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TEST WEIGHTAGE AND PAPER PATTERN

B.Design
The selection process comprises a written examination comprising of a Creative Ability Test (CAT) and
General Ability Test (GAT), followed by a situation test to be undertaken by shortlisted candidates of
the written examination.

Test weightage
Programme Test Weightage
Bachelor of Design CAT (Creative Ability Test) 50%
GAT (General Ability Test) 30%
Situation Test 20%

Paper Pattern
Part Pattern Question No.s Marks Duration
I- CAT Subjective type 3 questions 100 3 hrs
(Observation &
design-based
questions)
S
D
II - GAT Objective Type, 100 questions 100 2 hrs
Multiple
BR

choice questions

Components of the General Ability Test (GAT)

Sections No of questions
Communication Ability 25
English comprehension 25
Quantitative Ability 20
Analytical Ability 15
General Knowledge & Current Affairs 15
Total 100

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NATIONAL INSTITUTE OF FASHION TECHNOLOGY

CREATIVE ABILITY TEST

TEST PAPER 1
BACHELOR OF DESIGN

TOTAL TIME: 3 HRS TOTAL MARKS: 100

Instructions for the candidate

 Read all the questions carefully

 You may attempt the test in any order you like
 Follow the instructions given by the invigilators/ Centre in charge.
 This test is administered to judge the skill, power of observation, innovation and design ability of the
candidate. An important aspect of the test is the candidate’s use of color and illustration.


There are 3 questions.
S
The aim of the test is to investigate the following abilities required to pursue a design course.
D
 Observation power
 An appreciation of form, color and shape
BR

 Verbal as well as non-verbal communication skills

 Innovative ways to look at and describe objects and environment
 Imaginative expression.

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Question No. 1 ( 30 Marks )

Draw a comic strip on one of the following situations given below:

A. If you meet your favorite cartoon character.
B. Your pet animal or bird starts talking in a human voice.
C. You time travel to the year 2100.

S
D
BR

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Question No. 2 (40 Marks )

Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the nation during the 78TH Independence Day
speech that it is India’s dream to host the 2036 Olympics. Design and draw a logo and a
mascot to represent the country in the Olympics 2036. Write a brief concept note about
your design.

S
D
BR

Logo Design Concept:

__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

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S
D
BR

Mascot Design Concept:

__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________

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Question No. 3 ( 30 Marks )

Design a utility product for a 10-year-old child by taking inspiration from one of the
following themes.
A. Animal
B. Insect
C. Bird

S
D
BR

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Direction (Q1-5): Answer the following questions based on the passage written below.

There was a time when Pete Sampras’s tally of 14 Grand Slam singles titles — the last of
which came at the U.S. Open in 2002 — seemed like the acme of sporting achievement in
men’s tennis. Little did anybody expect that in the next 16 years, across 64 Majors, not one
or two but three players would stand shoulder to shoulder with the American great. On
Sunday, Novak Djokovic became that third man, defeating Argentine Juan Martin del Potro,
for his third U.S. Open title at Flushing Meadows. The 31-year-old Serb has never been
considered a once-in-a-generation talent, as have Roger Federer and Rafael Nadal, the ones
above him in the trophy count. But nobody represents the modern-day game as well as
Djokovic. He is the ultimate practitioner of the attrition-based baseline tennis, and at his
best, with his supremely efficient patrolling of the court, is near invincible. Over two weeks
in New York he hit these high many times over. In fact, the 95-minute second set in the final
was a microcosm of Djokovic’s last two years. It was long and weary as fortunes swung back
and forth. But adversity energized him, and he found a level which his opponent couldn’t
match. Coming after his triumphant return at Wimbledon in July, the latest success is
evidence enough that technically, tactically and physically Djokovic is back to his best.
S
If it was about the restoration of the old order on the men’s side, it was the continuation
D
of the new in the women’s section. There has been a first-time winner in four of the past
six Grand Slam tournaments, and 20-year-old Naomi Osaka added to the eclectic mix by
BR

