 2
Number of electrons in outermost orbit = 2
Valence electron = 2
Atomic number of chlorine = 17
Electronic configuration of chlorine: 2, 8, 7
Electrons in outermost orbit = 7
Therefore, valence electrons = 7
Magnesium loses two electrons in order to obtain stable electronic configuration. Each of the
two chlorine atoms gains one electron lost by magnesium to obtain stable electronic
configuration. The bonds so formed between magnesium and chlorine are ionic bonds and
compound (magnesium chloride) is an ionic compound.

8. State physical properties of metals and non metals.

ANSWER:
Physical Properties of Metals
Some of the physical properties of metals are listed below.
• Shiny (lustrous) in nature
• Metal is a good conductor of electricity and heat
• Density and melting point is high
• Mouldable (Malleable)
• Ductile
• At room temperature, it is in solid form except for mercury
• Opaque
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 Physical Properties of Non-metals
Some of the physical properties of non-metals are listed below.
• Poor conductors of electricity and heat
• Non-Ductile metals
• Brittle solids
• Maybe solids, liquids or gases at room temperature
• These are not sonorous
• Transparent

9. Explain: Roasting and Calcination.

ANSWER:
(1) Roasting:- In this method, the concentrated sulphide ore is heated in presence of excess
of air for a long time. So metal sulphides oxidised to metal oxides and SO2. This method is
known s Roasting.
for eg,
2ZnS(s) + 3O (g) →2ZnO(s) + 2SO (g)
2HgS(s) + 3O (g)→ 2HgO(s) + 2SO (g)

(2) Calcination :- The ore containing metal carbonate or metal hydroxide is heated strongly in
absence of air to convert it into metal oxide after the removal of volatile impurities and
hydrated water. This process is known as calcination.
for eg,
MgCO3(s) → MgO(s) + CO2(g)
ZnCO (s)→ ZnO(s) + CO (g)

10.State properties of Ionic compounds.

ANSWER:
The following are the general properties of ionic compounds.
1. Physical nature: Ionic compounds are solid and are somewhat hard because of the strong
force of attraction between the positive and negative ions. This compounds are generally
brittle and break into pieces when pressure is applied.
2. Melting and Boiling points: Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling point. This is
because a considerable amount of energy is required to break the strong interionic
attraction.
3. Solubility: Electrovalent compounds are generally soluble in water and insoluble in
solvents such as kerosene, petrol, etc.

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 4. Conduction of electricity: the conduction of electricity through a solution involves the
movement of charged particles. A solution of an ionioc compound in water contains ions ,
which move to the opposite electrons when electricity is passes through the solution. Ionic
compounds in the solid state do not conduct electricity because movement of ions in the
solid is not possible due to their rigid structure.But ionic compounds conduct electricity in
the molten state. This is possible in the molten state since the electrostatic forces of
attraction between the oppositely charged ions are overcome due to the heat. Thus, the ions
move freely and conduct electricity.

11. Short note on Prevention of Corossion.

ANSWER:
The rusting of iron can be prevented by painting , oiling , greasing , galvanizing , chrome
plating , anodizing or making alloys.
Galvanization is a method of protecting steel and iron from rusting by coating them with a
thin layer of zinc.The galvanized article is rotated against rusting even if the zinc coating is
broken.
Alloying is a very good method of improving the properties of a metal. We can get the
desired properties by this method. For eg, iron is the most widely used metal but it is never
used in its pure state. this is because pure iron is very soft and stretches easily when hot. But,
if it is mixed with a small amount of carbon (about 0.05%) , it becomes hard and strong. When
iron is mixed with nickel and chromium we get stainless steel , which is hard and does not rust.
Thus, if iron is mixed with some other substance, its properties change infact , the properties
of any metal can be changed if its is mixed with some other substance. the substance added
maybe a metal or a non metal. An alloy is a homogenous mixture of two or more metals, or a
metal and a non metal. It is prepared by first melting the primary metal , and then , dissolving
the other elements in it in definite proportions. It is then cooled to room temperature.

12.Discuss the general physical properties of metals and non metals.

ANSWER:
1) All metals except mercury exist solid at room temperature.Metals have high melting
points but gallium and caesium have very low melting points. These two metals will melt if
you keep them on your palm.
2) Iodine is a non metal but it is lustrous
3) Carbon is a non metal that can exit in different forms. Each form is called an allotrope.
Diamond, an allotrope of carbon, is the hardest natural substance known and has a very high
melting and boiling point. Graphite another allotrope of carbon is a conductor of electricity.

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 4) Alkali metals like lithium, sodium, potassium are so soft they can be cut with a knife. They
have low desities and loe melting points.
5) Most non metals produce acidic oxides when dissolve in water. On the other hand most
metals give rise to basic oxides.

13. Explain: (1) Extracting metals low in the activity series

(2)Extracting metals in the middle of the activity series
(3)Extracting metals towards the top of the activity series.
ANSWER:
(1) EXTRACTING METALS LOW IN THE ACTIVITY SERIES:
• Metals lows in the activity series are very unreactive. The oxides of these metals can
be reduced to metals by heating alone. For example, cinnabar (HgS) is an ore of
mercury.
• When it is heated in air, it is first converted into mercuric oxide (HgO). Mercuric oxide
is then reduced to mercury on further heating.
2HgS(s) + 3O2(g) heat 2HgO(s) + 2SO2(g)
2HgO(s) 2Hg(l) + O2(g)
• Similarly, copper which is found as Cu2S in nature can be obtained from its ore by just
heating in air.
2Cu2S + 3O2(g) heat 2Cu2O(s) + 2SO2(g)
2Cu2O + Cu2S heat 6Cu(s) + SO2(g)

(2)EXTRACTING METALS IN THE MIDDLE OF THE ACTIVITY SERIES:

• The metals in the middle of the activity series such as iron, zinc, lead, copper, are
moderately reactive. These are usually present as sulphides or carbonates in nature.
• It is easier to obtain a metal from its oxide, as compared to its sulphides and
carbonates. Therefore, prior to reduction, the metal sulphides and carbonates must be
converted into metal oxides.
• The sulphide ores are converted into oxides by heating strongly in limited air. This
process is known as calcination.
• The chemical reaction that takes place during roasting and calcination of zinc ores can
be shown as follows:
Roasting - 2ZnS(s) + 3O2(g) heat 2ZnO(s) + SO2(g)
Calcination – ZnCO3(s) heat ZnO(s) + CO2(g)

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 • The metal oxides are then rduced to the corresponding metals by using suitable
reducing agents such as carbon. For example, when zinc oxide is heated with carbon, it
is reduced to metallic zinc.
ZnO(s) + C(s) Zn(s) + CO(g)
• Using carbon (coke) to reduce metal oxides to metals, sometimes displacement
reactions can also be used.
• The highly reactive metals such as sodium, calcium, aluminium, etc., are used as
reducing agents because they can displace metals of lower reactivity from their
compounds. For example, when manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium powder,
the following reaction takes place –
3MnO2(s) + 4Al(s) 3Mn(l) + 2Al2O3(s) + Heat
• These displacement reactions are highly exothermic. The amount of heat evolved is so
large that the metals are produced in the molten state.
• The reaction of iron(III) oxide (Fe2O3) with aluminium is used to join railway tracks or
cracked machine parts. This reaction is known as the thermit reaction.
Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) 2Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) + Heat

(3)EXTRACTING METALS TOWARDS THE TOP OF THE ACTIVITY SERIES:

• The metals high up in the reactivity series are very reactive. They cannot be obtained
from their compounds by heating with carbon. For example, carbon cannot reduce the
oxides of sodium, magnesium, calcium, aluminium, etx., to the respective metals.
• This is because these metals have more affinity for oxygen than carbon. These metals
are obtained by electrolytic reduction. For example, sodium, magnesium and calcium
are obtained by the electrolysis of their molten chlorides.
• The metals are deposited at the cathode (the negatively charged electrode), whereas
chlorine is liberated at the anode (the positivelt charged electrode).The reactions are –
At cathode Na+ + e- Na
At anode 2Cl- Cl2 + 2e-
• Similarly, alumininum is obtained by the electrolytic reduction of aluminium oxide.

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14. Write chemical properties of metals.
ANSWER:
chemical properties of metals are as following:
(a) When metals are burnt in air
(b) When metals react with water
(c) When metal react with acids

(a) WHEN METALS ARE BURNT IN AIR :

Almost all metals combine with oxygen to form metal oxides.
Metal + Oxygen Metal oxide
For example, when copper is heated in air, it combines with oxygen to form copper(II) oxide,
a black oxide.
2 Cu + O2 2 CuO
Copper copper(II) oxide
Similarly, aluminium forms aluminium oxide.
4 Al + 3 O2 2 Al2O3
Aluminium aluminium oxide

(b) WHEN METALS REACT WITH WATER :

Metals react with water and produce a metal oxide and hydrogen gas. Metal oxides that are
soluble in water dissolve in it to further form metal hydroxide. But all metals do not react
with water.
Metal + water Metal oxide + Hydrogen
Metal oxide + Water Metal hydroxide
Metals like potassium and sodium react violently with cold water. In case of sodium and
potassium, the reaction is so violent and exothermic that the evolved hydrogen immediately
catches fire.
2 K(s) + 2 H2O(l) 2KOH(aq) + H2(g) + heat energy
2 Na(s) + 2 H2O(l) 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g) + heat energy
Magnesium does not react with cold water. It reacts with hot water to form magnesium
hydroxide and hydrogen. It also starts floating due to the bubbles of hydrogen gas sticking to
its surface.
Metals like aluminium, iron and zinc do not react either with cold or hot water. But they
react with stream to form the metal oxide and hydrogen.
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 2Al(s) + 3 H2O(l) Al2O3(s) + 3 H2(g)
3Fe(s) + 4 H2O(l) Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g)

(c)WHEN METAL REACT WITH ACIDS:

Metals react with acids to give a salt and hydrogen gas.
Metal + Dilute acid Salt + Hydrogen
Hydrogen gas is not involved when a metal reacts with nitric acid. It is because HNO 3 is a
strong oxidising agent. It oxidises the H2 produced to water and itself gets reduced to any of
the nitrogen oxides.

15. You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires and a switch.
(a) How could you use them to distinguish between samples of metals and non – metals.
(b) Assess the usefulness of these tests in distinguishing between metals and non – metals.
ANSWER:
(a) Metals can be hammered into thin sheets hence, metal possesses property of
malleability while non-metals cannot be beaten into thin sheets.
Arrange the battery, bulb, wires and switch in a proper circuit and by passing the
electric current, if the bulb glows, then it must be a metal, because metal is a good
conductor of electricity. But if the bulb does not glow, then it is a sample of non-metal,
because non-metal is a non-conductor of electricity.

(b) First experiment shows that metal possesses property of malleability and ductility, while
second experiment justifies that metals are good conductors of electricity while non-metals
are non-conductor of electricity.

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16. Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected the gas evolved by
inverting a test tube over it as shown in figure below:
(a) What will be the action of gas on
(i) dry litmus paper?
(ii) moist litmus paper?
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.
ANSWER:

When sulphur powder is heated in air, it forms sulphur dioxide, which is acidic in nature and
its aqueous solution is called sulphurous acid ( H2SO3 ) .
(a) Action of gas:
(i) There will be no effect of gas on dry litmus paper.
(ii) Moist blue litmus paper changes its colour to red due to H+ ions present in
aqueous solution of H2SO4 formed from SO2 obtained after burning sulphur.
(b) Balanced chemical equation for the above activity is as given below :
S(s) + O2 (g) SO2 (g)
SO2 (g) + H2O (l) H2SO3 (aq)
Sulphurous acid

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 LESSON 7: CONTROL AND COORDINATION
1. Explain human brain.
ANSWER:
• Spinal cord is made up of nerves which supply information to think about. Thinking
involves more complex mechanisms and natural connections.
• These are concentrated in the brain, which is the main coordinating centre of the body.
The brain and spinal cord constitute the central nervous system. They receive information
from all parts of the body and integrate it.
• The brain also has to send messages to muscles. This is the second way in which the
nervous system communicates with the muscles.
• The communication between the central nervous system and the other parts of the body
is facilitated by the peripheral nervous system consisting of cranial nerves arising from the
brain and spinal nerves arising from the spinal cord.
• The brain has three such major parts of regions, namely the fore-brain, mid-brain and
hind-brain.
• The fore-brain is the main thinking part of the brain it has regions which receive sensory
impulses from various receptors. Separate areas of the fore-brain are specialized for
hearing, smell, sight, etc.
• There are separate areas of association where this sensory information is interpreted by
putting it together with information from other receptors as well as with information that
is already stored in the brain.

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 • A decision is made about how to respond and the information is passed on to the motor
areas which control the movement of voluntary muscles, for example, our leg muscles.
• The sensation of feeling full is because of a Centre associated with hunger, which is in a
separate part of the fore-brain.
• The simple reflex actions like change in the size of the pupil, and the thought out actions
such as moving a chair, there is another set of muscles movements over which we don’t
have any thinking control.
• Many of these involuntary actions including blood presser, salivation and vomiting are
controlled by the medulla in the hind-brain.
• Waking in a straight line, riding a bicycle, picking up a pencil these are possible due to a
part of the hind-brain called the cerebellul.
• It is responsible for precision of voluntary actions and maintaining the posture and
balance of the body.

2. What is the difference between the manner in which movement takes place in a sensitive
plant and the movement in our legs?
ANSWER:
Slno Movement in sensitive plants Movement in our legs

1 The movement in a sensitive plant is a 1 Movement in our legs is a

response to stimulus(touch) which is a voluntary action.
involuntary action.

2 No special tissue is there for the 2 A complete system CNS and

transfer of information PNS is there for the
information exchange.

3 Plant cells do not have specialized 3 Animal cells have specialized

protein for movements. protein which help muscles to
contract.

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3. How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different from each other?
ANSWER:
Reflex actions Involuntary actions

1. Rapid automatic responses to a stimulus without 1. Occurs without the

the conscious involvement of the brain consciousness of an organism

2. Controlled by spinal cord 2. Controlled by mid brain or

medulla oblongata

3. Very quick and instantaneous 3. Relatively slower

4. May involve any muscle or a gland 4. Involves only smooth muscles

5. Can be conditioned 5. Cannot be influenced by

external conditioning

Examples: Blinking of eyes, salivation Examples: Beating of heart,

blood circulation

4. How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the blood?
ANSWER:
Adrenaline hormone is secreted in large amounts when a person is frightened, or mentally
disturbed. When it reaches the heart, it beats faster to supply more oxygen to our muscles.
The breathing rate also increases because of the contractions of diaphragm and the rib
muscles. It also raises the blood pressure, and allows more glucose to enter into the blood.
All these responses together enable our body to deal with the emergency situations.
Adrenaline is a hormone secreted when a person is frightened or mentally disturbed.
When Adrenaline reaches heart, heartbeat will increase to increase blood supply to our
muscles. Adrenaline also increases the breathing rate because of contraction of diaphragm
and the rib muscles. Andrenaline rush also increases blood pressure and allows entry of
more glucose into blood. These altogether occurs when our body respond to secretion of
adrenaline into our blood.

25
5. Draw the structure of neuron and explain its function.
ANSWER:
Function of neuron: The information is acquired at the end of the dendritic tip of nerve cell
and sets of a chemical reaction that creates an electrical impulse. This impulse travels from
the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its end. At the end of the axon, the
electrical impulse sets of release of some chemicals (neurotransmitters) which cross the
synapse and start a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of the next neuron.
Thus, neuron is specialised for conducting information via electrical impulses from one
part of the body to another.
structure of neuron:

6. Compare and contrast nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and coordination in
animals.
ANSWER:
Nervous control Hormonal Control

1 It is consist of nerve impulses 1 It consists of endocrine system which

between PNS, CNS and Brain. secretes hormones directly into blood.

2 Here response time is very short. 2 Here response time is very long.

3 Nerve impulses are not specific 3 Each hormone has specific actions.
in their action.

4 The flow of information is rapid. 4 The flow of information is very slow.

26
7. What is the need for a system of control and coordination in an organism?
ANSWER:
There are various organs in an organism. These organs must be carefully controlled and
coordinated for the survival of an organisms. In the body of an organism various fluids are
secreted from the glands of the endocrine system. These hormones are responsible for the
overall growth and development of an organism. All others daily decision that includes
voluntary and involuntary action are controlled by central nervous system (CNS).
Coordination is needed for all human activities we perform. Our nervous system
receives information from surroundings which is processed and response is ilicited. The
endocrine system (hormonal system) helps in integrating various metabolic activities like
reproduction, development, and all reflex actions (cope up with various give up situations).
The hormonal system in plants helps in process of photosynthesis; they need carbon
dioxide, water and sunlight. The stomatal opening in leaves opens up to allow in carbon
dioxide gas, the roots bend towards water and the stem grows towards sunlight, the tendrils
in climbing pants are supported by the hormonal system of the plant body.
Thus, we have need of control and coordination system in an organisms.

8. Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism.

ANSWER:
The type of movement of the growing plant organ, which is induced by stimulus
of water is called hydrotropism.
To demonstrate hydrotropism.
Apparatus-Materials : clay, two plants, two glass
Precedure: Take two glass troughs each filled to about 1/3 with clay. Label the trough as (A)
and (B). Plant two, almost equal sized cuttings, one in each of the troughs. Add water in
trough (A) and keep the clay of trough (B) dry. However in trough (B) place a small clay pot
(or a cup of clay) filled with water quite close to the cutting. (See the figure) Add daily a small
quantity of water in trough (A) but not in trough (B). Dig out the clay carefully in both the
troughs after about a week or more.

27
Observation: It will be seen that the cutting in trough (A) shows a simple and straight growth
of the root, while that in trough (B) shows the root curved in the direction of clay pot filled
with water.
Conclusion: It can be concluded that the root grows and elongates in the direction of source
of water. It means that the root shows positive hydrotropism.

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 LESSON 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?
1. What is placenta?
ANSWER:
Placenta is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side
of the tissue. On the mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a
large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. The
embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of placenta. The developing
embryo will also generate waste substances which can be removed by transferring them into
the mother’s blood through the placenta.

2. Why does menstruation occurs?

ANSWER:
• Menstruation is the normal bleeding of the vaginal line which starts between puberty
and lasts till menopause. During this period, the body prepares itself for the
pregnancy.
• Every month an egg is released from one of the ovaries at the same time where the
uterus prepares itself for fertilized egg. The inner lining of the uterus gets thickened
and is supplied with sufficient amount of blood for the embryo. Since there is no
interaction between the egg and the sperms, the fertilization of egg doesn’t takes
place. So when the egg doesn’t fertilized, the uterus lining breaks down slowly
resulting in menstruation.

3. What are spores?Explain asexual reproduction through spore formation?

ANSWER:
Spore is a microscopic reproductive unit of plant which is covered by a protective thick wall.
Asexual reproduction through spore: A bread mould e.g., Rhizopus is a simple multi-cellular
organism.
→ It has thread like structure called hypha. Hyphae are not reproductive parts.
→ The fungal hypha develops an enlarged or tiny blob called sporangium.
→ The spores are produced and matured in sporangium
→ the spores are covered with thick walls which protect them until they come into contact
with moist surface.under favourable conditions spores can begin to grow and eventuallly
develop into new Rhizopus individuals.

29
4. What is flower? Explain reproductive parts of flowers and types of flowers on the basis of
it.
ANSWER:
Flower is the reproductive organ in flowering plants(angiosperms)
Parts of flower: Sepals,petals,stamens and pistils. Among these stamens and pisti;s are
reproductive parts.
Stamens: It is a male reproductive part. It consists filament and an anther.
Anther produces pollen grains that are yellowish in colour.
Pistil: It is present in the centre of a flower and is the female reproductive part. It is made up
of three parts: (1) Ovary: bottom swollen part (2) Style: middle elongated part and (3)
Stigma: terminal sticky part.
The overy contains ovules and each ovule has an egg cell.
Types of flowers on the basis of reproductive parts are as follows:
(1)Unisexual flowers: When flower contains either stamens or pistil, it is called unisexual
flower e.g., Papaya, watermelon.
(2) Bisexual flowers: When flower contains both stamens and pistil, it is called bisexual
flowers. e.g., Hibiscus, mustard, datura.

30
5. What is fission? Explain different types of fission.
ANSWER:
Unicellular organisms divides to form new individuals. The process of cell division is called
fission.
Fission is the simplest method of assexual reproduction in unicellular organisms like protozoa
and bacteria. Many different patterns of fission have been observed.
Types of fission: (1)Binary fission and (2) Multiple fission
(1) Binary fission: Many bacteria and protozoa simply split into two equal halves during cell
division.
Amoeba, the splitting of the two cells during division can take place in any plane.

31
 Some, unicellular organisms have different body organisation. e.g., Leishmania (causative
agent of Kala-azar), which has a whip-like structure at one end of the cell. In Lesihmania
binary fission occurs in definite longitudinal orientation in relation to these structures.

(2) Multiple fission: Malarial parasite: Plasmodium divides into many daughter cells
simultaneously called multiple fission.

6. Write a note on Male Reproductive System:

ANSWER:

The male reproductive system in human beings is composed of following parts:

Testis: There is a pair of testes; which lie in a skin pouch; called scrotum. Scrotum is
suspended outside the body; below the abdominal cavity. This helps in maintaining the
temperature of testes below the body temperature. This is necessary for optimum sperm
production. Testis primarily serves the function of sperm production. Sperms are the male
gametes. Apart from that, testis also produces testosterone. Testosterone is also called the
male hormone, as it is responsible for developing certain secondary sexual characters in
boys.

32
 Vas Deferens: Vas deferens is the tube which carries sperms to the seminal vesicle.
Seminal Vesicle: This is the place where sperms are stored. Secretions from the seminal
vesicle and prostate gland add up to make the semen.
Penis: It is a muscular organ which serves the genitor-urinary functions. The urethra works as
the common passage for urine as well as for sperms.

7. Write a note on Female reproductive system.

ANSWER:
The female reproductive system in human beings is composed of following parts:
Uterus: This is pear-shaped hollow muscular organ. Uterus is the place where the embryo
gets implanted and develops into a newborn baby. The wall of the uterus provides safety and
nutrition to the growing foetus.
Fallopian Tubes: One fallopian tube comes out from each side at the top of the uterus. The
fallopian tubes end in finger-like structures; called flimbriae. Fertilization happens in the
fallopian tube.
Ovary: There are two ovaries; one near each fallopian tube. Ovary produces the eggs or the
female gametes. All the eggs are produces by the ovary when the female child is still in the
womb. One egg matures in each ovulation cycle and is released from the ovary. The egg is
caught by the flimbriae and transferred to the fallopian tube.
Vagina: The cervix (mouth of the uterus) opens into the vagina. Vagina is a muscular tube-
like organs; which serves as the passage for the sperms and also as the canal during the child
birth.

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8. Distinguish between a gamete and zygote. Explain their roles in sexual reproduction.
ANSWER:
Gamete Zygote

Formed after Meiosis Formed by fusion of two gametes.

Gametes produces haploid number of produces diploid number of

chromosomes chromosomes

Male and female parts produces gametes Zygote formation takes place in female

Gametes are required for sexual Zygote is the precursor for embryo
reproduction formation

9. What is puberty? Give common and sexual changes that ocur during the Puberty.
ANSWER:
Human beings are complex animals and hence there is a distinct phase in their life cycle
which marks the onset and attainment of sexual maturity. This period is called puberty. It
usually starts at around 10 – 11 years of age in girls and at around 12 – 13 years of age in
boys. It usually ends at around 18th year of age in girls and at around 19th year of age in
boys. Since the years during puberty end in ‘teens’; hence this phase is also called teenage.
Changes in Boys during Puberty: The boys suddenly grow in height dramatically. Voice
becomes deep and the Adam’s apple becomes prominent. Shoulders become broad and
body becomes muscular. Facial hairs begin to grow. Hairs also grow under the armpit and in
the pubic region.
Changes in Girls during Puberty: The voice becomes thin. Shoulders and hip become
rounded. Breasts get enlarged. Hairs grow under the armpit and in the pubic region.

10. Describe sexually transmitted diseases and mention the ways to prevent them.
ANSWER:
Disease that gets spread from person to person through sexual means are called sexually
transmitted diseases. These include bacterial infections such as gonorrhoea and syphilis, and
viral infections such as warts and HIV-AIDS.
Below are the ways to prevent sexually transmitted diseases
• Use of condoms or other physical barriers.
• Avoiding sexual contacts with unknown partners.
• Avoid sharing towels or underclothing.
• Get a vaccination for hepatitis B.
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11. Distinguish between pollination and fertilisation. Mention the site and product of
fertilization in a flower. Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a pistil showing pollen tube
growth and its entry into the ovule.
ANSWER:
Pollination Fertilization

It is the transfer of pollen grains from It is the fusion of male gamete with female
the anther to the stigma of a flower. gamete.

Achieved by agents like a wind, water Achieved by the growth of pollen tube so that
or animals. the mail gamete reaches the female germ
cells.

Leads to fertilization Lead to formation of seeds

Pollination is an external process Occurs in the ovary of female.

12.Write a note on Fragmentation.

ANSWER:
In multi-cellular organisms with relatively simple body organization, simple reproductive
methods can steal work. Spyrogyra, for eg, simply breaks up into smaller pieces upon
maturation. These species or fragments grow into new individuals.
This is not true for all multicellular organisms.They cannot simply divide cell-by-cell. The
reason is that many multicellular organisms, as we have seen, are not simply a random
collection of cells.Specialised cells are organised as tissues, and tissues are organised into
organs, which then have to be placed at definite positions in the body. In such a carefully
organised situation, cell-by-cell division would be impractical. Multicellular organisms
therefore, need to used more complex ways of reproduction.
A basic strategy used in multicellular organisms is that different cell types perform
different specialised functions. Following this general pattern, reproduction in such
organisms is also the function of a specific cell type. How is reproduction to be achieved from
a single cell type, if the organism itself consists of many cell types? The answer is that there
must be a single cell type in the organism that is capable of growing, proliferating and
making other cell types under the right circumstances.

35
13. Write a note on: Regeneration.
ANSWER:
Many fully differentiated organisms have the ability to give rise to new individuals organisms
from their body parts i.e. , if the individual is somehow cut or broken up into many pieces ,
many of this pieces grow into separate individuals. For ex, simple animals like Hydra and
Planeria can be cut into any number of pieces and each piece grows into a complete
organism. This is known as Regeneration.

