MODULE 3

Practice of Pharmacy FINAL COACHING NOVEMBER 2025

MODULE 3 - PRACTICE OF PHARMACY

MOCKBOARDS 2
Question Rationale
1. A 154-lb patient is admitted for Answer: ________
management of septic shock. The Technique in dimensional analysis: Always place the desired unit in the first
physician orders dopamine to be infused numerator of the equation.
at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to support blood
pressure. The dopamine is supplied in an Step 1: Calculate first the dose in mcg per minute.
IV bag containing 400 mg of dopamine in
250 mL of D5W. The patient’s creatinine
clearance is 90 mL/min, and during the
previous shift, they received 500 mg of IV
acetaminophen for fever. What should the
infusion rate be in drops per minute (gtt/ Step 2: Proceed with dimensional analysis.
min) to deliver the ordered dose?
A. 5.47 gtt/min
B. 4.38 gtt/min
C. 21.88 gtt/min
D. 1.75 gtt/min

2. A pediatric oncologist orders vincristine 2 Answer: ________

mg/day for a child who weighs 40 lb and is Step 1: Use the Mosteller formula in inches and pounds:
39.4 inches tall. Calculate the child’s daily
dose in mg based on body surface area.
A. 0.71 mg
B. 0.82 mg
C. 1.42 mg
D. 1.25 mg Recall formula using cm and kg.
Step 2: Plug in values:

Step 3: Calculate dose based on BSA relative to adult dose of 2 mg:

3. A prescription reads: Answer: ________

“Take MCDXLV mL of solution containing Step 1: Convert Roman numeral to Hindu-Arabic
25 mg/mL of active drug.” MCDXLV:
M=
Convert the Roman numeral to Hindu- CD =
Arabic and calculate the total amount of XL =
drug in g. V=
→
A. 36,125 g
B. 36.13 g
C. 1445 g Step 2: Calculate total drug in mg
D. 36,125 mg

Step 3: Convert mg to g

Step 4: Round to 2 decimal places

→

Review of Conversion:

Roman Hindu-Arabic Equivalent Roman Hindu-Arabic Equivalent

Numeral Numeral
I C

V D

X M

General rules:
• If a smaller numeral is placed _______ a larger numeral,
__________ its value (e.g., IV = 5 - 1 = 4).
• If a smaller numeral is placed after a larger or equal numeral,
_____ its value (e.g., VI = 5 + 1 = 6).
• The same numeral cannot be repeated more than _______ times in a row
(e.g., 40 is XL, not XXXX).

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Question Rationale
4. A child aged 5 years weighs 22 kg and has Answer: ________
a height of 95 cm is prescribed an adult Step 1: Young’s Rule formula:
antibiotic dose of 500 mg. Using Young’s
Rule, calculate the child’s dose in grams.
(Average Adult BSA = 1.73 m²)
A. 100 mg
Step 2: Substitute:
B. 142.9 mg
C. 166.7 mg
D. 0.143 g

Step 3: Convert mg to g:

Step 4: Look for the closest choice:

Common Pediatric Dose Calculation Formulas

Dose Calculation Method Formula

Age
Young’s Rule Child’s dose = x Adult dose
Age + 12

Weight (lbs)
Clark’s Rule Child’s dose = x Adult dose
150

Age (months)
Fried’s Rule Infant’s dose = x Adult dose
150

Age (years) + 1
Cowling’s Rule Child’s dose = x Adult dose
24

Body Surface Area (BSA) BSA (m2)

Child’s dose = x Adult dose
Method 1.73

5. A patient requires 500 mL of a 7% w/v Answer: ________

antibiotic solution. The hospital has 3%, Alligation Alternate Problem
10%, and 15% w/v stock solutions available.
The pharmacist decides to prepare the Step 1: Arrange the stock solutions in increasing concentrations:
required concentration by mixing all three
solutions. Calculate the volume of each
stock solution needed to prepare 500 mL
of the 7% solution.
A. 290 mL of 3%, 105 mL of 10%, 105 mL of
Step 2: Place the desired concentration in between two stock concentrations.
15%
B. 300 mL of 3%, 100 mL of 10%, 100 mL of
15%
C. 280 mL of 3%, 110 mL of 10%, 110 mL of
15%
D. 275 mL of 3%, 112 mL of 10%, 113 mL of Note that you can place 7% between 3% and 10% or between 10% and 15%.
15%
Step 3: Subtract the stock concentrations and desired concentration (as shown).
D. 150 mL of 3%, 200 mL of 10%, 150 mL of
15% Option 1

Option 2

Step 4: Determine the ratio of each stock solution and the total number of parts.
Using Option 1:
3%
10%
15%
Total number of parts:

Step 5: Using dimensional analysis, calculate the amount of each stock solution to
be used.
3%
10%
15%
Rounded off, the correct values are in