becoming the first Japanese to win a Major. In Serena Williams, the winner of 23 singles
Slams, the most by any player in the Open Era, Osaka faced the ultimate challenge. It was
also an inter-generational battle like none other. The 16-year age gap between Williams
and Osaka was the second biggest in the Open Era for a women’s final, next only to Monica
Seles (17) vs. Martina Navratilova (34) at the 1991 U.S. Open. To her immense credit, Osaka
wasn’t awed by the stage. While growing up, she had revered Williams. After all, this is
someone who chose Williams as her subject for a school essay in third grade. On Saturday
she played like she knew the 36-year-old’s game like the back of her hand, absorbing
everything the American threw at her, and redirecting them with much more panache. The
magnitude of her achievement was nearly drowned out by the chaos in the aftermath of
Williams’s tirade against the chair umpire. Yet, the manner in which Osaka, at an
impressionable young age, closed out the match with a cold relentlessness showed she is
here to stay.

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1. Consider the following statements.
I. The achievement of Novak Djokovic is not as good as that of Pete Sampras
because the competition was tougher at that time.
II. Nobody would ever think that the record set by Pete Sampras could be
broken by anybody in the years to come.
III. Novak Djokovic is not a very talented player but he can win the match
with his dedication and technique.
Which among the above statements is/ are true according to the passage?

A. Both I and III

B. Both II and III
C. Only III
D. Only II

2. S
Why is the success of Novak Djokovic considered as his statement that he is back
again in the court?
D
A. Novak Djokovic could not win many titles last year though he tried his best to
BR

win and at last lost with his injury torturing him all the time.
B. Novak Djokovic got married last year and everybody thought that marriage
would be the end of his professional tennis career.
C. Novak did not have enough resources at his disposal to practice to stay fit for
the highest level of tennis and that is why he was written off.
D. Novak tried his best but his luck has not always been with him regarding his
performance though he has always made his full-fledged efforts and this
victory has proved that he still has the stamina to make it big in the big stage.

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3. Which among the following is true regarding the women’s singles final in the US
Open in the year 2018?

A. The final carried forward the tradition that there are new talents coming up
in women’s singles in most of the grand slam tournaments in the last few
years.
B. The US Open Final was the ultimate test of form for the young Naomi Osaka
since she faced the biggest challenge of her life in Serena Williams.
C. The US Open Final was a battle between two generations since the age gap
between the two players was second highest in the history of the
tournament.
D. All A, B and C

4. Which among the following is true regarding Naomi Osaka that made everyone
believe that “she is here to stay”?

S
A. Naomi Osaka had a lot of backing from the international organizations and
everybody wants her to succeed at any cost.
D
B. Naomi Osaka is a rare talent and the International Tennis Federation wants
that she should be given all the facilities required.
BR

C. Naomi could keep her cool during a high voltage match against Serena
Williams and could win it showing her nerves.
D. Naomi is a special talent and she is from Asia where tennis is not given that
much importance.

5. Which among the following is similar in meaning to the word Eclectic as used in the
passage?

A. Single-handed
B. Heterogeneous
C. Laxity
D. Lacunae

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Direction (Q 6-13): Answer the following questions based on the passage written below.

Employment by a big company is, perhaps, the best job a young educated aspirant would
look forward to. Government jobs are preferred, in general, to private sector jobs. Large
companies are usually considered to be the best employers. A proxy for growth in
headcount would be the growth in what the companies spend on compensation to
employees. Growth in this would reflect a growth in the headcount and the growth in
wages paid. We find that this growth rate has been falling. CMIE’s Prowess database shows
a steady fall in the rate of growth of compensation paid by companies to employees since
2013-14. The database includes performance information on a large sample of listed and
unlisted companies of all sizes and industries. Compensation to employees grew by 25 per
cent in 2013-14. The growth rate halved to 12 per cent in 2014-15 and then it fell further
to 11 per cent in 2016-17. In 2017- 18, the growth rate fell to 8.4 per cent. From this, it
wouldn’t be entirely wrong to infer that the corporate sector’s appetite for new hiring has
been declining quite sharply. 2017-18 saw the slowest growth in the past eight years, or
since the year after the Lehman crisis of 2008 when the compensation to employees grew
by only 7.7 per cent. The Prowess database also shows that the corporate sector registered
S
a fall in growth in fixed assets to 6.9 per cent in 2017-18.
D
Growth of investments into the job-creating plant and machinery part of fixed assets was
BR