Regeneration is carried out by specialized cells. These cells proliferate and make large
number of cells. From these mass of cells, different cells undergo changes to become various
cell types and tissues. These changes take place in an organized sequence referred to as
development. However, Regeneration is not the same as reproduction, since most organisms
would not normally depend on being cut-off to be able to reproduce.

14. Note on: Vegetative Propagation

ANSWER:
There are many plants in which parts like the root, stem and leaves develop into new plants
under appropriate conditions. Unlike in most animals, plants can indeed use such a mode for
reproduction. These property of vegetative propagation is used in methods such as layering
or grafting to grow many plants like sugarcane, roses, or grapes for agricultural purposes.
Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those
produced from seeds. Such methods also make possible the propagation of plants such as
banana, orange, rose and jasmine that have lost the capacity to produce seeds. Another
advantage of vegetative propagation is that all plants produced are genetically similar
enough to the parent plant to have all its characteristics.
Similarly buds produced in the notches along the leaf margin of Bryophyllum,fall on the
soil and develop into new plants

36
15.Write the importance of variation.
ANSWER:
Populations of organisms fill well-defined places, or niches, in the ecosystem, using their
ability to reproduce.
The consistency of DNA copying during reproduction is important for the maintenance of
body-design features that allow the organism to use that particular niche.
Reproduction is therefore linked to the stability of populations of species.
However, niches can change because of reasons beyond the control of the organisms.
Temperatures on earth can go up or down, water levels can vary, or there could be
meteorite hits, to think of a few examples.
If a population of reproducing organisms were suited to a particular niche and if the
niche were drastically altered, the population could be wiped out.
However, if some variations were to be present in a few individuals in this populations,
there would be some chance for them to survive.
Thus, if there were a population of bacteria living in temperate waters, and if the water
temperature were to be increased by global warming, most of these bacteria would die, but
the few variants resistant to heat would survive and grow further.
variation is thus useful for the survival of spaces over time.

16.What are the different methods of contraception?

ANSWER:
1. One category is the creation of a mechanical barrier so that sperm does not reach the egg.
Condoms on the penis or similar coverings worn in the vagina can serve this purpose.
2. Another category of contraceptive acts by changing the hormonal balance of the body so
that eggs are not released and fertilizations cannot occur. These drugs commonly need to be
taken orally as pills. This is called chemical method.
3.Other contraceptive devices such as the loop or the copper-T are placed in the uterus to
prevent pregnancy.
4. If the vas deferens in the male is blocked, sperm transfer will be prevented. If the fallopian
tube in the female is blocked, the egg will not be able to reach the uterus. In both cases
fertilization will not take place. Surgical methods can be used to create such blocks.
37
 LESSON 9: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
1. Difference: Homologous organs and Analogous organs.
ANSWER:
Homologous organs: (1) The internal structure and fundamental origin of these organs are
mostly similar.
(2) Functionally these organs may be similar or disimilar
(3) The presence of these organs indicates common ancestors.
Analogous organs: (1) The fundamental structure and origin of these organs are totally
dissimilar
(2) Functionally these organs are always similar.
(3) The presence of these organs does not indicate common ancestors.

2. What are fossils? What do they tell us about the process of evolution?
ANSWER:
Fossils are called the preserved remains of animals or plants or other organisms from the
distant past. These fossils tell us about a lot of extinct animals and also give insights into
how evolution might have occurred. Fossils can be used to build an organism’s evolutionary
history. The pattern of fossil distribution gives us an idea of the time in history when
various species were formed or become extinct. Fossil also helps trace some animal’s
evolutionary history.

3. Explain evolution of human beings.

ANSWER: Human Evolution
• Excavating, Time dating, Fossils and Determination of DNA sequences are the tools to study
Human evolutionary relationship
• Although there is a great diversity of human forms all over the world, yet all humans are a
single species
• All humans come from Africa. The earliest members of the human species. Homo sapiens,
can be traced there. Our genetic footprints can be traced back to our African roots
• The residents spread across Africa, the migrants slowly spread across the planet from Africa
to West Asia, then to Central Asia, Eurasia, South Asia, East Asia. they travelled down the
islands of Indonesia and the Philippines to Australia, and they crossed the Bering land
bridge to the Americas
They did not go in a single line.
• Sometimes came back to mix with each other.

38
4. How is the sex of the child determined in human beings?
ANSWER:
Sex of child in humans is set by the sort of male haploid sex cell that fuses with the
feminine egg. Throughout meiosis, all the gametes created by females contain solely the X
chromosome (A + X), whereas males manufacture 2 varieties of gametes, 1/2 gametes with
X- and 1/2 with Y-chromosome (A + X and A + Y). Fertilization of egg (A + X) with sperm cell
carrying A+X chromosomes ends up in female descendant (AA + XX). Fertilization of egg (A+
X) with sperm cell carrying A+Y chromosomes ends up in teenager (AA + XY).

5. Explain the importance of fossils in deciding evolutionary relationships.

ANSWER:
Fossil give evidence about
(a) The organisms that lived way back like the fundamental quantity throughout that they
lived, their structure etc.
(b) Biological process development of species i.e., line of their development.
(c) Connecting links between 2 teams. As an example, feathers gift in some dinosaurs
implies that birds are terribly closely associated with reptiles.
(d) That organisms evolved earlier and which later.
(e) Development of complicated body styles from the straightforward body designs.

6. What evidence do we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter?
ANSWER:
The evidence of the origin of the inanimate matter in life was provided by Stanley L. Miller
and Harold C. Urey’s associate degree experiment conducted in 1953. They assembled an
environment in experiment that contained molecules such as ammonia, alkane series and
element sulfide over water, but no chemical element. It was just like the atmosphere on
earth that thought it would exist. This was kept at a temperature slightly below 100 ° C and
39
 the mixture of gasses to simulate lightning was felt by sparks. At the end of the week,
fifteenth of the alkane series carbon has been regenerated into easy carbon compounds as
well as amino acids that form super molecule molecules and support basic life. It was
inferred from this that life arose again on earth.

7. Explain how sexual reproduction gives rise to more viable variations than asexual
reproduction. How does this affect the evolution of those organisms that reproduce
sexually?
ANSWER:
Sexual reproduction causes a lot of viable variations because of the subsequent reasons:
(a) Error in repetition of desoxy ribonucleic acid, that don’t seem to be extremely vital.
(b) Random segregation of paternal and maternal body at the time of sex cell formation.
(c) Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes throughout formation
of gametes.
(d) Accumulation of variations occurred because of reproduction over generation after
generation and choice naturally created wide diversity.
(e) In case of agamogenesis, solely the terribly tiny changes because of inaccuracies in
desoxy ribonucleic acid copying pass away the relative. Thus, off springs of agamogenesis
are a lot of or less genetically just like their folks. So, it will be ended that evolution in
sexually reproducing organisms proceed at a quicker pace than in asexually reproducing
organisms.

8. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the
progeny?
ANSWER :
The inheritance of equal parent chromosomes ensures equal genetic contribution within
the relative of male and female folk. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes. There is no
pairing of all human chromosomes. The primary twenty-two trials are called autosomes out
of those twenty-three pairs, and the remaining one pair is also thought to be sex
chromosomes drawn as X and Y. Females have an ideal trial of 2 X sex chromosomes and
males have an inappropriate trial of 1 X and 1 Y chromosome.
During the replication process, the male germ cell (haploid) fuses with the feminine
gamete (haploid) resulting in the formation of the diploid fertilized ovum as the fertilization
method takes place. Within the relative, the fertilized ovum receives the associated degree
of equal contribution from the oldsters of genetic material. Comparatively twenty-three
pairs of chromosomes, the parent contributes twenty-two autosomes and one X or sex
chromosome, whereas the feminine parent contributes twenty two autosomes and one
chromosome.

40
9. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently?
ANSWER:
Mendel performed dihybrid experiment on pea plants.
A tall plant with round seeds was crossed with a short plant with wrinkled seeds. F 1
progeny plants were all tall with round seeds. F1 progeny are used to generate F2 progeny
by self-pollination. Along with parental combinations, F2 progeny showed new
combinations too. Some of them were tall with wrinkled seeds while some others were
short with round seeds.
It means factors controlling for seed shape and height of plant recombine to form
new combinations in F2 offsprings. Thus, tall/short trait and the round seed/wrinkled seeds
trait are inherited independently.

10. How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival?

ANSWER :
The creation of variations in a species is either due to inaccuracies in DNA copying or during
sexual reproduction.
▪ Depending on the nature of variations, different individuals have different kinds of
advantages.
▪ The individuals with useful variations can adapt to the prevailing environment and show
better survival.
▪ The individuals with useful variations then increase in numbers.

11. A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group 0 and their daughter has
blood group O. Is this information enough to tell you which of the traits blood group A or
O is dominant? Why or why not?
ANSWER :
No, the given information is not enough to tell us whether the trait of blood group A or
blood group O is dominant.

-> Blood group trait is controlled by genes and inherited from parents.

-> Daughter has blood group O and two copies of genes as it inherited one each from the
father and the mother.

41
 LESSON 10: LIGHT-REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
𝒗
1. Derive the formula of magnification m= − 𝒖 in case of a concave mirror.
ANSWER :
We know that magnification
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒 ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 ℎ′
m= .....(1)
𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 ℎ
→ In the fig, image A'B' of an object AB formed by a concave mirror is shown
→ As shown in the fig, right-angled triangles , ∆𝐴′ 𝐵′ 𝑃 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∆𝐴𝐵𝑃 are similar.
𝐴′𝐵′ 𝑃𝐵′
∴ = ......(2)
𝐴𝐵 𝑃𝐵
Now, A'B' = height of the image = -h'
AB = height of the object = +h
PB' = image distance = -v
PB = object distance = -u
−ℎ′ −𝑣 𝑣
∴ = =
ℎ −𝑢 𝑢
ℎ′ 𝑣
∴ = − ......(3)
ℎ 𝑢
From equations (1) and (3) , we have
𝑣
m=− ....(4)
𝑢

42
 𝒗
2. Derive the formula for magnification m = for a spherical lens.
𝒖
ANSWER :
Magnification formed by spherical lens
𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒 ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 ℎ′
m=
𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 ℎ
Now from the fig , it is clear that right-angled triangles ABO and A'B'O are similar.

𝐴𝐵 𝑂𝐵
=
𝐴′𝐵′ 𝑂𝐵′
As per the new cartesian sign convention
AB = +h , A'B' = -h' , OB = -u , OB' = +v
+ℎ −𝑢
∴ =
−ℎ′ +𝑣
ℎ′ 𝑣
∴ =
ℎ 𝑢
ℎ′
But =𝑚
ℎ
𝑣
∴𝑚=
𝑢

3. The image of a candle flame formed by a lens is obtained on a screen placed on the other
side of the lens. If the image is three times the size of the flame and the distance between
lens and image is 80 cm, at what distance should the candle be placed from the lens? What
is the nature of the image at a distance of 80 cm and the lens?
ANSWER :
As the image is obtained on the screen , it is real .
so,
Magnification , m = –3 ,
v = 80 cm
u=?
𝑣
As m =
𝑢
so,

43
 80
–3 = ,
𝑢
80
u= − cm .
3
From
1 1 1
= −
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢
1 3
= +
80 80
4
=
80
1
=
20
1 1
= cm
𝑓 20
so,
f = 20 cm .
The lens is convex and image formed at 80 cm from the lens is real and inverted.

4. A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. How far is the
object placed from the lens? Draw the ray diagram.
ANSWER :
Focal length of concave lens (OF1), f = – 15 cm
Image distance, v= – 10 cm
According to the lens formula,

The negative value of u indicates that the object is placed 30 cm in front of the lens. This is
shown in the following ray diagram.

44
4. Explain Refraction through a rectangular glass slab.
ANSWER :

• Fix a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using drawing pins.

• Place a rectangular glass slab over the sheet in the middle.
• Draw the outline of the slab with a pencil. Lets us name the outline as ABCD.
• Take four identical pins. Fix two pins, say E and F , vertically such that the line joining the
pins is inclined to the edge AB.
• Look for the images of the pins E and F through the opposite edge. Fix two other pins, say G
and H, such that these pins and the images of E and F lie on a straight line.
• Remove the pins and the slab. Join the positions of tip of the pins E and F and produce the
line up to AB. Let EF meet AB at O. Similarly , join the positions of tip of the pins G and H
and produce it up to the edge CD. Let HG meet CD at O'.
• Join O and O'. Also produce EF up to P, as shown by a dotted line in figure.
• The light ray has changed its direction at points O and O'. Both the points O and O' lie on
surfaces separating two transparent media. Draw a perpendicular NN' to AB at O and
another perpendicular MM' to CD at O'. The light ray at point O has entered from a rearer
medium to a denser medium, that is , from air to glass. The light ray has bent towards the
normal. At O', the light ray has entered from glass to air i.e, from a denser medium to a
rearer medium. The light here has bent away from the normal. Compare the angle of
incidence with the angle of refraction at both refracting surfaces AB and CD.

45
 • In fig, a ray EO is obliquely incident on surface AB, called incident ray.OO' is the refracted
ray and O'H is the emergent ray. The emergent ray is parallel to the direction of the
incident ray. The extent of bending of the ray of light at the opposite parallel faces AB(air-
glass interface) and CD(glass-air interface) of the rectangular glass slab is equal and
opposite. This is why the ray emerges parallel to the incident ray. However, the light ray is
shifted sideward slightly.

6.State the laws of refraction of Light.

ANSWER :
(1) The incident ray and the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two transparent
media at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
(2) Ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a constant, for the
light of a given color and for the given pair of media.This law is known as Snell's law of
refraction.(This is true for angle 0 < i < 90 ͦ)
If i is the angle of incidence and r is the angle of refraction , then ,
sin 𝑖
= constant
sin 𝑟
This constant value is called the refractive index of the second medium with respect to the
first.

7. What is power of lens? State its formula and unit.

ANSWER:
• The ability of a lens to converge or diverge light rays depends on its focal length.
• For example, a convex lens of short focal length bends the light rays through large angles,
by focussing them closer to the optical centre.
• Similarly, concave lens of very short focal length causes higher divergence than the one
with longer focal length. The degree of convergence or divergence of light rays achieved by
a lens is expressed in terms of its power.
• The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length. It is represented by the
letter P. The power P of a lens of focal length f is given by
1
P=
𝑓
• The SI unit of power of a lens is ‘dioptre’. It is donated by the letter D. If f is expressed in
metres, then, power is expressed in diopters.

46
 • Thus, 1 dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is 1 metre. 1D = 1m -1. The power
of a convex lens is positive and that of a concave lens is negative.
• Opticians prescribe corrective lenses indicating their powers. The lens prescribed has
power equal to +2.0D. This means the lens prescribed is convex. The focal length of the lens
is +0.50m. Similarly, a lens of power -2.5D has a focal length of -0.40m. The lens is concave.

9. Draw the Ray diagrams for the image formation by a concave mirror.
ANSWER:
Figure illustrates the ray diagrams for the formation of image by a concave mirror for various
positions of the object.
Position of the object Position of the Size of the Nature of the
image image image
( (a) At infinity At the focus F Highly Real and
diminished, inverted
point-sized
((b) Beyond C B Between F and C Diminished Real and
inverted
( (c) At C At C Same size Real and
inverted
( (d) Between C and F Beyond C Enlarged Real and
inverted
( (e) At F At infinity Highly enlarged Real and
inverted
( (f) Between P and F Behind the mirror Enlarged Virtual and erect

47
10. Draw the Ray diagrams for the image formation by a concave lens.
ANSWER:
Position of the object Position of the image Relative size of the Nature of the
image image
Case (i) At infinity At focus F2 Highly diminished, Real and
point-sized inverted
Case (ii) Beyond 2F1 Between F2 and 2F2 Diminished Real and
inverted
Case (iii) At 2F1 At 2F2 Same size Real and
inverted
Case (iv) Between F1 and 2F1 Beyond 2F2 Enlarged Real and
inverted
Case (v) At focus F1 At infinity I iInfinitely large or Real and
highly enlarged inverted
Case (vi) Between focus F1 and On the same side of Enlarged Virtual and
optical centre O t the lens as the erect
object
48
11. Explain the Refractive index.
ANSWER:
• A ray of light that travels obliquely from one transparent medium into another will change its
direction in the second medium.
• The extent of the change in direction that takes place in a given pair of media is expressed in
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑖
term of the refractive index, the constant appearing in the equation = constant.
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟
• The refractive index can be linked to an important physical quantity, the relative speed of
propagation of light in different media.

49
• It turns out that light propagates with different speeds in different media. Light travels
fastest in vacuum with speed of 3x108 ms-1.
• In air, the speed of light is only marginally less, compared to that in vacuum.
• It reduces considerably in glass or water. The value of the refractive index for a given pair of
media depends upon the speed of light in the two media.

• Consider a ray of light travelling from medium 1 into medium 2, as shown in figure. Let v1 be
the speed of light in medium 1 and v2 be the speed of light in medium 2.
• The refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1 is given by the ratio of the speed
of light in medium 1 and the speed of light in medium 2.
• This is usually represented by the symbol n21. This can be expressed in an equation form as
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑚𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚 1 𝑣1
n21 = =
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑚𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚 2 𝑣2
• By the same argument, the refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 is
represented as n12. It is given by
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑚𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚 2 𝑣2
n12 = =
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑚𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚 1 𝑣1
• If medium 1 is vacuum or air, then the refractive index of medium 2 is considered with
respective vacuum. This is called the absolute refractive index of the medium. It is simply
represented as n2.
• If c is the speed of light in air and v is the speed of light in medium, then, the refractive index
of the medium nm is given by
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑎𝑖𝑟 𝑐
nm = =
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚 𝑣
• The absolute refractive index of a medium is simply called its refractive index.

50
11 Define the magnification produced by a lens. Explain it in brief.
ANSWER:
The magnification produced by a lens is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the
height of the object.
• It is represented by the letter m.
• If h is the height of the object and h’ is the height of the image formed (given) by a lens, then
the magnification produced by the lens is given by
ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒
m=
ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡

ℎ′
=
ℎ

• Magnification produced by a lens is also related to the object distance u and the image
distance v. This relationship is given by
ℎ′ 𝑣
Magnification m = = .
ℎ 𝑢
12. You are given kerosene, turpentine and water. In which of these does the light travel
fastest? Use the information given in Table 10.3.
ANSWER :

From Table 10.3,

refractive index of kerosene = 1.44
refractive index of turpentine = 1.47 and
refractive index of water = 1.33
- Here, from given liquids, turpentine has the highest refractive index and water has the lowest
refractive index.
Now, the lower the refractive index of a medium, the higher is the speed of light in the
medium.
Hence, out of the given liquids the light travels fastest in water.

13. The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the meaning of this statement?
ANSWER:
Refractive index of diamond
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑣𝑎𝑐𝑢𝑢𝑚 /𝑎𝑖𝑟
=
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑛𝑑
Therefore, speed of light in diamond

51
 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑣𝑎𝑐𝑢𝑢𝑚 /𝑎𝑖𝑟
=
𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑥 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑛𝑑
1
This expression states that the speed of light in diamond is times the speed of light
2.42
in vacuum / air.
i. e.,
3 𝑋 108
- Speed of light in diamond =
2.42
= 1.24 × 108 ms-1
- In other words, it can also be said that, the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum/ air to the
speed of light in diamond is equal to 2.42.

14. A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of a needle at a distance of 50 cm from it.
Where is the needle placed in front of the convex lens if the image is equal to the size of
the object? Also, find the power of the lens.
Solution:
A convex lens forms a real, inverted image of the same size as that of the object, if the object is
placed at 2F1.
In this case v = + 50 cm and m = -1

Thus, the needle is placed at 50 cm from the convex lens of power 4 D.

52
17.One-half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper. Will this lens produce a complete
image of the object? Verify your answer experimentally. Explain your observations.
ANSWER : Yes.
Even when one-half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper, the lens produces a
complete (or full) image of the object.
• Here, the intensity (brightness) of image will become one-forth as that with complete lens
exposed, because less number of light rays can be passed / refracted through the lens.
• The nature, size and location of the image will be the same since light from all parts of the
object reach the exposed part of the lens.
It can be understood by the following two cases (Experimental verification) :
(1) When the upper half of the lens is covered:
In this case, the ray of light coming from the object will be refracted by the lower half
of the lens.
These rays meet at the other side of the lens to form the image of the lens.

(2) When the lower half of the lens is covered :

In this case, the ray of light coming from the object will be refracted by the upper
half of the lens.
These rays meet at the other side of the lens to form the image of the given object.

53
18.An object 5cm in length is held 25 cm away from a converging lens of focal length 10 cm.
Draw the ray diagram and find the position, size and the nature of the image formed.
Solution :
Here, Object size h = + 5 cm
Obiect distance u = - 25 cm
Focal length of lens f = + 10 cm
(therefore, Converging, i.e., Convex lens)
Image distance v = ?
Image height h' = ?

Image distance u is positive. This shows that the image formed is real and on the other side of
the lens, at 16.67 cm from the lens as shown in the figure :

The negative (minus) sign shows that the image is inverted, real, diminished (3.3 cm). Figure
show the position, size and nature of the image formed.

54
19.An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm.
Find the position and nature of the image.
Solution:
Here, Object distance u = - 10 cm
Focal length of the mirror f = + 15 cm
(Therefore, Convex mirror)
Image distance v=?

The positive (plus) sign of v indicates that the image is formed behind the mirror.
𝑣 6
Now, magnification m= − = − = +0.6
𝑢 −10
Positive value of magnification indicates that the image is virtual and erect.
The magnitude of magnification is 0.6, which is less than 1. This shows that the image is
diminished.

20. The magnification produced by a plane mirror is + 1. What does this mean?
ANSWER :

So, the size of the image is equal to the size of object.

Further, the positive (plus) sign of m indicates that the image is erect and hence virtual.
55
 This shows that the image is formed behind the mirror and the distance of the image from
the mirror equals that of the object from the mirror.

21.An object 5.0 cm in length is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of

radius of curvature 30 cm. Find the position of the image, its nature and size.
Solution:
Here, Size of object h = + 5.0 cm
Object distance u = - 20 cm
Radius of curvature R = + 30 cm
(Therefore, Convex mirror)

The positive (plus) sign of v indicates that the image is behind the mirror or on the right-hand
side of the mirror.

56
Positive value of image height indicates that the image is virtual and erect.
Moreover, h' < h
So, the image is smaller in size than the object.

22. An object of size 7.0 cm is placed at 27 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 18
cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed, so that a sharp focussed
image can be obtained ? Find the size and the nature of the image.
Solution : Here, Object size h = 7.0 cm
Object distance u = - 27 cm
Focal length f= - 18 cm
(Therefore, Concave mirror)
Image distance v=?
Image size h’ = ?

Therefore, v = -54 cm

57
 The negative (minus) sign of u indicates that the image is formed on the same side of
the object. So, screen should be held in front of the mirror at a distance of 54 cm from the
mirror. The image can be obtained on the screen and hence, it is real.

The negative (minus) sign of h' shows that the image is inverted and hence would be real.

58
 LESSON - 12 ELECTRICITY

1. State the formula of an electric current and define its unit.

ANSWER :
If a net amount of electric charge Q , flows across any cross-sections of a conductor in time
then the current I, through the cross section is
𝑄
I= - (1)
𝑡
→ SI unit of electric charge is coulomb (C) and time is second (s).
→ The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A), named after thr french scientist , Andre -
Marie Ampere.
𝐶
→ Hence from equation (1) A =
𝑠
Definition of ampere (A) : If a coulomb charge flows through any cross-section of a conductor
in one second, then the electric current flowing through the conductor is said to be 1
ampere.
1𝐶
i.e., 1A = = 1C s-1
1𝑠

2.Write the disadvantages of series circuits for domestic wiring.

ANSWER :
(1) In a series circuit the current is constant throughout the electric circuit. So it is
obviously impracticable to connect an electric bulb and an electric heater in series because
they need currents of widely different values to operate properly.
(2) In a series circuit when one component ( or electrical appliance ) fails due to some
defect, the circuit is broken and none of the components ( or electrical appliance ) works.
(3) In a series circuit all the electrical appliances have only one switch due to which they
cannot be turned on or off separately.
(4) In a series circuit electrical appliances of different power ratings do not get the same
voltage (220V) as that of the power supply line because the voltage is shared by all the
appliances. The appliances get less voltage and hence do not work properly.

59
3. Explain the following.
a. Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
b. Why are the conductors of electric heating devices, such as bread-toasters and electric
irons, made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
c. Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits?
d. How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of cross-section?
e. Why copper and aluminium wires are usually employed for electricity transmission?
ANSWER :
a. The resistivity and melting point of tungsten is very high. Due to this property, it doesn’t
burn readily when heated. Electric lamps operate at high temperature. Hence, tungsten is
a choice of metal for the filament of electric lamps.
b. The conductors of electric heating devices are alloys because of their high resistivity. Due
to its high resistivity it produces large amount of heat.
c. The voltage is divided in series circuit as result each component in the circuit receives a
small voltage because of which the amount of current decreases and the device gets hot
and does not work properly. This is the reason why series circuits are not used in domestic
circuits.
d. Resistance is inversely proportional to the area of cross section. When the area of cross
section increases the resistance decreases and vice versa.
e. Copper and aluminium are good conductors of electricity and have low resistivity because
of which they are usually employed for electricity transmission.

4. State and derive ohm's law.

ANSWER:
• Set up a circuit as shown in figure, consisting of a nichrome wire XY of length, say 0.5m, an
ammeter, a voltmeter and four cells of 1.5 V each.
• First use only one cell as the source in the circuit. Note the reading in the ammeter I, for
the current and reading of the voltmeter V for the potential difference across the
nichrome wire XY in the circuit.
• Next connect two cells in the circuit and note the respective readings of the ammeter and
voltmeter of the values of current through the nichrome wire and potential difference
across the nichrome wire.
• Repeat the above steps using three cells and then four cells in the circuit separately.
• Calculate the ratio of V to I for each pair of potential difference V and current I.
• Plot a graph between V and I, and observe the nature of the graph.