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Question Rationale
6. A pharmacist needs to prepare 250 mL of Answer: ________
a 0.9% sodium chloride (NaCl) IV solution C₁ (stock concentration) =
from a 3% stock solution. How much of the C₂ (desired concentration) =
3% solution should be diluted with sterile V₂ (final volume) =
water to make the 0.9% solution? V₁ (volume of stock to use) =
A. 75 mL Formula:
B. 67.5 mL
C. 82.5 mL
D. 90 mL
Solve for V1 :

7. A topical cream is labeled as 2% w/w Answer: ________

hydrocortisone. What is the ratio strength Step 1: Convert the percentage strength to decimal fraction.
of this preparation?
A. 1:40
B. 1:25
C. 1:100
Step 2: Divide 1 by the decimal fraction.
D. 1:50

Step 3: “1:x” is the concentration in ratio strength

8. A pharmacist mixes 100 mL of Solution A Answer: ________

with 300 mL of a 5% w/v sodium chloride Step 1: Set up the equation.
solution to prepare 400 mL of an 8.75%
w/v sodium chloride solution. What is the
concentration (% w/v) of Solution A?
A. 15%
Step 2: Plug in the values and solve.
B. 17.5%
C. 20%
D. 25%

9. A male patient weighs 158.7 lb and is 1.75 Answer: ________

meters tall. What is his BMI? Step 1: Convert weight into kg.
A. 18.5
B. 23.5
C. 20.5 Step 2: Calculate BMI.
D. 25.5

10. A pharmacist must prepare 8 fluid ounces Answer: ________

of a 2% w/v solution from a 5% w/v stock Step 1: Convert fl oz to mL.
solution. How many milliliters of the stock
solution are required?
A. 94.62 mL
B. 118.29 mL
Step 2: Use the dilution formula.
C. 150.00 mL
D. 170.50 mL

11. Answer: ________

Ephedrine sulfate 0.3 g Step 1: Calculate total NaCl needed for isotonicity in 30 mL
Sodium chloride qs
Purified water ad 30 mL
Make an isotonic solution.
Step 2: Calculate NaCl equivalent of ephedrine sulfate
Ephedrine sulfate (E=0.2)
How many milligrams of sodium chloride
should be added to make the solution 0.2 is the E-value— the amount (___________) of NaCl that is
isotonic? _______________________________ to 1 gram of a given drug or substance.*
A. 201 mg C. 225 mg Step 3: Calculate amount of NaCl to add
B. 210 mg D. 240 mg Subtract step 2 from step 1.

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Question Rationale
12. What is the specific gravity of a mixture of Answer: ________
1000 mL of syrup with a specific gravity of Step 1: Calculate the weight of each component.
1.300, 400 mL of glycerin with a specific
gravity of 1.250, and 1000 mL of an elixir
with a specific gravity of 0.950?
A. 1.1576
Step 2: Calculate the total weight and volume.
B. 1.1487
C. 1.1532
D. 1.1458

Step 3: Calculate specific gravity of mixture.

13. A 500 mL intravenous solution contains Answer: ________

30 mEq of potassium chloride (MW= Step 1: Convert mEq to mg.
74.5 g/mol. What is the milliosmolarity
Given:
(mOsmol/L) of the solution?
mEq = ____
A. 30 mOsmol/L MW of KCl = ________
B. 60 mOsmol/L K+ valence (aka factor or f) = ____
C. 90 mOsmol/L
Step 2: Use the mg value to solve for mOsmol.
D. 120 mOsmol/L

i = __ (KCl dissociates into ______________); Note the difference between f and i.

Now, note that the solution’s volume is 500 mL and we are looking for the
mOsmol per ________.
Step 3: Convert to mOsmol/L.

14. A patient was prescribed 1 tablespoonful Answer: ________

of 50mg/ mL antibiotic suspension to be Step 1: Calculate the total volume needed.
taken three times daily for 15 days.
At your pharmacy, you have the following
available preparations:
Preparation A: 250-mL bottle *Note the technique (desired unit in the first numerator).
Step 2: Evaluate each option.
Preparation B: 500-mL bottle
Preparation C: 700-mL bottle
Which of the following options will
completely fulfill the prescription with
Unit Metric Equivalent Unit Metric Equivalent
the least amount of excess?
1 teaspoon (tsp) 1 ounce (oz) (AV)
A. 2 bottles of A
B. 1 bottle each of A and B 1 tablespoon (tbsp) 1 pound (lb) (AV)
C. 1 bottle each of C and A
1 fluid ounce (oz) 1 ounce (℥) (AP)
D. 1 bottle of C
1 milliliter (mL) 1 pound (lb) (AP)

1 pint (pt) 1 kilogram (kg)

1 gallon (gal) 1 meter (m)

1 grain (gr) (AP) 1 inch (in)

15. A 64-year-old woman weighs 54 kg and has Answer: ________

a serum creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL. What is Step 1: Use the Cockroft-Gault equation.
her estimated creatinine clearance) using
the Cockcroft-Gault equation?
A. 38.2 mL/min
B. 40.4 mL/min
Step 2: Plug in the values.
C. 42.6 mL/min
D. 44.7 mL/min

