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HPCL Answer Key

The document outlines the details of a test taken by participant Ruchita Manoj Sahare at iON Digital Zone on August 16, 2025, focusing on English language skills. It includes various questions related to sentence arrangement, spelling corrections, synonyms, antonyms, and comprehension passages about Career Labs. The emphasis is on the importance of adaptability and hands-on experiences provided by Career Labs in contrast to traditional career counseling.

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Ruchita Sahare
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© © All Rights Reserved
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
42 views61 pages

HPCL Answer Key

The document outlines the details of a test taken by participant Ruchita Manoj Sahare at iON Digital Zone on August 16, 2025, focusing on English language skills. It includes various questions related to sentence arrangement, spelling corrections, synonyms, antonyms, and comprehension passages about Career Labs. The emphasis is on the importance of adaptability and hands-on experiences provided by Career Labs in contrast to traditional career counseling.

Uploaded by

Ruchita Sahare
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Participant ID 256089120075

Participant
RUCHITA MANOJ SAHARE
Name
Test Center iON Digital Zone iDZ 3 Wadi MIDC Techgressor Soft
Name Solutions Pvt. Ltd. Nagpur
Test Date 16/08/2025
Test Time 2:00 PM - 4:30 PM
Subject Mechanical Engineer

Section : English Language

Q.1 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. The male speaker began to read, but kept glancing up from the book.
B. Her golden ringlets bent forward as she helped him with his lesson.
C. I envied him for the chance I had foolishly thrown away.
D. His companion stood behind him, correcting him with a playful slap when distracted.
Ans A. BCDA

B. ADCB

C. BACD

D. ADBC

Question ID : 441009383428
Option 1 ID : 4410091499274
Option 2 ID : 4410091499273
Option 3 ID : 4410091499272
Option 4 ID : 4410091499275
Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : A

Q.2 Identify the word in the given sentence that contains a spelling error and select the option that
rectifies this error.

She threw down her pipe and bustled in, the girl followed, and I entered too; soon percceiving
that her report was true, and, moreover, that I had almost upset her wits by my unwelcome
apparition, I bade her be composed.
Ans A. apparition - apparitione

B. percceiving - perceiving

C. moreover - morover

D. bade - bede

Question ID : 441009383830
Option 1 ID : 4410091500956
Option 2 ID : 4410091500954
Option 3 ID : 4410091500955
Option 4 ID : 4410091500957
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.3 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. Though the day had faded, the scene remained bathed in amber and silver light.
B. The moon now lit my path so clearly that every stone and blade of grass stood out in sharp
detail.
C. As I neared the gate, it yielded to my hand—an unexpected improvement from earlier visits.
D. Meanwhile, a faint scent of stocks and wallflowers drifted through the air, lending a gentle
charm to the night.
Ans A. CBAD

B. BADC

C. ADBC

D. DCBA

Question ID : 441009383438
Option 1 ID : 4410091499312
Option 2 ID : 4410091499314
Option 3 ID : 4410091499313
Option 4 ID : 4410091499315
Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : A

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the highlighted word in the given sentence.

His puerile comments during the meeting undermined the seriousness of the discussion.
Ans A. Astute

B. Juvenile

C. Profound

D. Sincere

Question ID : 441009387521
Option 1 ID : 4410091515701
Option 2 ID : 4410091515698
Option 3 ID : 4410091515699
Option 4 ID : 4410091515700
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.5 The following sentence may contain an incorrect or awkward use of a conjunction. Select the
option that best corrects the sentence. Select 'No correction needed' if the sentence is already
correct.

Catherine wanted to stay with Edgar, yet she longed for the wildness and freedom she had
shared with Heathcliff, or she never said it aloud.
Ans A. freedom she had shared with Heathcliff, unless she never said it aloud

B. freedom she had shared with Heathcliff, because she never said it aloud

C. No correction needed

D. freedom she had shared with Heathcliff, but she never said it aloud

Question ID : 441009383400
Option 1 ID : 4410091499158
Option 2 ID : 4410091499157
Option 3 ID : 4410091499159
Option 4 ID : 4410091499156
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the highlighted word in the given sentence.

His temerity in questioning the board's decision shocked even the most seasoned employees.
Ans A. Audacity

B. Cowardice

C. Rashness

D. Boldness

Question ID : 441009387331
Option 1 ID : 4410091514942
Option 2 ID : 4410091514943
Option 3 ID : 4410091514945
Option 4 ID : 4410091514944
Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : B

Q.7 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.

She entered the room with a calm and graceful way of moving, unlike the stormy mood
outside.
Ans A. poise

B. hesitation

C. speed

D. lightness

Question ID : 441009383487
Option 1 ID : 4410091499524
Option 2 ID : 4410091499526
Option 3 ID : 4410091499525
Option 4 ID : 4410091499527
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.8 Select the most appropriate idiom to substitute the highlighted segment in the given sentence.

When the board questioned his loyalty, he immediately became angry and defensive, refusing
to explain himself.
Ans A. jumped down their throats

B. took the bull by the horns

C. drew the line

D. pulled up his socks

Question ID : 441009387298
Option 1 ID : 4410091514810
Option 2 ID : 4410091514812
Option 3 ID : 4410091514813
Option 4 ID : 4410091514811
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.9 The given sentence contains an incorrect or awkward use of a conjunction. Choose the option
that best corrects the sentence. Select 'No correction needed' if the sentence is already
correct.

Heathcliff returned to Wuthering Heights not only wealthier but also with a quiet, hardened
demeanour.
Ans A. not only wealthier but also more bitter

B. not only wealthier but also appeared different

C. not only wealthier and also

D. No correction needed

Question ID : 441009383406
Option 1 ID : 4410091499181
Option 2 ID : 4410091499182
Option 3 ID : 4410091499180
Option 4 ID : 4410091499183
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.10 Identify the word in the given sentence that contains a spelling error and select the option that
rectifies this error.

His honest, warm, and intelligent nature shook off rapidly the clouds of ignorance and
degredation in which it had been bred; and Catherine’s sincere commendations acted as a spur
to his industry.
Ans A. ignorance- ingorance

B. degredation- degradation

C. intelligent- inteligent

D. commendations- commendatiuns

Question ID : 441009383826
Option 1 ID : 4410091500939
Option 2 ID : 4410091500940
Option 3 ID : 4410091500938
Option 4 ID : 4410091500941
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.11 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.

Heathcliff's eyes burned with the intensity of someone who would stop at nothing, as though
he had made a firm decision to pursue something despite obstacles.
Ans A. decided

B. persevered

C. schemed

D. resolved

Question ID : 441009383468
Option 1 ID : 4410091499442
Option 2 ID : 4410091499443
Option 3 ID : 4410091499440
Option 4 ID : 4410091499441
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Q.12 Select the most appropriate proverb to substitute the highlighted segment in the given
sentence.

He continued working on the invention, even though nobody believed in it, because he believed
that eventually, every persistent effort bears some fruit.
Ans A. even a broken clock is right twice a day

B. a rising tide lifts all boats

C. constant dripping wears away the stone

D. birds of a feather flock together

Question ID : 441009387304
Option 1 ID : 4410091514835
Option 2 ID : 4410091514834
Option 3 ID : 4410091514836
Option 4 ID : 4410091514837
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.13 Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank. If no article is needed, select 'No article
required'.

The candle-wick reclined on one of the antique volumes and perfumed the place with ______
odour of roasted calf-skin.
Ans A. the

B. No article required

C. an

D. a

Question ID : 441009383378
Option 1 ID : 4410091499070
Option 2 ID : 4410091499071
Option 3 ID : 4410091499069
Option 4 ID : 4410091499068
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

In today’s fast-evolving professional landscape, a Career Lab serves as a vital resource for
students and professionals seeking clarity and direction in their career paths. Unlike traditional
career counselling, which often focuses on general advice, Career Labs provide hands-on
experiences, skill assessments and personalised guidance tailored to individual aspirations
and market trends. A Career Lab typically integrates various tools, such as psychometric tests,
workshops on resume buildings, interview simulations and networking opportunities with
industry experts. This multifaceted approach equips individuals not only with knowledge about
different professions but also with practical skills necessary for job acquisition and career
growth. One significant advantage of Career Labs is their emphasis on adaptability. Given the
rapid changes in technology and job requirements, Career Labs encourage continuous learning
and skill upgrading. They help participants recognise transferable skills that can open doors to
new fields, fostering resilience in uncertain job markets. However, the effectiveness of Career
Labs depends on their ability to stay updated with current industry demands and to customise
guidance accordingly. Labs that merely offer static information without real-time relevance risk
becoming obsolete. Therefore, a successful Career Lab combines dynamic content delivery
with mentorship and feedback mechanisms, empowering individuals to make informed
decisions. In sum, Career Labs act as dynamic platforms that bridge the gap between
academic learning and professional realities. By fostering self-awareness and practical skills,
they enhance employability and prepare individuals for sustained career success.

SubQuestion No : 14
Q.14 Which aspect primarily differentiates Career Labs from traditional career counselling?
Ans A. They offer personalised, practical experiences aligned with market trends.