60
 From the graph, you will find that approximately the same value for V / I is obtained in
each case. Thus the V – I graph is a straight line that passes through the origin of the
graph, as shown in graph. Thus, V / I is a constant ratio.
In 1827, a German physicist Georg Simon Ohm found out the relationship between the
current I, flowing in a metallic wire and the potential difference across its terminals. The
potential difference, V, across the ends of a given metallic wire in an electric circuit is
directly proportional to the current flowing through it, provided its temperature remains
the same. This is called Ohm’s law. In other words -
V∝I …………(1)
Or V / I = constant
=R
Or V = IR …………..(2)
In Eq. (1) R is a constant for the given metallic wire at a given temperature and is called its
resistance. It is the property of a conductor to resists the flow of charges through it. Its SI
unit is ohm, represented by the Greek letter Ω. According to Ohm’s law,
R = V/ I ………………..(3)

5.Explain the parallel combination of resistors and derive the formula of equivalent
resistances .
ANSWER :
• Two more than two resistors are said to be connected in parallel if one end of each
resistors is connected to one point and the other end is connected to another points
so that more than one paths are available for the current to flow and potential
differences across each resistor is the same and is equal to the applied potential
difference between the two common points.

61
 • Three resistors with resistances , R1 ,R2 and R3 are connected in parallel between
points A and B as shown in the figure .
• Here ,the current I gets divided at point amongst three resistors as shown in the figure
.
• The value of the current flowing through each resistors depends on the value of its
resistance.
• Let I1, I2 and I3 be the current flowing through the resistors with resistances R1 , R2 and
R3 respectively.
∴ I = I1+I2+I3 ......(1)
• In a parallel combination of resistors, the potential difference across every resistor is
equal to the potential difference V of the battery. Acoording to Ohm's law
∴I 1 = V /R1; I 2 = V /R2; and I 3 = V /R3
∴I1 = V/R1 + V/R2 + V/R3 ...(2)
• Now , if a resistor with resistance Rp , instead of three resistors with resistances R1, R2
and R3 , is connected in the circuit such that the current flowing through the circuit
remains tfhe same as I then Rp is called the equivalent resistance of the circuit.
• I = V/Rp
• From equation (2)
V/Rp = V/R1 + V/R2 + V/R3
∴ 1/Rp = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3
• Thus, in a parallel combination of resistors , the sum of the reciprocals of the
individuals resistances is equal to the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance Rp. Rp is
less than any of the individual resistances in the circuit.

6. Explain the series combination of resistors and derive the formula of equivalent
resistance .
ANSWER :
• Two or more than two resistors are said to be connected in series , if they are joined
end to end and the same (i.e., total) current lows through each one of them when a
potential difference is applied across the combination .
62
• In Fig, three resistors with resistance R1, R2, R3 are connected in series across the points
A and B.Here, current (I) flowing through each of the resistors R1, R2, R3 is the same,
but the total potential difference of the battery V is divided according to the
resistances between the two ends of the respective resistors.
• If the potential difference across R1, R2, R3 are V1,V2 , V3 respectively, then V=
V1+V2+V3. ....(1)
• Now, if one resistor with resistance Rs , instead of these three resistors with
resistances R1, R2, R3 is connected in the circuit in such a way that the current flowing
through the circuit remains the same as I, then Rs is the resistance of the series
combination. It is also called equivalent resistance of the combination . Now,applying
Ohm's law , V =IRs .....(2)
• From equation (1) and (2)
IRs = V1+V2+V3 .......(3)
• On applying Ohm's law to the three resistors separately, we have
V1 = IR1
V2 = IR2
V3 = IR3
∴ IRs = IR1 + IR2 + IR3
∴ RS = R1 + R 2 + R3
• Thus, the equivalent resistnace RS of the series combination is equal to the sum of the
individual resistances and is thus greater than any of the individual resistances.

63
7. A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity of 1.6 × 10–8 Ω m. What will be the
length of this wire to make its resistance 10 Ω? How much does the resistance change if
the diameter is doubled?
SOLUTION :
The resistance of the copper wire of length in meters and area of cross-section m2 is given by
the formula

8. Explain heating effect of electric current.

ANSWER :
A battery or a cell is a source of electrical energy.The chemical reaction within the cell
generates the potential difference between its two terminals that sets the electrons in
motion to flow the current through a resistor or a system of resistors connected to the
battery. To maintain the current, the source has to keep expending its energy.A part of the
source energy in maintaining the current maybe consumed into useful work(like in rotating
the blades f an electric fan).Rest of the source energy maybe expended in heat to raise the
temperature of gadget. For e.g., an electric fan becomes warm if used continuously for
longer time etc. On the other hand, if the electric circuit is purely resistive, i.e., a
configuration of resistors only connected to a battery; the source energy continually gets

64
dissipated entirely in the form of heat. This is known as the Heating effect of electric current.
This effect is utilised in devices such as electric heater, electric iron etc.

9. State practical application of heating effect of electric current.

ANSWER :
• The generation of heat in a conductor is an inevitable consequence of electric current.
In many cases, it is undesirable as it converts useful electrical energy into heat. In
electric circuits, the unavoidable heating can increase the temperature of the
components and alter their properties. However, heating effect of electric current has
many useful applications. The electric laundry, iron, electric toaster, electric oven ,
electric kettle and the electric heater are some of the familiar devices based on Joules
heating.
• The electric heating is also used to produce light , as in an electric bulb. Here, the
filament must retain as much of the heat generated as is possible, so that it gets very
hot and emits light. It must not melt at such high temperature. A strong metal with high
melting point such as tungsten (melting point 3380 C ͦ ) is used for making bulb filaments.
The filament should be thermally isolated as much as possible , using insulating support,
etc. The bulbs are usually filled with chemically inactive nitrogen and argon gases to
prolong the life of filament. Most of the power consumed by the filament appears as
heat , but a small part of it is in the form of light radiated.
• Another common application of Joules heating is the fuse used in electric circuits. It
protects circuits and appliances by stopping the flow of any unduly high electric current.
The fuse is placed in series with the device. It consists of a piece of wire made of a metal
or an alloy of appropriate melting point, for e.g. , aluminum , copper , iron , lead etc. If a
current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit the temperature of the
fuse wire increases. This melts the fuse wire and breaks the circuit. The fuse wire is
usually encased in cartridge of porcelain or similar material with metal ends. The fuses
used for domestic purposes are rated as 1A , 2A , 3A , 5A , 10A, etc. For an electric iron
which consumes 1kW electric power when operated at 220V , a current of (1000/220)A,
that is , 4.54 A will flow in the circuit. In this case, a 5A fuse must be used.

65
10. Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits?
ANSWER:
• In a series circuit the current is constant throughout the electric circuit. So it is obviously
impracticable to connect an electric bulb and an electric heater in series because they
need currents of widely different values to operate properly.
• In a series circuit when one component (or electrical appliance) fails due to some defect,
the circuit is broken and none of the components (or electrical appliance) works.
• In a series circuit all the electrical appliances have only one switch due to which they
cannot be turned ON or OFF separately.
• In a series circuit electrical appliances of different power ratings do not get the same
voltage (220V) as that of the power supply line because the voltage is shared by all the
appliances. The appliances get less voltage and hence do not work properly.

13. Explain resistors in series.

ANSWER:
• Join three resistors of different values in series. Connect them with a battery, an ammeter
and a plug key, as shown in figure. The resistors of values like 1Ω, 2Ω, 3Ω etc., and a
battery of 6 volt.
• Plug the key. Change the position of ammeter to anywhere in between the resistors.
• We observe that the value of the current in the ammeter is the same, independent of its
position in the electric current. It means that in a series combination of resistors the
current is the same in every part of the current or the same current through each resistor.

• In above insert a voltmeter across the ends X and Y of the series combinations of three
resistors, as shown in figure.

66
• Plug the key in the circuit and note the voltmeter reading. It gives the potential difference
across the series combination of resistors. Let it be V. Now measure the potential
difference across the two terminals of the battery. Compare the two values.

• Take out the plug key and disconnect the voltmeter. Now insert the voltmeter across the
ends X and P the first resistor, as shown in figure.
• Plug the key and measure the potential difference across the first resistor. Let it be V1.
• Similarly, measure the potential difference across the other two resistors. Separately,
measure the potential difference across the other two resistors, separately. Let these
values be V2 and V3, respectively.
• Deduce a relationship between V, V1, V2 and V3.
• We observe that the potential difference V is equal to the sum of potential difference
across the individual resistors. That is,
V = V1 + V2 + V3 (1)
• In the electric circuit shown in figure. Let I be the current through the circuit. The current
through each resistor is also I. It is possible to replace the three resistors joined in series by
an equivalent single resistor of resistance R, such that the potential difference V across it,
and the current I through the circuit remains the same. Applying the Ohm’s law to the
entire circuit, we have
V = IR
• On applying Ohm’s law to the three resistors separately, we further have
V1 = IR1
V2 = IR2
And V3 = IR3
From equation (1),
IR = IR1 + IR2 + IR3
OR RS = R1 + R2 + R3

67
We can conclude that when several resistors are joined in series, the resistance of the
combination R3 equals the sum of their individual resistances, R1 , R2, R3, and is thus
greater than any individual resistance.

14. Explain resistors in parallel.

ANSWER:
• Make a parallel combination, XY, of three resistors having resistance R1, R2, and R3,
respectively. Connect it with a battery, a plug key and an ammeter, as shown in figure.
Also connect a voltmeter in parallel with the combination of resistors.
• Plug the key and note the ammeter reading. Let the current be I. Also take the voltmeter
reading. It gives the potential difference V, across the combination.
• The potential difference across each resistor is also V. This can be checked by connecting
the voltmeter across each individual resistor.
• Take out the plug from the key. Remove the ammeter and voltmeter from the circuit.
Insert the ammeter in series with the resistor R1. Note the ammeter reading I1.

• Similarly, measure the currents through R2 and R3. Let these be I2 and I3, respectively.
• The total current I, is equal to the sum of the separate currents through each branch of the
combination.
I = I 1 + I2 + I3

68
• Let Rp be the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination of resistors. By applying
Ohm’s law to the parallel combination of resistors, we have
𝑉
I= (1)
𝑅𝑃
On applying Ohm’s law to each resistor, we have
𝑉 𝑉 𝑉
I1 = ; I2 = ; and I3 = (2)
𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
From equations (1) and (2), we have
𝑉 𝑉 𝑉 𝑉 1 1 1 1
= + + OR = + +
𝑅𝑃 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3 𝑅𝑃 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3

Thus, we may conclude that the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance of a

group of resistances joined in parallel is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the
individual resistances.

15. Explain heating effect of electric current.

ANSWER:
• A battery or a cell is a source of electric energy. The chemical reaction within the cell
generates the potential difference between its two terminals that sets the electrons in
motion to flow the current through a resistor or a system of resistors connected to the
battery.
• A part of the source energy in maintaining the current may be consumed into useful work.
Rest of the source energy may be expended in heat to raise the temperature gadget.
• The source energy continually gets dissipated entirely in the form of heat. This is known as
the heating effect of electric current. This effect is utilised in devices such as electric
heater, electric iron etc.

• Consider a current I following through a resistor of resistance R. Let the potential

difference across it be V. Let t be the time during which a charge Q flows across.

69
• The work done in moving the charge Q through a potential difference V is VQ. Therefore,
the source must supply energy equal to VQ in time t. Hence the power input to the circuit
by the source is
𝑄
P=V = 𝑉𝐼 (i)
𝑡
Or the energy supplied to the circuit by the source in time t is P x t, that is, VIt.
• This energy gets dissipated in the resistor as heat. Thus for a steady current I, the amount
of heat H produced in time t is
H = VIt (ii)
Applying Ohm’s law , we get
H = I2Rt (iii)
This is known as Joule’s law of heating.
• The law implies that heat produced in a resistor is (1) directly proportional to the square of
the current for a given resistance, (2) directly proportional to resistance for a given
current, and (3) directly proportional to the time for which the current flows through the
resister.
• In practical situations, when an electric appliance is connected to a known voltage source,
𝑉
equation (iii) is used after calculating the current through it, using the relation I =
𝑅

16. Explain practical applications of heating of electric current.

ANSWER:
• The generation of heat in conductor is an inevitable consequence of electric current. It is
undesirable as it converts useful electrical energy into heat.
• In electric circuits, the unavoidable heating can increase the temperature of the
components and alter their properties.
• However heating effect of electric current has mean useful application. The electric
laundry iron, electric toaster, electric oven, electric kettle and electric heater are some of
the familiar devices least on Joule’s heating.
• The electric heating is also used to produce light, as in an electric bulb. The filament must
retain as much of the heat generated as is possible, so that it gets very hot and emits light.
• It must not melt at such high temperature. A strong metal with high melting point such as
tungsten is used for making bulb filaments.

70
• The filament should be thermally isolated as much as possible, using insulating support,
etc. The bulbs are usually filled with chemically in active nitrogen and argon gases to
prolong the life of filament.
• Most of the power consumed by the filament appears as heat, but a small part of it is in
the form of light radiated.
• Another common application of Joule’s heating is the fuse used in electric circuits. It
protects circuits and appliances by stopping the flow of any unduly high electric current.
• The fuse is placed in series with the device. It consists of a piece of wire made of a metal or
an alloy of appropriate melting point, for example aluminum, copper, iron, lead etc.
• If a current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit, the temperature of
the fuse wire increases. This melts the fuse wire and breaks the circuit.
• The fuse wire is usually encased in a cartridge of porcelain or similar material with metal
ends. The fuses used for domestic purposes are rated as 1 A, 2 A, 3 A, 5 A, 10 A, etc.
• For an electric iron which consumes 1 kW electric power when operated at 220V, a current
of (1000/220) A, that is, 4.54 A will flow in the circuit. In this case, a 5 A fuse must be used.

17. Redraw the circuit of Question 1, putting in an ammeter to measure the current
through the resistors and a voltmeter to measure the potential difference across the 12
Ω resistors. What would be the readings in the ammeter and the voltmeter?
ANSWER:

The circuit diagram of above with an ammeter A and a voltmeter V across 12 Ω resistor
is shown in figure.

71
Calculation of current flowing in the circuit:
Equivalent resistance of the circuit,
R5 = 5 Ω + 8 Ω + 12 Ω = 25 Ω
Potential difference V = 6 volt
In a series combination, the current flowing through each resistor is the same and
equal to the total current flowing through circuit.
Therefore, Current through the resistors,
𝑉
I=
𝑅
6
=
25
= 0.24 A
Since the current in the circuit and the current through each resistor is the same, the
ammeter will show a reading of 0.24 A.
Calculation of potential difference across 12 Ω resistor:
As total current 0.24A flows in the circuit, the same current 0.24A would also flow
through the 12 Ω resistor which is connected in series.
Therefore, The potential difference across the 12 Ω resistor,
V = IR
= 0.24 X 12 = 2.88 V
Thus, the p.d. across 12 Ω resistor is 2.88 volt.
So, the voltmeter will show a reading of 2.88 V.

18. Judge the equivalent resistance when the following are connected in parallel –
(a) 1 Ω and 106 Ω, (b) 1 Ω and 103 Ω, and 106 Ω.
ANSWER:
(a) Less than 1 Ω (but approximately 1 Ω)
(b) Less than 1 Ω (but approximately 1 Ω)
Explanation: When resistors are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is less than
the least resistance (here in both the cases it is 1 Ω) connected in the combination.
OR
(a) Here, R1 = 1 Ω and R2 = 106 Ω
The equivalent resistance Rp of the parallel combination is given by,
1 1 1
= +
𝑅𝑝 𝑅1 𝑅2
𝑅1 𝑋𝑅2
Therefore, Rp =
𝑅1 +𝑅2
72
 1 𝑋 106
=
1+106
1000000
= ≈1Ω
1000001
(b) Here, R1 = 1 Ω , R2 =103 Ω and R3 = 106 Ω
The equivalent resistance Rp of the parallel combination is given by,
1 1 1 1
= + +
𝑅𝑝 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
1 1 1
= + +
1 1000 1000000
1000000+1000+1
=
1000000
1001001
=
1000000
1000000
Rp = Ω
1001001
≈1Ω

19. An electric lamp of 100 Ω, a toaster of resistance 50 Ω, and a water filter of resistance
500 Ω are connected in parallel to a 220 V source. What is the resistance of an electric
iron connected to the same source that takes as much current as all the three
appliances, and what is the current through it?
SOLUTION:
Here, Resistance of an electric lamp R1 = 100 Ω Resistance of a toaster R2 = 50 Ω
Resistance of a toaster R2 = 50 Ω
Resistance of a water filter R3 = 500 Ω
Equivalent resistance Rp of three resistors R1, R2 and R3 connected in parallel is given
by,
1 1 1 1
= + +
𝑅𝑝 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
1 1 1
= + +
100 50 500
5+10+1
=
500
16
=
500
500
Therefore, Rp =
16
124
=
4
= 31.25 Ω
Total current through the circuit (i.e., through all the three appliances)

73
 𝑉
I=
𝑅𝑃
220
=
31.25
= 7.04 A
Since, the electric iron connected to the same source (i.e., 220 V) takes as much current
as taken by all the three appliances (i.e., I = 7.04 A), its resistance must be equal to Rp.
So, the resistance of the electric iron = 31.25 Ω and the current through the electric
iron = 7.04 A

20. How can three resistors of resistances 2Ω, 3Ω , and 6Ω be connected to give a total
resistance of (a) 4 Ω, (b) 1Ω ?
ANSWER:
(a) In order to obtain a total resistance of 4 Ω from three resistors of 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω …
• First connect the two resistors of 3 Ω and 6 Ω in parallel to get a total resistance of 2 Ω.
This is because in parallel combination,

3Ω

6Ω
1 1 1
= +
𝑅𝑝 𝑅1 𝑅2
𝑅1 𝑅2
Rp =
𝑅1 +𝑅2
3𝑋6
=
3+6
=2Ω
• Now, above parallel combination of 3 Ω and 6 Ω resistors is connected in series with the
remaining 2 Ω resistor to get total resistance of 4 Ω. This is because in series combination.
Rs = R p + R3
=2+2
=4Ω
Hence, the arrangement of three resistors 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω which gives total
resistance 4 Ω can be represented as follows:

74
(b)In order to obtain a total resistance of 1 Ω from three resistors of 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω, all the
three resistors should be connected in parallel. This is because in a parallel combination.
1 1 1 1
= + +
𝑅𝑝 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
1 1 1
= + +
2 3 6
3+2+1
=
6
6
=
6
=1
Therefore, Rp = 1Ω
Hence, the arrangement of three resistors 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω which gives total
resistance 1 Ω can be represented as follows:

21. What is (a) the highest, (b) the lowest total resistance that can be secured by
combinations of four coils of resistance 4 Ω, 8 Ω, 12Ω, 24Ω?
SOLUTION:
(a) The highest resistance can be secured (or obtained) by connecting all the four coils in
series. In this case,
Rs = R1 + R 2 + R3 + R4
= 4 + 8 + 12 + 24
= 48 Ω
Thus, the highest resistance which can be secured is 48 Ω.
(b)The lowest resistance can be secured by connecting all the four coils in parallel. In
this case,
1 1 1 1 1
= + + +
𝑅𝑝 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3 𝑅4

75
 1 1 1 1
= + + +
4 8 12 24
6+3+2+1
=
24
12
=
24
24
Therefore, Rp =
12
=2Ω
Thus, the lowest resistance which can be secured is 2 Ω.

22. Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while the heating element does?
ANSWER:
• The heating element of an electric heater is made of an alloy (such as Nichrome) which has
high resistance (partly due to high resistivity) whereas the cord is made of copper metal
which has very low resistance (partly due to law resistivity).
• Now, the heating element of an electric heater made of Nichrome glows because it
becomes red-hot due to the large amount of heat (according to H = I 2Rt) is produced on
passing current.
• On the other hand, the connecting cord of the electric heater made of copper does not
glow because relatively very less (negligible) heat (according to H = I 2Rt) is produced in it
by passing the same current.

23. Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulomb of charge in one hour
through a potential difference of 50 V.
SOLUTION:
Here, charge, Q = 96000 C,

76
24. The values of current I flowing in a circuit with a resistor for the corresponding values
of potential difference V across the resistors are given below:

I (amperes) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0

V (volt) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of that resistor.
ANSWER: The graph between V and I plotted by using the given data is shown below:

Calculation of the resistance of given resistor:

77
25. How many 176Ω resistors (in parallel) are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line?
SOLUTION:
Here, I = 5 A; V = 220 V
So, the total resistance of the given circuit is
𝑉 220
Rtotal = = = 44Ω
𝐼 5
i.e., when 44Ω resistance is connected with 220V line, 5A current would flow through the
given circuit.
Now, suppose ‘n’ resistors, each of resistance R, are required to be connected in parallel,
so that the total resistance Rtotal becomes 44Ω.
1 1 1
Hence, = + +…n times
𝑅𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑅 𝑅
1+1+...𝑛 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑠 𝑛
= =
𝑅 𝑅
𝑅
Therefore, Rtotal =
𝑛
Now, Rtotal = 44Ω and R = 176Ω
176
So, 44 =
𝑛
176
Therefore, n = =4
44
Thus, 4 resistors each of 176Ω connected in parallel will result in total resistance of 44Ω
causing a current of 5 A to flow when connected to 220 V line.

26. Show how you would connect three resistors, each of resistance 6Ω, so that the
combination has a resistance of (i) 9Ω, (ii) 4Ω.
SOLUTION:
(i) In order to get a resistance of 9Ω from three resistors, each of resistance 6Ω, we connect
two 6Ω resistors in parallel and this parallel combination is connected in series with the
third 6Ω resistor as shown in the following figure:

1 1 1 1+1 2 1
This is because = + = = =
𝑅𝑃 6 6 6 6 3
Therefore, RP = 3Ω and RP + 6Ω = 3Ω + 6Ω = 9Ω

78
 (ii)In order to get a resistance of 4Ω from three resistors, each of resistance 6Ω, we
connect two 6Ω resistors in series and this series combination is connected in parallel to
the third 6Ω resistor as shown in the following figure:

This is because RS = 6 + 6 = 12Ω

1 1 1
Now, = +
𝑅𝑃 𝑅𝑆 6
6 × 𝑅𝑆 6 × 12 72
Therefore, RP = = = = 4Ω
6 + 𝑅𝑆 6 + 12 18

27. Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220 V electric supply line, are rated 10
W How many lamps can be connected in parallel to each other across the two wires of a
220 V line if the maximum allowable current is 5 A?
SOLUTION:
Here, the voltage rating of each bulb is 220 V
and the power rating of each bulb is 10 W.
So, the resistance of each bulb
𝑉2 2202 220 × 220
R= = = = 4840 Ω
𝜌 10 10
Now, here, V = 220 V and I = 5 A given.
So, the total resistance of the given circuit is
𝑉 220
Rtotal = = = 44Ω
𝐼 5
i.e., When 44Ω resistance is connected with 220 V line, 5 A current would flow through
the given circuit.
Now, when ‘n’ bulbs each of resistance R, are connected in parallel, their equivalent
𝑅
resistance Rtotal = .
𝑛
4840
Hence, 44 =
𝑛
4840
Therefore, n = = 110
𝑛
79
 Thus, 110 bulbs each of resistance 4840 Ω connected in parallel will result in total
resistance of 44Ω causing a current of 5 A to flow, when connected to the 220 V line.

28. A hot plate of an electric oven connected to a 220 V line has two resistance coils A
and B, each of 24Ω resistance, which may be used separately, in series, or in parallel.
What are the currents in the three cases?
SOLUTION: Here, the potential difference V = 220 V
The resistance of each coil RA = RS = 24Ω
(1) When each of the coils A or B is connected separately, the current
through each coil is
𝑉 𝑉
I= or
𝑅𝐴 𝑅𝐵
220
= = 9.166 A
24
(2) When the coils A and B are connected in series, the equivalent resistance
of the circuit
RS = RA + RB = 24 + 24 = 48 Ω
So, the current through the series combination
𝑉
IS =
𝑅𝑆
220
=
48
= 4.58 A ≈ 4.6 A
(3) When the coils A and B are connected in parallel, the equivalent
resistance RP of the circuit is given by
1 1 1 1 1 2
= + = + =
𝑅𝑃 𝑅𝐴 𝑅𝐵 24 24 24
RP = 12 Ω
So, the current through the parallel combination
𝑉 220
IP = = = 18.33 A
𝑅𝑃 12

29. Compare the power used in the 2 Ω resistor in each of the following circuits:
(i) a 6 V battery in series with 1 Ω and 2 Ω resistors
(ii) a 4 V battery in parallel with 12 Ω and 2 Ω resistors.
SOLUTION:
(i) As 1 Ω resistor and 2 Ω resistor are connected in series, the equivalent resistance R s = 1 +
2=3Ω
80
 Now, the voltage of the battery V = 6 V
𝑉 6
So, the current flowing through the circuit, Is = = = 2𝐴
𝑅𝑠 3
In a series combination the same current 2A flows through each resistor. Hence the
current flowing through 2 Ω resistor is also 2 A.
Therefore, Power used in 2 Ω resistor.
P1 = I2s R
= (2)2 X 2 = 8 W
(ii)As 12 Ω resistor and 2 Ω resistor are connected in parallel and 4 V battery is
connected in parallel with this parallel combination of resistors.
The p.d. across 2 Ω resistor will also be 4 V.
Therefore, Power used in 2 Ω resistor,
𝑉2 42 16
P2 = = = =8𝑊
𝑅 2 2
• In order to compare the power used in 2 Ω resistor in two different circuits, find the ratio
of P1 and P2.
𝑃1 8
So, = =𝟏
𝑃2 8
Therefore, P1 = P2
Hence, 2 Ω resistor used equal power, i.e., 8 W in both the circuits.