even lower at 5.9 per cent. Both were the lowest since 2004- 05. Evidently, the two declines
in growth rates — plant and machinery and wages go hand-in-hand. The lack of
investments into fresh capacities is hurting growth in employment. We see the same fall
in investments in another dataset — capex and the same fall in employment in yet another
dataset — the Consumer Pyramids Household Survey. The evidence of falling growth in
investments and employment during the recent past is therefore overwhelming. Some of
the growth in compensation to employees can be explained as a consequence of inflation
and given that inflation has been much lower in recent years compared to the past, it would
be good to correct the growth numbers for inflation. We do this using the consumer price
index for recent years and the consumer price index for industrial workers for earlier years.
Now we see inflation-adjusted compensation to employees grow by only 4.6 per cent in
2017-18. This is lower than the already-low average growth of 5.5 per cent seen in the
preceding three years. The average real compensation to employees grew at the rate of
5.3 per cent per annum in the four years between 2014-15 and 2017-18. The industry-wise
distribution of this growth in inflation-adjusted compensation to employees shows some
sharp variations between major sectors. The services sector has seen a very small growth

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in compensation to employees in 2017-18. Compared to the overall growth of 4.6 per cent,
the services sector saw a growth of only 2.2 per cent.

6. Which of the following statements is/are true according to the CMIE Prowess
dataset?

A. Rate of growth of compensation paid by companies to employees has

registered deceleration since 2013- 14.
B. Compensation to employees grew by 35 per cent in 2013-14.
C. Corporate sector’s appetite for new hiring has been enhancing.
D. Year 2014-15 witnessed the slowest growth rate in compensation to
employees since the Lehman crisis of 2008.

7. Which of the following words is nearly similar in meaning to 'proxy' as written in

bold? S
D
A. Subsidiary
B. Something used to represent something else
BR

C. Proximity
D. Prowl

8. Which part of speech is the word 'Sharp' given in bold in the passage?

A. Noun
B. Verb
C. Adverb
D. Adjective

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9. What does the sentence “the two declines in growth rates — plant and machinery
and wages go hand-in-hand” indicate?

A. Unless we invest in job creating fixed assets, capacity to absorb work force,
wages will not increase.
B. Reduced investments in fixed assets reduce overall company fixed costs.
C. Rate of investments in capital expenditure and compensation paid match
correspondingly.
D. Real growth rate is achieved by taking inflation into account as per RBI
estimates.

10. If the term 'Inflation adjusted compensation' as used in the passage implies
'compensation adjusted as per inflation', which of the following statements best
refers to the term in the intended context?

A. Social Security benefits are subject to cost-of-living adjustments based on

inflation. S
B. Inflation causes the purchasing power of workers that make the minimum
D
wage to decline over time.
C. Employers must adjust the wages they pay employees upward over time to
BR

ensure that employees are able to enjoy the same standard of living over time.
D. If the cost of hiring an additional worker exceeds the revenue that the new
worker will produce, the business will lose profit by hiring the new worker.

11. Growth in compensation in which of the following sectors was lower than the
overall growth in 2017-18?

A. Services Sector
B. CPI for Industrial Workers
C. Capital Goods Sector
D. Public Sector

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12. Which of the following can be the title of the passage?

A. Compensation crisis in Indian Markets

B. Steady slowdown in Indian Job Market
C. After effects of Lehman Crisis
D. Tepid corporate investments and economic growth post Lehman crisis

13. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

A. Services Sector
B. CPI for Industrial Workers
C. Capital Goods Sector
D. Public Sector

Direction (Q 14-20): Answer the following questions based on the passage written below.
S
The fear that Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Robots will automate many jobs has been
D
growing as technological change accelerates. Some studies have predicted that 40-50% of
US jobs could be automated in the next 20 years, and many people are worried that they
BR

could be forced into retirement.

The world has navigated a number of industrial revolutions in the past: First Industrial
Revolution - Steam & Mechanical Production - 1700s & 1800s, Second Industrial Revolution
- Electricity & Mass Production 1870 to 1914, Third Industrial Revolution - Digital Revolution
- 1980s, Fourth Industrial Revolution - AI, Robotics, Networks, Biotechnology, Internet of
Things – Today.