B. They rely on static information without real-time updates.

C. They focus solely on academic performance assessments.

D. They provide generic career advice applicable to all fields.

Question ID : 441009391593
Option 1 ID : 4410091531916
Option 2 ID : 4410091531918
Option 3 ID : 4410091531917
Option 4 ID : 4410091531915
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

In today’s fast-evolving professional landscape, a Career Lab serves as a vital resource for
students and professionals seeking clarity and direction in their career paths. Unlike traditional
career counselling, which often focuses on general advice, Career Labs provide hands-on
experiences, skill assessments and personalised guidance tailored to individual aspirations
and market trends. A Career Lab typically integrates various tools, such as psychometric tests,
workshops on resume buildings, interview simulations and networking opportunities with
industry experts. This multifaceted approach equips individuals not only with knowledge about
different professions but also with practical skills necessary for job acquisition and career
growth. One significant advantage of Career Labs is their emphasis on adaptability. Given the
rapid changes in technology and job requirements, Career Labs encourage continuous learning
and skill upgrading. They help participants recognise transferable skills that can open doors to
new fields, fostering resilience in uncertain job markets. However, the effectiveness of Career
Labs depends on their ability to stay updated with current industry demands and to customise
guidance accordingly. Labs that merely offer static information without real-time relevance risk
becoming obsolete. Therefore, a successful Career Lab combines dynamic content delivery
with mentorship and feedback mechanisms, empowering individuals to make informed
decisions. In sum, Career Labs act as dynamic platforms that bridge the gap between
academic learning and professional realities. By fostering self-awareness and practical skills,
they enhance employability and prepare individuals for sustained career success.

SubQuestion No : 15
Q.15 What is the implied importance of adaptability in the context of Career Labs?
Ans A. It enables participants to reject all new skills in favour of expertise in one field.

B. It fosters resilience by helping individuals apply skills across different industries.

C. It ensures that Career Labs remain irrelevant in changing job markets.

D. It discourages continuous learning to maintain a focus on core competencies.

Question ID : 441009391594
Option 1 ID : 4410091531919
Option 2 ID : 4410091531921
Option 3 ID : 4410091531920
Option 4 ID : 4410091531922
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

In today’s fast-evolving professional landscape, a Career Lab serves as a vital resource for
students and professionals seeking clarity and direction in their career paths. Unlike traditional
career counselling, which often focuses on general advice, Career Labs provide hands-on
experiences, skill assessments and personalised guidance tailored to individual aspirations
and market trends. A Career Lab typically integrates various tools, such as psychometric tests,
workshops on resume buildings, interview simulations and networking opportunities with
industry experts. This multifaceted approach equips individuals not only with knowledge about
different professions but also with practical skills necessary for job acquisition and career
growth. One significant advantage of Career Labs is their emphasis on adaptability. Given the
rapid changes in technology and job requirements, Career Labs encourage continuous learning
and skill upgrading. They help participants recognise transferable skills that can open doors to
new fields, fostering resilience in uncertain job markets. However, the effectiveness of Career
Labs depends on their ability to stay updated with current industry demands and to customise
guidance accordingly. Labs that merely offer static information without real-time relevance risk
becoming obsolete. Therefore, a successful Career Lab combines dynamic content delivery
with mentorship and feedback mechanisms, empowering individuals to make informed
decisions. In sum, Career Labs act as dynamic platforms that bridge the gap between
academic learning and professional realities. By fostering self-awareness and practical skills,
they enhance employability and prepare individuals for sustained career success.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate title for the passage.
Ans A. Bridging the Gap Between Education and Employment

B. The Role of Adaptability in Job Searching

C. Skill Development through Career Lab Programmes

D. Traditional Career Counselling Methods: An Overview

Question ID : 441009391595
Option 1 ID : 4410091531923
Option 2 ID : 4410091531925
Option 3 ID : 4410091531926
Option 4 ID : 4410091531924
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Comprehension:
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

In today’s fast-evolving professional landscape, a Career Lab serves as a vital resource for
students and professionals seeking clarity and direction in their career paths. Unlike traditional
career counselling, which often focuses on general advice, Career Labs provide hands-on
experiences, skill assessments and personalised guidance tailored to individual aspirations
and market trends. A Career Lab typically integrates various tools, such as psychometric tests,
workshops on resume buildings, interview simulations and networking opportunities with
industry experts. This multifaceted approach equips individuals not only with knowledge about
different professions but also with practical skills necessary for job acquisition and career
growth. One significant advantage of Career Labs is their emphasis on adaptability. Given the
rapid changes in technology and job requirements, Career Labs encourage continuous learning
and skill upgrading. They help participants recognise transferable skills that can open doors to
new fields, fostering resilience in uncertain job markets. However, the effectiveness of Career
Labs depends on their ability to stay updated with current industry demands and to customise
guidance accordingly. Labs that merely offer static information without real-time relevance risk
becoming obsolete. Therefore, a successful Career Lab combines dynamic content delivery
with mentorship and feedback mechanisms, empowering individuals to make informed
decisions. In sum, Career Labs act as dynamic platforms that bridge the gap between
academic learning and professional realities. By fostering self-awareness and practical skills,
they enhance employability and prepare individuals for sustained career success.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Identify the tone of the passage.
Ans A. Critical

B. Enlightening

C. Cautionary

D. Inquisitive

Question ID : 441009391596
Option 1 ID : 4410091531928
Option 2 ID : 4410091531930
Option 3 ID : 4410091531929
Option 4 ID : 4410091531927
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 If the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation x² + bx + c = 0


is 11 and the product of the roots is 24, find the value of b + c.
Ans A. 13

B. 16

C. 17

D. 15

Question ID : 441009460204
Option 1 ID : 4410091799452
Option 2 ID : 4410091799454
Option 3 ID : 4410091799455
Option 4 ID : 4410091799453
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.2 A circular garden has a radius of 28 meters. A sector-shaped
pathway making an angle of 90° at the center is to be fenced
along its boundary (the arc and two radii). If the cost of
fencing is ₹48 per meter, find the total cost of fencing the
pathway.

Ans A. ₹4,600

B. ₹4,250

C. ₹4,800

D. ₹4,670

Question ID : 441009460948
Option 1 ID : 4410091802494
Option 2 ID : 4410091802495
Option 3 ID : 4410091802493
Option 4 ID : 4410091802496
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --

Q.3 A bottle contains 60 ml of a juice solution that is 40% pure juice and 60% water. First, x ml of
pure juice is added to the solution to reverse the original juice-to-water ratio. Then, y ml of pure
water is added to reverse the ratio back to its original proportion.
Determine the total amount of liquid added (x + y).
Ans A. 72 ml

B. 96 ml

C. 75 ml

D. 90 ml

Question ID : 441009398248
Option 1 ID : 4410091558439
Option 2 ID : 4410091558441
Option 3 ID : 4410091558438
Option 4 ID : 4410091558440
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.4 In a class of 50 students, the average score in a test is 70. The difference between the highest
and lowest marks is 100. If both students are excluded, the average drops by 2 marks. What
were the highest marks?
Ans A. 170

B. 169

C. 167

D. 168

Question ID : 441009398112
Option 1 ID : 4410091557901
Option 2 ID : 4410091557900
Option 3 ID : 4410091557898
Option 4 ID : 4410091557899
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.5 A car is marked at ₹6,50,800. The dealership offers a 23% discount for cash payments. What is
the amount payable if you choose to pay in cash?
Ans A. ₹ 501216

B. ₹ 500116

C. ₹ 511816

D. ₹ 501116

Question ID : 441009370751
Option 1 ID : 4410091448905
Option 2 ID : 4410091448906
Option 3 ID : 4410091448907
Option 4 ID : 4410091448908
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.6 A tank can be filled by Pipe A in 12 hours and emptied by Pipe


B in 18 hours. If both the pipes are opened together, in how
many hours will the tank be full?
Ans A. 32

B. 30

C. 42

D. 36

Question ID : 441009460009
Option 1 ID : 4410091798669
Option 2 ID : 4410091798670
Option 3 ID : 4410091798671
Option 4 ID : 4410091798668
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --

Q.7 Ramesh wrote a number as 2.356565656……..


What is the vulgar fraction equivalent of this decimal?
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009398516
Option 1 ID : 4410091559528
Option 2 ID : 4410091559529
Option 3 ID : 4410091559526
Option 4 ID : 4410091559527
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.8 Pipe P can fill a tank in 24 minutes, and Pipe Q can fill the
same tank in 36 minutes. If both pipes are opened together,
after how much time should Pipe Q be closed so that the tank
is filled in exactly 18 minutes?
Ans A. 6 minutes

B. 9 minutes
C. 8 minutes
D. 10 minutes

Question ID : 441009460016
Option 1 ID : 4410091798696
Option 2 ID : 4410091798697
Option 3 ID : 4410091798699
Option 4 ID : 4410091798698
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.9 Farmer A invests a certain sum of money at simple interest and Farmer B invests the same
sum at compound interest for 2 years at the same rate of 10% per annum. If Farmer B receives
₹462 more as interest than Farmer A, find the sum invested by each farmer.
Ans A. ₹42600

B. ₹46200

C. ₹46400

D. ₹46210

Question ID : 441009384115
Option 1 ID : 4410091502112
Option 2 ID : 4410091502111
Option 3 ID : 4410091502113
Option 4 ID : 4410091502110
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.10 Ramesh travelled from City A to City B at an average speed of


72 kmph. He covered the first two-thirds of the distance in
three-fourths of the total time. What was his average speed
during the remaining part of the journey?
Ans A. 96 kmph
B. 85 kmph
C. 92 kmph
D. 90 kmph

Question ID : 441009460058
Option 1 ID : 4410091798860
Option 2 ID : 4410091798863
Option 3 ID : 4410091798861
Option 4 ID : 4410091798862
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.11 What is the arithmetic mean of first 50 even natural
numbers?
Ans A. 52

B. 51

C. 56

D. 50

Question ID : 441009459972
Option 1 ID : 4410091798531
Option 2 ID : 4410091798528
Option 3 ID : 4410091798529
Option 4 ID : 4410091798530
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.12

Ans A. 2

B. x+y+z

C. 1

D.