30. Two lamps, one rated loo W at 220 V, and the other rated 60 W
at 220 V, are connected in parallel to the electric mains supply.
What current is drawn from the line if the supply voltage is 220 V?
ANSWER:

81
Q.35 Which uses more energy; a 250 W TV set in 1 hr, or a 1200 W toaster in 10 minutes?
SOLUTION :

82
 4 MARKS
LESSON 2 - ACIDS,BASES AND SALTS

1. Write word equations and then balanced equations for the reaction taking place when
(a) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules.
(b) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.
(c) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
(d) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.
ANSWER :
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules :
⇒ dilute sulphuric acid + zinc → Zink Sulphate + Hydrogen Gas
⇒ H2SO4(aq) + Zn → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.
⇒ dilute Hydrochloric + Magnesium → Magnesium Chloride + Hydrogen Gas
⇒ 2HCl(aq) + Mg → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
⇒ dilute Sulphuric Acid + Aluminium → Aluminium Sulphate + Hydrogen Gas
⇒ 3H2SO4(aq) + 2Al(s) → Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g)
(d) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.
⇒ dilute Hydrochloric Acid + Iron → Ferrous Chloride + Hydrogen Gas
⇒ 6HCl(aq) + 3Fe(s) → 3FeCl2(aq) + 3H2(g)

2. State the uses of baking soda and washing soda?Write their formula and chemical name.
ANSWER :
Baking soda:- The soda commonly used in the kitchen for making tasty crispy pakoras is
baking soda. Sometimes it is added for faster cooking. . (i) For making baking powder,
which is a mixture of baking soda (sodium hydrogencarbonate) and a mild edible acid
such as tartaric acid. Carbon dioxide produced during the reaction causes bread or cake
to rise making them soft and spongy. (ii) Sodium hydrogencarbonate is also an ingredient
in antacids. Being alkaline, it neutralises excess acid in the stomach and provides relief.
(iii) It is also used in soda-acid fire extinguishers
Its formula is (NaHCO3). The chemical name of the compound is sodium
hydrogencarbonate.
Washing soda (i) Sodium carbonate (washing soda) is used in glass, soap and paper
industries. (ii) It is used in the manufacture of sodium compounds such as borax. (iii)

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 Sodium carbonate can be used as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes. (iv) It is used
for removing permanent hardness of water.
Its formula is Na2CO3.10H2O. The chemical name of the compound is sodium carbonate.

3. Write a note on : Common salt.

ANSWER :
• The salt formed by the combination of hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide solution
is called sodium chloride. This is the salt that we use in food .
• Sea water contains many salts dissolved in it. Sodium chloride is separated from these
salts.Deposits of solid salt are also found in several parts of the world. These large
crystals are often brown due to impurities. This is called rock salt. Beds of rock salt
were formed when seas of bygone ages dried up .Rock salt is mined like coal.
• The common salt thus obtained is an important raw material for various materials of
daily use , such as sodium hydroxide, baking soda , washing soda , bleaching powder
and many more.

4. Write word equations and then balanced equations for the reaction taking place when
(a) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules.
(b) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.
(c) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
(d) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.
SOLUTION :
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules :
⇒ dilute sulphuric acid + zinc → Zink Sulphate + Hydrogen Gas
⇒ H2SO4(aq) + Zn → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.
⇒ dilute Hydrochloric + Magnesium → Magnesium Chloride + Hydrogen Gas
⇒ 2HCl(aq) + Mg → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
⇒ dilute Sulphuric Acid + Aluminium → Aluminium Sulphate + Hydrogen Gas
⇒ 3H2SO4(aq) + 2Al(s) → Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g)
(d) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.
⇒ dilute Hydrochloric Acid + Iron → Ferrous Chloride + Hydrogen Gas
⇒ 6HCl(aq) + 3Fe(s) → 3FeCl2(aq) + 3H2(g)

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5. Five solutions A,B,C,D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as
4,1,11,7 and 9, respectively. Which solution is
(a) neutral?
(b) Strongly alkaline?
(c) Strongly acidic?
(d) Weakly acidic?
(e) Weakly alkaline?
SOLUTION :
In increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration:
pH 11(B) → pH 9(E) → pH 7(A) → pH 4(D) → pH 1 (B)
PH11-Strongly alkaline
pH9- weakly alkaline
PH7-Neutral
pH-4- Weakly acidic
pH-1- Strongly acidic

6. Write a note on Plaster of Paris.

ANSWER :
On heating gypsum at 373 K, it loses water molecules and becomes calcium sulphate
hemihydrate. This is called Plaster of Paris.
2[CaSO4 .2H2 O](s) → 2(CaSO4) .H2 O(s) + 3H2 O
Gypsum OR
1 1
CaSO4 .2H2 O → CaSO4 . H2 O + 1 H2 O
2 2
Gypsum Plaster of paris

the substance which doctors use as plaster for supporting fractured bones in the right
position. Plaster of Paris is a white powder and on mixing with water, it changes to
gypsum once again giving a hard solid mass.
1 1
CaSO4 . H2 O+1 H2O →CaSO4 .2H2 O
2 2
Plaster of Paris Gypsum

Uses :-
(1) In construction and in plastering the walls.
(2) In orthopaedics, it is used for setting fractured bones in the right position.
(3) In making cast in dentistry
(4) In making idols
(5) In making chalks for writing on the black board
(6) In laboratory , it is applied as plaster for making the apparatus air tight.
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7. Explain the importance of pH in everyday life.
ANSWER :
Importance of pH in Everyday Life :
Living organism carry out their metabolic activities within an optimal pH range.
1) Plants and animals are pH sensitive
Human body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8. Living organisms can survive only in a
narrow range of pH change.The rain water become acid rain when pH of rain water is
less than 5.6. When this acid rain flows into the rivers it lowers the pH of river water and
effect the survival of aquatic life.
2) pH of soil for plant growth
Plants require a specific pH range for their healthy growth which is normally from 6.5 to 7.3
pH range.The farmers add lime (CaO) to the acidic soil to neutralize it, while to neutralize
basic soil, they add gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O) to the soil.
3) pH in digestive system
Our stomach produces hydrochloric acid(HCl). It helps in the digestion of food without
harming the stomach. During indigestion the stomach produces too much acid and this
causes pain and irritation. To get rid of this pain people use bases called antacids.
These antacids neutralize the access acid magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) and
baking soda (NaHCO3), mild bases , are often used for this purpose.
4) pH change as the cause of tooth decay
Tooth are made up of calcium hydroxyapatite,crystalline form of calcium phosphate.. It does
not dissolve in water but is corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5. So, tooth
decay starts when the pH is lower than 5.5. Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids
by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth after eating. The best
way to prevent this is to clean the mouth after eating food. Using toothpastes for
cleaning the teeth after food can neutralize the excess acid and prevent the tooth decay.
5) Self defense by animals and plants through chemical warfare
Honey-bee produces methanoic acid which is also known as formic acid when it stung on
human body. Similarly, nettle leaves also produces methanoic acid when someone
touches its leaves, which causes pain and irritation. Use of mild base like baking soda on
the stung area gives relief.

8. Explain the preparation of bleaching powder and write its uses.

ANSWER :
• Bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)2].
Bleaching powder is represented as CaOCl2, though the actual composition is quite
complex.

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 Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
• Bleaching powder is used – (i) for bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry, for
bleaching wood pulp in paper factories and for bleaching washed clothes in laundry;
(ii) as an oxidising agent in many chemical industries
(iii) for disinfecting drinking water to make it free of germs.

9. Explain the preparation of baking soda and write its uses.

ANSWER :
The baking soda commonly used in the kitchen for making tasty crispy pakoras is baking
soda. Sometimes it is added for faster cooking. The chemical name of the compound is
sodium hydrogencarbonate (NaHCO3). It is produced using sodium chloride as one of the
raw materials.
NaCl + H2 O + CO2 + NH3 → NH4 Cl + NaHCO3
Ammoniumcholride Sodium hydrogencarbonate

It is a mild non-corrosive base. The following reaction takes place when it is heated during
cooking
2NaHCO3 → Na2 CO2 +H2 O+CO2
Sodium hydrogencarbonate sodium carbonate

Sodium hydrogencarbonate has got various uses in the household. Uses of sodium
hydrogencarbonate (NaHCO3)
(i) For making baking powder, which is a mixture of baking soda (sodium hydrogencarbonate)
and a mild edible acid such as tartaric acid. When baking powder is heated or mixed in
water, the following reaction takes place
NaHCO3 + H+ → CO2 + H2O + Sodium salt of acid
(From any acid)

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Carbon dioxide produced during the reaction causes bread or cake to rise making them soft
and spongy
(ii) Sodium hydrogencarbonate is also an ingredient in antacids. Being alkaline, it neutralises
excess acid in the stomach and provides relief. (iii) It is also used in soda-acid fire
extinguishers.
10. Explain the preparation of washing soda and write its uses.
ANSWER :
Washing soda can be obtained from sodium chloride and its chemical formula is
Na2CO3.10H2O . Sodium carbonate can be obtained by heating baking soda;
recrystallisation of sodium carbonate gives washing soda. It is also a basic salt.
Na2 CO3 +10 H2 O → Na2 CO2 .10 H2 O
Sodium carbonate

Sodium carbonate and sodium hydrogencarbonate are useful chemicals for many industrial
processes as well.
Uses of washing soda
(i) Sodium carbonate (washing soda) is used in glass, soap and paper industries. (ii) It is used
in the manufacture of sodium compounds such as borax. (iii) Sodium carbonate can be
used as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes. (iv) It is used for removing permanent
hardness of water.
11. Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorized
as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
ANSWER:
• Take solutions of glucose, alcohol, hydrochloric acid, sulphuric acid, etc.
• Fix two nails on a cork, and place the cork in a 100mL beaker.
• Connect the nails to the two terminals of a 6 volt battery through a bulb and a switch.
• Now pour some dilute HCl in the beaker and switch on the current.
• Repeat with dilute sulphuric acid. The bulb will start glowing in the case of acids.
• We observe that glucose and alcohol solutions do not conduct electricity.
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 • Glowing of the bulb indirects that there is a flow of electric current through the
solution. The electric current is carried through the acidic solution by ions.
• Acids contain H+ ion as cation and anion such as Cl- in HCl, NO3- in HNO3, SO2- in H2SO4,
CH3COO- in CH3COOH .
• Since the cation present in acids is H+, this suggests that acids produce hydrogen ions,
H+(aq) , in solution, which are responsible for their acidic properties.

12. Describe the reaction of Zn granules with dilute sulphuric acid (H2SO4) with diagram.
Also write the equation of zinc with sodium hydroxide.(v.imp)
ANSWER:
• Take about 5 mL of dilute sulphuric acid in a test tube and add a few pieces of zinc
granules to it.
• Pass the gas being evolved through the soap solution.
• Take a burning candle near a gas filled bubble.
• Repeat this activity with some more acids like HCl , HNO3 and CH3COOH.
• The reaction that takes place can be written as follows.
2NaOH(aq) + Zn(s) Na2ZnO2(s) + H2(g)
(Sodium zincate)

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13. You have been provided with three test tubes, one of them contains distilled water
and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution respectively. If you
are given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test tube?
ANSWER:
• Take three test tubes and label them as A, B and C. Add one drop of solution from test
tubes A, B and C on the red litmus paper separately. The solution of a test tube which
turns red litmus paper to blue contains a base.
• Now, the remaining two test tubes contain acid and distilled water. Use the above
blue litmus paper to test the solution of remaining two test tubes.
• Add one drop of solution from two test tubes on blue litmus paper separately. The
solution of a test tube which turns blue litmus paper to red contains and acid.
• The solution of a test tube which does not change either red or blue litmus paper
contains distilled water.
• Thus, solutions of three test tubes can be tested.

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 LESSON 4: CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
1. Why does micelle formation take place when soap is added to water? Will a micelle
be formed in other solvents such as ethanol also?
ANSWER :
• Micelle formation takes place because of the dirt particles in water and clean water.
There are two mediums that are involved: one is pure water and the other being dirt
(also called as impurities). The soap also has two mediums:
(i) organic tail and

(ii) ionic head

• So the organic tail mixes and dissolves with the dirt whereas the oil or grease and
ionic head dissolves and mixes with the water. Therefore, when the material to be
cleaned is removed from the water, the dirt is taken off by the soap molecules in the
water. Hence, the soap cleans by forming closed structures by the mutual repulsion
of the micelles (positively charged heads).

2. State properties and reaction of ethanol.

ANSWER :
• Ethanol is a liquid at room temperature. Ethanol is commonly called alcohol and is the
active ingredient of all alcoholic drinks. In addition , because it is a good solvent, it is
also used in medicines such as tincture iodine, cough syrups , and many tonics. Ethanol
is also soluble in water in all proportions. Consumption of small quantities of dilute
ethanol causes drunkeness. Even though these practices condemned , it is a socially
widespread practice.However, intake of even s small quantity of pure ethanol ( cold
absolute alcohol) can be lithen.Also , long term consumption of alcohol leads to many
health problems .
• Reactions of ethanol :-
1. Reaction with sodium
2Na + 2CH3CH2OH → 2CH3CH2O-Na+ + H2
sodium ethoxide

• Alcohol react with sodium leading to the evolution of hydrogen.With ethanol, the other
product is sodium ethoxide.
2. Reaction to give unsaturated hydrocarbon : Heating ethanol at 443 K with excess
concentrated sulphuric acid results in the dehydration of ethanol to give ethene -
HOT conc

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 CH3 - CH2OH + H2SO4 HOT conc → CH2 = CH2 + H2O
• The concentrated sulphuric acid can be regarded as a dehydrating agent which
removes water from ethanol.

3. State properties and reactions of ethanoic acid.

ANSWER :
Properties :-
• Ethanoic acid is commonly called acetic acid and belongs to a group of acids called
carboxylic acids. 5 - 8 % solution of acetic acid in water is called vinegar and is used widely
as a preservative in pickles. The melting point of pure ethanoic acid is 290 K and hence it
often freezes during winter in cold climates. These give rise to its name glacial acetic acid.
• The group of organic compounds called carboxylic acids are obviously characterized by
their acidic nature. However, unlike mineral acids like HCl , which are completely ionised ,
carboxylic acids are weak acids.
Reactions of ethanoic acids :
1. Esterification reaction:
Esters are most commonly formed by reaction of an acid and alcohol .
Ethanoic acid reacts with absolute ethanol in the presence of an acid catylsed to give an
ester -
CH3 - COOH + CH3 - CH2OH ⇌ CH3 - C - C -CH2 - CH3 + H2O
∥
O
ethanoic acid ethanol ester

Generally, esters are sweet smelling substances. These are used in making perfumes and as
flavouring agents. On treating with sodium hydroxide, which is an alkali, the ester is
converted back to alcohol and sodium salt of carboxylic acid. This reaction is known as
saponification because it is used in the preparation of soap. Soaps are sodium or
potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acid.
NaOH

CH3COOC2H5 → C2H5OH + CH3COONa

2. Reaction with a base : Like mineral acids , ethanoic acid reacts with a base such as sodium
hydroxide to give a salt ( sodium ethanoate or commonly called sodium acetate ) and
water -
NaOH + CH3COOH → CH3COONa + H2O
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3. Reaction with carbonates and hydrogencarbonates :
Ethanoic acid reacts with carbonates and hydrogencarbonates to give rise to a salt, carbon
dioxide and water. The salt produced is commonly called sodium acetate.
2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 → 2CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
CH3COOH + NAHCO3 → CH3COONa + H2O + CO2

4. State the chemical properties of following carbon compounds :

(1) Combustion
(2) Oxidation
(3) Addition
(4) Substitution
ANSWER :
(1) Combustion
Carbon, in all its allotropic forms , burns in oxygen to give carbon dioxide along with the
release of heat and light. Most carbon compounds also release a large amount of heat
and light on burning. These are the oxidation reactions :
(1) C + O2 → CO2 + Heat and Light
(2) CH4 + O2 → CO2 + H2O + heat and light
(3) CH3CH2OH + O2 → CO2 + H2O + heat and light
Saturated hydrocarbons will generally give a clean flame while unsaturated carbon
compounds will give a yellow flame with lots of black smoke. This results in a sooty
deposit on the metal plate.However , limiting the supply of air results in incomplete
combustion of even saturated hydrocarbons giving a sooty flame.The gas/kerosene stove
used at home has inlets for air so that a sufficiently oxygen rich mixture is burnt to give a
clean blue flame. If u observe the bottoms of cooking vessels getting blackened , iot
means the air holes are blocked and fuel is getting wasted.Fuels such as coal and
petroleum have some amount of nitrogen and sulphur in them.Their combustion results
in the formation of oxides of sulphur and nitrogen which are major pollutants in the
environment.
(2) Oxidation
Carbon compounds can be easily oxidised on combustion. In addition to this complete
oxidation, we have reactions in which alcohols are converted to carboxylic acids -
alkaline KMnO4 + heat
CH3 - CH2OH → CH3COOH
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 acidified K2Cr2O7 + heat
Alkaline potassium permaganate or acidified potassium dichromate are oxidising alcohols to
acids , i.e., adding oxygen to the starting material.Hence they are known as oxidising
agents.
(3)Addition reaction :
Unsaturated hydrocarbons add hydrogen in the presence of catalysts such as palladium or
nickel to give saturated hydrocarbons. Catalysts are substances that cause a reaction to
occur or proceed at a different rate without the reaction itself being affected. This
reaction is commonly used in the hydrogenation of vegetable oils using a nickel
catalysts.Vegetable oils generally have long unsaturated carbon chains while animal fats
are saturated carbon chains.

(4) Substitution reaction

Saturated hydrocarbons are fairly unreactive and are inert in the presence of most reagents.
However, in the presence of sunlight , chlorine is added to hydrocarbons in a very fast
reaction. Chlorine can replace the hydrogen atoms one by one . It is called substitution
reaction because one type of atom or a group of atoms takes the place of another. A
number of products are usually formed with the higher homologous of alkanes
CH4 + Cl2 → CH3Cl + HCl ( in presence of sunlight)

5.Write a note on versatile nature of carbon,.

ANSWER :
The nature of the covalent bond enables carbon to form a large number of compounds.
Two factors noticed in the case of carbon are -
(1) Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon , giving rise to
large molecules. This property is called catenation. These compounds may have long
chains of carbon branched chains of carbon or even carbon atoms arranged in ring.In
addition , carbon atoms maybe linked by single , double or triple bonds. Compounds of
carbon which are linked by only single bonds between the carbon atoms are called
saturated compounds. Compounds of carbon having double or triple bonds between
their carbon atoms are called unsaturated compounds.

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 No other element exhibits the property of catenation to the extent seen in carbon
compounds.Silicon forms compounds with hydrogen which have chains of upto seven or
eight atoms , but this compounds are very reactive. The carbon - carbon bond is very
strong and hence stable. This gives us the large number of compounds with many carbon
atoms linked to each other.
(2) Since carbon has a valency of four, it is capable of bonding with four other atoms of
carbon or atoms of some other mono-valent element. Compounds of carbon are formed
with oxygen , hydrogen , nitrogen , sulphur , chlorine and many other elements giving
rise to compounds with specific properties which depend on the elements other than
carbon present in molecule.
Again the bonds that carbon forms with most other elements are very strong making
these compounds exceptionally stable.One reason for the formation of strong bonds by
carbon is its small size.This enables the nucleus to hold on to the shared pairs of
electrons strongly.The bonds formed by elements having bigger atoms are much
weaker.

6.Explain the formation of hydrogen molecule (H2) by covalent bond.

ANSWER : The atomic number of hydrogen is 1. Hence hydrogen has one electron in its K
shell and it requires one more electron to fill the K shell.
So two hydrogen atoms share their electrons to form a molecule of hydrogen, H2.
This allows each hydrogen atom to attain the electronic configuration of the nearest noble
gas, helium, which has two electrons in its K shell. We can depict this using dots or
crosses to represent valence electrons. The shared pair of electrons is said to constitute a
single bond between the two hydrogen atoms. A single bond is also represented by a line
between the two atoms.

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7. Explain the formation of ammonia molecule (NH3) by covalent bond.
ANSWER :
Nitrogen is a central atom in the molecule of ammonia. The atomic number of nitrogen is 7 ,
so its electronic configuration is
K , L = 2 , 5
• Thus, nitrogen has five electrons in its L shell.
• Therefore, it needs three more electrons to fill the L shell.
• Nitrogen shares three of its valence electrons with one electron each of K shell of three
hydrogen atoms to form a molecule of ammonia (NH3).
• As a result, nitrogen atom of ammonia attains the electronic configuration of its nearest
noble gas neon (Ne), which has 8 electrons in its L shell, while hydrogen atom attains the
electronic configuration of its nearest noble gas helium (He), which has 2 electrons in its
K shell.
• Here, these valence electrons are depicted by dots or crosses as shown as follows :

8. Write a note on Allotropes of carbon.

ANSWER :
The element carbon exists in nature in different forms with different physical properties ,
but identical chemical properties. These forms are called allotropes of carbon.
→ Carbon possess three allotropes : (1) Diamond (2) Graphite and (3) Fullerene.
→ These three allotropes consist of our carbon.
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→ Diamond, Graphite or fullerene when burnt in air, form carbon dioxide gas , which is
colourless and odourless and turns lime water milky, Hence, chemical properties of these
allotropes are same.
(1) Diamond : (a) Structure : In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon
atoms forming a rigid three-dimensional tetrahedral structure.
(b) Physical properties of diamond : Carbon atoms are arranged tetrahedrally in diamond ;
and it is the hardest natural substance known.
→ Carbon atoms are closely packed in diamond, hence , it has a high density. (3.51 g cm -3 )
→ Diamond possess numerous covalent bonds , hence , its melting point is quite high.
(4203K)
→ There are no free electrons in a diamond crystal , therefore diamond is a non-conductor
of electricity.
→ Diamonds are transparent because of their high refractive index (2.5)
→ Diamonds can be synthesized by subjecting pure carbon to very high pressure and
temperature.These synthetic diamonds are small but are indistinguishable from natural
diamonds.
(2)Graphite: (a) Structure : In graphite, each crabon atom is bonded to three carbon atoms in
the same plane giving hexagonal array.One of these bonds is a double bon, and thus the
valency of carbon is satisfied. Graphite structure is formed by the hexagonal arrays being
placed in layers one above the other.
(b) Physical properties of graphite : Graphite is smooth and slippery.
→ The density of graphite is lower than diamond.(2.22g cm-3)
→ In graphite, three valence electrons are used for bond formation and hence , one valence
electron is free to move. As a result, graphite is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
(3) Fullerene : Fullerenes form another class od carbon allotropes. The first oone to be
identified was C - 60, which ha carbon atoms arranged in the shape of football.Since this

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 looked like the geodesic dome designed by the US architect Buckminister fuller, the
molecule was named fullerene.

9. Explain the mechanism of the cleaning action of soaps.

Answer : There are so many impurities and dirt mixed in water, and most of all the dirt do not
dissolve in the water. Soap molecules are a combination of salts such as sodium or
potassium. The molecules are of a long chain of carboxylic acids. So, when the carbon
chain is dissolved in oil and the ionic end is dissolved in the water, the soap starts
cleansing and trapping the dirt. When this happens, the soap molecules form structures
that are called micelles are used for capturing the oil droplets and then the other end
being the ionic faces. This will then form an emulsion in water and help in dissolving the
dirt or impurities when the clothes are washed.
The soap molecules have different properties at different ends. The first end being the
hydrophilic end which dissolves in the water and is attracted towards the water and the
second one being the hydrophobic end is dissolved in the hydrocarbons and is repulsive
to water. The hydrophobic tail aligns itself along the surface of the water because it is
not soluble in the water.

10. Give a test that can be used to differentiate between saturated and unsaturated
hydrocarbons.
ANSWER :
Bromine water test – is used to differentiate between the unsaturated compounds (like
alkenes and alkynes) and the saturated compounds. For this purpose, bromine is used in
the form of bromine water. A solution of bromine in water is called bromine water.
Bromine water has a red-brown color due to the presence of bromine in it. When
bromine water is added to an unsaturated compound, then bromine gets added to the
unsaturated compound and the red-brown color of bromine water is discharged. So, if an
organic compound decolorizes bromine water, then it will be an unsaturated

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 hydrocarbon (containing a double bond or a triple bond), but saturated hydrocarbon
(alkanes) do not decolorize bromine water.
Bromine water test is perform to differentiate between the unsaturated
compounds (like alkenes and alkynes) and the saturated compounds. Bromine water is
added to an un-saturated hydrocarbon red brown color of bromine solution is
discharged. Si if there is dis-coloration then the compound will be an unsaturated
Hydrocarbon.

11.How can ethanol and ethanoic acid be differentiated on the basis of their physical and
chemical properties?
ANSWER :
Ethanol Ethanoic acid

Does not react with sodium hydrogen Bubbles and fizzes with hydrogen
carbonate carbonate

A good smell Smells like vinegar

No action in litmus paper Blue litmus paper to red

Burning taste Sour taste

11. Draw the electron dot structures for
(a) ethanoic acid.
(b) H2S.
(c) propanone.
(d) F2
SOLUTION :

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12. Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the bond formation in CH3Cl
ANSWER :
Carbon can neither lose 4 electrons nor do gain four electrons as these process make the
system unstable due to requirement of extra energy. Therefore CH3Cl completes its
octet configuration by sharing its 4 electrons with carbon atoms or with atoms of other
elements. Hence the bonding that exists in CH3Cl is a covalent bonding.
Here, carbon requires 4 electrons to complete its octet, while each hydrogen atom requires
one electron to complete its duplet. Also, chlorine requires an electron to complete the
octet. Therefore, all of these share the electrons and as a result, carbon forms 3 bonds
with hydrogen and one with chlorine.