Each time many jobs were lost, but we created new ones and overall employment stayed
high after the initial disruption. But this time it feels different partly due to the fact that real
wage growth has been low to flat for many people meaning their standard of living isn’t
rising. As we’ve become more productive through automation and globalization the share
of GDP that goes to labor has fallen, while the share to capital has risen. Basically, it’s better
to be an investor rather than a worker - unless you have special skills.

Is the fear overblown? Some experts say yes. I spoke with Ken Goldberg, a UC Berkeley
Robotics Professor and Eric Brewer, a VP at Google and UC Berkeley Computer Science
Professor about AI Automation and the Future of Work on a recent podcast. Both felt that
the fears around AI and Robotics destroying jobs or worse leading to the Singularity where
AI takes over are overblown. The Singularity is a term promoted by Ray Kurzweil which
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predicts that based on Moore’s law and the doubling of computing power per dollar every
few years that: by 2023 a $1,000 computer will have the processing power of 1 human
brain; by 2030 the Singularity will occur and runaway AI will emerge; by 2050 a $1,000
computer will have the processing power of all human brains.

Both Professors feel that predictions like self-driving cars will take much longer to play out,
and that while some industries may face big disruptions. The jobs that get automated will
be the boring mundane jobs which will be replaced by more interesting, creative jobs.

Ken Goldberg in particular believes “Rather than worrying about an impending Singularity,
consider instead the concept of Multiplicity: where diverse combinations of people and
machines work together to solve problems and innovate.” They are both hopeful for the
future where we all learn new skills faster and live more diverse rich lives. Eric Brewer
shared “I feel like our kids will grow up in a generation that expects that they can do
whatever they want at any time. That’s super empowering.”

S
D
14. Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to the passage?
I. The fourth industrial revolution brought the digital universe to our
BR

doorstep.
II. Robotics and A.I. are likely to lead to the laying off of many skilled
workers.
III. 40-50% of jobs in the US could be automated in the next 20 years due to
automation.

A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. Only I and II

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15. Which of the following statements is/are not true with respect to the passage?
I. With each industrial revolution, many jobs were lost, but new types of
jobs also came into being.
II. In the present time, wages of many workers have been going downhill in
many cases.
III. With the advent of A.I. and faster internet connections, self-driving cars
have become a reality.

A. Only I
B. Only III
C. Only I and II
D. Only II and III

16. Which of the following statements is/are not true with respect to the passage?
I. At present a $1000 computer has processing powers far superior to that
of a human brain.
II. Due to globalization and automation the share to capital has gone up

III.
S
though, the share of GDP that goes to labor has fallen.
The job crisis caused by the fourth industrial revolution is very similar to
D
that of previous industrial revolutions.
BR

A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. Only I and III
17. Identify the words that are similar in meaning to the word given below. The options
do not necessarily need to be grammatically correct. PODCAST

A. News broadcast on television

B. A ceremony where people debate with each other
C. A digital audio file made available on the Internet, typically available as a
series
D. A seminar where scholars discuss current issues of international importance

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18. Identify the words that are opposite in meaning to the word given below. The
options do not necessarily need to be grammatically correct.
MUNDANE

A. Tedious
B. Monotonous
C. Clichéd
D. Exhilarating

19. Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to the passage?
I. Being an investor is better than being a worker now-a-day.
II. Humans and AI cannot co-exit; AI is expected to take over control from
the humans in future.
III. Humans have become more productive with the help of robotics and AI.

A. Only Ii
B. Only III
C. Only I and II
D. Only I and III

20.
S
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage regarding
D
“Singularity”?
BR

A. Singularity denotes the shift in evolution when humans become a super-

intelligent species.
B. Singularity denotes that growth in A.I. intelligence, when the AI can think for
themselves without the need for human control.
C. Singularity denotes that phase of life when AI takes away all human jobs.
D. Singularity will occur when the processing power of a $1000 computer
surpasses the processing power of a human brain.

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Directions (Q 21-22): In questions below, statement consisting of two blanks. You have to
choose the option which provides the correct set of words that fits both the blanks in the
statement appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and
grammatically correct.

21. A ___________ driver was arrested yesterday on a drunk driving __________ on

the Delhi-Chandigarh Highway.