Question ID : 441009461172
Option 1 ID : 4410091803370
Option 2 ID : 4410091803372
Option 3 ID : 4410091803369
Option 4 ID : 4410091803371
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

In quadrilateral ABCD, AB = 8 cm, BC = 6 cm, CD = 12 cm. Both


∠ ∠
Q.13
ABC and BCD are 90°.
Find the area of the quadrilateral ABCD.
Ans
A. 62 cm2
B. 68 cm2
C. 64 cm2
D. 60 cm2

Question ID : 441009460844
Option 1 ID : 4410091802074
Option 2 ID : 4410091802075
Option 3 ID : 4410091802073
Option 4 ID : 4410091802072
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.14

Ans A. 3

B. 5

C. 7

D. 2

Question ID : 441009461157
Option 1 ID : 4410091803310
Option 2 ID : 4410091803311
Option 3 ID : 4410091803312
Option 4 ID : 4410091803309
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.15 Meena and Rajiv started a business together. Meena invested


₹15,000 for 8 months, and Rajiv invested ₹12,000 for the whole
year. If the total profit at the end of the year was ₹9,900, what
was Rajiv’s share in the profit?
Ans A. ₹5,200

B. ₹5,000

C. ₹4,800

D. ₹5,400

Question ID : 441009459967
Option 1 ID : 4410091798509
Option 2 ID : 4410091798510
Option 3 ID : 4410091798511
Option 4 ID : 4410091798508
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.16 A principal of ₹5,000 amounts to ₹6,000 in 4 years at simple interest. What is the rate of
interest per annum?
Ans A. 8%

B. 12%

C. 10%

D. 5%

Question ID : 441009358934
Option 1 ID : 4410091401740
Option 2 ID : 4410091401741
Option 3 ID : 4410091401738
Option 4 ID : 4410091401739
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.17

Ans A. 51

B. 52

C. 47

D. 49

Question ID : 441009460147
Option 1 ID : 4410091799222
Option 2 ID : 4410091799223
Option 3 ID : 4410091799220
Option 4 ID : 4410091799221
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.18 Ramesh bought 150 kg of wheat for ₹6800. Due to a sudden


price drop in the market, he had to sell the entire quantity at
a loss equal to the selling price of 20 kg of wheat. What was
his selling price per kg?
Ans A. ₹42

B. ₹44

C. ₹45

D. ₹40

Question ID : 441009399087
Option 1 ID : 4410091561803
Option 2 ID : 4410091561804
Option 3 ID : 4410091561805
Option 4 ID : 4410091561802
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.19

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009387013
Option 1 ID : 4410091513677
Option 2 ID : 4410091513676
Option 3 ID : 4410091513674
Option 4 ID : 4410091513675
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.20 Ravi spends 80% of his income. His income increases by 25%
and his expenditure increases by 40%. As a result, his savings
decrease by ₹714. What was his original income?
Ans A. ₹10,420

B. ₹11,880

C. ₹11,200

D. ₹10,200

Question ID : 441009398692
Option 1 ID : 4410091560225
Option 2 ID : 4410091560224
Option 3 ID : 4410091560223
Option 4 ID : 4410091560222
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.21

Ans A. 48

B. 42

C. 40

D. 45

Question ID : 441009386207
Option 1 ID : 4410091510453
Option 2 ID : 4410091510451
Option 3 ID : 4410091510450
Option 4 ID : 4410091510452
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.22 The average age of a group of teachers is 42 years. Later, 5


new teachers with an average age of 38 years joined the
group. As a result, the average age of the entire group
becomes 41 years. How many teachers were there in the
original group?
Ans A. 15

B. 18

C. 14

D. 16

Question ID : 441009398203
Option 1 ID : 4410091558258
Option 2 ID : 4410091558261
Option 3 ID : 4410091558259
Option 4 ID : 4410091558260
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.23 Priya travelled from Town M to Town N at 60 kmph and
returned at 40 kmph. What was her average speed for the
entire trip?
Ans A. 48 kmph
B. 50 kmph
C. 42 kmph
D. 45 kmph

Question ID : 441009460051
Option 1 ID : 4410091798832
Option 2 ID : 4410091798833
Option 3 ID : 4410091798835
Option 4 ID : 4410091798834
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.24 A woman's present age is three times that of her only


daughter. When the woman was 29 years old, her only son,
who is 4 years younger than the daughter, was born. What is
the present age of her son?
Ans A. 8.5 years

B. 10.5 years
C. 9 years
D. 8 years

Question ID : 441009460182
Option 1 ID : 4410091799356
Option 2 ID : 4410091799357
Option 3 ID : 4410091799359
Option 4 ID : 4410091799358
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.25 A toy is sold at ₹455 with a loss of 9%. At what price should it
be sold to gain 9%?
Ans A. ₹560

B. ₹545

C. ₹568

D. ₹580

Question ID : 441009399076
Option 1 ID : 4410091561759
Option 2 ID : 4410091561758
Option 3 ID : 4410091561760
Option 4 ID : 4410091561761
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.26

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009384906
Option 1 ID : 4410091505264
Option 2 ID : 4410091505262
Option 3 ID : 4410091505265
Option 4 ID : 4410091505263
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.27 If a is the mean proportional between x and y, and x=90, y=160, then what is the value of a?
Ans A. 120

B. 125

C. 124

D. 126

Question ID : 441009462042
Option 1 ID : 4410091806591
Option 2 ID : 4410091806589
Option 3 ID : 4410091806590
Option 4 ID : 4410091806592
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.28 Priya trimmed a rectangular carpet twice. With the first trim,
she reduced its area by 25%, and with the second trim, she
reduced the remaining area by 20%. If the final area of the
carpet is 96 cm², what was the original area?
Ans A. 160 cm2

B. 180 cm2

C. 184 cm2

D. 164 cm2

Question ID : 441009398746
Option 1 ID : 4410091560438
Option 2 ID : 4410091560440
Option 3 ID : 4410091560441
Option 4 ID : 4410091560439
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.29 A shopkeeper marked the price of a bag at ₹4800. He gave
three successive discounts of 15%, 10%, and 5%. Then he
offered a further discount of ₹300. What is the final price paid
by the customer?
Ans A. ₹3148.40

B. ₹3344

C. ₹3248

D. ₹3188.40

Question ID : 441009399314
Option 1 ID : 4410091562707
Option 2 ID : 4410091562708
Option 3 ID : 4410091562709
Option 4 ID : 4410091562706
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.30 Construct a quadratic equation whose both roots are 3 more


than the roots of the equation:
x2 + 7x + 16 = 0
Ans
A. x
2 + 3x + 6 =0
B. x
2 + 5x + 4 =0
C. x
2 + 3x + 4 =0
D. x
2 + x + 4 =0

Question ID : 441009460211
Option 1 ID : 4410091799490
Option 2 ID : 4410091799491
Option 3 ID : 4410091799489
Option 4 ID : 4410091799488
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.31 The HCF and LCM of two positive integers are 6 and 180 respectively. How many such distinct
unordered pairs of numbers are possible?
Ans A. 4

B. 6

C. 3

D. 5

Question ID : 441009398523
Option 1 ID : 4410091559551
Option 2 ID : 4410091559553
Option 3 ID : 4410091559550
Option 4 ID : 4410091559552
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.32 From the top of a tower 35 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a
building are 60° and 45° respectively. Find the height (in m) of the building.
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009461019
Option 1 ID : 4410091802772
Option 2 ID : 4410091802773
Option 3 ID : 4410091802771
Option 4 ID : 4410091802770
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.33

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009389708
Option 1 ID : 4410091524424
Option 2 ID : 4410091524423
Option 3 ID : 4410091524422
Option 4 ID : 4410091524421
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.34 The following numbers represent the runs scored by a


batsman in 10 matches:
56, 48, 56, 72, 48, 56, 40, 48, 60, 56
What is the mode of the data?
Ans A. 60

B. 48

C. 72

D. 56

Question ID : 441009459996
Option 1 ID : 4410091798622
Option 2 ID : 4410091798621
Option 3 ID : 4410091798623
Option 4 ID : 4410091798620
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Section : Intellectual Potential Test


Q.1 Refer to the following letter, number, symbol series and answer the question
(Left) Y 4 L * 6 F 3 & U P 5 H A 7 K 9 + C T 9 H S (Right)
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also
immediately followed by a number?
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. Four

D. One

Question ID : 441009360011
Option 1 ID : 4410091406040
Option 2 ID : 4410091406039
Option 3 ID : 4410091406041
Option 4 ID : 4410091406038
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.2 In a certain code language,


A+ B means ‘A is the son of B’
A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A ÷ B means ‘ A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is H related to R if ‘H-UxN+T÷R ’?
Ans A. Brother

B. Brother's brother

C. Brother's wife's father

D. Brother's wife's brother

Question ID : 441009358989
Option 1 ID : 4410091401960
Option 2 ID : 4410091401961
Option 3 ID : 4410091401959
Option 4 ID : 4410091401958
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.3 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ are interchanged and ‘x’
and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
16 ÷ 14 - 15 + 10 x 5 = ?
Ans A. 238