13.Draw the structures for the following compounds. (i) Ethanoic acid (ii) Bromopentane*
(iii) Butanone (iv) Hexanal.
ANSWER :

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 14. How many structural isomers can you draw for pentane?
Soln:
Structural isomer of pentane are n-pentane, 2-methylbutane, 2,2-dimethylpropane

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15. Explain the given reactions with the examples
(a) Hydrogenation reaction
(b) Oxidation reaction
(c) Substitution reaction
(d) Saponification reaction
(e) Combustion reaction
ANSWER :

16.(a) Write the formula and draw electron dot structure of carbon tetrachloride.
(b) What is saponification? Write the reaction involved in this process.
ANSWER :
1. Carbon tetra chloride- CCl4

1. The reaction of an ester in the presence of base to give sodium salt of carboxylic acid and
alcohol is known as saponification and it is used in the preparation of soap.
CH3COOC2H5+NaOH CH3COONa+C2H5OH
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17. Write the structural formulae of all the isomers of hexane.
SOLUTION :

18. Match the reactions given in Column (A) with the names given in column (B).
Column A Column B

(a) CH3OH + CH3COOH CH3COOCH3 + H2O (i) Addition reaction

(b) CH2 = CH2 + H2 CH3 — CH3 (ii) Substitution reaction

(c) CH4 + Cl2 Sunlight CH3Cl + HCl (iii) Neutralisation reaction

(d) CH3COOH+NaOH CH3COONa+H2O (iv) Esterification reaction

Soln:
Column A Column B

(a) CH3OH + CH3COOH CH3COOCH3 + H2O (iv) Esterification reaction

(b) CH2 = CH2 + H2 CH3 — CH3 (i) Addition reaction

(c) CH4 + Cl2 Sunlight CH3Cl + HCl (ii) Substitution reaction

(d) CH3COOH+NaOH CH3COONa+H2O (iii) Neutralisation reaction

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19. Explain : Oxidation of Acohol
ANSWER :
Carbon compounds can be easily oxidised. Combustion is also an example of vigorous
oxidation.
Alkaline potassium permanganate or acidified potassium dichromate oxidise ethanol to
acetic acid.
Reaction equation:
(1) CH3CH2OH → (alkaline KMnO4 + heat or acidic K2Cr2O7 + heat) CH3COOH
Ethanol acetic acid or ethanoic acid

(2) CH3CH2CH2OH → (alkaline KMnO4 + heat or acidic K2Cr2O7 + heat) CH3CH2COOH

Propanol propanoic acid

20. Explain : Micelle Formation.

ANSWER :
Soaps are molecules in which two ends have differeing properties , one is
hydrophyllic, i.e., it interacts with water while the other end is hydrophobic i.e., it
interacts with hydrocarbons. When soap is at the surface of water, the hydrophobic 'tail'
of soap will not be soluble in water and the soap will allign along the surface of water
with the ionic end in water and the hydrocarbon 'tail' protruding out of water. Inside
water , this molecules have a unique orientation that keeps the hydrocarbon portion out
of the water. Thus, clusters of molecules in which the hydrophobic tails are in the interior
of the cluster and the ionic ends are on the surface of the cluster. This formation is called
a micelle. Soap in the form of a micelle is able to clean , since the oily dirt will be
collected in the centre of the micelle. The micelles stay in solution as a colloid and will
not come together to precipitate because of ion-ion repulsion. Thus the dirt suspended
in the micelles is also easily rinsed away. The soap micelles are large enough to scatter
light. Hence a soap solution appears cloudy.
(see fig4.13 , txt bk pg 75 )

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23. What are the two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon
compounds we see around us?
ANSWER:
• Carbon atom forms covalent bonds by sharing of electrons with other atoms to form
numerous compounds. The number of carbon compounds known to chemists was
recently estimated about three millions.
• Carbon has ability to form a large number of compounds. Two factors noticed in this case
are as follows:
CATENATION PROPERTY OF CARBON:
• Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving rise to
large molecules. This property is called catenation.
• These compounds may have long chains of carbon, branched chains of carbon or even
carbon atoms arranged in rings.
• Carbon atoms may be linked by single, double or triple bonds. Compounds of carbon,
which are linked by only single bonds between the carbon atoms are called saturated
compounds.
• Compounds of carbon having double or triple bonds between their carbon atoms are
called unsaturated compounds.
• No other element exhibits the property of catenation to the extent seen in carbon
compounds.
• Silicon forms compounds with hydrogen which have chains of upto seven or eight atoms,
but these compounds are very reactive.
• The carbon-carbon bond is very strong and hence stable. This gives us the large number
of compounds with many carbon atoms linked to each other.
• Since carbon has a valency of four, it is capable of bonding with four other atoms of
carbon or atoms of some other mono-valent element.
• Compounds of carbon are formed with oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, chlorine and
many other elements giving rise to compounds with specific properties which depends on
the elements other than carbon present in the molecule.
• Again the bonds that carbon forms with most other elements are very strong making
these compounds exceptionally stable.
• One reason for the formation of strong bonds by carbon is its small size. This enables the
nucleus to hold on to the shared pairs of electrons strongly.
• The bonds formed by elements having bigger atoms are much weaker.
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24. Draw the electron dot structures for
(a) ethanoic acid.
(b) propanone.
(c) H2S.
(d) F2.
ANSWER:

25. How would you distinguish experimentally between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid?
ANSWER:
An alcohol and a carboxylic acid can be distinguished experimentally by the following tests:
(1) Sodium hydrogencarbonate test: Take a small amount of each substance in two
different test tubes and add to it an aqueous solution of sodium hydrogencarbonate.
• Test tube in which brisk effervescence of CO2 gas appear contains carboxylic acid.
• Solution of ethanol does not produce brisk effervescence of CO2 gas.
(2) Alkaline potassium permanganate test: Take a small amount of each substance in two
different test tube, and add to it a few drops of alkaline potassium permanganate and
warm the test tubes.
• The purple colour of potassium permanganate disappear in the test tube containing
alcohol.
• Solution of carboxylic acid does not discharge the colour of potassium permanganate.

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 LESSON 6 - LIFE PROCESSES
•
1. How are water and minerals transported in plants?
ANSWER:
• In xylem tissue, vessels and tracheids of the roots, stems and leaves are interconnected to
form a continuous system of water conducting channels reaching all parts of the plant.
• At the roots, cells in contact with the soil actively take up ions. This creates a difference
in the concentration of these ions between the root and the soil.
• Water, therefore, moves into the roots from the soil to eliminate this difference. This
means that there is steady movement of water into root xylem, creating a column of
water that is steadily pushed upwards.
• However, this pressure by itself is unlikely to be enough to move water over the heights
that we commonly see in plants.
• Plants use another strategy to move water in the xylem upwards to the highest points of
the plant body.
• Provided that the plant has an adequate supply of water, the water which is lost through
the stomata is replaced by water from the xylem vessels in the leaf.
• In fact, evaporation of water molecules from the cell of a leaf creates a suction which
pulls water from the xylem cells of roots.
• The loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts of the plant is known as
transpiration.
• Thus, transpiration helps in the absorption and upward movement of water and minerals
dissolved in it from roots to the leaves. It also helps in temperature regulation.
• The effect of root pressure in transport of water is more important at night. During the
day when the stomata are open, the transpiration pull becomes the major driving force
in the movement of water in the xylem.

2. How is food transported in plants?

ANSWER:
• The products of metabolic processes, particularly photosynthesis, are move from leaves,
where they are formed, to other parts of the plant.
• This transport of soluble products of photosynthesis is called translocation and it occurs
in the part of the vascular tissue known as phloem.
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• Besides the products of photosynthesis, the phloem transports amino acids and other
substances.
• This substances are especially delivered to the storage organs of roots, fruits and seeds
and to growing organs.
• The translocation of food and other substances takes place in the sieve tubes with the
help of adjacent companion cells both in upward and downward directions.
• Unlike transport in xylem which can be largely explained by simple physical forces, the
translocation in phloem is achieved by utilising energy.
• Material like sucrose is transferred into phloem tissue using energy from ATP. This
increases the osmotic pressure of the tissue causing water to move into it.
• This pressure moves the material in the phloem to tissues which have less pressure. This
allows the phloem to move material according to the plant’s needs.
• For example, in the spring, sugar stored in root or stem tissue would be transported to
the buds which need energy to growth.

3. Describe the structure and functioning of nephron.

ANSWER:
• The excretory system of human beings includes a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a
urinary bladder and a urethra. Kidneys are located in the abdomen, one on either side of
the backbone.
• urine produced in the kidneys passes through the ureters into the urinary bladder where
it is stored until it is released through the urethre.
• The purpose of making urine is to filter out waste products from the blood. Just as CO2 is
removed from the blood in the lungs, nitrogenous waste such as urea and uric acid are
removed from blood in the kidneys.
• It is then no surprise that the basic filtration unit in the kidneys, like in the lungs, is a
cluster of very thin-walled blood capillaries.
• Each capillary cluster in the kidney is associated with the cup-shaped and of a coiled tube
called bowman’s capsule that collects the filtrate.
• Each kidney has large numbers of these filtration units called nephrons packed close
together.
• Some substances in the initial filtrate, such as glucose, amino acids, salts and a major
amount of water, are selectively re-absorbed as the urine flops along the tube.

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• The amount of water re-absorbed depends on how much excess water there is in the
body, and on how much of dissolved waste there is to be excreted.
• The urine forming in each kidney eventually enters a long tube, the ureter, which
connects the kidneys with the urinary bladder.

capillaries

• Urine is stored in the urinary bladder until the pressure of the expanded bladder leads to
the urge to pass it out through the urethra.
• The bladder is muscular, so it is under nervous control, as we have discussed elsewhere.
As a result, we can usually control the urge to urinate.

4. Human digestive system (nutrition in human being).

ANSWER:
• The food has to be processed to generate particles which are small and of the same
texture. When we eat something we like, our mouth ‘waters’. This is actually not only
water, but fluid called saliva secreted by the salivary glands.
• Another aspect of the food we ingest is its complex nature. If it is to be absorbed from
the alimentary canal, it has to be broken into smaller molecules. This is done with the
help of biological catalysts called enzymes.
• The saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase that breaks down starch which is a
complex molecule to give simple sugar. The food is makes thoroughly with saliva and
moved around the mouth while chewing by the muscular tongue.

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• The lining of canal has muscles that contract rhythmically in order to push the food
forward. This peristaltic movements occurs all along the gut.
• From the mouth, the food is taken to the stomach through the food pipe or oesophagus.
The stomach is large organ which expands when food enters it.
• The muscular walls of the stomach help in mixing the food thoroughly with more
digestive juices.
• The digestion in stomach is taken care of by the gastric glands present in the wall of the
stomach. These release hydrochloric acid, a protein digesting enzyme called pepsin, and
mucus.
• The hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium which facilitates the action of the
enzyme pepsin. The mucus protects the inner lining of the stomach from the action of
the acid under normal conditions.
• The exit of food from the stomach is regulated by a sphincter muscle which releases it in
small amounts in to the intestine. From the stomach, the food now enters the small
intestine.
• The small intestine is the site of the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and
fats. It receives the secretions of the livers and pancreas for this purpose.
• The food coming from the stomach is acidic and has to be mad alkaline for the pancreatic
enzymes to act.

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• Bile juice from the liver accomplishes this in addition to acting on fats. Fats are present in
the intestine in from of large globules which makes it difficult for enzymes to act on
them. Bile salts break them down into smaller globules increasing the efficiency of
enzyme action.
• The pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which contains enzymes like trypsin for digesting
proteins and lipase for breaking down emulsified fats.
• The walls of the small intestine contain glands which secrete intestinal juice. The
enzymes present in it finally convert the proteins to amino acids, complex carbohydrates
into glucose and fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
• Digested food is taken up by the walls of the intestine. The inner lining of the small
intestine has numerous finger - like projections called villi which increase the surface
area for absorption.
• The villi are richly a supplied with blood vessels which take the absorbed food to each
and every cell of the body, where it is utilised for obtaining energy, building up new
tissues and the repair of old tissues.
• The unabsorbed food is sent into large intestine where its wall absorbed more water
from this material. The rest of the material is removed from the body via the anus.

5. How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this process take place?
ANSWER :
• The small intestine is the place for complete digestion of carbohydrates, fats and
proteins. It receives the secretions of the liver and pancreas for this purpose.
• The food coming from the stomach is usually acidic in nature and it has to be made
alkaline so that pancreatic enzymes can act on it. Bile juice produced in the liver
accomplish this process.
• Fats are usually present in the intestine in the form of larger globules, which makes it
difficult for enzymes to act on them. The bile salts helps in breaking down larger
globules into smaller globules. The pancreas helps in secreting pancreatic juice, which
contains enzymes like trypsin for digesting proteins and lipase for breaking down
emulsified fats.
• The walls of the small intestine contains glands, which secretes intestinal juice. The
enzymes present in it finally converts the proteins to amino acids, complex
carbohydrates into glucose and finally fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

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6. Write a note on human respiratory system.
ANSWER :
In human being air is taken to the body through the nostrils . The air passing through
the nostrils is filtered by fine hairs that line the passage. Passage is also lined with mucus
which helps in this process. From here, the air passes through the throat and into the
lungs. Rings of cartilage are present in the throat. These ensure that the air passage does
not collapse.

Within the lungs , the passage divides into smaller and smaller tubes which finally
terminate in balloon-like structures which are called alveoli.(singular - alveolus). The
alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take place. The walls of the
alveoli contain an extensive network of blood vessels. When we breathe in , we lift our
ribs and flatter our diaphragm , and the chest cavity becomes larger as a result. Because
of this, air is sucked into the lungs and feels the expanded alveoli. The blood brings
carbon dioxide from the rest of the body for release into the alveoli , and the oxygen in
the alveolar air is taken up by blood in the alveolar blood vessels to be transported to all
the cells in the body. During the breathing cycle, when air is taken in and let out , the
lungs always contain a residual volume of air so that there is sufficient time for oxygen to
be absorbed and for the carbon dioxide to be released.
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7. Write a note on "Our pump - The Heart". OR Describe double circulation of blood in
human heart.
ANSWER :

The heart is a muscular organ which is as big as our fist. Because both oxygen and
carbon dioxide have to be transported by the blood, the heart has different chambers to
prevent the oxygen rich blood from mixing with the blood containing carbon dioxide. The
carbon dioxide rich blood has to reach the lungs for the carbon dioxide to be removed,
and the oxygenated blood from the lungs has to be brought back to the heart. This
oxygen rich blood is then pumped to the rest of the body.
Oxygen rich blood from the lungs comes to the thin - walled upper chamber of the
heart on the left, the left atrium. The left atrium relaxes when it is collecting this blood. It
then contracts , while the next chamber , the left ventricle , relaxes , so that the blood is
transferred to it. When the muscular left ventricle contracts in its turn , the blood is
pumped out to the body. De-oxygenated blood comes from the body to the upper
chamber on the right , the right atrium , as ir relaxes. As the right atrium contracts, the
corresponding lower chamber , the right ventricle , dilates. This transfers blood to the
right ventricle , which in turn pumps it to the lungs for oxygenation. Since ventricles have
to pump blood into various organs, they have thicker muscular walls than the atria do.
Valves ensure that blood does not flow backwards when the atria or ventricles contract.

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8. Explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba.
ANSWER :
Amoeba shows holozoic nutrition which is comprised of Ingestion, Digestion, Absorption,
Assimilation and Egestion.
Ingestion:
Amoeba traps food particles through fingerlike projections called as pseudopodia.
Pseudopodia present outside its body and helps in taking food along with water
Digestion:
Food vacuoles are made after ingesting the food. Enzymes are released in the food vacuole
for digestion.
Absorption:
After digestion, nutrients enter the cytoplasm through osmosis.
Assimilation:
Nutrients are utilized by the cell for various purposes.
Egestion:
Food vacuole goes near the cell membrane to empty its contents outside the cell. This results
in expulsion of waste materials from the cell.

9. Describe the flow of blood through the heart of human beings

ANSWER :

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• Deoxygenated blood from different organs comes to the right atrium through the vena
cava.
• From the right atrium, blood goes to the right ventricle. The tricuspid valve between the
right atrium and right ventricle prevents the backflow of blood.
• From the right ventricle, blood goes to the lungs through pulmonary artery. Inside the lungs,
carbon dioxide is removed from the blood and oxygen enters the blood.
• From the lungs, blood goes to the left atrium through pulmonary vein.
• From the left atrium, blood goes to the left ventricle.
• From the left ventricle, blood is pumped into the aorta so that it can be supplied to
different.

10. What are the differences between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition?
ANSWER :
Autotrophic Nutrition Heterotrophic Nutrition

Organism prepare its own food and is not Organism does not prepare its own food and
dependent on any other organism. dependent on other organism for food.

Food is prepared from co2, water, Food cannot be prepared from co2, water,
sunlight. sunlight.

Chlorophyll is required for food Chlorophyll is not required for food

preparation preparation

Green plants and certain bacteria have All the animals and fungi, most bacteria have
autotrophic mode of nutrition. heterotrophic mode of nutrition

11. How are water and minerals transported in plants? .How is food transported in plants?
ANSWER :
Xylems parts tracheids and vessels of roots, stems and leaves are interconnected to
form a continuous system of water-conducting channels that reaches all parts of the
plant. Transpiration creates a suction pressure which forces water into xylem cells of
roots. After this, there will be a steady movement of water from the root xylem to all
parts of the plant connected through conducting interconnected water-conducting
channels.
Food is transported in plants by a special organ called as phloem. Phloem transports
food materials from leaf to different parts of a plant. Transportation of food in phloem is
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 achieved by the expenditure of ATP9 energy). This increases osmotic pressure in the
tissue causing water to move. This pressure moves material in the Phloem to the tissues
with less pressure. This is helping in transportation of food material as per the needs. Ex:
Sucrose.

12. What are the differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration? Name some
organisms that use the anaerobic mode of respiration?
ANSWER :
Aerobic respiration
• The process takes place in the presence of free oxygen
• The products of aerobic respiration are CO2,water and energy.
• The first step of aerobic respiration (glycolysis) takes place in cytoplasm while the next
step takes place in mitochondria.
• The process of aerobic respiration takes place in all higher organisms.
• In this process complete oxidation of glucose takes place.
Anaerobic respiration
• The process takes place in the absence of the free oxygen.
• The products of anaerobic respiration are ethyl alcohol, CO2 and a little energy.
• Even in anaerobic respiration, the first step takes place in cytoplasm while the next step
takes place in mitochondria.
• In this process the glucose molecules is incompletely broken down.
• The process of anaerobic respiration takes place in lower organism like yeast, some
species of bacteria and parasites like tapeworm.

13. How are the alveoli designed to maximize the exchange of gases?
ANSWER :
• The lung is an important part of the body. The passage inside the lungs divides into
smaller and smaller tubes, which finally terminate in balloon-like structures, called as
alveoli.
• The alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take place. The walls of
the alveoli usually contains an extensive network of blood vessels. We know that, when
we breathe in, we lift our ribs, flatten our diaphragm and chest cavity becomes larger.
• Because of this action, air is sucked into the lungs and fills the expanded alveoli.
• The blood brings the essential carbon dioxide from rest of the body and supply it to
alveoli; the oxygen in the alveolar air is taken up by the blood in the alveolar blood
vessels to be transported to the all other cells of the body. During normal breathing
cycle, when air is taken in and let out, the lungs always contain a residual volume of air
so that there is sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and carbon dioxide to be
released.
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14. Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs and nephrons in the kidneys with
respect to their structure and functioning.
ANSWER :
Alveoli Nephrons

Structure Structure

(i) Alveoli are tiny balloon-like structures (i) Nephrons are tubular structures present
present inside the lungs. inside the kidneys.

(ii) The walls of the alveoli are one cell (ii) Nephrons are made of glomerulus,
thick and it contains an extensive Bowman’s capsule, and a long renal tube.
network of blood capillaries.

Function Function

(i) The exchange of O2 and CO2 takes (i) The blood enters the kidneys through the
place between the blood of the renal artery. The blood is entered here and
capillaries that surround the alveoli the nitrogenous waste in the form of urine
and the gases present in the alveoli. is collected by collecting duct.

(ii) Alveoli are the site of gaseous (ii) Nephrons are the basic filtration unit.
exchange.

15. Short note : Heterotrophic nutrition.

ANSWER : Each organism is adapted to its environment. The form of nutrition differs depending on the type
and availability of food material as well as how it is obtained by the organism. For example , whether
the food source is stationary ( such as grass) or mobile ( such as deer) , would allow for differences in
how the food is accessed and what is the nutritive apparatus used by a cow and a lion.
There is a range of strategies by which the food is taken in and used by the organism. Some
organisms break down the food material outside the body and then absorb it. Examples are fungi like
bread moulds, yeast and mushrooms.
Others take in whole material and break it down inside their bodies. What can be taken in and
broken down depends on the body design and functioning.
Some other organisms derive nutrition from plants or animals without killing them. These parasitic
nutritive strategy is used by a wide variety of organisms like cuscuta (amar-bel), ticks , lice ,leeches and
tap worms etc.

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 LESSON 11: THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD

1. Draw a neat labelled diagram of Human eye, explain functions and main parts of the
human eye.
ANSWER :
The human eye is one of the most valuable and sensitive sense organs. It enables us
to see the wonderful world and the colours around us. On closing the eyes, we can
identify objects to some extent by their smell, taste, sound they make or by touch. It is,
however, impossible to identify colours while closing the eyes. Thus, of all the sense
organs, the human eye is the most significant one as it enables us to see the beautiful,
colourful world around us. The human eye is like a camera. Its lens system forms an
image on a light-sensitive screen called the retina. Light enters the eye through a thin
membrane called the cornea. It forms the transparent bulge on the front surface of the
eyeball as shown in Fig.The eyeball is approximately spherical in shape with a diameter
of about 2.3 cm. Most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the
outer surface of the cornea. The crystalline lens merely provides the finer adjustment of
focal length required to focus objects at different distances on the retina. We find a
structure called iris behind the cornea. Iris is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the
size of the pupil. The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye.
The eye lens forms an inverted real image of the object on the retina. The retina is a
delicate membrane having enormous number of light-sensitive cells. The light-sensitive
cells get activated upon illumination and generate electrical signals. These signals are
sent to the brain via the optic nerves. The brain interprets these signals, and finally,
processes the information so that we perceive objects as they are.

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2. When do we consider a person to be myopic or hypermetropic? Explain using diagrams
how the defects associated with myopic and hypermetropic eye can be corrected?
ANSWER :
When a person cannot see the distant objects clearly he is said to be myopic. Myopia is a
condition where image is formed in front of retina.
When a person cannot see the nearer objects clearly he is said to be hypermetropic.
Hypermetropia is a condition where image is formed behind the retina.
Correction of Myopia
Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power. A concave lens of suitable
power will bring the image back on to the retina and thus the defect is corrected.

Hypermetropia can be corrected by using a convex lens of suitable power. Eye-

glasses with converging lenses provide the additional focussing power required for
forming the image on the retina.

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3.Explain the refraction of light through a triangular glass prism using a labelled ray
diagram. Hence define the angle of deviation.
ANSWER :

Procedure :
• Fix a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using drawing pins.
• Place a glass prism on it in such a way that it rests on its triangular base.Trace the
outline of the prism using a pencil.
• Draw a straight line PE inclined to one of the refracting surfaces, say AB , of the prism.
• Fix two pins, say at points P and Q , on the line PE as shown in figure.
• Look for the images of the pins , fixed at P and Q ,through the other face AC.
• Fix two more pins, at points R and S, such that the pins at R and S and the images of the
pins at P and Q lie on the same straight line.
• Remove the pins and the glass prism.
• The line PE meets the boundary of the prism at point E(see fig ).Similarly, join and
produce the points R and S. Let this lines meet the boundary of the prism at E and F,
respectively.Join E and F.
• Draw perpendiculars to the refracting surfaces AB and AC of the prism at points E and F
, respectively.
• Make the angle of incidence ( ∠ 𝑖 ) , the angle of refraction ( ∠ 𝑟 ) and the angle of
emergence (∠𝑒) as shown in figure.
• Compare the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction at each refracting surface of
the prism.
• Bending of rays PE, EF and FS are similar to the kind of bending that occurs in a glass
slab.

Observation :
• Here PE is the incident ray , EF is the refracted ray, FS is the emergent ray. A ray of light
is entering from air to glass at the first surface AB.
• The light ray on refraction has bent towards the normal.
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 • At the second surface AC, light ray has entered from glass to air. Hence it has bent away
from the normal.Compare the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction at each
refracting surface of the prism.
Conclusion :
• The peculiar shape of the prism makes the emergent ray bend at an angle to the
direction of the incident ray.This angle is called the angle of deviation. In this case ∠𝐷 is
the angle of deviation.

4. Explain the phenomenon of dispersion of white light through a glass prism, using suitable
ray diagram.
ANSWER :

Procedure :
• Take a thick sheet of cardboard and make a small hole or narrow slit in its middle.
• Allow sunlight to fall on the narrow slit. This gives a narrow beam of white light.
• Now, take a glass prism and allow the light from the slit to fall on one of its faces as
shown in the fig.
• Turn the prism slowly until the light that comes out of it appears on a nearby screen.
• What do you observe?
• Why does this happen ?
• what is the sequence of colors that you observe on the screen?
Observation :
• We find a beautiful band of seven colors (VIBGYOR) on the screen. The deviation
suffered by the violet light is maximum and that by the red light is minimum. Hence,
the violet color is at the lower end and the red color is at the upper end of the screen.
• This happens because prism itself splits the incident white light into a band of colors.
• The sequence of colors seen from the lower end of the screen is violet(V), indigo (I),
blue(B), green(G),yellow(Y).orange(O) and red(R).
Conclusion :
• white light is made up of seven colors and different colors suffer different deviations.
5. Short note : Twinkling of stars.
ANSWER :
The twinkling of star is due to atmospheric refraction of star light. The star light,
on entering the Earth's atmosphere, undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches
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 the earth. The atmospheric refraction occurs in a medium of gradually changing
refractive index. Since the atmosphere bends the star light towards the normal, the
apparent position of the star is slightly different from its actual position. The star appears
slightly higher (above) than its actual position when viewed near the horizon. ( see fig
11.9 pg 194) further, this apparent position of the star is not stationary but keeps on
changing slightly, since the physical conditions of the earth's atmosphere are not
stationary, as was the case in the previous paragraph. Since the stars are very distant,
they approximate point sized sources of light. As the path of rays of light coming from
the star goes on varying slightly , the apparent position of the star fluctuates and the
amount of starlight entering the eye flickers-the star sometimes appears brighter, and
acts some other time, fainter, which is the twinkling effect.

6. State causes of hypermetopia. How can this defect be corrected? Draw suitable diagram
to show it.
ANSWER :
• It is important to remember that Hyperopia is an eye defect and not an eye disease.
Therefore, it can be corrected. Since the image is formed behind the retina, correcting
this problem can counter the effects produced due to hyperopia.

• The image above shows how the effects of hyperopia can be countered theoretically. It
can be done in the following ways.
• By using corrective eyeglasses: Depending on by how much the focal length has been
altered due to the effects of hyperopia, powered convex lenses can correct this
problem. It is also the safest option with a minor inconveniences
• By using contact lenses: Using this has the same effect as that of using eyeglasses but
presents a more convenient and comfortable option. Using contact lenses isn’t safe for
everyone, however.