16. A shipment of a temperature-sensitive Answer: ________

pharmaceutical product arrived with a
storage log showing a temperature of 50 Conversion Formula Convert °F to °C
°F. Convert to Celsius. °C = ______________________
A.122°C °C = ______________________
°F to °C
B. 32.4°C
C. 10°C
D. 45.55°C

°C to °F

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Question Rationale
17. Hospitals may be classified in different Answer: ________
ways, including:
Classification
I. Type of service
II. Length of Stay • General • Rehabilitation and Chronic Disease
III. Ownership • Special • Psychiatric
IV. Bed Capacity
Classification
V. Profitability
• Short-term • Long-term
A. I, II, IV
Classification
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, III, IV • ____________________ • ____________________
D. AOTA • Federal • Nonprofit
• State • For profit
Classification

• Under 50 beds • 100-199 beds • 300-399 beds • ≥500 beds

• 50-99 beds • 200-299 beds • 400-499 beds

18. What is the traditional position of the chief Answer: ________

pharmacist within the Pharmacy and
Therapeutics Committee (PTC)? Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee (PTC)

A. Chairperson Purpose Advises the medical staff and administration on all matters related to
B. Secretary drug ___________, ______, and _________.
C. Procurement officer Key Function Maintain and revise the ___________________
D. External advisor
Members • _______________ - usually a • 1-2 nurses
physician (medical director) • Hospital Administrator
• ______________ - usually the • Consultants (optional)
chief pharmacist
• 3-5 physicians

19. A retired physician who no longer admits or 19. Answer: ________ 20. Answer: ________
treats patients, but is retained on the staff
in recognition of past contributions to the Type of Medical Staff Description
hospital. Closed
A. Consulting staff __________________________members recognized for past contributions;
B. Courtesy staff no active duties.
C. Honorary staff
Experts called for ________________________; not regularly involved in
D. Resident staff routine patient care.
20. A physician who has been granted limited Full-time ___________________________ under supervision.
hospital privileges to admit private patients
Fully credentialed physicians ________________ involved in patient care
occasionally, but is not regularly involved
and hospital activities.
in patient care, hospital meetings, or
administrative duties. Similar to attending but with ___________________ or
______________________.
A. Consulting staff
B. Courtesy staff Open not exclusive to the institution
C. Honorary staff Physicians with occasional _____________________ and minimal hospital
D. Resident staff involvement.

21. The safest most accepted method of Answer: ________

dispensing medications to hospital
patients has become the standard of System Description
practice. Medications are stored in bulk in nursing units.
A. Floor stock system • __________: Nurses record each drug used and the patient is billed
B. Individual Prescription Method accordingly.
C. Unit Dose Dispensing • __________: No patient billing; the hospital absorbs or centrally accounts for
D. Decentralized automation the cost.
Medications are dispensed _______________ for each patient based on a __________
__________________.
ready-to-administer, single-use packages by the pharmacy.
___________ and ________ ______________ method.
• _________________: Dispensed from the main pharmacy and delivered to units.
• _________________: Prepared in satellite pharmacies near the point of care.
Any combination of the above

22. Which of the following TPN Components Answer: ________

are considered Macronutrients?
Macronutrients
I. Dextrose
II. Amino Acids
III. Fat Emulsion Micronutrients Zinc Selenium
IV. Nucleic Acids Copper Chromium
V. Electrolytes Manganese
A. I, II, and III
B. I, II, III, IV Electrolytes Sodium Calcium Phosphate Acetate
C. I, II, III, V Potassium Magnesium Chloride
D. AOTA Fluid
(vehicle; to meet fluid requirements)

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Question Rationale
23. A public health department is evaluating Answer: ________
whether to implement a nationwide
smoking cessation program. Both the Method Description / Important Notes
costs of the program and the benefits (e.g., Estimates the ____________________ ___________ (direct, indirect, and
reduced healthcare spending, increased intangible); not a comparison tool.
worker productivity) are expressed in Compares costs of two or more interventions with ______________
monetary terms. ___________; choose the ____________.
Which pharmacoeconomic method is Measures outcomes in natural units (e.g., life-years gained, mmHg ↓);
most appropriate for this analysis? compares ________________________.
Outcomes measured in ___________________________________ or _______
A. Cost-effectiveness analysis _________________________________________.
B. Cost-minimization analysis
C. Cost-utility analysis Both costs and outcomes are converted into __________________; allows
comparison across sectors.
D. Cost-benefit analysis
24. Patients with confirmed CDI were Answer: ________
compared to hospitalized patients
without CDI). Researchers reviewed prior Study Design Description
medication records to determine PPI Participants are randomly assigned to groups receiving the
exposure and evaluated whether PPI use intervention or control
was more common among those who ____________________ for causality.
developed CDI. Cohort Study Follows a group over time to compare outcomes between
_________________________ individuals.
A. Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT)
B. Cohort Study Case-Control Study Compares patients with a condition (________) to those without
C. Case-Control Study (_________) to assess _________________.
D. Cross-Sectional Study Assesses both exposure and outcome at a _______________________
_________. Useful for ______________.
Case Report / Case Series Detailed ______________ of a ________ patient (case report) or a small
______ (case series). ___________ group.
Systematic Review __________________ results from multiple studies using a systematic
method.
Meta-Analysis _____________ quantitative data from ___________ studies to generate a
pooled ____________.