B. 235

C. 237

D. 236

Question ID : 441009359409
Option 1 ID : 4410091403622
Option 2 ID : 4410091403619
Option 3 ID : 4410091403621
Option 4 ID : 4410091403620
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.4 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
(8,13,15)
(24,15,33)
Ans A. (10,13,21)

B. (24,33,41)

C. (13,24,23)

D. (9,3,6)

Question ID : 441009359437
Option 1 ID : 4410091403732
Option 2 ID : 4410091403733
Option 3 ID : 4410091403734
Option 4 ID : 4410091403731
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.5 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the
information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance
with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically
follow(s) from the statement(s).
Statements: All parrot are pigeon. Some pigeon are sparrow.
Conclusions (I) : Some parrot are sparrow
Conclusions (II) : Some sparrow are pigeon
Ans A. Only conclusion II follows

B. Both conclusion I and II follow

C. Neither conclusion I nor II follow

D. Only conclusion I follows

Question ID : 441009386203
Option 1 ID : 4410091510435
Option 2 ID : 4410091510436
Option 3 ID : 4410091510437
Option 4 ID : 4410091510434
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.6 Based on the alphabetical order, three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in
the letter cluster)
Ans A. TFO

B. AMY

C. MYK

D. RDP

Question ID : 441009359998
Option 1 ID : 4410091405990
Option 2 ID : 4410091405992
Option 3 ID : 4410091405993
Option 4 ID : 4410091405991
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.7 VDSK is related to TAQH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same
way, PTEH is related to NQCE. To which of the following is YNBJ related to, following the same
logic?
Ans A. XKXG

B. VJYH

C. WKZG

D. VLYF

Question ID : 441009386855
Option 1 ID : 4410091513041
Option 2 ID : 4410091513039
Option 3 ID : 4410091513038
Option 4 ID : 4410091513040
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.8 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
(10,20,90)
(14,15,87)
Ans A. (7,19,78)

B. (24,19,99)

C. (12,36,84)

D. 27,17,72)

Question ID : 441009359452
Option 1 ID : 4410091403799
Option 2 ID : 4410091403801
Option 3 ID : 4410091403802
Option 4 ID : 4410091403800
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.9 LITE is related to WTEP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same
way, DALW is related to OLWH. To which of the following options is KHSD related to, following
the same logic?
Ans A. VSDO

B. VDSW

C. VODS

D. VSDE

Question ID : 441009359068
Option 1 ID : 4410091402258
Option 2 ID : 4410091402261
Option 3 ID : 4410091402260
Option 4 ID : 4410091402259
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.10 In a certain code language,


A+ B means ‘A is the son of B’
A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A ÷ B means ‘ A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is H related to R if ‘HxU-N÷T+R ’?
Ans A. Brother's wife

B. Brother's daughter

C. Husband's brother's wife

D. Husband's brother's daughter

Question ID : 441009358991
Option 1 ID : 4410091401968
Option 2 ID : 4410091401969
Option 3 ID : 4410091401966
Option 4 ID : 4410091401967
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.11 H, I, J, M, N, O and P are sitting in a straight line facing north.


Only M sits to the left of O. Only four people sit between M and P. Only N sits between H and J
and H is not an immediate neighbor of P. Who sits at the extreme right end of the line?
Ans A. H

B. I

C. P

D. M

Question ID : 441009358954
Option 1 ID : 4410091401818
Option 2 ID : 4410091401819
Option 3 ID : 4410091401821
Option 4 ID : 4410091401820
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.12 In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain
logic. Select from the given options,
the one which follows the same logic.
PINK - IPNK - KIPN
DOME - ODME - EODM
Ans A. LEAN - LAEN - NAEL

B. FIRM - IFRM - MIFR

C. HUNT - UHNT - UNTH

D. NAME - ANME - EAMN

Question ID : 441009359059
Option 1 ID : 4410091402223
Option 2 ID : 4410091402222
Option 3 ID : 4410091402225
Option 4 ID : 4410091402224
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.13 Refer to the following letter, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to
be done from left to right only.
(Left) B H @ $ N E % # * $ X Z # M A T % X C M $ % Y (Right)
If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following will be
fourth from the right?
Ans A. X

B. A

C. M

D. Z

Question ID : 441009386823
Option 1 ID : 4410091512912
Option 2 ID : 4410091512913
Option 3 ID : 4410091512911
Option 4 ID : 4410091512910
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.14 W,V,X,Y,Z and T live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the
building is numbered 1 , the floor above it, number 2 and so on till
the topmost floor is numbered 6.
V lives on an odd-numbered floor above E. There are only two people between V and W.Y lives
immediately below W.
X does not live on floor number 2 or 4. T lives on one of the floors below Y.

Who lives on floor number 3?


Ans A. Y

B. T

C. V

D. W

Question ID : 441009402350
Option 1 ID : 4410091574804
Option 2 ID : 4410091574803
Option 3 ID : 4410091574805
Option 4 ID : 4410091574802
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.15 Based on the alphabetical order, three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in
the letter cluster)
Ans A. ODS

B. MXI

C. LAP

D. YNC

Question ID : 441009359127
Option 1 ID : 4410091402493
Option 2 ID : 4410091402492
Option 3 ID : 4410091402494
Option 4 ID : 4410091402495
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.16 If 1 is subtracted from each odd digit and 2 is added to each even digit in the number
433525434976 what will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second
from the right?
Ans A. 8

B. 7

C. 6

D. 5

Question ID : 441009359199
Option 1 ID : 4410091402771
Option 2 ID : 4410091402770
Option 3 ID : 4410091402769
Option 4 ID : 4410091402768
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.17 What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
CLU UDM MVE ENW ?
Ans A. WFO

B. FWO

C. FWE

D. WOF

Question ID : 441009359094
Option 1 ID : 4410091402358
Option 2 ID : 4410091402361
Option 3 ID : 4410091402360
Option 4 ID : 4410091402359
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.18 What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?
VAN NSF FKX XCP ?
Ans A. PUH

B. HPU

C. HUP

D. PHU

Question ID : 441009359095
Option 1 ID : 4410091402362
Option 2 ID : 4410091402365
Option 3 ID : 4410091402364
Option 4 ID : 4410091402363
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.19 Seven friends Aman, Rita, Shruti ,Kirti, Neha, Rahul and Gita are scheduled for vaccination on
different days of a week from Monday to Sunday.
Kirti is scheduled on Monday. Neha is scheduled two days after Kirti. Shruti is scheduled
before Rahul but after Rita.
Gita is not scheduled on Sunday. Only one person is scheduled between Rahul and Neha.
On which day is Shruti scheduled?
Ans A. Thursday

B. Saturday

C. Wednesday

D. Friday

Question ID : 441009402367
Option 1 ID : 4410091574859
Option 2 ID : 4410091574861
Option 3 ID : 4410091574858
Option 4 ID : 4410091574860
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.20 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will be come in
place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?
9 B 8 C 7 D 50 A 10 = ?
Ans A. 74

B. 72

C. 75

D. 73

Question ID : 441009359400
Option 1 ID : 4410091403586
Option 2 ID : 4410091403584
Option 3 ID : 4410091403587
Option 4 ID : 4410091403585
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Q.21 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter cluster pairs are alike
in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in
the letter cluster)
Ans A. FG-VF

B. ST-SI

C. XY-NX

D. DE-TD

Question ID : 441009359118
Option 1 ID : 4410091402451
Option 2 ID : 4410091402449
Option 3 ID : 4410091402448
Option 4 ID : 4410091402450
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.22 Town Q is to the west of Town R. Town K is to the south of Town Q. Town I is to the east of
Town K. Town J is to the north of Town I. Town R is to the east of Town J. What is the position
of Town K with respect to Town J?
Ans A. North West

B. South West

C. North

D. South East

Question ID : 441009386927
Option 1 ID : 4410091513331
Option 2 ID : 4410091513333
Option 3 ID : 4410091513332
Option 4 ID : 4410091513330
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.23 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
(10,20,120)
(14,15,116)
Ans A. (7,19,104)

B. 34,19,132)

C. (27,17,96)

D. 42,16,112)

Question ID : 441009359552
Option 1 ID : 4410091404207
Option 2 ID : 4410091404209
Option 3 ID : 4410091404208
Option 4 ID : 4410091404210
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.24 In a certain code language, ‘EWMB ’ is coded as ‘ 65 ’ and ‘ XCSI ’ is coded as ‘77 ’. What is the
code for ‘ JTAV ’ in the
given code language?
Ans A. 78

B. 75

C. 60

D. 63

Question ID : 441009385546
Option 1 ID : 4410091507808
Option 2 ID : 4410091507806
Option 3 ID : 4410091507809
Option 4 ID : 4410091507807
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.25 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?


23 46 69 92 115 ?
Ans A. 130

B. 135

C. 137

D. 138

Question ID : 441009359424
Option 1 ID : 4410091403679
Option 2 ID : 4410091403680
Option 3 ID : 4410091403681
Option 4 ID : 4410091403682
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.26 H, I, J, M, N, O and P are sitting in a straight line facing north.