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 • Refractive surgery: Since the refractive power of the eye is affected by hyperopia,
altering this through surgery is another way to counter the defects. An example of
refractive surgery is Lasik surgery which is quite common.
• People with farsightedness have powers with a positive sign. For example +1.50 or
+2.50 as their corrective powers. This signifies that the lens used is convex in nature.
These people mostly use their eyeglasses or contacts only when they are reading or
using the laptop and another close-up work.

7. Short note on : Presbyopia

ANSWER :
The power of accommodation of the eye usually decreases with ageing. For most
people, the near point gradually recedes away. They find it difficult to see nearby objects
comfortably and distinctly without corrective eye-glasses. This defect is called
Presbyopia. It arises due to the gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles and diminishing
flexibility of the eye lens. Sometimes, a person may suffer from both myopia and
hypermetropia. Such people often require bifocal lenses. A common type of bi-focal
lenses consists of both concave and convex lenses. The upper portion consists of a
concave lens. It facilitates distant vision. The lower part is a convex lens. It facilitates near
vision. These days, it is possible to correct the refractive defects with contact lenses or
through surgical interventions.

8. Explain :- Tyndall effect :-

ANSWER :
The earth’s atmosphere is a heterogeneous mixture of minute particles. These
particles include smoke, tiny water droplets, suspended particles of dust and molecules
of air.
When a beam of light strikes such fine particles, the path of the beam becomes visible. The
light reaches us, after being reflected diffusely by these particles. The phenomenon of
scattering of light by the colloidal particles gives rise to Tyndall effect
This phenomenon is seen when a fine beam of sunlight enters a smoke-filled room through a
small hole. Thus, scattering of light makes the particles visible.
Tyndall effect can also be observed when sunlight passes through a canopy of a dense forest.
Here, tiny water droplets in the mist scatter light.
The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles. Very fine
particles scatter mainly blue light while particles of larger size scatter light of longer
wavelengths. If the size of the scattering particles is large enough, then, the scattered
light may even appear white.
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9. Why is the color of the clear sky blue ?
ANSWER :
The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have size smaller
than the wavelength of visible light. These are more effective in scattering light of
shorter wavelengths at the blue end than light of longer wavelengths at the red end. The
red light has a wavelength about 1.8 times greater than blue light. Thus, when sunlight
passes through the atmosphere, the fine particles in air scatter the blue color ( shorter
wavelengths) more strongly than red.The scattered blue light enters our eyes,we find sky
blue. If the earth had no atmosphere , there would not have been any scattering. Then ,
the sky would have looked dark. the sky appears dark to passengers flying at very high
altitudes, as scattering is not prominent at such heights.

10. Why does the Sun appear reddish at sunrise and sunset?
ANSWER :

In figure, the situation at the sunrise is shown. Here, the white light coming from the
sun near the horizon , passes through thick layers of air and covers larger distance in the
earth's atmosphere before reaching the observer. During this , more scattering of blue
light and shorter wavelengths take place. Hence, the reddish light reaches the observer
and the sun appears reddish. The same thing occurs at the sunset.

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12. A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 1.2m distinctly. What should be
the type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision?
ANSWER:
A person with a myopic eye should use a concave lens of suitable focal length or
power to restore proper vision.
Here, the person with defect of myopia has the far point nearer than infinity at a
distance 1.2m from the eye.
So, v = -1.2 m; u= −∞; f=?
So, from the lens formula
1 1 1
= −
𝑓 −𝑢 𝑣
1 1 1
= +
𝑓 −(−∞) −1.2

f = -1.2 m
1
P= = −0.83𝐷
−1.2
A concave lens of focal length 1.2m should be used to restore proper vision.

13. A person needs a lens of power 5.5 dioptres for correcting his distant vision. For
correcting his near vision he needs a lens of power +1.5 dioptre. What is the focal
length of the lens required for correcting (i) distant vision, and (ii) near vision?
SOLUTION:
(1) For distant vision, f = ?,
P = - 5.5, D = - 5.5m-1
1
Now, f =
𝑃
1
Therefore, f =
−5.5𝑚−1
= - 0.182m
= - 18.2cm (concave lens)
(2) For near vision, f = ?,
P = + 1.5, D = + 1.5m-1
1
Now, f =
𝑃
1
Therefore, f =
+1.5𝑚−1
= 0.667m
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 = 66.7cm (convex lens)

14. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. What is the nature and
power of the lens required to correct the problem?
SOLUTION:
• The defect of an eye called myopia (short-sightedness or near-sightedness) is corrected
by using spectacles containing concave lens of appropriate focal length.
• Here the far point of myopia person is 80cm. (while far point of normal person is infinity
∞)
• This means that this person can see the distant object (kept at infinity) clearly if the
image of this distant object is formed at his own far point (which is 80cm here).
So, in this case:
Object distance u = – ∞ (Normal far point)
Image distance v = – 80 cm (Far point of this defective eye in front of lens)
Focal length f = ?
Now,
1 1 1
By the lens formula, = -
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢
1 1 1
therefore, = -
𝑓 −80 −∞
1 1
= -
𝑓 80
f = - 80 cm
= - 0.8 m (Concave lens)
Now,
power of the lens,
1
p=
𝑓
1
therefore, p =
−0.8𝑚

10
=- m-1
8

= -1.25 D
A concave lens of power -1.25 D is required to correct the problem.

15. Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is corrected. The near point of a
hypermetropic eye is 1 m. What is the power of the lens required to correct this
defect? Assume that the near point of the normal eye is 25 cm.
SOLUTION:

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• The defect of an eye called hypermetropia (long-sightedness or far-sightedness) is
corrected by using spectacles containing convex lenses of appropriate focal length.

Hypermetropic eye

(a) Image
Correction using a Convex lens

Convex lens
(b)
[N = Near point of a hypermetropic eye and N’ = Near point of a normal eye]
[ (a) Hypermetropic eye (b) corrected eye ]

• Here the near point of the hypermetropic eye is 1m = 100cm

(while near point of normal eye is 25cm)
• This means that this person can see the nearby object (kept at 25cm) clearly if the image
of this nearby objet is formed at his own near point (which is 1m = 100cm here).
So, in this case:

Object distance u = – 25cm (Normal near point)

Image distance v = – 1 m = -100cm (Near point of this defective eye in front of lens)
Focal length f = ?
Now,
1 1 1
By the lens formula, = -
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢
1 1 1
therefore, = -
𝑓 −100 −25
1 1 1
= - +
𝑓 100 25

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 1 −1+4
=
𝑓 100
1 3
=
𝑓 100
100
f =
3
1
= m
3
= 0.3333m
= 33.33cm (Convex lens)
Now,
Power of the lens,
1
P=
𝑓
1
= 1
𝑚
3
= 3D

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 LESSON 13 - MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

1. How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can you determine the north and south
poles of a current – carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? Explain.
ANSWER:
• A current – carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet and the polarities of its ends
depend upon the direction of the current through it.
• Yes, we can use a bar magnet to determine the north and south poles of a current-
carrying solenoid.
• In order to determine the magnetic poles of a current-carrying solenoid, place it in a
brass hook and suspend it with along thread so that it can moves freely in a horizontal
plane.
Bring the north pole of a bar magnet near one of its ends. If that end of the solenoid moves
towards the bar magnet, then it must be its south pole and the other end its north pole,
on the contrary, if that end of the solenoid moves away from the magnet, then it must
be its north pole and the other end its south pole.

2. Explain magnetic field and field lines.

ANSWER:
• Fix a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using some adhesive material.
• Place a bar magnet in the centre of it.
• Sprinkle some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet. A salt-sprinkler may be used
for this purpose.
• Now tap the board gently.

• The iron filings arrange themselves in a pattern as shown in figure. The magnet exerts its
influence in the region surrounding it. Therefore the iron filings experience a force.
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• The force thus exerted makes iron filings to arrange in a pattern. The region surrounding
the magnet, in which the force of the magnet can be detected, is said to have a magnetic
field.
• The lines along which the iron filings align themselves represent magnetic field lines.
• Magnetic field is a quantity that has both direction and magnitude. The direction of the
magnetic field is taken to be the direction in which a north pole of the compass needle
moves inside it.
• Therefore it is taken by convention that the field lines emerge from North Pole and
merge at the South Pole.
• Inside the magnet, the direction of field lines is from its south pole to its north pole.
Thus the magnetic field lines are closed curves.
• The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the
field lines.
• The field is stronger, that is, the force acting on the pole of another magnet placed is
greater where the field lines are crowded.
• No two field-lines are found to cross each other. If they did, it would mean that at the
point of intersection, the compass needle would point towards two directions, which is
not possible.

3. Explain magnetic field due to current through a straight conductor.

ANSWER:
• Take a battery, a variable resistance, an ammeter, a plug in, connecting wires and along
straight thick copper wire.
• Insert the thick wire through the centre, normal to the plane of a rectangular cardboard.
Take care that the cardboard is fixed and does not slide up or down.
• Connect the copper wire vertically between the points X and Y, as shown in figure, in
series with the battery, a plug and key.

130
• Sprinkle some iron filings uniformly on the cardboard.
• Keep the variable of the rheostat at a fixed position and note the current through the
ammeter.
• Close the key so that a current flows through the wire. Ensure that the copper wire
placed between the points X and Y remains vertically straight.
• Gently tap the cardboard a few times. Observe the pattern of the iron filings. You would
find that the iron filing align themselves showing a pattern of concentric circles around
the copper wire.
• These concentric circles represent the magnetic field lines.
• Place a compass at a point over the circle. Observe the direction of the needle. The
direction of the north pole of the compass needle would give the direction of the field
lines produced by the electric current through the straight wire at point P.
• If the current is increased, the deflection also increases. It indicates that the magnitude
of the magnetic field produce at a given point increases as the current through the wire
increases.
• Now place the compass at a further point from the conducting wire. We see that the
deflection in the needle increases. Thus the magnetic field produced by a given current
and the conductor decreases as the distant from it increases.
• From figure, it can be notice that the concentric circles representing the magnetic field
around a current-carrying straight wire become larger and larger as we move away from
it.

4. Explain magnetic field due to a current through a circular loop.

ANSWER:
• The pattern of the magnetic field lines produced around a current carrying straight wire.
Suppose this straight wire is bent in the form of a circular loop and a current is fast
through it.
• We know that the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying straight wire depends
inversely on the distant of it.
• Similarly at every point of a current-carrying circular loop, the concentric circles
representing the magnetic field around it would become larger and larger as we move
away from the wire.
• By the time we reach at the centre of the circular loop, the arcs of these big circles would
appear as straight lines.
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• Every point on the wire carrying-current would give rise to the magnetic field appearing
as straight line at the centre of the loop.
• By applying the right hand rule, it is easy to check that every section of the wire
contributes to the magnetic field lines in the same direction within the loop.

• We know that the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying wire at a given point
depends directly on the current passing through it.
• Therefore, if there is a circular coil having n turns, the field produced is n times as large
as that produced by a single turn.
• This is because the current in each circular turn has the same direction, and the field due
to each term that just adds up.
• Take a rectangular cardboard having two holes. Insert a circular coil having large number
of terns through them, normal to the plane of the cardboard.
• Connect the ends of the coil in series with a battery, a key and a rheostat, as shown in
figure.

• Sprinkle iron filings uniformly on the cardboard.

• Plug the key.
• Tap the cardboard gently a few times. Note the pattern of the iron filings that emerges
on the cardboard.

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5. Explain magnetic field due to a current in a solenoid.
ANSWER:
• A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wrapped closely in the shape of a
cylinder is called a solenoid.
• The pattern of the magnetic field lines around a current-carrying solenoid is shown in
figure.

• Compare the pattern of the field with the magnetic field around a bar magnet. They look
similar.
• In fact, one end of the solenoid behaves as a magnetic north pole, while the other
behaves as the south pole.

• The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines. This indicates
that the magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid. That is, the field is
uniform inside the solenoid.
• A strong magnetic field produced inside a solenoid can be used too magnetise a piece of
magnetic material, like soft irons, when placed inside the coil. The magnet so formed is
called an electromagnet.

133
6. Explain force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field.
ANSWER:
• Take a small aluminium rod AB. Using two connecting wires suspend it horizontally from
a stand, as shown in figure.
• Place a strong horse-shoe magnet in such a way that the rod lies between the two poles
with the magnetic field directed upwards. For this put the north pole of the magnet
vertically below and south pole vertically above the aluminium rod.
• Connect the aluminium rod in series with a battery, a key and a rheostat.
• Now pass a current through the aluminium rod from end B to end A.
• It is observed that the rod is displaced towards the left. You will notice that the rod gets
displaced.
• Reverse the direction of current flowing through the rod and observed the direction of
its displacement. It is now towards the right.

• The displacement of the rod in the above activity suggests that a force is exerted on the
current-carrying aluminum rod when it is placed in a magnetic field.
• It also suggests that the direction of force is also reversed when the direction of current
through the conductor is reversed.
• Now change the direction of field to vertically downwards by interchanging the two
poles of the magnet.
• It is once again observed that the direction of force acting on the current on the rod gets
reversed.
• It shows that the direction of the force on the conductor depends upon the direction of
current and the direction of the magnetic field.
• Experiments have shown that the displacement of the rod is largest when the direction
of current is at right angles to the direction of the magnetic field.

134
• In such a condition we can use a simple rule to find the direction of the force on the
conductor.

7. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the table. Let the current pass
through the loop clockwise. Apply the right-hand nile to find out the direction of the
magnetic field inside and outside the loop.
ANSWER :
Using the right-hand thumb rule, the direction of the magnetic field inside and outside
the circular loop of wire carrying an electric current can be found. This is shown in the
following figure :

• The dotted magnetic field lines are perpendicular to the plane of the paper.
• The front face of the loop behaves as the south pole and the back face, i.e., the face
touching the plane of the table behaves as the north pole.

8. In activity 13.7 how do we think the displacement of rod AB will be affected if

1. current in rod AB is increased

2. a stronger horse-shoe magnet is used and
3. length of the rod AB is increased.
ANSWER :
Experiments have shown that, when a current-carrying conductor is placed in a
magnetic field such that its length is perpendicular to the magnetic field, the force acting
on the conductor and hence its displacement ( as the conductor is initially at rest ) is
proportional to ……
(a) the current in the conductor
(b) the strength of the magnetic field
(c) the length of the conductor

135
(i) When the current in the rod AB is increased, then more force will act on the rod and
hence the displacement of the rod will also be more ( in the same proportion ).
(ii) If a stronger horse-shoe magnet is used, then the strength of magnetic field will increase
leading to a greater force on the rod. Due to the greater force, the displacement of the
rod will also be more ( in the same proportion ).
(iii) If the length of the rod AB is increased, then more force will act on the rod and hence the
displacement of the rod will also be more ( in the same proportion ).

9. Explain different ways to induce a current in a coil.

ANSWER:
(1) A current can be induced in a coil by moving a magnet towards or away from it or by
moving the coil towards or away from the magnet.
(2) A current can be induced in a coil by changing the current in the coil placed near it.
(3) A current can be induced in a coil by moving a coil property ina non-uniform magnetic field
or by changing a magnetic field around steady coil by some means.
(4) A current can be induced in a coil by rotating it properly in a magnetic field or by rotating a
magnet properly placed near the coil.

10. Short note on Domestic electric Circuit.

ANSWER :

In our homes, we receive supply of electric power through a main supply(also

called mains), either supported through overhead electric poles or by underground
cables. One of the wires in this supply, usually with red insulation cover, is called live
wire(or positive).Another wire, with black insulation is called neutral wire (or negative).In
our country, the potential difference between the two is 220V.
At the metre board in the house, these wires pass into an electricity meter
through a main fuse. Through the main switch they are connected two the line wires in
136
 the house. These wires supply electricity to separate circuits within the house. Often,
two separate circuits are used, one of 15A current rating for appliances with higher
power ratings such as gyesers, air coolers etc. The other circuit is of 5 ampere current
rating for bulbs, fans ,etc. The earthwire, which has insulation of green color, is usually
connected to a metal plate deep in the earth near the house. This is used as a safety
measure, especially for those appliances that have a metallic body, for eg, electric press,
toaster, table fan, refrigerator,etc.The metalic body is connected to the earthwire which
provides a low resistance conducting path for the current. Thus, it ensures that any
leakage of current to the metallic body of the appliance keeps it potential to that of the
earth, and the user may not get a severe electric shock. Figure gives a schematic diagram
of one of the common domestic circuits. In each separate circuit, different appliances can
be connected across the live and neutral wires. Each appliance has a separate switch to
'ON/OFF' the flow of current through it. In order that each appliance has equal potential
difference, they're connected parallel to each other.

16. State importance of Fuse.

ANSWER :
Electric fuse is an important component of all domestic circuits. A fuse in a circuit
prevents damage tio the appliances and the circuit due to overloading. Overloading can
occur when the live wire and the neutral wire come into direct contact.(these occurs
when the insulation of wires is damaged or there is a fault in the appliance). In such a
situation the current in the circuit abruptly increases. This is called short circuiting .the
use of an electric fuse prevents the electric circuit and the appliance from a possible
damage by stopping the flow of unduly high electric current. The Joule heating that takes
place in the fuse melts it to break the electric circuit. Overloading can also occur due to
an accidental hike in the supply voltage. Sometimes overloading is caused by connecting
too many appliances to a single socket.

137
17. Note on electric motor.
ANSWER :

An electric motor is a rotating device that converts electrical energy to mechanical

energy. Electric motor is used as an important component in electric fans, refrigerators ,
mixtures , washing machines , computers , Mp3 players etc.
An electric motor, as shown in figure , consists of a rectangular coil ABCD of
insulated copper wire. The coil is placed between the two poles of a magnetic field such
that the arm AB and CD are perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. The
ends of the coil are connected to the to halves P and Q of a split ring. The inner sides of
these halves are insulated and attached to an axle. The external conducting edges of P
and Q touch two conducting stationary brushes X and Y, respectively, as shown in figure.
Current in the coil ABCD enters from the source battery through conducting
brush X and flows back to the battery through brush Y. Notice that the current in arm AB
of the coil flows from A to B. In arm CD it flows from C to D, i.e., opposite to the direction
of current through arm AB. On applying Fleming's left hand rule for the direction of force
on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field. The force acting on arm AB pushes it
downwards while the force acting on arm CD pushes it upwards. Thus the coil and the
axle O , mounted free to turn about an axis , rotate anticlockwise. At half rotation, Q
makes contact with the brush X and P with the brush Y. Therefore, the current in the coil
gets reversed and flows along the path DCBA .A device that reverses the direction of flow
of current through a circuit is called a commutator. In electric motors, the split ring acts a
a commutator. the reversal of the current also reverses the direction of force acting on
the two arms AB and CD. Thus the arm AB of the coil that was earlier pushed down is
now pushed up and the arm CD previously pushed up is now is now pushed down.
138
 Therefore, the coil and the axle rotate half a turn more in the same direction. The
reversing of the current is repeated at each half rotation, giving rise to a continuous
rotation of the coil and to the axle.

18. Write a note on Electric Generator.

ANSWER :

An electric generator, as shown in fig , consists of a rotating rectangular coil ABCD

placed between the two poles of a permanent magnet. The two ends of these coil are
connected to the two rings R1 and R2. The inner side of these rings are made insulated.
The two conducting stationary brushes B1 and B2 are kept pressed separately R1 and R2,
respectively. The two rings R1 and R2 are internally attached to an axle. The axle may be
mechanically rotated from outside to rotate the coil inside the magnetic field. Outerends
of the two brushes are connected to the galvanometer to show the flow of current in the
given external circuit.
When the axle attached to the two rings is rotated such that the arm AB moves
up (and the arm CD moves down) in the magnetic field produced by the permanent
magnet. Lets us say the coil ABCD is rotated clockwise in the arrangement shown in
figure by applying Fleming's right hand rule, the induced currents are set up in this arms
along the directions AB and CD. Thus an induced current flows in the direction ABCD. If
there are larger numbers of turns in the coil, the current generated in each term adds
upto give a large current through the coil. This means that the current in the external
circuit flows from B2 to B1.
After half a rotation, arm CD starts moving up and AB moving down. As a result,
the directions of the induced currents in both the arms change giving rise to the net
139
 induced current in the direction DCBA. The current in the external circuit now flows from
B1 to B2. Thus after every half rotation the polarity ogf the current in the respective arms
changes. Such a current , which changes direction after equal intervals of time, is called
an alternating current (AC). This device is called as AC generator.
To get a direct current (DC, which does not change its direction with time), a split
ring type commutator must be used. With this arrangement, one brush is at all times in
contact with the arm moving up in the field while the other is in contact with the arm
moving down. We have seen the working of a split ring commutator in the case of a
electric motor. Thus, a unidirectional current is produced. The generator is thus called a
DC generator.

19. Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor. Explain its principle and working. What is
the function of a split ring in an electric motor?
ANSWER :
An electric motor is a device that converts electrical energy to mechanical energy. It
works on the principle of magnetic effect of current. The figure listed below shows a
simple electric motor.

When current is made to flow through the coil MNST by closing the switch, the coil
starts to rotate in the anticlockwise direction. This is due to the downward force acting
on the length MN and simultaneously an upward force acting along the length ST. As a
result of which the coil rotates in the anticlockwise direction. Current in the length MN
flows from M to N and the magnetic fields act from left to right normal to the length MN.
According to Fleming’s Left Hand rule, a downward force acts along the length MN.
Similarly, the current along the length ST flows from S to T and the magnetic field acts
from left to right. Therefore, an upward force acts along the length ST. These two forces
together cause the coil to rotate anti-clockwise. After half a rotation, the position of MN
and ST interchange. The half ring C come in contact with brush B and the half ring D

140
 comes in contact with rush C. Hence the direction of current in the coil MNST gets
reversed.

15. Explain the underlying principle and working of an electric generator by drawing a
labelled diagram. What is the function of brushes?
ANSWER :
The electric generator coverts the mechanical energy into the electrical energy.
The working principle of the electric generator is the electromagnetic induction. It
generates electricity by rotating a coil in the magnetic field. The figure below shows the
construction of a simple AC generator.

In the diagram,
A and B are brushes,
C and D are slip rings
X is the axle
G is the galvanometer
When the axle X is rotated clockwise, MN moves upwards while ST moves
downward. The movement of MN and ST in the magnetic field results in the production
of electric current due to electromagnetic induction. MN moves upwards and the
magnetic fields act from left to right. Therefore, according to Fleming’s right hand rule,
the direction of the induced current will be from M to N along the length MN. Similarly,
the direction of the induced current will be from S to T along the length ST. The direction
of the current in the coil is MNST. Hence, galvanometer shows a deflection in a particular
direction.
After half a rotation, length MN starts moving downwards while the length ST
starts moving upwards. Now, the direction of the induced current reverses to TSNM.
Since the direction of the induced current reverses every half rotation, the current
induced is known as alternating current.
Function of Brushes

141
Brushes are kept pressed on to two slip rings separately. Outer ends of brushes are connected
to the galvanometer. Thus, brushes help in transferring current from coil to the external
circuit.

16. Describe the working of an AC generator with the help of a labelled circuit diagram.
What changes must be made in the arrangement to convert it to a DC generator?
ANSWER :
Faraday’s law electromagnetic induction states that whenever a conductor moves in
a magnetic field EMF gets induced across the conductor. If the close path is provided to
the conductor, induced emf causes current to flow in the circuit.

Let the conductor coil ABCD is placed in a magnetic field. The direction of
magnetic flux will be form N pole to S pole. The coil is connected to slip rings, and the
load is connected through brushes resting on the slip rings.
Consider the case 1 from above figure. The coil is rotating clockwise, in this case
the direction of induced current can be given by Fleming’s right hand rule, and it will be
along A-B-C-D.
As the coil is rotating clockwise, after half of the time period, the position of the
coil will be as in second case of above figure. In this case, the direction of the induced
current according to Fleming’s right hand rule will be along D-C-B-A. It shows that, the
direction of the current changes after half of the time period, that means we get an
alternating current.

142
17. Draw an appropriate schematic diagram showing common domestic circuits and discuss
the importance of fuse. Why is it that a burnt out fuse should be replaced by another
fuse of identical rating?
ANSWER:

Importance of Fuse
• Fuse is a safety device adapted in household wiring and in electrical appliance.
• Fuse prevents any damage to the circuit and appliance which may happen due to
overload.
• Fuse prevents accidental fire which may happen because of short circuit.
Fuse of a particular rating is used with a particular appliance. A fuse with lower
rating would result in lot of inconvenience because of frequent need of changing the
fuse. A fuse with higher rating would not serve the purpose because it will not melt even
if the current exceeds the limit of the device. Hence, a burnt out fuse should be replaced
by another fuse of identical rating.

143
 2 MARKS
LESSON 2 - ACIDS,BASES AND SALTS
1. Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity ?
ANSWER :
Charged particles are responsible for the conductance of electricity in an acid. These
charged particles called as ions are the reason behind conductance of electricity in acid.

2.While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water
and not water to the acid ?
ANSWER :
While diluting an acid, it is recommended that the acid should be added to water and
not water to the acid because if water is added to concentrated acid, it release huge
amount of heat which may result in explosion and can cause acid burns o face, clothes and
body parts. Hence it is safe to add acid to water but not water to acid.

3. Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder ?
ANSWER :
The substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder is Calcium
hydroxide.

4. Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.
ANSWER : Sodium carbonate is the compound which is used for softening hard water.

4. Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.

ANSWER :

Washing soda Baking soda

1. It is used as an 1. It can be used to test the garden soil

electrolyte for acidity. If bubbles are developed then
the soil Is too acidic

2. It can be used 2. If used on washing car then it will

domestically as water remove dead bug bodies without
softener for laundry. damaging the colour or the paint on the
car.

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 6. What is a neutralisation reaction? Give two examples.
ANSWER :
The reaction of the acid + base gives a product of salt + water, which is considered as
neutralization reaction.
Examples:
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
Mg(OH)2 + H2CO3 → MgCO3 + 2H2O

7.Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas rain water does?
ANSWER :
• Distilled water does not contain any ionic compounds in it.
• Whereas rainwater has a lot, more compounds.
• Rainwater has dissolved acidic gas such as carbon dioxide from the air and that forms
carbonic acid. This means that it has hydrogen ions and carbonate ions. Therefore, with
the presence of acids, rainwater can conduct electricity.