25. Primum non nocere: 25. Answer: ________ 26. Answer: ________
A. Non-maleficence Principle Description
B. Beneficence
C. Autonomy Respecting the individual’s right to _____________________ and
____________ ___________________.
D. Confidentiality
“Do good” Promoting the patient’s best interests and well-being.
26. A physician has instructed the healthcare
team not to reveal the full extent of a “_____________________,” meaning “Do no harm” — avoiding
unnecessary harm or risk to patients.
diagnosis to avoid upsetting the patient.
What ethical principle was violated? Ensuring ___________ in distribution of resources and equal treatment.
A. Autonomy Obligation to tell the _________; honesty in communication and
B. Beneficence documentation.
C. Veracity ____________________ and commitments; maintaining trust in
D. Non-maleficence professional relationships.
Respecting the __________ of patient information.
Being _________________ for one’s actions and decisions in professional
practice.
Upholding ethical standards, integrity, and respect for others.

27. Intrathecal: Answer: ________

A. Synovial fluid Route of Administration Target Site
B. Epidural space
C. Cerebrospinal fluid Intrathecal _____________________________ in the subarachnoid space
D. Pleural cavity Epidural ____________________ (outside the dura mater)
Intraspinal ___________________ (includes both intrathecal and epidural)
Intra-articular ______________________ within a joint space
Intrapleural ___________________ (between lungs and chest wall)
Intramedullary _____________________________ (usually long bones like femur/tibia)

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Question Rationale
28. Which of the following are classified as Answer: ________
a Category D (Specialized Outpatient)
Facility? Classification of Other Healthcare Facilities

I. Clinics A B C D
II. Drug Rehabilitation Centers
III. Dialysis Clinics
Basic _____________ _____________ care For ___________ Provides specific
IV. IVF Centers health service, may for chronic illness, or monitoring via _____________
A. I, II, III include short-term mental disorders, or _________ _____________ _____________ or
care. dependency. ________. treatments.
B. III, IV
C. II, III, IV Without beds: - Psychiatric centers - Labs (e.g. HIV, NBS) - ____________
D. I, II, III, IV ___________
- ___________ (medical, - ___________ - Radiologic centers
dental, OFW) (X-ray, CT, MRI) - Ambulatory surgical
- Nursing homes clinics
With beds: - Nuclear medicine
- Leprosaria facilities - ____________
- Infirmary
- Hospices - Chemo- therapy
- Birthing homes centers
- Rehab (physical
medicine) centers
- Radiation oncology

29. A 58-year-old male patient presents a Answer: ________

prescription for Ofloxacin Otic Solution
0.3% for the treatment of bilateral otitis Abbreviation Meaning Abbreviation Meaning
externa. The signa reads: Instill 3 gtts a.u. Before meals (ante cibum) By mouth (per os)
hs × 7d
After meals (post cibum) Subcutaneously
Interpret.
Twice a day Right eye
A. Instill 3 drops into the right ear every
bedtime for 7 days Three times a day Left eye
B. Instill 3 drops into both ears at bedtime Four times a day Both eyes
for 7 days
C. Instill 3 drops into the left ear in the Every day Right ear
morning for 7 days Every other da Left ear
D. Instill 3 drops into both eyes at bedtime
for 7 weeks Every * hour (e.g., q4h = every 4 Both ears
hours)
At bedtime (hora somni) Drop(s) (guttae)

Immediately (statim) Ointment (unguentum)

As needed (pro re nata) A sufficient quantity

Once daily Mix to make

Interpretation:

gtts - a.u. - h.s. - 7d -

30. Which of the following pharmaceutical Answer: ________

preparations must have the method of When labeling Purified Water, USP, the _______________________ must be stated on
preparation indicated on its label, as per the label.
USP requirements?
1.
A. Aromatic water 2.
B. Purified Water, USP 3.
C. Syrup, USP *Only _______________ and ____________________ can be used in the preparation of
D. Alcohol, USP Sterile Water for Injection (non-pyrogenic).
31. A pharmacist compounded an oral Answer: ________
antibiotic solution without the use of USP <795> — Nonsterile Compounding BUDs
any preservative. For how long, from the
date of compounding, is the preparation Preparation Type BUD Storage Condition
recommended to be used?
Aqueous, non-preserved Refrigerated
A. 7 days
Aqueous, preserved Room temp or refrigerated
B. 14 days
C. 90 days Nonaqueous DF Room temperature
D. 35 days Solid DF Room temperature