A. headstrong, arraign
B. lazy, impeach
C. inactive, headlong
D. sleepy, charge

22. Forced __________ is when political parties hire PR agencies which ___________
employ social media ‘influencers’ who release the same tweets with the hashtag at
a high intensity.

A. trending, further
S
D
B. trading, more
C. hover, advance
BR

D. shot, progress

Directions (Q 23-25): For each of the following question four alternatives are given. You
are required to choose the correct meaning of the idiom or phrase given in question.

23. Spill the beans

A. To tell people about someone’s secrets

B. As a low priority
C. Everyone gets a chance eventually
D. Once in a life-time

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24. To feel blue

A. To work hard and stay up very late night

B. To feel very sad
C. To have faith in God
D. To commit a blunder

25. No strings attached

A. An agreement without conditions

B. Enjoy different opportunities at a single time
C. To be judged as acceptable
D. Worried for frivolous things

Directions (Q 26-29): In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given.
These are numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D) in alternatives given below. One these words
S
printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt.
D
BR

26. Poor posture can lead to muscular problems in later life.

A. posture
B. lead
C. muscular
D. problems

27. The pump shut off as a result of a mechanical failure.

A. pump
B. off
C. result
D. mechanical

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28. The principal gave a very pompous speach about ‘The portals of learning’.

A. Principal
B. pompous
C. speach
D. ‘The portals of learning’

29. Copeing with her mother’s long illness was a heavy load to bear.

A. Copeing
B. illness
C. load
D. bear

Directions (Q30-32): In each of the questions below, a sentence is given with one word
highlighted in bold. From the given options, identify the sentence which expresses a
S
meaning opposite to the given sentence, with the highlighted word replaced by a word
of the opposite meaning.
D
BR

30. The majority held that the devotees of Lord Ayyappa do not constitute a separate
religious denomination.

A. The majority held that the devotees of Lord Ayyappa do not constitute a
disembodied religious denomination.
B. The majority held that the devotees of Lord Ayyappa do not constitute a
united religious denomination.
C. The majority held that the devotees of Lord Ayyappa do not constitute a
divided religious denomination.
D. The majority held that the devotees of Lord Ayyappa do not constitute a
sovereign religious denomination.

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31. They have removed provisions related to adultery in the Indian Penal Code and the
Code of Criminal Procedure.

A. They have abolished provisions related to adultery in the Indian Penal Code
and the Code of Criminal Procedure.
B. They have eliminated provisions related to adultery in the Indian Penal Code
and the Code of Criminal Procedure.
C. They have incorporated provisions related to adultery in the Indian Penal Code
and the Code of Criminal Procedure.
D. They have excluded provisions related to adultery in the Indian Penal Code and
the Code of Criminal Procedure.

32. A more robust approach in addressing the widening CAD would be to institute wide-
ranging measures to boost exports.

A. A more robust approach in addressing the widening CAD would be to institute

S
wide-ranging measures to impede exports.
B. A more robust approach in addressing the widening CAD would be to institute
D
wide-ranging measures to progress exports.
C. A more robust approach in addressing the widening CAD would be to institute
BR

wide-ranging measures to magnify exports.

D. A more robust approach in addressing the widening CAD would be to institute
wide-ranging measures to uplift exports.

Directions (Q33-35): Each question has 4 alternatives. Select the correct alternative which
is most similar to the word given in the question.

33. Lethargy

A. Serenity
B. Impassivity
C. Laxity
D. Listlessness

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34. Prognosis

A. Scheme
B. Forecast
C. Preface
D. Identification

35. Contract

A. Tract
B. Expand
C. Give
D. Abridge

Directions (Q36-38): Each question has 4 alternatives. Select the correct alternative which
is opposite to the word given in the question.