Only two people sit to the left of H. Only three people sit between H and N. Only one person
sits between N and J. P sits to the
immediate left of O. M is not an immediate neighbor of N.
How many people sit to the right of I?
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. One

D. Four

Question ID : 441009358948
Option 1 ID : 4410091401796
Option 2 ID : 4410091401795
Option 3 ID : 4410091401794
Option 4 ID : 4410091401797
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.27 In a certain code language, ‘ YCQH ’ is coded as ‘48 ’ and ‘ SALK ’ is coded as ‘58 ’. What is the
code for ‘ JUGX ’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 32

B. 39

C. 44

D. 52

Question ID : 441009385537
Option 1 ID : 4410091507772
Option 2 ID : 4410091507773
Option 3 ID : 4410091507770
Option 4 ID : 4410091507771
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.28 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?


150 125 100 75 50 ?
Ans A. 20

B. 22

C. 25

D. 24

Question ID : 441009359421
Option 1 ID : 4410091403667
Option 2 ID : 4410091403668
Option 3 ID : 4410091403670
Option 4 ID : 4410091403669
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.29 K,L,M,N,P,Q and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.
Only K sits between L and M. M sits third to the left of R. N sits to the immediate left of R. Q is
not an immediate neighbor of M.
Who sits second to the right of P?
Ans A. R

B. M

C. N

D. K

Question ID : 441009358942
Option 1 ID : 4410091401773
Option 2 ID : 4410091401771
Option 3 ID : 4410091401772
Option 4 ID : 4410091401770
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Q.30 Refer to the following letter, number, symbol series and answer the question
(Left) P P S E 2 L C S R \ E P ? 2 B D + 4 H $ D P (Right)
How many such letters are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also
immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. Three

D. One

Question ID : 441009360012
Option 1 ID : 4410091406045
Option 2 ID : 4410091406043
Option 3 ID : 4410091406044
Option 4 ID : 4410091406042
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.31 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question that follow. Counting to
be done from left to right only.
(Left) * * 4 2 1 + \ + * 4 5 ^ > 8 / 5 # @ % ^ 6 (Right)
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by another symbol
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. Four

D. One

Question ID : 441009359135
Option 1 ID : 4410091402526
Option 2 ID : 4410091402525
Option 3 ID : 4410091402527
Option 4 ID : 4410091402524
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.32 If 2 is subtracted from each odd digit and 2 is added to each even digit in the number
472462934257 what will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second
from the right?
Ans A. 7

B. 9

C. 8

D. 10

Question ID : 441009359392
Option 1 ID : 4410091403544
Option 2 ID : 4410091403546
Option 3 ID : 4410091403545
Option 4 ID : 4410091403547
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.33 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the
information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance
with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically
follow(s) from the statement(s).
Statements: Some Queens are beautiful. All beautiful are tall.
Conclusions (I) : Some tall are beautiful.
Conclusions (II) : Some beautiful are not Queens.
Ans A. Only conclusion 2 follows

B. Only conclusion 1 follows

C. Both conclusion 1 and 2 follow

D. Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows

Question ID : 441009386214
Option 1 ID : 4410091510479
Option 2 ID : 4410091510478
Option 3 ID : 4410091510480
Option 4 ID : 4410091510481
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.34 Seven boxes A,B,C, D,E,F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same
order.
Only two boxes are kept between B and A. Only D is kept above F. No box is kept below A.E is
kept at some place below G but at some place above C.
Which box is kept third above C?
Ans A. F

B. A

C. G

D. D

Question ID : 441009358959
Option 1 ID : 4410091401840
Option 2 ID : 4410091401838
Option 3 ID : 4410091401841
Option 4 ID : 4410091401839
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Section : Domain Knowledge

Q.1 Which of the following tests is conducted to measure impact energy of a material?
Ans A. Rockwell Test

B. Vickers Test

C. Charpy Test

D. Brinell test

Question ID : 441009753625
Option 1 ID : 4410092968487
Option 2 ID : 4410092968486
Option 3 ID : 4410092968485
Option 4 ID : 4410092968488
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.2 In viscus damping, a damper offers resistance 0.05 N at constant velocity 0.04 m/s. Determine
viscus damping coefficient in N.s/m.
Ans A. 0.09

B. 0.8

C. 1.25

D. 0.002

Question ID : 441009664865
Option 1 ID : 4410092613486
Option 2 ID : 4410092613483
Option 3 ID : 4410092613484
Option 4 ID : 4410092613485
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.3 For an opaque body, the relation between absorptivity α, reflectivity ρ and transmissivity τ is:
Ans A. α+τ=1

B. α+ρ+τ=0

C. ρ+τ=1

D. α+ρ=1

Question ID : 441009461607
Option 1 ID : 4410091804850
Option 2 ID : 4410091804852
Option 3 ID : 4410091804851
Option 4 ID : 4410091804849
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.4 What does engineering professional ethics mean?


Ans A. Avoiding teamwork

B. Following personal interests

C. Obeying orders from seniors

D. Following moral principles in professional practice

Question ID : 4410091151763
Option 1 ID : 4410094541991
Option 2 ID : 4410094541988
Option 3 ID : 4410094541989
Option 4 ID : 4410094541990
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Q.5

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009802207
Option 1 ID : 4410093162937
Option 2 ID : 4410093162939
Option 3 ID : 4410093162938
Option 4 ID : 4410093162936
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --

Q.6 Which of the following gases is harmful to the ozone layer?


Ans A. Carbon dioxide

B. Hydrogen

C. Chlorofluorocarbons

D. Nitrogen

Question ID : 441009643461
Option 1 ID : 4410092528032
Option 2 ID : 4410092528033
Option 3 ID : 4410092528030
Option 4 ID : 4410092528031
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.7 Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes nitriding from carburising in the
context of case hardening?
Ans A. Carburising is performed at lower temperatures than nitriding and introduces nitrogen
into the surface.
B. Both nitriding and carburizing involve soaking the part in molten salt baths to introduce
carbon and nitrogen simultaneously.
C. Nitriding requires quenching after heating, while carburising does not.

D. Nitriding introduces nitrogen into the surface at sub-critical temperatures and does
not require quenching, unlike carburising.

Question ID : 441009674434
Option 1 ID : 4410092651872
Option 2 ID : 4410092651874
Option 3 ID : 4410092651871
Option 4 ID : 4410092651873
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.8 Which of the following is the correct equation for Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)?

Consider S = Procurement Cost per order, I = Inventory carrying cost per year, C = Unit cost of
required item and A = Annual demand
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009605568
Option 1 ID : 4410092377392
Option 2 ID : 4410092377391
Option 3 ID : 4410092377389
Option 4 ID : 4410092377390
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.9 Which of the following purposes of clearance volume is INCORRECT?
Ans A. Reduces noise and vibration during operation

B. The volumetric efficiency is between 90% to 95% because of the presence of


clearance volume
C. Gives mechanical freedom to the moving parts

D. Prevents damage to moving components

Question ID : 441009460823
Option 1 ID : 4410091801985
Option 2 ID : 4410091801987
Option 3 ID : 4410091801984
Option 4 ID : 4410091801986
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.10 In which of the following ways can the environment NOT be conserved?
Ans A. Stopping deforestation and protecting forest cover.

B. Using natural non-renewable resources efficiently and responsibly.

C. Adopting effective waste management techniques.

D. Encouraging dependence on fossil fuels.

Question ID : 441009643434
Option 1 ID : 4410092527926
Option 2 ID : 4410092527927
Option 3 ID : 4410092527928
Option 4 ID : 4410092527929
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.11 The dynamic load-carrying capacity of a bearing is defined as the radial load in radial bearings
that can be carried for a minimum life of what revolutions?
Ans A. 1 million

B. 0.1 million

C. 10 million

D. 100 million

Question ID : 441009398209
Option 1 ID : 4410091558283
Option 2 ID : 4410091558282
Option 3 ID : 4410091558284
Option 4 ID : 4410091558285
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.12 Cloud databases are typically:
Ans A. stored only on paper

B. not accessible via the internet

C. hosted on cloud platforms and accessible online

D. used only for government purposes

Question ID : 4410091153412
Option 1 ID : 4410094548493
Option 2 ID : 4410094548494
Option 3 ID : 4410094548495
Option 4 ID : 4410094548496
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.13 Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the moving average?
Ans A. The number of data points in each average changes as time passes.

B. The most recent moving average value provides a forecast for the next period.

C. Moving average of order k is the mean value of k consecutive observations.

D. As each new observation becomes available, a new mean is computed by adding the
newest value and dropping the oldest value.

Question ID : 441009605504
Option 1 ID : 4410092377136
Option 2 ID : 4410092377134
Option 3 ID : 4410092377133
Option 4 ID : 4410092377135
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.14 If the evaporator and condenser pressure in the reciprocating compressor are 4 bar and 16 bar,
respectively, then what will the inter-cooler pressure be?
Ans A. 12 bar

B. 4 bar

C. 8 bar

D. 20 bar

Question ID : 441009460956
Option 1 ID : 4410091802524
Option 2 ID : 4410091802522
Option 3 ID : 4410091802523
Option 4 ID : 4410091802521
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.15 Which of the following conditions leads to the appearance of the Coriolis component of
acceleration in a mechanism?
Ans A. When a slider moves along a rotating link

B. When a link translates with constant speed

C. When a link rotates about a fixed point

D. When a crank rotates at uniform angular velocity

Question ID : 441009550197
Option 1 ID : 4410092156170
Option 2 ID : 4410092156171
Option 3 ID : 4410092156169
Option 4 ID : 4410092156172
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.16 Which of the following best defines tolerance in the context of engineering drawing and
manufacturing?
Ans A. The statistical mean of the actual measurements taken from a batch of components.