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Question Rationale
32. A nurse mistakenly administers 200 mg 32. Answer: ________ 33. Answer: ________
of Phenytoin IV at a rapid push instead
of the prescribed 100 mg dose, due to a Medication Errors
misreading of the handwritten chart. The Type Description
patient does not experience any adverse
Has __________ for error, but ___________ ______________
reaction, but the error is identified during
post-dose charting and reported to the
hospital's medication safety committee. Error occurred, but ________________ the patient
What type of medication error is this?
Error __________ the patient, but ____________ occurred
A. Type C C. Type B
Reached the patient and _____________ ______________________________
B. Type E D. Type D
___, but no harm
33. An elderly patient received vincristine Caused ______________________ and required _________________
intrathecally instead of intravenously,
Caused _____________________ requiring initial or prolonged
resulting in irreversible paralysis.
__________________
A. Type E C. Type I
Caused ________________ patient harm
B. Type G D. Type H
Required intervention to ______________
Error resulted in ______________

34. This section of the PNF lists medicines for Answer: ________
priority diseases but may require special
diagnostic/ monitoring facilities, or be less Sections of the PNF
cost-effective, or have higher toxicity risks. Essential, cost-effective, for all levels of care; for _______________ of
These are used as alternatives. population

A. Core list For special cases (Core drug _______________ be given)

B. Generic substitution
C. Complementary List
D. List B • __________ (under PNF Definition of Terms) - Generic drugs requiring ____________
________________________ for inclusion.
• _____________________ - dispensing a generic equivalent of a brand-name drug
that contains the same API, DF, strength, and ROA.
35. ASHP stands for: Answer: ________
A. American Society for Hospital ASHP
Pharmacists
B. Association of Safe Hospital Practices Caused ______________________ and required _________________
C. American Society of Health-System AHA
Pharmacists
TJC
D. Accreditation Standards for Hospital
Pharmacy JCAH / JCAHO Joint Commission on Accreditation of
AHFS American Hospital Formulary Service
CDC Centers for ________________________ and Prevention
ISMP Institute for Safe Medication Practices
IOM Institute of Medicine
ACCP American College of Clinical Pharmacy
AACP American Association of Colleges of Pharmacy
APhA American Pharmacists Association
PTC or P&T Committee
IPA
BPS Board of Pharmacy Specialties
PTCB Pharmacy Technician Certification Board
NPSF National Patient Safety Foundation
HMO

36. Which of the following scenarios best Answer: ________

represents a pull system in pharmacy
inventory management? PULL SYSTEM ________________ dictates supply

A. The central pharmacy automatically PUSH SYSTEM ________________ dictates supply

orders a fixed number of medications at
the beginning of each month regardless
of usage.
B. A supplier delivers medications based
on a predetermined standing order
contract, regardless of current stock
levels.
C. A pharmacy technician monitors the
actual usage of drugs in the ward and
places orders only when stock reaches a
set minimum level.
D. The warehouse sends regular shipments
based on forecasted demand created six
months in advance.

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Question Rationale
37. Determine the USP storage condition Answer: ________
classification of a shipment requiring 11±2
C. Storage Condition Meaning Storage Condition Meaning
(USP <659>)
A. Freezer
Freezer Controlled Room
B. Cold
Temperature
C. Cool
D. Controlled room temperature Cold Warm

Cool Excessive Heat

38. Which of the following needle gauge Answer: ________

numbers represents the largest actual In needle gauge sizing, the smaller the gauge number, the ________ the needle’s
diameter? diameter (_____________ PROPORTIONAL).
A. 18G C. 21G
B. 14G D. 33G
39. It is the responsible provision of drug Answer: ________
therapy for the purpose of achieving
definite outcomes that improve a patient’s “Patients receive medications appropriate to their clinical needs, in
doses that meet their own individual requirements, for an adequate
quality of life. period of time, and at the lowest cost to them and their community.”
A. Rational Drug Use ‘________ everything’
B. Pharmaceutical Care “the responsible provision of ________ ____________ for the
C. Evidence-based Medicine purpose of achieving definite outcomes that improve a patient’s
D. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring __________________.”
“the conscientious, explicit and judicious use of current ______________
______________________ about the care of individual patients.”
“ the clinical practice of measuring specific drugs at designated
intervals to maintain a _________________________ in a patient's
bloodstream, thereby ______________________________________________
______.”