36. Outwit

A. Laugh
S
D
B. Defeat
C. Victory
BR

D. Win

37. Dull

A. Wise
B. Shining
C. Colorful
D. Pale

38. Alleviation

A. Aggravation
B. Lessening
C. Magnification
D. Intensify

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Direction (Q 39-40): In the following One-word Substitution questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

39. One who talks while asleep is called

A. Somnambulist.
B. Somniloquist.
C. Somniferous.
D. Sleeptalker.

40. Philatelist is one who

A. Does not care for art and literature.

B. Likes to have a short sexual relationship with many women.
C. Loves mankind.
D. Collects stamps.

41.
S
What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?).
D
10303.88 ÷ 55.94 + 62.95 = ?
BR

A. 270
B. 250
C. 220
D. 200

42. The simple interest on a sum of money will be Rs. 200 after 5 yr. In the next 5-year,
principal is tripled. What will be the total interest at the end of the 10th year?

A. Rs. 650
B. Rs. 850
C. Rs. 800
D. None of these

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43. A boat takes 19 hours for travelling downstream from point A to Point B and coming
back to a Point C midway between A and B. If the velocity of the stream is 4 kmph
and the speed of the boat in still water is 12 kmph, what is the distance between A
and B?

A. 160 km
B. 152 km
C. 200 km
D. 220 km

44. In Ashish’s opinion, his weight is greater than 55 kg but less than 62 kg. His father
does not agree with Ashish and he thinks that Ashish’s weight is greater than 50 kg
but less than 60 kg. His sister’s view is that his weight can't be greater than 58 kg. If
all of them are correct in their estimation, what is the average of different probable
weights of Ashish?

A. 56.5 kg
S
D
B. 68 kg
C. 69 kg
BR

D. Data inadequate

45. The present ages of three colleagues are in proportions 3 : 5 : 7. Four years ago, the
sum of their ages was 48. find their present ages (in years)?

A. 12, 20 and 28 years

B. 13, 15 and 23 years
C. 11, 16 and 19 years
D. 20, 24 and 27 years

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46. From a box containing 8 yellow and 5 white pens, three are drawn one after the
other. 3. Find the probability of all three pens being yellow if the pens drawn are not
replaced?

336
A.
1716
128
B.
429
113
C.
1716
336
D.
2197

47. A and B together can do a work in 10 days. B and C together can do the same work
in 6 days. A and C together can-do work in 12 days. Then A, B and C together can do
the work in S
D
5
A. 28 days
6
2
BR

B. 14 days
7
5
C. 5 days
7
D. 8 days

48. Find a number such that when 15 is subtracted from 7 times the number, the result
is 10 more than twice the number.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

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49. If the sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find the absolute
difference between the numbers.

A. 12
B. 8
C. 6
D. 4

50. Two trains, A and B start from the stations X and Y towards each other. They take 4
hours 48 mins and 3 hours 20 mins to reach Y and X respectively after they meet. If
train A is moving at 45 km/hr, then find the speed of train B.

A. 60 km/hr
B. 64.8 km/hr
C. 54 km/hr
D. 37.5 km/hr

51. 2–[2–{2–2(2+2)}]=?
S
D
A. -4
BR

B. 4
C. 6
D. -6

52. 3
of 168 × 15 ÷ 5 + ? = 549 ÷ 9 + 235
8

A. 107
B. 170
C. 296
D. 275

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53. P starts business with Rs.4500 and after 9 months, Q joins with P as his partner. After
a year, the profit divided in the 3 : 5. What is Q's contribution in the capital?

A. Rs. 5,000
B. Rs. 10,000
C. Rs. 20,000
D. Rs. 30,000

54. The distance between two places A and B is 370 km. the 1st car departs from place
A to B, at a speed of 80 kmph at 10 am and 2nd car departs from place B to A at a
speed of 50 kmph at 1 pm. At what time both cars meet each other?

A. 2 : 30 pm
B. 2 : 00 pm
C. 2 : 10 pm
D. 2 : 20 pm

55.
S
A sold an article with 10% loss on the cost price. He bought the article at a discount
D
of 20% on the labelled price. What would have been the percentage loss had he
bought it at the labelled price?
BR

A. 34%
B. 18%
C. 28%
D. 16%

56. In an examination, 30% of the total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English and
20% failed in both the subjects. Find the percentage of those who passed in both
subjects.

A. 35.7%
B. 35%
C. 40%
D. 45%

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57. Irfan borrows a sum of Rs. 64000 at 5% pa compound interest. He repays a certain
amount at the end of one year and the balance amount of Rs. 35700 at the end of
the second year. What amount does he repay in the first year?