B. The permissible variation in the dimension of a part, ensuring proper function and
interchangeability.
C. The range of temperature a material can withstand without deforming.

D. The maximum load a component can carry before failure.

Question ID : 441009672565
Option 1 ID : 4410092644385
Option 2 ID : 4410092644383
Option 3 ID : 4410092644382
Option 4 ID : 4410092644384
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.17 A straight line joining endurance limit ( ) on the ordinate to yield strength or yield point ( )
on the abscissa is defined by which of the following terms?
Ans A. Goodman Line

B. Gerber Line

C. S-N Curve Line

D. Soderberg Line

Question ID : 441009397557
Option 1 ID : 4410091555665
Option 2 ID : 4410091555666
Option 3 ID : 4410091555667
Option 4 ID : 4410091555664
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.18 It is assumed that in Economic Order Quantity (EOQ), the ordering cost per order:
Ans A. depends on the holding cost

B. remains constant

C. depends on the size of the order

D. depends on the frequency and cost of the order

Question ID : 441009605572
Option 1 ID : 4410092377407
Option 2 ID : 4410092377406
Option 3 ID : 4410092377405
Option 4 ID : 4410092377408
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.19 Which of the following is NOT an objective of environmental conservation?


Ans A. Ensuring access to clean water and air

B. Protecting biodiversity

C. Combating climate change

D. Promoting industrialisation without environmental regulation

Question ID : 441009643403
Option 1 ID : 4410092527800
Option 2 ID : 4410092527798
Option 3 ID : 4410092527799
Option 4 ID : 4410092527801
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.20 The working principle of a transformer is based on which of the following laws?
Ans A. Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction

B. Wein displacement Law

C. Stephan Boltzmann law

D. Coulomb’s Law

Question ID : 441009626304
Option 1 ID : 4410092459368
Option 2 ID : 4410092459370
Option 3 ID : 4410092459371
Option 4 ID : 4410092459369
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Q.21 Which of the following relations is correct for core loss in a transformer?
Ans A. Core loss = Hysteresis loss × Eddy current loss

B. Core loss = Hysteresis loss − Eddy current loss

C. Core loss = Hysteresis loss / Eddy current loss

D. Core loss = Hysteresis loss + Eddy current loss

Question ID : 441009626341
Option 1 ID : 4410092459519
Option 2 ID : 4410092459517
Option 3 ID : 4410092459518
Option 4 ID : 4410092459516
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.22 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?


Ans A. The Gerber curve takes the mean path through failure points.

B. Theories are based on the Soderberg line, as failure criteria are conservative theories.

C. Soderberg line is more accurate in predicting fatigue failure than the Gerber curve.

D. Theories are based on the Goodman line, as failure criteria are conservative theories.

Question ID : 441009397561
Option 1 ID : 4410091555683
Option 2 ID : 4410091555681
Option 3 ID : 4410091555680
Option 4 ID : 4410091555682
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.23 Calculate the value of smaller force if two forces act at an angle of 120º and larger force is 40
N in magnitude.
(Note: Resultant of these two forces is perpendicular to smaller force.)
Ans A. 40 N

B. 60 N

C. 80 N

D. 20 N

Question ID : 441009642006
Option 1 ID : 4410092522167
Option 2 ID : 4410092522169
Option 3 ID : 4410092522170
Option 4 ID : 4410092522168
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Q.24 Which of the following is NOT true about deforestation?
Ans A. Clearing of forest for agriculture causes deforestation.

B. Industrialisation and urban expansion are also responsible for deforestation.

C. Deforestation is taking place only in developing countries.

D. Population explosion is one of the reasons for deforestation.

Question ID : 441009643360
Option 1 ID : 4410092527627
Option 2 ID : 4410092527629
Option 3 ID : 4410092527628
Option 4 ID : 4410092527626
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.25 If the boundary layer velocity profile is linear (i.e., u/U = y/δ), the displacement thickness is:
Ans A. δ/4

B. δ/2

C. δ/3

D. 2δ/3

Question ID : 441009657056
Option 1 ID : 4410092582588
Option 2 ID : 4410092582587
Option 3 ID : 4410092582586
Option 4 ID : 4410092582589
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.26 Which of the following statements best explains the meaning of the designation H8/f7
according to the Indian Standard (IS 919) system of limits and fits?
Ans A. It is a hole basis system where the shaft is larger than the hole, ensuring an
interference fit.
B. It indicates a shaft basis system with H8 shaft and f7 hole, resulting in a clearance fit.

C. It denotes a hole basis system with a medium tolerance hole and a shaft tolerance
zone below the hole, typically resulting in a clearance fit.
D. It represents a transition fit with equal probability of clearance and interference, used in
precision assemblies.

Question ID : 441009672578
Option 1 ID : 4410092644436
Option 2 ID : 4410092644434
Option 3 ID : 4410092644435
Option 4 ID : 4410092644437
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.27 According to Kirchhoff’s current law, the algebraic sum of currents entering and leaving any
point in a circuit must be equal to:
Ans A. ∞

B. 0

C. +1

D. −1

Question ID : 441009620005
Option 1 ID : 4410092434143
Option 2 ID : 4410092434141
Option 3 ID : 4410092434144
Option 4 ID : 4410092434142
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.28 For a laminar boundary layer over a flat plate, the thickness δ at a distance x from the leading
edge is:
Ans A. δ ∝ x

B. δ ∝ x3/4

C. δ ∝ x1/2

D. δ ∝ x2/3

Question ID : 441009656930
Option 1 ID : 4410092582067
Option 2 ID : 4410092582069
Option 3 ID : 4410092582066
Option 4 ID : 4410092582068
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.29 A machine component is subjected to fluctuating stress that varies from 40 to 100 .
The corrected endurance limit stress for the machine component is 150 . The
ultimate tensile strength and yield strength of the material are 600 and 350 ,
respectively. What will be the factor of safety using the Soderberg line?
Ans A. 1.5

B. 3.5

C. 2.5

D. 4.5

Question ID : 441009397573
Option 1 ID : 4410091555728
Option 2 ID : 4410091555730
Option 3 ID : 4410091555729
Option 4 ID : 4410091555731
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.30 Which of following mechanical properties of materials can be obtained using universal tensile
testing?
Ans A. Hardness

B. Yield stress

C. Wear resistance

D. Creep properties

Question ID : 441009753688
Option 1 ID : 4410092968737
Option 2 ID : 4410092968739
Option 3 ID : 4410092968740
Option 4 ID : 4410092968738
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --

Q.31 Section modulus of circular section is ______.


Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009640704
Option 1 ID : 4410092516967
Option 2 ID : 4410092516968
Option 3 ID : 4410092516969
Option 4 ID : 4410092516970
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.32 The non-negative variables which are added in the left hand side (LHS) of the constraints to
convert equality into the standard form of simplex table is known as:
Ans A. slack variables

B. surplus variables

C. basic feasible solution

D. artificial variables

Question ID : 441009605484
Option 1 ID : 4410092377054
Option 2 ID : 4410092377053
Option 3 ID : 4410092377055
Option 4 ID : 4410092377056
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.33 What is the purpose of virtual memory?
Ans A. To allow execution of processes that may not be completely in main memory

B. To increase the speed of the CPU

C. To back up data

D. To increase storage capacity

Question ID : 4410091152702
Option 1 ID : 4410094545718
Option 2 ID : 4410094545719
Option 3 ID : 4410094545721
Option 4 ID : 4410094545720
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.34 A box of mass 10 kg travelling at 2 m/s impact with a spring which compresses 1 mm per
Newton. Determine the maximum compression in the spring.
Ans A. 100 mm

B. 200 mm

C. 400 mm

D. 50 mm

Question ID : 441009641176
Option 1 ID : 4410092518839
Option 2 ID : 4410092518840
Option 3 ID : 4410092518842
Option 4 ID : 4410092518841
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.35 In programming, what is a variable?


Ans A. A type of loop

B. A fixed value

C. An operator

D. A storage location identified by a name

Question ID : 4410091153463
Option 1 ID : 4410094548690
Option 2 ID : 4410094548689
Option 3 ID : 4410094548692
Option 4 ID : 4410094548691
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Q.36 Labour law is also known as:
Ans A. Labour market code

B. Industrial workforce code

C. Human capital conduct

D. Employment law

Question ID : 441009871806
Option 1 ID : 4410093440395
Option 2 ID : 4410093440397
Option 3 ID : 4410093440396
Option 4 ID : 4410093440394
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --

Q.37 Which of the following describes a hardware component in computer systems?


Ans A. Operating System

B. Antivirus

C. Motherboard

D. Word Processor

Question ID : 4410091152419
Option 1 ID : 4410094544586
Option 2 ID : 4410094544587
Option 3 ID : 4410094544588
Option 4 ID : 4410094544589
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.38 A square beam 20 mm × 20 mm in section and 2 m long is supported at the ends. The beam
fails when a point load of 400 N is applied at the centre of the beam. What is the value of
flexural stress in the beam?
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009801574
Option 1 ID : 4410093160406
Option 2 ID : 4410093160405
Option 3 ID : 4410093160408
Option 4 ID : 4410093160407
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.39 Determine the mass moment of inertia of three identical rods (each of mass m and length l)
arranged to form an equilateral triangle, about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the triangle
and passing through the centroid of the triangle.
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009640773
Option 1 ID : 4410092517240
Option 2 ID : 4410092517239
Option 3 ID : 4410092517241
Option 4 ID : 4410092517242
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.40 In a free longitudinal vibration of a spring-mass system with no damping, the total mechanical
energy _________.
Ans A. becomes zero at maximum displacement

B. decreases exponentially with time

C. remains constant

D. increases quadratically with time

Question ID : 441009664938
Option 1 ID : 4410092613782
Option 2 ID : 4410092613779
Option 3 ID : 4410092613781
Option 4 ID : 4410092613780
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.41 What does Plagiarism in engineering refer to?