40. Potassium Chloride can be administered Answer: ________

through the following method/s of • _____________________________________ is contraindicated as methods of
administration, except: administration for KCl due to risk of ________________________________. This was
I. IV drip III. Rapid IV infusion once used in __________________.
II. Oral IV. IV piggyback • __________________ administrations of KCl are also contraindicated due to risk of
severe ___________________.
A. I, II, IV C. III only
B. I, II, III, IV D. I and III
41. This is detected in the urine of pregnant Answer: ________
patients.
Marker Clinical Use / For
A. HCG
B. AFP _______________, gestational trophoblastic disease, testicular cancer
C. CEA Neural tube defects, hepatocellular carcinoma
D. PSA
Colorectal and other GI cancers
Prostate cancer screening and monitoring

42. This section states the primary reason for Answer: ________
the patient’s consultation.
Main reason for the visit
A. PMH
B. HPI Neural tube defects, hepatocellular carcinoma
C. ROS Detailed narrative of current symptoms
D. CC
Previous illnesses, surgeries, hospitalizations
Current and past medications
Health conditions in close relatives
Lifestyle, occupation, habits (e.g., smoking)
Systematic symptom check by body system

43. Plavix Answer: ________

A. Antidiabetic C. Antiplatelet Plavix (_____________) is an ________________ agent that prevents _______________
B. Antipsychotic D. Bronchodilator formation.
44. Based on the values above, what is the most Answer: ________
likely acid–base disorder?
Disorder pH HCO₃- PaCO₂
Parameter Result Normal Range
Metabolic Alkalosis Normal (initially)
pH 7.30 7.35 – 7.45 Metabolic Acidosis Normal (initially)
PaCO₂ 52 mmHg 35 – 45 mmHg Respiratory Alkalosis Normal (initially)
HCO₃- 24 mEq/L 22 – 26 mEq/L Respiratory Acidosis Normal (Initially)

A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis

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Question Rationale
45. In drug interaction references, “drug Answer: ________
affected by the interaction is referred to as
the:
Precipitant ____________ the interaction
A. Receptor C. Substrate
B. Object D. Precipitant Object _____________ by the interaction

46. Which of the following drugs is classified Answer: ________

as a urinary antiseptic?
Drug Therapeutic Class
A. Mannitol
B. Ciprofloxacin Nitrofurantoin*
C. Nitrofurantoin Ciprofloxacin
D. Metronidazole
Mannitol
Metronidazole

47. What adverse effect may result from the Answer: ________
intake of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?
Adverse Effect Commonly Associated Drug/Class
A. Rhabdomyolysis
B. Ototoxicity Rhabdomyolysis*
C. Gingival hyperplasia Ototoxicity
D. Hepatotoxicity
Gingival hyperplasia
Peripheral neuritis

48. The IV fluid D5W means: Answer: ________

A. 5 g Dextromethorphan in Water Abbreviation Stands For
B. 5 mL Dextrose in Water
C. 5% Dextrose in NSS 5% Dextrose in Water
D. 5% Dextrose in Water 10% Dextrose in Water
Normal Saline Solution (0.9% Sodium Chloride)
Half Normal Saline Solution (0.45% Sodium Chloride)
5% Dextrose in 0.9% Sodium Chloride
5% Dextrose in 0.45% Sodium Chloride
Lactated Ringer’s / Ringer’s Lactate
5% Dextrose in Lactated Ringer’s
Hypertonic Saline (3% Sodium Chloride)

49. Increased levels of ________________ Answer: ________

indicate bacterial infection.
↑ Neutrophil
A. Basophil
B. Eosinophil ↑ Lymphocytes
C. Neutrophil ↑ Monocytes
D. Lymphocytes
↑ Eosinophil
↑ Basophil

50. Iron Deficiency Anemia leads to: Answer: ________

A. Normocytic RBCs Microcytic
B. Hyperchromic RBCs
C. Macrocytic RBCs Normocytic
D. Microcytic RBCs Macrocytic

51. A patient has a GFR of 0.06L/min and was Answer: ________

diagnosed with CKD. What is the patient’s
stage of illness? Stage (CKD) GFR (mL/min) Stage (CKD) GFR (mL/min)

A. Stage 1 1 3B
B. Stage 2 2 4
C. Stage 3A
D. Stage 4 3A 5

52. Which of the following can be markers for Answer: ________

myocardial infarction? CARDIAC BIOMARKERS
I. Troponin I III. AST
Mnemonic:
II. CK-BB IV. LDH 1
A. I only C. I, III, and IV
B. I and IV D. AOTA
53. The following factors do not increase the Answer: ________
risk of Lanoxin® toxicity: Lanoxin® is the BN of ___________. The following are the factors that increase the
I. Hyperkalemia III. Hypocalcemia risk of its toxicity:
II. Hypermagnesemia IV. Hypoxia
Deficiency states
A. I, II, and III C. II, III, and IV
B. I, III, and IV D. All of the above Excess state

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MODULE 3
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Question Rationale
54. Iopamidol Answer: ________
A. Disinfectant Iodine-containing Radiocontrast Agents
B. Antiseptic
C. Radiocontrast agent CT scans, angiography, urography
D. Iodine supplement Renal imaging, GFR measurement, excretory urography
CT, intravenous urography, cerebral angiography