A. Rs. 33200
B. Rs. 34000
C. Rs. 37200
D. Rs. 36400

58. The total number of students in a school is 2140. If the number of girls in the school
is 1200, then what is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total
number of girls in the school?

A. 26 : 25
B. 47 : 60
C. 18 : 13
D. 31 : 79 S
D
59. A shopkeeper deals in milk and 45 litre mixture is to be distributed in Milk & Water
in the ratio of 4 : 1. If 4 litre milk & 3 litre water will be added in the mixture then
BR

what will be the new ratio of water and milk?

A. 5:6
B. 3 : 10
C. 4:5
D. 7:8

60. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 25% and the breadth is reduced by 33.33%
then what will be the effect on its diagonal(approximately)?

A. 7.6%
B. 8.33%
C. 6%
D. 7.33%

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61. Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. B is
third to the right of A who is third to the right of C. F is second to the right of E who
is not an immediate neighbor of B. D sits second to the left of H who sits second to
the left of G.

What is the position of H with respect of F?

A. Third to the left

B. Second to the left
C. Second to the right
D. Third to the right

62. Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given beside.
678998797789787696897798976687

How many such digits are there in the given series each of which when subtracted
from the following digit, gives 1 as resultant?

A. Three
S
D
B. Four
C. None
D. More than four
BR

63. Looking at a picture of a boy, Hemant said, “His mother is the wife of my father’s son.
Brothers and sisters, I have none.” At whose picture was Hemant looking?

A. His son
B. His cousin
C. His uncle
D. His nephew

64. One day Ravi left home and cycled 10 km south wards, turned right and cycled 5 km
and turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. how many
kilometers will he have to cycle to reach his home straight?

A. 10 km
B. 15 km
C. 20 km
D. 25 km

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65. Which word will come in the first if all of them are arranged alphabetically as in a
dictionary?

A. Grind
B. Growth
C. Great
D. Grease

66. In a certain code PAUSE is written as OBVTD and SHIFT is written as RIJGS. How will
THINK be written in the same code?

A. SIJOL
B. SIJMJ
C. SIJOJ
D. SIJQJ

67. If 'black' means 'pink', 'pink' means 'blue' , ''blue' means 'white', 'white' means
S
'yellow', 'yellow' means 'red' and 'red' means 'brown', then what is colour of clear
sky ?
D
A. Brown
BR

B. White
C. Blue
D. Pink

68. Following questions are based on the six three-digit numbers given below:
428, 548, 943, 297, 567, 459

If 2 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the numbers how many numbers thus
formed will be divisible by 3?

A. Only one
B. Two
C. More than three
D. Four

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69. Five persons – Ankit, Anant, Ankur, Anup and Anwar, each earns a different amount
of money. Who among these persons earns second highest?
Statement I: Only Ankur earns more than Anant.
Statement II: Anup and Anwar earn less than Ankit.

A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
D. If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.

70. Statements: Some papers are books. All papers are words.
Conclusions:
S
I. All words being books is a possibility.
II. Some words are not papers.
D
A. If only conclusion I follows
BR

B. if only conclusion II follows

C. If either conclusion I or II follows
D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows

71. Six books – English, Hindi, Science, Computer, Maths, and Sanskrit each contains
different number of pages. Computer book contains fewer pages than only two
books. English book contains more pages than Science book but less than Sanskrit
book. Science book does not contain least pages. Sanskrit book contains fewer pages
than Hindi book

How many book(s) contain more pages than Science book?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

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72. In the following question, there is a certain relationship between two given words on
one side of ‘::’ and one word is given on another side ‘::’ while another word is to be
found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the
words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative.

Bird : Chirp : : Horse : ?

A. Bray
B. Neigh
C. Race
D. Stable

73. Find the wrong term in the given series:

7, 8, 20, 69, 290, 1485, 8946

A.
B.
8
69
S
D
C. 290
D. 1485
BR

74. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
AM , BO , DR , ?

A. HV
B. GV
C. HT
D. VI

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75. Study the following questions carefully and choose the right answer.
Statement: there has been a significant drop in the water level of ll the lakes
supplying water to the city.
Course of action:
I. The water supply authority should impose a partial cut in supply tackle the
situation.
II. The government should appeal to all the residents through mass media for
minimal use of water.