Ans A. Selling old designs

B. Testing machines without permission

C. Building machines quickly

D. Copying another’s work or ideas without credit

Question ID : 4410091151770
Option 1 ID : 4410094542019
Option 2 ID : 4410094542016
Option 3 ID : 4410094542018
Option 4 ID : 4410094542017
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Q.42 A wall of thickness L and thermal conductivity k has a steady heat flow Q through it. The
temperature drop across the wall is ΔT. What is the expression for the rate of heat conduction
per unit area?
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009394368
Option 1 ID : 4410091542972
Option 2 ID : 4410091542973
Option 3 ID : 4410091542971
Option 4 ID : 4410091542970
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

Q.43 In which of the following control methods for reciprocating compressors a check valve is
provided in the system in order to isolate the inactive cylinders from the active cylinders?
Ans A. By using multiple compressors

B. By cylinder by-pass system

C. By using multi-speed motor

D. By suction valve lift control

Question ID : 441009460860
Option 1 ID : 4410091802137
Option 2 ID : 4410091802138
Option 3 ID : 4410091802135
Option 4 ID : 4410091802136
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.44 A CNC milling program uses the following line:

G17 G02 X50 Y50 I10 J0

Assuming the current position is at X40 Y50, which of the following best describes the tool
motion?
Ans A. Clockwise circular interpolation in the XZ plane with 10 mm radius

B. Counter-clockwise circular interpolation in the XY plane with centre at X50, Y60

C. Clockwise circular interpolation in the XY plane with center at X50, Y50

D. Clockwise circular interpolation in the XY plane with center at X50, Y50, and radius of
10 mm

Question ID : 441009673862
Option 1 ID : 4410092649563
Option 2 ID : 4410092649564
Option 3 ID : 4410092649565
Option 4 ID : 4410092649566
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.45 Which of the following is the fastest memory?
Ans A. Hard Disk

B. RAM

C. ROM

D. Cache

Question ID : 4410091152388
Option 1 ID : 4410094544462
Option 2 ID : 4410094544463
Option 3 ID : 4410094544464
Option 4 ID : 4410094544465
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --

Q.46 A system is said to be critically damped if the damping factor for a vibrating system is
___________.
Ans A. less than one

B. more than one

C. equal to zero

D. equal to one

Question ID : 441009664754
Option 1 ID : 4410092613045
Option 2 ID : 4410092613043
Option 3 ID : 4410092613046
Option 4 ID : 4410092613044
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.47 Which of the following domains is NOT typically covered under labour laws?
Ans A. Workplace health and safety

B. Employment standards

C. Intellectual property

D. Industrial relations

Question ID : 441009871822
Option 1 ID : 4410093440460
Option 2 ID : 4410093440459
Option 3 ID : 4410093440461
Option 4 ID : 4410093440458
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.48 The order of momentum thickness (θ), displacement thickness (δ∗) and energy thickness (δ )​
e
is:
Ans A. θ<δ∗<δe​

B. δ∗<δe​<θ

C. δe​<δ∗<θ

D. θ<δe​<δ∗

Question ID : 441009657100
Option 1 ID : 4410092582763
Option 2 ID : 4410092582764
Option 3 ID : 4410092582762
Option 4 ID : 4410092582765
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.49 A black body at 500 K emits radiation. If the temperature increases to 1000 K, the emitted
energy increases by a factor of:
Ans A. 16

B. 8

C. 4

D. 2

Question ID : 441009563055
Option 1 ID : 4410092207357
Option 2 ID : 4410092207356
Option 3 ID : 4410092207355
Option 4 ID : 4410092207354
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.50 In a turbulent boundary layer, the shape factor H = δ*/θ typically:


Ans A. decreases with increasing Reynolds number

B. s independent of Reynolds number

C. is only affected by the surface roughness

D. increases with increasing Reynolds number

Question ID : 441009656979
Option 1 ID : 4410092582270
Option 2 ID : 4410092582272
Option 3 ID : 4410092582273
Option 4 ID : 4410092582271
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.51 Calculate the force P required to move the block B shown in the given figure. Weight of block A
and B are 1 kN and 2 kN, respectively, while coefficient of friction on each surface is 0.3.

Ans A. 0.6 kN

B. 0.25 kN

C. 0.85 kN

D. 1.10 kN

Question ID : 441009641317
Option 1 ID : 4410092519409
Option 2 ID : 4410092519407
Option 3 ID : 4410092519408
Option 4 ID : 4410092519410
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.52 Air at 30°C flows over a flat plate maintained at 90°C. If the convective heat transfer coefficient
is 25 W/m²·K, what is the heat flux to the surface?
Ans A. 1800 W/m2

B. 1500 W/m2

C. 1250 W/m2

D. 600 W/m2

Question ID : 441009394416
Option 1 ID : 4410091543169
Option 2 ID : 4410091543168
Option 3 ID : 4410091543167
Option 4 ID : 4410091543166
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Q.53 The Coriolis component of acceleration arises when a slider moves radially on a rotating link.
Which of the following correctly gives the magnitude of this acceleration?
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009550219
Option 1 ID : 4410092156258
Option 2 ID : 4410092156257
Option 3 ID : 4410092156256
Option 4 ID : 4410092156255
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.54 Which of the following components of a reciprocating compressor transfers the linear motion
of the piston to the rotational motion of the crankshaft?
Ans A. Frame (Crankcase)

B. Connecting rod

C. Valves

D. Crankshaft

Question ID : 441009460813
Option 1 ID : 4410091801939
Option 2 ID : 4410091801938
Option 3 ID : 4410091801937
Option 4 ID : 4410091801936
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.55 Expression for time of flight (T) of a projectile in a horizontal plane is _________.
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009641095
Option 1 ID : 4410092518520
Option 2 ID : 4410092518522
Option 3 ID : 4410092518521
Option 4 ID : 4410092518519
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.56 Which of the following is NOT the correct reason for the termination of a contract?
Ans A. Breach of contract

B. Impossibility of performance

C. Dispensing the promise

D. Compliance with the contract

Question ID : 441009871879
Option 1 ID : 4410093440675
Option 2 ID : 4410093440674
Option 3 ID : 4410093440676
Option 4 ID : 4410093440677
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.57 Assignment problem is a special type of:


Ans A. exponential programming problem

B. C++ programming problem

C. computer programming problem

D. linear programming problem

Question ID : 441009562218
Option 1 ID : 4410092204121
Option 2 ID : 4410092204118
Option 3 ID : 4410092204120
Option 4 ID : 4410092204119
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.58 A fluid with density ρ and dynamic viscosity μ flows through a pipe of diameter D. If a new
physical quantity is defined as: Π = μ / ρD, then the dimensional formula of Π is:
Ans A. L2T-1

B. LT-2

C. L T-1

D. T-1

Question ID : 441009663355
Option 1 ID : 4410092607468
Option 2 ID : 4410092607467
Option 3 ID : 4410092607469
Option 4 ID : 4410092607470
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Q.59 In the equation VTn = C, the exponent n depends on:

Ans A. cutting fluid

B. tool material

C. power supply

D. machine type

Question ID : 441009672554
Option 1 ID : 4410092644338
Option 2 ID : 4410092644339
Option 3 ID : 4410092644341
Option 4 ID : 4410092644340
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.60 How can eddy current loss in a transformer core be reduced?


Ans A. By increasing the frequency of the current

B. By making the core into thin, laminated sections

C. By using a core made of an insulator

D. By making the core into thick flat sections

Question ID : 441009629004
Option 1 ID : 4410092470168
Option 2 ID : 4410092470169
Option 3 ID : 4410092470167
Option 4 ID : 4410092470170
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.61 In a counter flow heat exchanger, effectiveness increases when:


Ans A. flow is turbulent only

B. NTU is very low

C. NTU increases

D. heat capacity ratio is very low

Question ID : 441009605574
Option 1 ID : 4410092377416
Option 2 ID : 4410092377414
Option 3 ID : 4410092377415
Option 4 ID : 4410092377413
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.62 Taylor’s tool life equation VTn = C does NOT account for:

Ans A. depth of cut and feed

B. cutting speed

C. tool wear

D. tool life constant

Question ID : 441009672559
Option 1 ID : 4410092644360
Option 2 ID : 4410092644359
Option 3 ID : 4410092644358
Option 4 ID : 4410092644361
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

Q.63 In the dynamic analysis of a four-link mechanism, why is the inertia force Fi replaced with an
equivalent offset inertia force in the procedure?
Ans A. To include the effect of angular acceleration and eliminate the need for velocity
diagrams
B. To eliminate the inertia couple and focus only on linear inertia effects

C. To convert dynamic analysis into an equivalent static force system for easier
computation
D. To remove the need for acceleration diagrams and simplify link mass estimation