55. The following antihypertensive drugs can Answer: ________

be used in pregnant patients, except: Antihypertensive drugs for pregnant patients:
I. Metoprolol III.Labetalol
II. Hydralazine IV. Nicardipine
A. II, III, IV C. II and III
B. I, II, III, IV D. I and IV
56. BCS Class III drugs are characterized by: 56. Answer: ________ 57. Answer: ________
A. High permeability, low solubility BCS Class Solubility Permeability Example Drugs
B. Low permeability, low solubility
C. Low permeability, high solubility ___________, Propranolol, ___________________, Amoxicillin,
I
Verapamil, Diltiazem
D. High solubility, high permeability
Ibuprofen, Diclofenac, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin,
57. Glibenclamide is under BCS classification: II ___________________, ___________________,
A. I ___________________
B. II III _____________, Ranitidine, Acyclovir, Atenolol, Famotidine
C. III
HCTZ, _________________, Paclitaxel, Ritonavir,
D. IV IV
Chlorothiazide, ____________________
BCS Classes ____________ (both have high solubility) are eligible for
______________— in vivo bioavailability and/or bioequivalence studies are not
necessary for product approval.
58. Beractant Answer: ________
A. Anti-glaucoma C. Lung surfactant Beractant is a natural ____________________ preparation used to treat or prevent
B. Antineoplastic D. Bronchodilator neonatal _____________________________________, especially in preterm infants.
59. What type of laxative is Bisacodyl? Answer: ________
A. Saline Laxative Class of Laxative MOA Example Drugs
B. Bulk-forming laxative
C. Stool softener Bulk-forming agents Increase stool bulk and retain ________
D. Stimulant laxative Stool softeners (emollients) Lower ___________ ____________ to mix
water and stool
Osmotic/Saline laxatives Draw water into the bowel via
_____________
Stimulant laxatives (irritants) Directly stimulate ________________ to
enhance motility

60. The following beta blockers can also block Answer: ________
alpha receptors, leading to an added
vasodilation effect: Beta-Blockers with MOA
vasodilatory effect
I. Labetalol III. Propranolol
II. Esmolol IV. Carvedilol
A. I, III, IV C. II and III
B. I and II D. I and IV

For 61-63: 61. Answer: ________ 62. Answer: ________ 63. Answer: ________
A 28-year-old female with a history of Class Drugs
moderate persistent asthma presents
for a routine follow-up. She reports Salbutamol (Albuterol), Terbutaline, Levalbuterol
occasional tremors and difficulty sleeping. Salmeterol, Formoterol, Indacaterol, Bambuterol
Her current medications include:
Beclomethasone, Budesonide, Fluticasone, Mometasone
Albuterol, Budesonide/Formoterol inhaler,
Montelukast, and Theophylline. Prednisone, Prednisolone, Methylprednisolone, Hydrocortisone,
Dexamethasone
61. Which of the following medications in this
Montelukast, Zafirlukast, Pranlukast
patient’s regimen is a long-acting beta-2
agonist (LABA)? Zileuton
A. Albuterol C. Formoterol Cromolyn sodium, Nedocromil sodium
B. Budesonide D. Montelukast
Theophylline, Aminophylline
62. The patient reports tremors and Ipratropium bromide
palpitations. Which drug is the most likely
cause of these symptoms? Tiotropium
A. Budesonide C. Albuterol
Common ADRs
B. Montelukast D. Theophylline
β2-Agonists (SABA & LABA)
63. Montelukast is classified as which of the
following? Inhaled Corticosteroids (ICS)
A. Inhaled corticosteroid Systemic Corticosteroids
B. Leukotriene receptor antagonist
Muscarinic Antagonists
C. Mast cell stabilizer (SAMA/LAMA)
D. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

11
MODULE 3
Practice of Pharmacy FINAL COACHING NOVEMBER 2025

Question Rationale
64. Which of the following is/are classified as Answer: ________
an aminoglycoside? Aminoglycosides
I. Rifampicin III. Erythromycin
II. Streptomycin IV. Gentamicin • •
• •
A. II, III C. II, III, IV
• •
B. I, II, III D. II, IV
“-mycin” - from _______________________
“-micin” - from _______________________
65. Indapamide belongs to which drug class? Answer: ________
A. Thiazide diuretics Thiazide Diuretics (TZD) Thiazide-like Diuretics
B. Sulfonylureas
C. SSRI Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Biguanide Chlorothiazide
Bendroflumethiazide
_________________________ lack the _____________________ ring but inhibit the same
_____________________ in the _______.
66. A 60-year-old man reports that he has Answer: ________
been smoking 15 sticks of cigarettes per
day for 25 years. How many pack-years has
he smoked?
A. 15 pack-years
B. 18.75 pack-years
C. 20.25 pack-years
D. 25 pack-years
67. Which of the following is correctly paired? Answer: ________
I. Heparin: aPTT III. Heparin: PT-INR Heparin (Intrinsic Pathway)
II. Warfarin: aPTT IV. Warfarin: PT-INR
Warfarin
A. I and IV C. II and IV (Extrinsic Pathway)
B. II and III D. I and III
Normal INR value in px taking warfarin:
68. Benzenesulfonylureas are therapeutically Answer: ________
employed as:
Drugs MOA Common ADRs
A. Diuretic
B. Antidiabetic 1st gen Stimulate __________ _______________,
secretion by blocking weight gain
C. Antihypertensive
K+ channels in
D. Antimicrobial __________________