A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Wither I or II follows.
D. Both I and II follow

76. Hemis National Park a high-altitude national park located in Jammu& Kashmir is
famous for

A. Swamp Deer
S
D
B. Asiatic Lion
C. Snow Leopards
BR

D. Elephants

77. City of Patna is located on the banks of which river?

A. Krishna
B. Ganga
C. Narmada
D. Koshi
78. Which of the following Heritage site is located in state of Madhya Pradesh?

A. Mahabodhi Temple
B. Group of Monuments at Pattadokal
C. Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park
D. Khajuraho Group of Monuments

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79. Which of the following is the Folk dance form of Maharashtra?
i). Katha Kirtan
ii). Tamasha
iii). Lavani

A. Only i and iii

B. Only ii and iii
C. Only i & ii
D. All of the Above

80. World Environment Day is celebrated on which of the following dates?

A. 4th June
B. 5th June
C. 6th June
D. 7th June
S
D
81. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport is situated at which of the following city?
BR

A. Aurangabad
B. Hyderabad
C. Mizoram
D. Bengaluru

82. World’s largest Solar Park Kurnool Ultra Mega Solar Park is located in which of the
following Indian state?

A. Telangana
B. Assam
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Haryana

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83. Salt Lake Stadium is situated in which of the following Indian city?

A. Kolkata
B. Siliguri
C. Durgapur
D. Chandigarh

84. Asian Development Bank is headquartered in which of the following countries?

A. North Korea
B. Philippines
C. China
D. Japan

85. Marathi newspaper ‘Kesari’ was edited by which of the following freedom fighter?

A.
B.
Lala Lajpat Rai
Balgangadhar Tilak
S
D
C. Chitta Ranjan Das
D. Sarojini Naidu
BR

86. Olympics 2028 will be hosted by which of the following cities?

A. Tokyo
B. Paris
C. Brisbane
D. Los Angeles

87. Who became the first athlete from India, who won 2 medals in a single Olympics in
year 2024?

A. Manu Bhaker
B. Neeraj Chopra
C. P. V. Sindhu
D. Vinesh Phogat

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88. A scheme launched by Indian government related to the pensioners in month of
august. What is the name of the scheme?

A. Union pension scheme

B. Unified pension scheme
C. United payment system
D. Union pension system

89. Who among the following is awarded with Bharath Ratna in year 2024?

A. Atal Bihari Bajpayee

B. Bhupen Hazarika
C. Sachin Tendulkar
D. M. S. Swaminathan

90. Which among the following city is known for its lakes?

A. Varanasi
B. Nainital
C.
D.
Bengaluru
Rameshwaram
S
D
91. Which of the following brands/products are not associated with the Titan Company?
BR

A. Jaypore
B. Zoopla
C. Raga
D. Fastrack

92. Who among the following is consider as the founder of Gupta empire?

A. Chandragupta I
B. Sri Gupta
C. Kumar Gupta
D. Samudra Gupta

93. Who had been invited as the guest for Republic Day celebration in year 2024?

A. Emanuel Macron
B. Joe Biden
C. Shigeru Ishiba
D. None of these
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94. Famous luxurious brand Balenciaga is originated from which country?

A. Italy
B. Spain
C. France
D. United Kingdom

95. Who among the following is not crowned as Miss Universe?

A. Sushmita Sen
B. Lara Dutta
C. Priyanka Chopra
D. Harnaaz Sandhu

96. Who is the current speaker of lower house of parliament?

A. Jagdeep Dhankar
B. Rahul Gandhi
C. Om Prakash Birla
D. Kiran Rijiju
S
D
97. ‘Irani Trophy’ is associated with which sport?
BR

A. Football
B. Hockey
C. Badminton
D. Cricket

98. Who among the following is consider as the father of modern computer?

A. Charles Darwin
B. Charles Babbage
C. Alan Turing
D. None of the above

99. Asia’s largest lake of fresh water is located in which of the following country?

A. India
B. China
C. Nepal
D. Japan

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100. ‘Kailasha Temple’ is situated in which Indian state?

A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Maharashtra
D. Uttarakhand

S
D
BR

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