8.What is meant by rock salt?

ANSWER :
Soluble salts dissolved in sea water deposits as solid salt in the form of large crystals
which turns brown due to impurities and these deposits are called rock salt.

9. Enlist the uses of H2 and Cl2.

ANSWER :
Uses of hydrogen: (1) As a rocket fuel.(2)In the hydrogenation of vegetable oils. (3)
In the preparation of ammonia.
Uses of chlorine : (1)In water treatment (as a germicide and disinfectant for
sterilisation of water) (2) In the manufacture of PVC.(3)In the manufacture of
CFC(chlorofluoro carbons) (4)In the manufacture of bleaching powder. (5) In the
manufacture of pesticides.

10. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd?
Explain your answer.
Solution:
Fresh milk is turned to curd due to production of lactic acid. Lactic acid reduces the pH
of the milk.

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11. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
Solution:
(a) He shifted the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline to prevent milk from getting
sour due to production of lactic acid.
(b) This milk takes long time to set into curd because the lactic acid produced here first
neutralises the pH then the pH is reduced to turn milk to curd.

12. Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?

Solution:
Plaster of Paris should be stored in moisture-proof container because moisture can
affect plaster of Paris by slowing down the setting of the plaster because of hydration. This
will turn plaster useless.

13. Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
Solution:
The acidic behaviour from acids is because of the presence of hydrogen ions. Hydrogen
ions can only be produced in the presence of water and therefore water is definitely
needed if acids are to show their acidic behaviour.

14. Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?
Solution:
Curd and sour food substances contain acids; these acidic substances combine with
metal. This reaction turns food to poison which damage people’s health.

15. What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?

ANSWER: The common name of CaOCl2 is bleaching powder.

16. What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrocarbonate is heated? Give the equation
of the reaction involved.
ANSWER:
The solution of sodium hydrocarbonate, on heating forms sodium carbonate, water and
carbon dioxide.
2NaHCO3(aq) heat Na2CO3(s) + H2O(g) + CO2(g)

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17. Write an equation to show the reaction between plaster of paris and water.
1 1
ANSWER: CaSO4∙ H2O(s) + 1 H2O(l) CaSO4 ∙ 2 H2O(s)
2 2
plaster of paris gypsum(Hard solid mass)

18. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with an
example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?
ANSWER:
Reaction of a metal with an acid liberates hydrogen gas.
For example,
Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
The presence of hydrogen gas can be tested by bringing a burning candle or match-
stick near the mouth of the test tube, in which hydrogen gas is collected. The hydrogen gas
burns with a popping sound.

19. Metal compound ‘A’ reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The
gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for the
reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.(v.imp)
ANSWER:
The compound of metal ‘A’ is CaCO3.
Gas formed is CO2.
Balanced chemical equation:
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

20. Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his field with
quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium
carbonate)?
ANSWER:
The soil having pH value less than 6.5 is called acidic soil. Now to make this soil neutral,
the farmers add basic substances such as quick lime, slacked lime or chalk to the soil.

21. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with an
example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?
ANSWER: reaction of a metal with an acid liberates hydrogen gas.

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 Example:
Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq)+ H2(g)

The presence of hydrogen gas can be tested by bringing a burning candle or match-stick
near the mouth of the test tube, in which hydrogen gas is collected. The hydrogen gas
burns with a popping sound.

22. Why do HCl, HNO3 etc., show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions;
of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
ANSWER:
HCl, HNO3 etc. release H+ ions in their aqueous solutions. Hence, their solutions show
acidic character.
While alcohol and glucose do not release H+ ions in their aqueous solutions. So,
their aqueous solutions are not acidic.

23. Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?
ANSWER:
Dry HCl gas does not release H+ ions, so it does not process acidic character and it
does not impart any effect on dry litmus paper. As a result, the colour of dry litmus paper
does not change.

24. How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) affected when a solution of an
acid is diluted?
ANSWER:
When the acid solution is diluted, the concentration of hydronium ion (H3O+) per unit
volume decreases.

25. How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) affected when excess base is
dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?
ANSWER:
When excess of water is added to the solution of sodium hydroxide (NaOH), i.e.,
solution is diluted, the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) per unit volume decreases.

26. You have two solutions A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8.
Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic and which
one is basic?
ANSWER: The pH value of solution A is 6.
Therefore, it is acidic and has higher concentration of hydrogen ions.
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 The pH value of solution B is 8.
Therefore, it is basic and having lower concentration of hydrogen ions.

27.What effect does the concentration of H+ (aq) ions, have on the nature of the
solution?
ANSWER:
A solution has higher concentration of H+ ions is acidic in nature and the solution has
lower concentration of H+ ions is basic in nature.

28.Do basic solutions also have H+ (aq) ions? If yes, then why are these basic?
ANSWER:
Yes, basic solutions also possesses H+ ions, but due to more number of OH– ions than
H+ ions they are basic in nature.

29.Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid
(HCl) is added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is added to test tube B.
Amount and concentration taken for both the acids are same. In which test tube will
the fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
ANSWER:
Hydrochloric acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. Hence, more vigorous fizzing
will occur in test tube A. Here, HCl being a strong acid undergoes complete ionisation
giving more H+ ions.

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 LESSON 3 - METALS AND NON METALS:-
1. Name one metal and one non-metal that exist in liquid state at room temperature.
ANSWER : Mercury and Bromine are liquid at room temperature.

2.Name two metals having melting point less than 310 K (37°C).
ANSWER : Calcium and Gallium are the metals whose melting point is less than 310K(37°c).

3.Give an example of a metal which

(i) is a liquid at room temperature.
(ii) can be easily cut with a knife.
(iii) is the best conductor of heat.
(iv) is a poor conductor of heat.
ANSWER :
(i)Mercury is the metal which is liquid at room temperature
(ii)Sodium and potassium are the metals which can be cut with a knife
(iii)Silver is the best conductor of heat
(iv)Mercury is poor conductor of heat.

4. Explain the meaning of malleable and ductile.

ANSWER :Metals which can be beaten to sheets are said to be malleable
Metals which can be drawn into thin wires are said to be ductile.

5. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil?

ANSWER : Sodium is a reactive metals, if kept open it will react with oxygen to explore and
catch fire. Sodium metal is kept immersed in kerosene to prevent their reaction with
oxygen, moisture and carbon dioxide of air.

6. Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal? Write
the chemical reaction when iron reacts with dilute H2SO4.
ANSWER : Hydrogen gas is liberated when dilute HCl is added to a reactive metal.
Fe(s)+H2SO4(aq) → FeSo4(aq)+H2(g)

7. What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulphate? Write the
chemical reaction that takes place.
ANSWER : Zinc is more reactive (more electro positive) than iron. Therefore Zinc displacesIron
from its salt solution. The colour of ferrous sulphate is pale green, which turns colourless.
FeSO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + Fe(s)
Light green Zinc sulphate(Colourless)

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8. Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?
ANSWER :
Ionic compounds are the ones which has both positive and negative charges. Hence
there will be strong force of attraction between them. This make expenditure of lot of
heat to break this force of attraction hence ionic compounds have high melting points.

9. Define the following terms.

ANSWER :
(i) Mineral : Minerals are compounds (also known as elements) which are found naturally in
the earth’s crust. E.g. Alums, K2SO4 .Al2(SO4)3 . 24H2O, etc.
(ii) Ore: Ores are minerals from which metal can be extracted Ex: Bauxite Al2O3.2H2O is the
ore of Al, copper pyrite CuFeS2.All minerals are not considered as ores but all ores are also
minerals.
(iii)Gangue : Ores mined from the earth are naturally contaminated with sand, rocky
materials. There are impurities present in the ore which are known as gangue.

10. What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from its oxide?
ANSWER :
Reduction method is used to obtain metal from its oxide. Ex: Zinc oxide is reduced to
metallic zinc by Heating with carbon.
ZnO + C → Zn + CO
Ex: Lead oxide is reduced to lead by heating with carbon
PbO +C → Pb + CO

11 What are alloys?

ANSWER : An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals, or a metal and a non-
metal.

12. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.

ANSWER :
1.Iron can be prevented from rusting by coating the surface of the iron with rust proof paints
2. by applying Oil/grease on the surface of iron objects as it will prevent the iron surface to
get in contact with air consisting of moisture.

13. What type of oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen?
ANSWER :
When non-metals combine with oxygen it forms either acidic or neutral oxides. Ex:
N2O5 or N2O3 is an acidic oxide; CO is a neutral oxide.
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14. You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or tamarind
juice. Explain why these sour substances are effective in cleaning the vessels.
ANSWER : Tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or tamarind because these
sour substance contains acids which dissolve the coating of copper oxide or basic copper
carbonate present on the surface or tarnished copper vessels. This makes them shining
red-brown again. Hence they are very effective in cleaning tarnished copper vessels.

15 Give reasons why copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel (an alloy of iron).
ANSWER : Copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel (an alloy of iron) because
copper does not reacts with either water or steam whereas iron reacts with steams to
corrode the tank.

16.What is meant by displacement reaction? Which metal among the Fe and Cu is more
reactive?Why?
ANSWER :
The reaction in which more reactive metal displaces the less reactive metal from its
salt solution or can displace from its molten state is called displacement reaction.
Amongst, Fe and Cu, Fe is more reactive than Cu, because reactivity of Fe is more than Cu.

17.What is an aqua-regia? Which metal can be dissolved in it?

ANSWER:
A freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric
acid in the ratio 3 : 1 is called an aqua regia (Latin meaning - Royal water).Aqua Regia is a
highly corrosive , fuming liquid. Many metals along with noble metals like gold and
platinum can be dissolved in aqua regia solution.

18. Name two metals which will displace hydrogen from dilute acids, and two metals which
will not.
ANSWER :
Zinc (Zn) and Magnesium (Mg) are the two metals which will displace Hydrogen from
dilute acids as they are very reactive metals. Gold (Au) and Silver (Ag) are the metals which
will not replace Hydrogen from dilute acids as these metals are less reactive.

19. In the electrolytic refining of a metal M, what would you take as the anode, the cathode
and the electrolyte?
ANSWER :
In the process of electrolytic refining of metal called ‘M’, An impure and thick block of
metal M. is considered as anode, Thin strip or wire of pure metal M is taken as anode A
suitable salt solution of metal M is considered as the electrolyte.
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20. Write the equations for the reactions of
(1) Iron with steam (2) calcium and potassium with water
ANSWER: (1) Iron with steam:
4H2O(g) + 3Fe(s) Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
(2)Calcium and potassium with water:
Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) Ca(OH)2 + H2O(g) + Heat energy
Cold water
2K(s) + 2H2O(l) 2KOH(aq) + H2(g) + Heat energy
Cold water

21. Name two metals which are found in nature in the free State.
ANSWER: Gold and platinum are found in free State.

22. Which metals do not corrode easily?

ANSWER: Metals which lie at the bottom of reactivity series are less reactive and do not
corrode easily. For example: Silver, gold and platinum.

23.A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the glitter of
old and dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold bangles to him
which he dipped in a particular solution. The bangles sparkled like new but their weight
was reduced drastically. The lady was upset but after a futile argument the man beat a
hasty retreat. Can you play the detective to find out the nature of the solution he had
used?
ANSWER: That man was using a solution of aqua regla; which is a mixture of concentrated
hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of 3 : 1 by volume. Gold
dissolves in aqua regia.

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 LESSON 6 - LIFE PROCESSES

1. Why is diffusion insufficient to meet the oxygen requirements of multicellular organisms

like humans?
ANSWER :
Multi-cellular organism’s like humans have very big body and require a lot of oxygen to diffuse
into body quickly in order to meet the oxygen requirement. Diffusion is a slow process which
will take a lot of time to circulate oxygen to all the body cells. Because of its slow nature
diffusion is insufficient to meet the oxygen requirements of multicellular organisms like
humans.

2. What processes would you consider essential for maintaining life?

ANSWER :
Life processes such as respiration, digestion, excretion, circulation and transportation are
essential for maintain life.

3.What is the role of the acid in our stomach?

ANSWER :
HCL present in the stomach dissolves food particles and creates an acidic medium. In acidic
environment protein digesting enzymes pepsinogen is converted into pepsin. HCL in the
stomach also acts as protective barrier against many disease causing pathogens.

4. How is the small intestine designed to absorb digested food?

ANSWER :
Small intestine has small projections called as micro villi which increases the surface volume
which make absorption more effective. Within the villi there are numerous blood vessels that
absorb digested food and carry it to blood stream. Blood transports food to each part of our
body.

5. What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have with regard to
obtaining oxygen for respiration?
ANSWER :
Terrestrial organisms breathe by using atmospheric oxygen whereas aquatic organism
take oxygen dissolved in water. Oxygen level is high in atmosphere when compared to oxygen
in water. Hence terrestrial organism need not breathe fast to obtain organism whereas aquatic
organisms need to breathe faster to get required oxygen.

154
6. What are the components of the transport system in human beings? What are the
functions of these components?
ANSWER :
Heart, blood and blood vessels are the main components of transport system in human beings.
Functions of these components
Heart
Heart pumps oxygenated blood throughout the body. It receives deoxygenated blood from the
various body parts and sends this impure blood to the lungs for oxygenation.
Blood
Blood transports oxygen, nutrients, CO2, and nitrogenous wastes.
Blood vessels
Blood vessels, arteries and veins carry blood to all parts of body.

7.What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food?

ANSWER :
Food we intake is complex in nature, if it is to be absorbed from the alimentary canal then it
has to be broken into smaller molecules. This process is mainly done with the help of biological
catalysts called enzymes. The saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase that breaks
down starch, which is a complex molecule to give sugar. The food is mixed thoroughly with
saliva and moved around the mouth while chewing the muscular tongue. Hence saliva plays a
pivotal in digestion and absorption of food.
8. What would be the consequences of a deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies?
Soln:
Hemoglobin is a protein responsible for transportation of oxygen to the body cells for
cellular respiration. Deficiency of Hemoglobin can affect the oxygen carrying capacity of RBC’S.
Hemoglobin deficiency leads to a disease called as anemia.
This lead to lack of oxygen in our body cells.

9. What are the differences between the transport of materials in xylem and
phloem
ANSWER :
Transport of materials in Xylem Transport of materials in phloem

Xylem tissue helps in the transport of Phloem tissue helps in the transport of
water and minerals. food

Water is transported upwards from Food is transported in both upward

roots to all other plant parts. and downward directions.

155
10. Differentiate between an autotroph and a heterotroph
ANSWER :
Autotrophs Heterotrophs

They can make their own food They cannot make their own food

Ex: Plants and certain bacteria Ex: Animals, Fungi and protozoans

11. Differentiate between an artery and a vein.

ANSWER :
• Artery has thick walls whereas Veins has thin walls.
• Arteries carries blood away from the heart but veins carry blood to the heart.
• In arteries valves are absent and in veins they are present
• In arteries blood flows under pressure but in veins there will be no pressure.

12. Mention the major events during photosynthesis

ANSWER :
Major events of Photosynthesis are :-
1. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
2. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
3. Splitting of water molecules into Hydrogen and Oxygen
4. Reduction of CO2 to from carbohydrates.

13. Name the energy currency in the living organisms. When and where is it produced?
ANSWER :
Adenosine tri Phosphate (ATP) is the energy currency in the living organisms. It is produced
in Mitochondria during respiration.

14. What are the functions of gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach?
ANSWER :
• Hydrochloric acid, pepsin and mucus are secreted by gastric gland present in the
stomach. They have following functions.
• HCL Kills germs present in the food and it decreases PH of the stomach which is essential
for the working of digestive enzymes.
• Pepsin digests protein.
• Mucus protects stomach’s innerline from HCL.

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15. Name the correct substrates for the following enzymes
(a) Trypsin
(b) Amylase
(c) Pepsin
(d) Lipase
ANSWER :
1. Protein
2. Starch
3. Protein
4. Lipid

16.Why do veins have thin walls as compared to arteries?

ANSWER :
Blood flow through veins does not exert pressure on walls of veins hence they have thin walls.
Blood flow in arteries exerts high pressure on arterial walls hence they need thick walls.

17. What is double circulation ?

ANSWER :
The type of circulatory system that occurs in mammals, in which the blood passes
through the heart twice before completing ba full circuit of the body. Blood is pumped from
heart to the lungs and returns to the heart before being distributed to the other organs.

18.What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products?
ANSWER :
Plants use completely different strategies for excretion then those of animals. Oxygen
itself can be thought of a waste product generated during photosynthesis. Plants can get rid of
access water by transpiration. For other wastes plants use the fact that many of their tissues
consist of dead cells , and that they can even lose some parts such as leaves. Many plants
waste products are stored in cellular vacuoles. waste products maybe stored in leaves that fall
off. Other waste products are stored as resins and gums , especially in old xylem. Plants also
excrete some waste substances into the soil around them.

19. How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this process take place?
ANSWER :
• The small intestine is the place for complete digestion of carbohydrates, fats and
proteins. It receives the secretions of the liver and pancreas for this purpose.
• The food coming from the stomach is usually acidic in nature and it has to be made
alkaline so that pancreatic enzymes can act on it. Bile juice produced in the liver
accomplish this process.
157
 • Fats are usually present in the intestine in the form of larger globules, which makes it
difficult for enzymes to act on them. The bile salts helps in breaking down larger
globules into smaller globules. The pancreas helps in secreting pancreatic juice, which
contains enzymes like trypsin for digesting proteins and lipase for breaking down
emulsified fats.
• The walls of the small intestine contains glands, which secretes intestinal juice. The
enzymes present in it finally converts the proteins to amino acids, complex
carbohydrates into glucose and finally fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

20. What are the necessary conditions for autotrophic nutrition and what are its
byproducts?
ANSWER :
• The energy and carbon requirements of the autotrophic organism is obtained by the
process of photosynthesis.
• It is defined as the process by which autotrophs take in substances from the outside
surroundings and convert them into stored forms of energy.
• This substance is taken in the form of carbon dioxide and water, which is converted into
carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
• The main purpose of carbohydrates is to provide energy to the plant. The carbohydrates
are not utilized immediately; but they are stored in the form of starch, which serves as
an internal energy reserve.
• The stored energy can be used as and when required by the plant.

21. Where do plants get each of the raw materials required for photosynthesis?
ANSWER: Raw materials required for photosynthesis:
(1) CO2: Plants get it from atmosphere.
(2) H2O: plants root absorbed it from soil.
(3) Energy: Plants get it directly from sun.

22 What is the function of digestive enzymes?

ANSWER: Digestive enzymes hydrolyse/digest complex component (carbohydrates, lipids,
proteins) of food into simple, soluble and absorbable form of nutrients.

23. What are the different ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in various
organisms?
ANSWER: There are three different ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in
various organisms.
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24. How is oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in human beings?
ANSWER:
In human beings, the respiratory pigment hemoglobin has high affinity for
oxygen, so it is mostly transported by hemoglobin. Carbon dioxide is more soluble
in water than oxygen and hence it is mostly transported in dissolved form in our
blood.

25. Why it is necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and
birds?
ANSWER:
It is necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in
mammals and birds because it allows a highly efficient supply of oxygen to the
body and this is useful in their high energy needs for to maintain constant body
temperature.

26. What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products?
ANSWER: unlike animals, the plants do not possess any special organs or system for
excretion. However, the plants excrete their wastes in different ways:
• O2 produced during photosynthesis by the green plants is set free directly in the
atmosphere.
• Plants remove surplus water by the process of transpiration through the stomata.
• Sometimes plants store certain watses in the cells of their leaves which are
ultimately shed off.
• Certain plants store wastes in the cellular vacuoles of their cells.
• Other waste products such as resin and gum are stored especially in old xylem.
• Plants excrete some waste substances into the soil around them.
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27. How is the amount of urine produced regulated?
ANSWER:
The amount of urine formed depends on how much excess water there is in the
body, and on how much of dissolved waste there is to be excreted. More water
and dissolved wastes in the body will produce more urine. On the other hand, less
water and less dissolved wastes will produced less urine.

28. What would be the consequences of a deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies?

ANSWER:
A deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies leads to a disease cold anaemia.
Due to this, cells of our body do not get sufficient oxygen for cellular respiration,
which may lead to release less energy. Weakness, fatigue, tiredness, etc.
Conditions may arise.

29. What criteria do we use to decide whether something is alive?

ANSWER:
Movement, growth, breathing, cell-structure, etc. are the criteria do we use to
decide whether something is alive.

30. What are outside raw materials used for by an organism?

ANSWER:
Name of outside Used for
raw materials
1. CO2, H2O Photosynthesis by
plants
2. Carbon based Respiration by aerobic
food source, O2 organisms

31. How are lungs designed in human beings to maximise the area for exchange of gases?
ANSWER:
▪ The respiratory passage in the lungs, divides into smaller and smaller tubes which
finally terminate in balloon-like structures alveoli.
• The alveoli present in lungs provide the maximum area for exchange of gases in
human beings.

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32. What are the components of the transport system in highly organised plants?
ANSWER:
Xylem tissue ( vessels and tracheids ) and phloem tissue ( sieve tube and
companion cell ) are the components of the transport system in highly
organized pllants.

33. . Explain the importance of soil for plant growth.

ANSWER :
Soil is very important for the growth of the plant for the following reasons.
1. Soil provides the base for the growth of the plants and provides a platform for the
penetration of roots.
2. It acts as a reservoir of the water.
3. Soil has different minerals essential for the growth of the plant. Soil is the only medium
from which soil obtain nutrients.
4. Soil has organic materials essential for the growth of the plants.
5. Soil has microorganisms that has symbiotic relationship with the plant and these
microbes assist plant in their growth and life processes.

34. Explain the mechanism of photosynthesis

ANSWER :
Photosynthesis is a process by which plants produce their own food by utilizing sunlight, CO2
and water. CO@ and water are converted to carbohydrates with the evolution of oxygen.
Photosynthesis reaction can be given by following reaction.
6CO2 + 6H2O Sunlight energy C6H12O6 + 6O2
Process of Photosynthesis is divided into 4 processes
1. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
2. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy
3. Splitting of water molecules into Hydrogen and Oxygen
4. Reduction of CO2 to produce carbohydrates

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 LESSON 7 : CONTROL AND CO-ORDINATION
1.
1. What is a reflex action? Give examples.
ANSWER :-
Reflex action are the involuntary actions that occur in response to stimuli. They
occur without involvement of conscious areas of brain. All the reflex actions are
unconscious actions. Reflex action occurs brain and spinal cord of central nervous
systems. Examples: Blinking of eyes, salivation , Removal or withdrawal of hand or leg
when anything sharp or hot touches unknowingly, Coughing, sneezing, yawning , knee
jerk response , Movement of diaphragm , contradiction of pupil in bright light , mouth
starts watering when smell or sight of favourite food is there.
2. What are plant hormones? Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes
growth.
ANSWER :
Plant hormones are the organic substances produces at certain sites of the plant
and are translocated to other parts based on the requirement. Plant hormones help to
coordinate growth, development and responses to the environment. Ex: Auxin’s
Gibberlin’s, cytokines, abscisic acid and ethylene.
Auxins and Gibberlins are the hormone responsible for the growth of plant.
Auxins are responsible for the cell elongation in shoot and also regulates growth.
Gibberlin is responsible for stem elongation and germination.

3. Explain hormones related with growth in human.

ANSWER :
Growth hormones and thyroxin are related with growth in human.
(1) growth hormone - It is secreted by the pituitary gland. Growth hormone regulates
growth and development of the body.
(2) Thyroxin - It is secreted by thyroid gland. Iodine is essential for the synthesis if thyroxin
hormone. Thyroxin regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body. This
is necessary for balanced growth and body.

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4. Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury?
ANSWER:
In case of a spinal cord injury (1) Reflex action –(2) sensory impulses from various
body parts will not be conducted to brain.(3) Motor impulses from brain will not be
conducted to various organs of the body.

5. State the properties of animal hormones?

ANSWER :
The properties of animal hormones are as follows :-
(1) They are specific chemical compounds secreted by specific endocrine glands.
(2) Hormones are chemical coordinators .
(3) they show their action on specific target cells, tissues or organs.
(4) They are transported through blood.
(5) Their secretion is in extremely small quantities. Hyper secretion or deficiency of
hormone can lead in disorders.

6. Difference between Response in plants and Response in animals.

ANSWER :
Response in plants :- (1) Plants do not possess nervous sysytem but only possess hormones
for expressing their res[ponse.
(2) The response in plants is not rapid and needs more time to be observed.
(3) The response in plants is limited.
Response in animals:- (1) Animal possess both, the nervous system and endocrine system
for expressing their response.
(2) The response in animals is rapid and seen immediately.
(3) The response in animals is not limited.

7. What is the role of the brain in reflex action?

ANSWER :
Reflex actions are formed instantaneously in response to the stimulus that has no
time to think. For instance The sensory nerves that detect the heat are connected to the
nerves that move the muscles of the hand. Such a connection of detecting the signal
from the nerves (input) and responding to it quickly (output) is known as reflex arc.
Reflex action are generated in spinal cord and the information also reaches brain.
This helps the brain to record this event and remember it for future use. Brain helps the
person the person to get awareness of the stimulus and prevent himself from that
situation again.

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8. How does chemical coordination occur in plants?
ANSWER:
Plant growth, development and responses to the environment is controlled and
coordinated by a special class of chemical substances known as hormones. Hormones are
produced in one part of the plant and are transported to all the needy parts of the plant.
The five major types of phytohormone are auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, abscisic acid,
and ethylene. These phytohormones are either growth promoters (such as auxins,
gibberellins, cytokinins, and ethylene) or growth inhibitors such as abscisic acid.

9. Why is the use of iodized salt advisable?

ANSWER :
Usage of Iodized salt is advisable to avoid the deficiency of Iodine. If the intake of
iodine is low, the release of thyroxine from the thyroid gland will be decreased. This
affects fat, carbohydrate and protein metabolism
Thus a person may have goitre problem in case if the intake of iodine is lowered.

