1) The symptoms of windshear may include:

🔘 Loss of altitude, airframe buffet, a high rate of descent combined with excessive pitch altitudes
🔘 A significant change of airspeed, divergence from the required flight path, normal control inputs insufficient to maintain the flight path
🔘 Loss of airspeed, increasing rate of descent and pre-stall buffet

2) After landing on a dry runway which is the most effective retardation device?

🔘 The airbrakes / spoilers

🔘 Reverse thrust
🔘 The antiskid brakes

3) Fuel Jettison when required can be carried out _______

🔘 At 10,000 feet AGL and preferably over the sea

🔘 At 7,000 feet AGL in winter and 4,000 feet AGL in summer
🔘 All of the above

4) When the planned route is via an ADIZ you are required to ________

🔘 In some cases call ATC prior to entry and to obtain an Air Defense Clearance number
🔘 Call ATC on entering the ADIZ
🔘 Comply with the specific conditions and instructions as prescribed by the relevant State

5) At 900 feet on a manually flown ILS approach you notice the handling pilot has let the aircraft drop below the glidepath Would you _____

🔘 Verbally warn the handling pilot, monitor the response and look for a correction
🔘 Verbally warn the handling pilot and take control immediately .
🔘 Verbally warn the handling pilot, increase thrust and lightly cover the controls

6) Optimum altitude normaly provides a buffet margin of _______

🔘 1.45 g
🔘 1.3 g
🔘 1.35 g

7) When flying in RVSM Airspace utilising the semi-circular rule what is the lowest RVSM Hight level on a track of 270'?

🔘 FL 280
🔘 FL 290
🔘 FL 300

8) When flying in RVSM Airspace utaising the semi-circular rule what is the highest RVSM flight level on a magnetic track of 110*?

🔘 FL 390
🔘 FL400
🔘 FL 410

9) The minimum generally acceptable buffet margin in cruise is ______

🔘 1.2 g
🔘 1.3 g
🔘 1.45 g

10) Which of the following masses are considered to be part of the payload of an aircraft?

🔘 Passengers, cargo, mail, catering, reserve and contingency fuel

🔘 Passengers, cargo, mail, reserve fuel and baggage
🔘 Passengers, baggage, cargo, and mail
11) When operating at the Long Range Cruise (LRC) Mach Number

🔘 The specific range corresponds to 95% of the maximum specific range

🔘 The specific range corresponds to 100% of the maximum specific range
🔘 The specific range corresponds to 99% of the maximum specific range

12) The Optimum cruise altitude is ______

🔘 Determined by weight and Mach number and ensures the optimum CL and maximum specific range
🔘 Determined by weight, Mach number, SAT/ OAT and ensures the optimum CL and maximum specific range
🔘 Determined by weight, SAT/ OAT and ensures that maximum specific range

13) At 1700 feet on an ILS approach in IMC the GPWS sounds Whoop whoop pull up, pull up' Would you

🔘 Check the ILS glideslope is within one dot and cross check attitude with the radio altimeter
🔘 Immediately go around inform ATC
🔘 Cancel the GPWS. check on the glidepath and increase thrust as a precaution

14) What distance from the stop end of the runway do the centre line lights change from red/ white to red?

🔘 900 m
🔘 600 m
🔘 300 m

15) While in a descent under radar control you receive a TCAS resolution advisory (RA) You would

🔘 Continue with the descent, advise ATC of the RA and look out for other aircraft
🔘 Continue with the descent but turn 90 degrees off the assigned heading and advise ATC
🔘 Manoeuvre to follow the RA guidance and advise ATC

16) Taxyway lighting consists of

🔘 Green centre line lights with blue edge lighting

🔘 Green centre line lights with green edge lights on corners
🔘 White centre line lights with red edge lights on corners

17) In the cruise at high altitude when flying into an area of known turbulence you would

🔘 Stop the cabin service and fly at the turbulence speed

🔘 Secure the cabin and cockpit. select turbulence speed and maintain a constant attitude
🔘 Secure the cabin and cockpit and descent at Mmo/ Vmo

18) When calculating takeoff performance speeds

🔘 Vmcg should be greater than V1

🔘 Vmcg should be less than or equal to V1
🔘 Vmcg must be greater than V1 by 30%

19) Ice contamination of the wing upper and lower surface may cause

🔘 A reduction in stall margins and possible poor lateral control on takeoff

🔘 A loss of lift and pitch control on the ground
🔘 A loss of lift and pitch control on the ground

20) ILS Category I minimums allow operations down to DH of ______ and and RVR of ______

🔘 100 ft, 1200 ft/ 300 m

🔘 200 ft, 1800 ft/ 550 m
🔘 50 ft, 700 ft/ 200 m
21) After landing in rain on a runway promulgated as 'Slippery when wet' your aircraft starts to diverge from the runway centerline
What action do you take to stop the drift?

🔘 Cancel reverse thrust

🔘 Use full opposite rudder to control the drift
🔘 Use differential reverse thrust until the nosewheel steering becomes effective

22) Which type of clouds is indicative of very strong turbulence?

🔘 Standing lenticular
🔘 Nimbostratus
🔘 Cirrocumulus

23) Under what conditions may ground deicing or anti-icing be required?

🔘 Anytime the outside air temperature is + 10°C or below with visible moisture present or with a temperature —dew point spread of less than 3° C.
🔘 Anytime the outside air temperature is + 5° C or below with visible moisture present or with a temperature-dew point spread of less than 4° C
🔘 Anytime the outside air temperature is 0° C or below with visible moisture present or with a temperature-dew point spread of less than 5° C

24) What is the purpose of a negative pressure relief valve?

🔘 To prevent the internal cabin air pressure from exceeding the outside air pressure.
🔘 To prevent the outside air pressure from exceeding the internal cabin air pressure.
🔘 To prevent the internal cabin air pressure from exceeding the maximum pressurization limits

25) Which of the following defines the ICAO requirements for fuel and oil for a turbo-jet aircraft? Sufficient fuel and oil to fly to the destination, then

🔘 To the alternate, plus 45 minutes at normal cruising speed, then approach and land
🔘 To the alternate, plus 30 minutes at normal cruising speed, then approach and land
🔘 To the most distant alternate, hold for 30 minutes at 1500 feet AGL, then approach and land

26) Why do aeroplanes equipped with both, inboard and outboard ailerons use the outboard ailerons only during low speed flight?

🔘 The increased surface area reduces controlability with flap extensions

🔘 Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds
🔘 Locking out the outboard ailerons in high speed flight provides a variable flight control feel

27) Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?

🔘 Embedded thunderstorms
🔘 Freezing rain
🔘 Clear air turbulence

28) Required navigation performance (RNP) is defined as a statement of the navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace
What does RNP 4 imply?

🔘 That the total system error will be no greater than 2 Nm for 90% if the time
🔘 That the total system error will be no greater than 8 Nm for 95% of the time
🔘 That the total system error will be no greater than 4 Nm for 95% of the time

29) For a 2 engine aeroplane the distance from the departure aerodrome to the take-oft alternate must not exceed

🔘 One hour at the normal 2-engine cruising speed

🔘 One hour at the one-engine inoperative cruising speed
🔘 Two hours at the one-engine inoperative cruising speed

30) When operating in ECON (Economy) Cruise mode and fuel costs are high, the FMS Cost Index (CI) value you expect to see will be _______

🔘 High
🔘 Low
🔘 Average
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