Question ID : 441009550263
Option 1 ID : 4410092156428
Option 2 ID : 4410092156431
Option 3 ID : 4410092156429
Option 4 ID : 4410092156430
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.64 What is the loss of energy in the primary of the transformer due to the reversal of magnetism
in the iron core called?
Ans A. Dielectric loss

B. Hysteresis loss

C. Copper loss

D. Eddy current loss

Question ID : 441009641335
Option 1 ID : 4410092519478
Option 2 ID : 4410092519477
Option 3 ID : 4410092519476
Option 4 ID : 4410092519475
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.65 Which of the following forecasting methods is used to a form a weighted average of past
observations to smooth short-term fluctuations?
Ans A. Logarithmic average method

B. Exponentially weighted moving average method

C. Simple moving average method

D. Fourier averaging method

Question ID : 441009605522
Option 1 ID : 4410092377207
Option 2 ID : 4410092377205
Option 3 ID : 4410092377206
Option 4 ID : 4410092377208
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.66 Which of the following statements best distinguishes between clearance, interference and
transition fits?
Ans A. Clearance fit permits free relative motion; an interference fit results in no clearance
under any conditions; a transition fit may result in either a tight or loose fit, depending on the
actual sizes.
B. Clearance fit prevents all relative motion; interference fit ensures easy assembly;
transition fit allows parts to rotate freely.
C. Clearance and interference fits are interchangeable; transition fit is used only when
parts are press-fitted.
D. Clearance fit allows for intentional space between parts; an interference fit forces
parts to deform during assembly; a transition fit always results in a loose connection.

Question ID : 441009672567
Option 1 ID : 4410092644391
Option 2 ID : 4410092644392
Option 3 ID : 4410092644393
Option 4 ID : 4410092644390
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.67 Which of the following advantages of multi-stage compression over single stage compression
is INCORRECT?
Ans A. It reduces the leakage loss considerably.

B. It improves the volumetric efficiency for the given pressure ratio.

C. It provides effective lubrication because of lower temperature range.

D. It gives non-uniform torque and hence a smaller size flywheel is required.

Question ID : 441009460827
Option 1 ID : 4410091802002
Option 2 ID : 4410091802003
Option 3 ID : 4410091802000
Option 4 ID : 4410091802001
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.68 A point on a disc of radius 500 mm undergoes uniform linear acceleration of 4 m/s2. Calculate
angular acceleration of the disc.
Ans A. 4 rad/s2

B. 2 rad/s2

C. 16 rad/s2

D. 8 rad/s2

Question ID : 441009641203
Option 1 ID : 4410092518947
Option 2 ID : 4410092518949
Option 3 ID : 4410092518950
Option 4 ID : 4410092518948
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B

Q.69 In one-dimensional steady-state heat conduction through a plane wall with constant thermal
conductivity, the temperature distribution is:
Ans A. exponential

B. parabolic

C. linear

D. logarithmic

Question ID : 441009393922
Option 1 ID : 4410091541181
Option 2 ID : 4410091541182
Option 3 ID : 4410091541183
Option 4 ID : 4410091541184
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.70 Which of the following equations is used to determine the stress and strain relation in the
plastic region of the stress-strain curve of a metal?
Ans A. Hooke’s law

B. Boyle’s law

C. Pascal law

D. Power law

Question ID : 441009753533
Option 1 ID : 4410092968113
Option 2 ID : 4410092968116
Option 3 ID : 4410092968114
Option 4 ID : 4410092968115
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Q.71 In material structure, a dislocation is a type of:
Ans A. volume defect

B. point defect

C. line defect

D. surface defect

Question ID : 4410091144792
Option 1 ID : 4410094514127
Option 2 ID : 4410094514124
Option 3 ID : 4410094514125
Option 4 ID : 4410094514126
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --

Q.72 If P = equivalent dynamic load (N), = radial load (N), = axial or thrust load (N), V = race-
rotation factor and X and Y are radial and thrust factors, respectively. Then, the expression for
the equivalent dynamic load is given by which of the following expressions?
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009397623
Option 1 ID : 4410091555936
Option 2 ID : 4410091555937
Option 3 ID : 4410091555935
Option 4 ID : 4410091555934
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.73 Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law (KVL) is applicable when:


Ans A. the circuit contains no resistors

B. the circuit is open only

C. there is one or more voltage source in a closed loop

D. only one voltage source is present in the circuit

Question ID : 441009620049
Option 1 ID : 4410092434319
Option 2 ID : 4410092434318
Option 3 ID : 4410092434320
Option 4 ID : 4410092434317
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Q.74 A simply supported beam of length L = 2 m, mass per unit length m = 10 kg/m and flexural
rigidity EI = 2000Nm2 undergoes free transverse vibration. What is the first natural frequency
ω1 in rad/s? (Use π2 ≈ 10, and √200 ​≈ 14)

Ans A. 14 rad/s

B. 7 rad/s

C. 35 rad/s

D. 25 rad/s

Question ID : 441009665252
Option 1 ID : 4410092615044
Option 2 ID : 4410092615043
Option 3 ID : 4410092615046
Option 4 ID : 4410092615045
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.75 What is the basic form of Dunkerley’s equation for a shaft with multiple discs?
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question ID : 441009664918
Option 1 ID : 4410092613691
Option 2 ID : 4410092613692
Option 3 ID : 4410092613694
Option 4 ID : 4410092613693
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.76 Which of the following best defines 'heat' in thermodynamics?


Ans A. Energy transferred due to temperature difference

B. Energy associated with pressure

C. Energy stored in a body

D. Mechanical energy

Question ID : 441009394485
Option 1 ID : 4410091543443
Option 2 ID : 4410091543444
Option 3 ID : 4410091543442
Option 4 ID : 4410091543445
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Q.77 Given the Blasius solution, what is the approximate boundary layer thickness at x = 1 m from
leading edge (Rex = 105)?

Ans A. 25 mm

B. 16 mm

C. 5 mm

D. 50 mm

Question ID : 441009657309
Option 1 ID : 4410092583612
Option 2 ID : 4410092583611
Option 3 ID : 4410092583610
Option 4 ID : 4410092583613
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.78 For which of the following applications are deterministic models usually NOT implemented?
Ans A. Inventory management where demand and supply are known

B. PERT

C. Maintaining the air conditioners temperature

D. CPM

Question ID : 441009605550
Option 1 ID : 4410092377320
Option 2 ID : 4410092377317
Option 3 ID : 4410092377319
Option 4 ID : 4410092377318
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.79 Which of the following construction cost estimates is known as Rough Order of Magnitude
(ROM)?
Ans A. Detailed cost estimate

B. Parametric cost estimate

C. Preliminary cost estimate

D. Definitive bid cost estimate

Question ID : 441009718916
Option 1 ID : 4410092829379
Option 2 ID : 4410092829380
Option 3 ID : 4410092829377
Option 4 ID : 4410092829378
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.80 If the clearance factor is unity, then the clearance volume of a reciprocating compressor
________.
Ans A. becomes more than stroke volume

B. becomes less than stroke volume

C. becomes equal to the total volume

D. becomes equal to the stroke volume

Question ID : 441009460815
Option 1 ID : 4410091801961
Option 2 ID : 4410091801960
Option 3 ID : 4410091801963
Option 4 ID : 4410091801962
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.81 What is a crystalline material's atomic configuration referred to as?


Ans A. Molecule

B. Microstructure

C. Crystal lattice

D. Phase

Question ID : 4410091144466
Option 1 ID : 4410094512823
Option 2 ID : 4410094512820
Option 3 ID : 4410094512821
Option 4 ID : 4410094512822
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

Q.82 What is the shape of indenter in Vickers hardness test?


Ans A. Diamond Pyramidal indenter with 180 degree included angle

B. Spherical steel indenter

C. Diamond Pyramidal indenter with 136 degree included angle

D. Diamond Pyramidal indenter with 120 degree included angle

Question ID : 441009753667
Option 1 ID : 4410092968655
Option 2 ID : 4410092968656
Option 3 ID : 4410092968654
Option 4 ID : 4410092968653
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.83 Which principle allows the conversion of a dynamic force problem into an equivalent static
equilibrium problem by introducing inertia forces and couples in mechanism analysis?
Ans A. D’Alembert’s principle of dynamics

B. Grashof’s law for linkages

C. Instantaneous centre method

D. Kennedy’s theorem on centres

Question ID : 441009550253
Option 1 ID : 4410092156391
Option 2 ID : 4410092156389
Option 3 ID : 4410092156392
Option 4 ID : 4410092156390
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.84 In which year was the famous Maternity Benefit Act enacted in India?
Ans A. 1961

B. 1972

C. 1956

D. 1955

Question ID : 441009871846
Option 1 ID : 4410093440550
Option 2 ID : 4410093440552
Option 3 ID : 4410093440551
Option 4 ID : 4410093440553
Status : Not Answered
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Q.85 A reverted gear train consists of four gears with teeth T1 = 20, T2 = 40, T3 = 30, and T4 to be
determined. If gear 1 rotates at N1 = 1200 rpm and gear 4 rotates at N4 = 400 rpm, what
should be the number of teeth on gear 4 for the train to maintain proper function?
Ans A. 60

B. 75

C. 45

D. 90

Question ID : 441009562532
Option 1 ID : 4410092205151
Option 2 ID : 4410092205152
Option 3 ID : 4410092205150
Option 4 ID : 4410092205153
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

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