10. What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of situations where receptors do
not work properly. What problems are likely to arise?
ANSWER :
Receptors are present throughout our body mainly sense organs. Receptors collect
the information about changes that happen around us and send the signal to information
to brain which render effector mechanism against the change. When receptors do not
work properly, the environmental stimuli are not able to create nerve impulses and body
does not respond.

11. How does phototropism occur in plants?

Solution:
Directional movement and growth of plant in response to light is called as phototropism.
Phototropism occurs due to increased auxin on the dark side and decreased auxin on the
illuminated side. Because of presence of more auxin, leaf in the darker side grows faster
causing it to bend towards the source of light.

12. Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury?
Solution:
In case of a spinal cord injury Reflex action – Impulses from various body parts will
not be conducted to brain. Message from brain will not be conducted to various organs
of the body.
Coordination is needed for all human activities we perform. Our nervous system
receives information from surroundings which is processed and response is ilicited. The
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 endocrine system (hormonal system) helps in integrating various metabolic activities like
reproduction, development, and all reflex actions (cope up with various give up
situations).

13. What happens at the synapse between two neurons?

ANSWER:
Synapse is the gap between nerve endings of axon of one neuron and dendrites of
another neuron.
At the end of axon, the electrical impulse sets of the release of some chemicals.
These chemicals cross the synapse and start a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of
the next neuron.

14. Which part of the brain maintains posture and equilibrium of the body?
ANSWER: cerebellum is the part of the brain that maintains posture and equilibrium of the
body.
15. What are plant hormones?
ANSWER: Plant hormones are chemical compounds produced by plant itself and help
coordinate growth, development and responses to the environment.

16. How do auxins promote and growth of a tendril around a support?

ANSWER:
Auxins are growth promoting plant hormones that induce cell elongation. When
tendril comes in contact with a support, auxin stimulates faster growth on to a part of
tendril away from the support. This causes the tendril to coil around the support.

17. How does chemical coordination take place in animals?

ANSWER:
In animals, endocrine glands secretes chemical substances (hormones) in precise
quantities. They are directly released in blood and through blood circulation they reach
to their target (functional) site. Specific cells of body have specific molecules with which
hormone molecules bind and transmit information.
Thus, chemical coordination take place in animals.

165
18. What is the difference between a reflex action and walking?
ANSWER :
Reflex action is an involuntary action controlled by spinal cord. Thinking is not
involved in such action.
Walking is a voluntary action and is controlled by a cerebellum, a part of hind-
brain. This action is shown as per wish of an individual.

19. How do we detect the smell of an agarbatti ( incense stick )?

ANSWER :
Olfactory receptors in our nose are stimulated by the smell of agarbatti. This causes
generation of impulse which is received at dendrite of sensory neuron. Such impulse is
transmited to brain. In cerebrum message is interpreted and we detect the smell.

20. How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the movement of
a shoot towards light?
ANSWER : The movement of

Leaves of sensitive plant a shoot towards light

This is not growth related movement. This is growth related movement.
This is non-directional movement. This is directional or tropic movement.
It is rapid. It happens slowly.
Decrease in amount of water resulting in Auxin plant hormone responsible for
drooping of leaves towards touch. such phototropism.

21. Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes growth ?

ANSWER : An example of a plant hormone that promotes growth : Auxin.

22. Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin?
ANSWER :
Insulin is a pancreatic hormone which helps in regulating blood sugar level. In the
patients of diabetes, the blood sugar level rises due to deficiency of insulin. So, some
patients of diabetes are treated by giving injections of insulin to maintain blood sugar
level.

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 LESSON 10: LIGHT-REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
1. Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?
ANSWER: Convex mirror is preferred as a rear-view mirror in cars and vehicles as it gives a
wider field of view, which helps the driver to see most of the traffic behind him. Convex
mirrors always form an erect, virtual, and diminished image of the objects placed in front
of it.

2. Define the principal focus of a concave mirror.

ANSWER: Light rays that are parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror converge at a
specific point on its principal axis after reflecting from the mirror. This point is called the
principal focus of the concave mirror.

3. Name the mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object.
Answer: The mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object is Concave Mirror.

4. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bends
towards the normal or away from the normal? Why?
Answer: The light ray bends towards the normal. When a light ray enters from an optically
rarer medium (which has low refractive index) to an optically denser medium (which has a
high refractive index), its speed slows down and bends towards the normal. As water is
optically denser than air, a ray of light entering from air into water will bend towards the
normal.

5. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations.

(a) Headlights of a car
(b) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle
(c) Solar furnace
Support your answer with reason.
Answer-
(a) Concave Mirror: Because concave mirrors can produce powerful parallel beam of light
when light source is placed at their principal focus.
(b) Convex Mirror: Because of its largest field of view.
(c) Concave Mirror: Because it concentrates the parallel rays of sun at principal focus.

6. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20cm. What is its focal length?
ANSWER: Here, R = 20cm; f =?
𝑅 20
As f = , f = = 10cm
2 2

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 7. Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 32cm.
ANSWER: Here, the radius of curvature R = 32cm
𝑅
We know that, the focal length f =
2
32
f= = 16cm
2

8. A concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of an object
placed at 10cm in front of it. Where is the image located?
ANSWER: Here, the linear magnification m = -3 (negative sign for a real image, which is
inverted)
The object distance u = -10cm (object distance (real) is always negative)
The image distance v =?
As m = -v/u
v = -mu
v = (-3) (-10)
= -30cm

Thus, the real image is located at 30cm in front of the mirror (on the same side as the object).

10. Define 1 dioptre of power of a lens.

ANSWER: 1 dioptre is the power of a lens of focal length 1 metre.

11. Find the power of a concave lens of focal length 2m.

ANSWER: Here, focal length f = -2m (because concave lens)
Power P = 1/f (m)
= 1/-2m
= -0.5 dioptre
= -0.5D

12. What is the lens formula? State the lens formula for a thin lens with small aperture.
ANSWER: The equation which gives the relation between object-distance u, image
distance v, and focal length f of a lens is called the lens formula.
The lens formula for a thin lens with lens with small aperture is
1 1 1
− = .
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓

168
 • Thin lens: The lens for which the separation between the two surface, i.e., its thickness is
much smaller (ignorable) than u, v and R is called a thin lens.
• Small aperture: The aperture which is much smaller than the radius of curvature of a
lens is called a small aperture.

13. Define the magnification produced by a lens. Explain it in brief.

ANSWER: The magnification produced by a lens is defined as the ratio of the height of
the image to the height of the object.
• It is represented by the letter m.
• If h is the height of the object and h’ is the height of the image formed (given) by
a lens, then the magnification produced by the lens is given by
ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒
m=
ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡

ℎ′
=
ℎ

• Magnification produced by a lens is also related to the object distance u and the
image distance v. This relationship is given by
ℎ′ 𝑣
Magnification m = = .
ℎ 𝑢

14. Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50. What is the speed of light in
the glass? The speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 ms-1.
Solution : Speed of light in vaccum c = 3 × 108 ms-1
Refractive index of glass ng = 1.50
Speed of light in glass v=?
Now, absolute refractive index of glass,
𝑐
ng =
𝑣
therefore, the speed of light in the glass,
𝑐 3 𝑋 108
v= = = 2 X 108 ms-1
𝑛𝑔 1.50

15. Find out, from Table 10.3, the medium having highest optical density. Also find the
medium with lowest optical density.
ANSWER : The higher the refractive index, the higher is the optical density.
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 Diamond has the highest optical density as it has the highest refractive index, 2.42
and air has the lowest optical density as it has the lowest refractive index, 1.0003.

16. You are given kerosene, turpentine and water. In which of these does the light travel
fastest? Use the information given in Table 10.3.
ANSWER : From Table 10.3,
refractive index of kerosene = 1.44
refractive index of turpentine = 1.47 and
refractive index of water = 1.33
- Here, from given liquids, turpentine has the highest refractive index and water has the
lowest refractive index.
Now, the lower the refractive index of a medium, the higher is the speed of light in
the medium.
Hence, out of the given liquids the light travels fastest in water.

17. Find the focal length of a lens of power -2.0 D. What type of lens is this?
Solution: Here, Focal length of the lens f=?
Power P = - 2.0 D = - 2.0 m-1
Now,
1
As, P =
𝑓

As the power of the lens is negative (given), the lens must be concave.

18. A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power + 1.5 D. Find the focal length of the
lens. Is the prescribed lens diverging or converging?
Solution :Here, Power P = + 1.5 D = + 1.5 m-1
Focal length f=？

170
As the power of the lens is positive (given), it is a converging lens, i.e., a convex lens.

LESSON - 12 ELECTRICITY
1. On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend ?
ANSWER :
The resistance R of a conductor depends on :
(1) Its length l as R ∝ 𝑙
1
(2) Its area of cros-section (i.e, thickness of the conductor ) as R ∝
𝐴
(3) the nature of the material of the conductor (i.e., resistivity of material of the conductor)
(4) its temperature

2. Which is a better conductor , iron or mercury ?

ANSWER : (a) The electrical resistivity of iron is 10.0 × 10 -8 Ωm whereas that of mercury is
94.0 × 10 -8 Ωm. As the resistivity of iron is less than that of mercury , iron (Fe) is a better
conductor than mercury (Hg).

3. State the characteristics of the series combination of resistors.

ANSWER:
Characteristics of the series combination of resistors are as follows :-
(1) The same current flows through each resistor and is equal to the total current flowing in
the series circuit.
(2) The potential difference (voltage) across the combination is equal to the sum of the
potential differences across the individual resistors.
(3) The equivalent resistance of the combination is equal to the sum of the potential
differences across the individual resistors.
(4) The potential difference across each resistor is directly proportional to the resistance of
the resistor.

171
 5. State various practical applications of heating effect of electric current in everyday life.
ANSWER : The heating effect of current is used in
(1) the working of electrical heating devices such as an electric (laundry) iron, electric toaster ,
electric oven , electric kettle and heater , etc
(2) an electric bulb (called incandescent lamp) for producing light by heating its filament.
(3) an electric fuse for protecting household wiring and electrical appliances.
6. Three 2 Ω resistors, A, B and C, are connected as shown in Figure 12.7. Each of them
dissipates energy and can withstand a maximum power of 18W without melting. Find
the maximum current that can flow through the three resistors?

ANSWER :
Current P= I2R
18W = I2 x 2Ω
I2 = 18W/ 2Ω
=9
I= 3A
This is the maximum current that can flow through the three resistors.

7. How does use of a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?

ANSWER :
Fuse wire has great resistance than the main wiring. When there is significant increase in the
electric current. Fuse wire melts to break the circuit. This prevents damage of electrical
appliance.

8. What is the commercial unit of electrical energy? Represent it in terms of joules.

ANSWER :
Commercial unit of electrical energy is kilowatt/hr
1 kw/hr = 1 kW h
= 1000 W × 60 × 60s
= 3.6 × 106 J

9.Calculate the number of electrons constituting one coulomb of charge.

ANSWER :
172
 The value of the charge of an electron is 1.6 × 10-19 C.
According to charge quantization,
Q = nq,
where n is the number of electrons and q, is the charge of an electron.
Substituting the values in the above equation,
the number of electrons in a coulomb of charge can be calculated as follows:
1C = n × 1.6 × 10-19
n = 1 / 1.6 × 10-19
n = 6.25 x 18

10. What is meant by saying that the potential difference between two points is 1 V?
ANSWER :
When 1 J of work is done to move a charge of 1 C from one point to another, it is said that the
potential difference between two points is 1 V.

11. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of three cells of 2 V each, a
5 Ω resistor, an 8 Ω resistor, and a 12 Ω resistor, and a plug key, all connected in series.
ANSWER :
A battery of three cells of 2 V each equals to battery of potential 6 V. The circuit diagram
below shows three resistors of resistance 12 Ω, 8 Ω and 5 Ω connected in series along with a
battery of potential 6 V.

12. What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the battery
instead of connecting them in series?
ANSWER :
When the electrical devices are connected in parallel there is no division of voltage among the
appliances. The potential difference across the devices is equal to supply voltage. Parallel
connection of devices also reduces the effective resistance of the circuit.

13. What determines the rate at which energy is delivered by a current?

ANSWER: The electric power of the source determines the rate at which energy is delivered
by the current to the load/appliance.

173
14. How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to measure the potential difference
between two points?
ANSWER: A voltmeter is (always) connected in parallel across the points in the circuit
between which the potential difference is to be measured.

15. Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
ANSWER:
Because tungsten has a high melting point ( 3380 0C ), it does not melt at high
temperature. It retains as much of heat generated, so that it becomes very hot and
emits light without melting away. Moreover, tungsten has high flexibility and low
rate of evaporation at high temperature. That is the reason why tungsten is used as
filament of electric lamps.

16. What does an electric circuit means?

ANSWER: An electric circuit is a continuous and closed path of an electric current.
OR

A continuous and closed path consisting of conducting wires and other electrical components
along which an electric current flow is called an electric circuit.

17. Define the unit of current.

ANSWER: The SI unit of current is called an ampere (A).
If 1 coulomb charge flows through any cross-section of a conductor in 1
second, then the electric current flowing through the conductor is said to be 1 ampere.
1𝐶
i.e., 1 A = = 1C s-1
1𝑠
18. Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference across a conductor.
ANSWER: An electric cell or battery is a device that helps to maintain a potential difference
across a conductor.

19. How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 6 V battery?
ANSWER: Here the term, ‘each coulomb’ means ‘every 1 coulomb’. So Q = 1 coulomb,
potential difference V = 6 volt, Energy = work done, W = ?
Now, W = VQ
= 6V x 1 C

174
 =6J
Since the work done on each coulomb of charge is 6 J, 6 J energy is given to each
coulomb of charge passing through a 6V battery.

20. Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a thin wire of the same material,
when connected to the same source? Why?
ANSWER: The current will flow more easily through a thick wire than through a thin wire of
the same material and having the same length when connected to the same source.
• Because, the resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to its area of cross-section. A
thick wire has more area of cross-section and hence less resistance compared to a thin
wire provided the two wires have the same length.
• Hence, a current can flow more easily through a thick wire compared to a thin wire
when connected to the same source.

21. Let the resistance of an electrical component remains constant while the potential
difference across the two ends of the component decreases to half of its former value.
What change will occur in the current through it?
𝑉
ANSWER: According to Ohm’s law, I =
𝑅
Here, as R = constant, I ∝ V.
So, when the potential difference across the two ends of the electrical component
decreases to half of its former value, the current through it will also decreases to half of
its former value.

22. Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure
metal?
ANSWER: The coils of electrical heating devices such as electric toasters and electric irons
are made of an alloy. e.g., Nichrome rather than a pure metal because:
(1) the resistivity of an alloy e.g., Nichrome is much higher than that of its constituent
metals.
(2) alloys do not oxidise ( i.e., burn ) readily at high temperature ( i.e., when it is red hot
at 800O C )
(3) alloy has a high melting point.

175
23. Use the data in Table 12.2 to answer the following -
(a) Which among iron and mercury is a better conductor?
(b) Which material is the best conductor?
ANSWER: (a) The electrical resistivity of iron is 10.0 X 10-8 Ω m whereas that of mercury is
94.0 X 10-8 Ω m. As the resistivity of iron is less than that of mercury, iron (Fe) is a
better conductor than mercury (Hg).
(b) Silver metal has the lowest electrical resistivity of 1.60 X 10-8 Ωm, therefore
silver metal is the best conductor of electricity.

24.An electric iron of resistance 20 Ω takes a current of 5 A. Calculate the heat developed
in 30 s.
SOLUTION: Here, current I = 5 A,
Resistance R = 20 Ω, time t = 30 s
Now,
Heat produced H = I2Rt
= (5)2 X 20 X 30
= 25 X 20 X 30
= 15000 J
= 15 kJ
25. An electric motor takes 5 A from a 220 V line. Determine the power of the motor and
the energy consumed in 2 h.

176
26. When a 12 V battery is connected across an unknown resistor, there is a current 2.5
mA in the circuit. Find the value of the resistance of the resistor.
SOLUTION: Here, V = 12 V; I = 2.5mA = 2.5 X 10-3 A; R = ?
𝑉
The resistance of the resistor R =
𝐼
12
=
2.5 𝑋 10−3
= 4800 Ω
= 4.8 kΩ

27. A battery of 9 V is connected in series with resistors of 0.2 Ω, 0.3 Ω, 0.4 Ω, 0.5 Ω and
12 Ω respectively. How much current would flow through the 12 resistors?
SOLUTION: Since all the given resistors are connected in series, their equivalent resistance
Rs = 0.2 + 0.3 + 0.4 + 0.5 + 12 = 13.4 Ω
The current through the circuit,
𝑉 9
I= = = 0.67𝐴
𝑅𝑠 13.4
In a series combination, the same current I flows through all the resistors, so the current
flowing through 12Ω resistor = 0.67 A.

177
 28. An electric heater of resistance 8 Ω draws 15 A from the service mains for 2 hours.
Calculate the rate at which heat is developed in the heater.
ANSWER:
Here, I = 15 A ; R = 8 Ω ; t = 2 h
The rate at which heat is developed in the heater means its electric power,
P = I2R
𝐽
= (15)2 x 8 = 1800 W = 1800
𝑠

LESSON 13: MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC

CURRENT

1.Write the uses of electro magnet?

ANSWER : Uses of electromagnet :-
1. Electromagnets are used in electrical device such as an electric bell, an electric fan ,
telegraph, an electric train, an electric motor, generator, etc.
2. They are used for lifting and transporting large masses of iron in the form of girders.
3. They are used in medical practice for removing pieces of iron from wounds.

2.What is the principle of electric motor?

ANSWER : When a rectangular coil carrying a current is placed in a magnetic field, then forces,
equal in magnitude and opposite in direction, act on its two parallel sides, perpendicular to
their lengths, due to which the coil rotates continuosly.

3. What is an electric motor? State some uses of electric motor?

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ANSWER : An electric motor is a device that converts electrical energy into mechanical
energy.
Elevtric motor is used in electric fans, refrigerators, mixers , washing machines , computers,
MP3 players , etc .

4. State Fleming’s left-hand rule.

ANSWER : Fleming’s Left hand rule states that if we arrange our thumb, forefinger and middle
finger of the left hand right angles to each other, then the thumb points towards the direction
of the magnetic force, the forefinger points towards the direction of magnetic field and the
middle finger points towards the direction of current.

5. Difference between Direct current and Alternating current.

ANSWER : DC - (1) It flows only in one direction.
(2) Its production is expensive
AC - (1) Its direction is reversed at reguklar intervals of time.
(2) Its production is comparitively cheaper.

6.Difference between permanent magnet and electro magnet.

ANSWER :
Permanent magnet - (1) Its strength is fixed
(2) Its polarities are fixed.
Electro magnet - (1) Its strength can be changed by changing the current through the coil.
(2) Its polarities can be reversed by changing the direction of the current.

7. Name some devices in which electric motor is used?

ANSWER : Electric motors are used in electric fans, refrigerators, mixtures and grinders ,
washing machines , water pumps , coolers ,etc.

8. When does an electric short circuit occur?

ANSWER :
Listed below are two instances of when a short-circuit can occur:
• When too many appliances are connected to a single socket or when high power rating
appliances are connected to a light circuit, the resistance of the circuit becomes low as a
result the current flowing through the circuit becomes very high. This condition results in
a short-circuit.
• When live wires whose insulation have worn off come in contact with each other, the
current flowing in the circuit increases abruptly which results in a short circuit.

179
9. What is the function of an earth wire? Why is it necessary to earth metallic appliances?
ANSWER :
The metallic body of electric appliances is earthed by means of the earth wire. Any leakage of
electric wire is transferred to the ground by means of the earth wire. This prevents the user
of the electric appliance from getting electric shocks. This is the reason why it is important
for the metallic appliances to be earthed.

10. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.

Solution:
Magnetic field lines of a bar magnet emerge from the North Pole and terminate at the South
Pole as shown in the figure below.

11. List the properties of magnetic field lines.

Solution:
The properties of magnetic field lines are as follows:
• Magnetic field lines do not intersect with each other.
• They emerge from the North Pole and terminate at the South Pole.
• Inside the magnet, the direction of the field lines is from South Pole to North Pole.

12. What is the principle of an electric motor?

Solution:
The working principle of electric motor is based on the magnetic effect of current. A current
carrying conductor when placed in a magnetic field experiences force and rotates. The
direction of the rotation of the conductor can be determined by Fleming’s Left hand rule.

13. What is the role of split ring in an electric motor?

Solution:
Split ring plays the role of commutator in an electric motor. The commutator reverses the
direction of the current flowing through the coil after each half rotation of the coil. Due to this
reversal of current, the coil continues to rotate in the same direction.

14. Explain different ways to induce current in a coil.

Solution:
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Following are the different ways to induce current in a coil:
If the coil is moved rapidly between the two poles of horse shoe magnet, electric current is
induced in the coil.
When a magnet is moved relative to the coil, an electric current is induced in the coil.

15. State the principle of an electric generator.

Solution:
Electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction. In a generator,
electricity is generated by rotating a coil in the magnetic field.

16. Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuits and appliances.
Solution:
The safety measured commonly used in electric circuits are as follows:
(i) Fuse
Each circuit should be connected to a fuse because a fuse prevents the flow of excessive
current through the circuit. When the current in the circuit exceeds the maximum limit of
the fuse element, the fuse melts to stop the flow of current protecting the appliance
connected to circuit.
(ii) Earthing
Earthing protects the user from electric shocks. Any leakage of current in an appliance is
transferred to ground by earthing and the people using the appliance is prevented from
getting electrocuted.

17. What precaution should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits?
Solution:
A few of the precautions to be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits are
as follows:
• Connecting too many devices to a single socket should be avoided
• Using too many appliances at the same time should be avoided
• Faulty appliances should not be connected to the circuit

18. List two methods of producing magnetic fields.

Solution:
Following are the methods of producing magnetic fields:
• By using a permanent magnet we can produce magnetic field and it can be visualized by
spreading iron fillings on a white paper and keeping a magnet beneath the paper.
• A current carrying straight conductor produces magnetic field.
• Different types of conductors such as solenoid and circular loop can be used to see the
presence of magnetic field.
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 •
19. When is the force experienced by a current–carrying conductor placed in a magnetic
field largest?
Solution:
When the direction of the current is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field
is when the force experienced is the largest.

20. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if a bar
magnet is (i) pushed into the coil, (ii) withdrawn from inside the coil, (iii) held stationary
inside the coil?
Solution:
(i) When a bar magnet is pushed into the coil, current is induced in the coil momentarily as a
result the galvanometer deflects in a particular direction momentarily.
(ii) When the bar magnet is withdrawn from inside the coil, current is induced momentarily
but in the opposite direction and the galvanometer deflects in the opposite direction
momentarily.
(iii) When the bar magnet is held stationary inside the coil, no current will be induced as a
result there will be no deflection in the galvanometer.
21. State the rule to determine the direction of a (i) magnetic field produced around a
straight conductor-carrying current, (ii) force experienced by a current-carrying straight
conductor placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it, and (iii) current induced in
a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field.
Solution:
(i) The rule used to determine the direction of the magnetic field produced around a straight
conductor-carrying current is the Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule.
(ii) The rule used to determine the force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor
placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it is the Fleming’s left hand rule.
(iv) The rule used to determine the current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a
magnetic field is the Fleming’s right-hand rule.

22. The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw a diagram to represent it.
ANSWER: A uniform magnetic field in a given region can be represented by straight, parallel
equally spaced field lines.

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23. Name some sources of direct current.
ANSWER: Electrochemical dry cells, batteries, DC generators, solar cells, etc. are sources of
direct current (DC).

24. Which sources produce alternating current?

ANSWER: AC generators (or powerhouse generators), car alternators, bicycle dynamos are
sources of alternating current (AC).

25. Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet?
ANSWER: A compass needle is a small bar magnet with one north pole and the other
south pole. When a compass is brought near a bar magnet, compass needle gets
deflected due to the forces acting on its pole due to the magnetic field of the bar
magnet.

26. Why don’t two magnetic lines of force intersect each other?
ANSWER : The direction of the magnetic field B at a point is obtained by drawing a
tangent to the magnetic field line at that point.
• If two magnetic field lines intersect each other, it would mean that there are two
directions of the magnetic field at the point of intersection, which is not possible
because magnetic field is a vector, at a given point in space, it can have only one
direction. ( or the resultant force on a pole ( north/south ) at any point can only be in
one direction. )

27. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the table. Let the current pass
through the loop clockwise. Apply the right-hand nile to find out the direction of
the magnetic field inside and outside the loop.
ANSWER : Using the right-hand thumb rule, the direction of the magnetic field inside and
outside the circular loop of wire carrying an electric current can be found. This is
shown in the following figure :

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 • The dotted magnetic field lines are perpendicular to the plane of the paper.
• The front face of the loop behaves as the south pole and the back face, i.e., the face
touching the plane of the table behaves as the north pole.

28. Explain different ways to induce a current in a coil.

ANSWER: (1) A current can be induced in a coil by moving a magnet towards or away from it
or by moving the coil towards or away from the magnet.
(2) A current can be induced in a coil by changing the current in the coil placed near it.
(3) A current can be induced in a coil by moving a coil property ina non-uniform magnetic field
or by changing a magnetic field around steady coil by some means.
(4) A current can be induced in a coil by rotating it properly in a magnetic field or by rotating a
magnet properly placed near the coil.
29. An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated in a domestic electric circuit (220 V)
that has a current rating of 5 A. What result do you expect? Exp1ain.
ANSWER: The current drawn by this electric oven,
𝑃
I=
𝑉
2000𝑊
=
220 𝑉
= 9.09 A
Since the current rating of the circuit is 5 A, the fuse used in this circuit is only of 5 A
capacity.
Hence, when the oven is switched ON, the fuse wire ( rated 5 A ) will get heated too
much, melt and break the circuit. This will save the electric oven from getting damaged.
[ If fuse of current rating more than 9.09 A is used in the circuit or if no fuse has been put in
the circuit, there may be a fire. ]

30. Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. If the current in the coil A is
changed, will some current be induced in coil B? Give reason.
ANSWER: Yes, Current will be induced in coil B.
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Reason : When the current in coil A is changed, the magnetic field around it changes.
As the two circular coils ( with their planes parallel to each other ) are placed
close to each other, the magnetic field lines linked with coil B also change. Therefore,
some current is induced in coil B.

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