2nd gen

69. Which of the following is the subscription? Answer: ________

A. M. ft. susp. 60 mL Part Description
B. Take one capsule three times daily after
meals The symbol “Rx” meaning “_____________” or “___________”
C. Acetaminophen 500 mg Name, strength, and dosage form of the prescribed drug
D. Rx
Directions to the _____________ (e.g., quantity to dispense)
Instructions to the _____________ (e.g., dose, route, frequency)
Prescriber Info Name, license number, signature, and contact details
Patient Info Name, age, sex, and sometimes address
Date The date the prescription was written.

70. Acacia, in the presence of ferric salts, will Answer: ________

exhibit:
Acacia + ___________ salts →
A. Precipitation C. Salting-out
B. Cementation D. Gelatinization + ___________ salts →

71. Which of the following drugs have narrow Answer: ________

TI? Narrow or Low TI -
I. Lithium
Wide or High TI -
II. Digoxin
III. Aspirin Common Drugs with narrow Therapeutic Index:
IV. Insulin
• •
A. II only
• •
B. I and II
• •
C. I, II, IV
•
D. I, II, III, IV

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MODULE 3
Practice of Pharmacy FINAL COACHING NOVEMBER 2025

Question Rationale
72. In a drug interaction, what would best Answer: ________
describe the result if Drug A inhibits the In this scenario, Drug B is the _________ drug— it should be the one being
excretion of Drug B?* _________.
A. Drug A is rapidly cleared from the body
Excretion inhibited → _______________ promoted → _____________ serum levels of
B. Drug B becomes pharmacologically
Drug B (potentially ________)
inactive
C. Drug B levels increase, potentially
causing toxicity
D. Drug A neutralizes Drug B in the
bloodstream
73. What is the important patient counseling Answer: ________
point when dispensing corticosteroid- Inhaled corticosteroid use is associated with ___________________ (_____________).
containing inhalational preparations to __________________________ after use significantly reduces this risk.
asthmatic patients?
A. Take the medication only during asthma
attacks for quick relief.
B. Rinse the mouth with water after each
use.
C. Stop using the inhaler once symptoms
improve.
D. Shake the inhaler for at least 5 mins
before each use.
74. There is some evidence suggesting a Answer: ________
potential drug interaction may occur, but
more data are needed to confirm it. How is CLINICAL SIGNIFICANCE OF DRUG INTERACTIONS
this interaction classified? Established ____________ and __________________; supported by well-controlled
studies
A. Probable
B. Suspected Probable __________________; strong clinical suspicion
C. Possible Suspected ______________ occur; needs more evidence
D. Unlikely
Possible ____________ occur; data are limited or conflicting
Unlikely ______________ or rare

75. Which of the following are examples of 75. Answer: ________ 76. Answer: ________
potentiation reactions?
Type of Interaction Examples
I. Augmentin®
II. Sinemet® • Alcohol + ______ → ↑ CNS depression
III. BZD + Alcohol • Warfarin + aspirin → ↑ __________ risk
IV. Epinephrine + Histamine • ACE inhibitor + diuretic → ↑ hypotension
• Antihistamine + sedative → ↑ ______________
A. I and II • Sulfamethoxazole + _____________ → ↑ antibacterial activity
B. I, II, III (bactericidal)
C. III and IV • Clopidogrel + aspirin → ↑ antiplatelet effect
D. NOTA • Nitrate (or other potent vasodilators) + sildenafil → risk of severe
__________________
76. 1+1=3

• Clavulanic acid + _______________→ β-lactamase inhibition

• Levodopa + _____________→ ↑ CNS dopamine
A. Additive
B. Potentiation
• _______________ + penicillin → ↓ renal excretion of penicillin
C. Antagonism
D. Synergism • Naloxone + opioids → reversal of opioid effects
• ________________ + benzodiazepines → reversal of sedation
• Salbutamol + ______________→
• ↓ bronchodilation
• ______________+ histamine → opposing effects

77. The following decreases the metabolic Answer: ________

activity of CYP450 enzymes:
CYP Inhibitors (SICKFACES.COM) CYP Inducers (SCRAP GPST)
I. Azithromycin
II. CBZ S– S–
III. Sodium valproate I– C–
IV. Sulfamethoxazole
C– R–

A. I and II K– A–
B. I, III, and IV F– P–
C. III and IV
A– G–
D. AOTA
C– P–
E– S–
S– T–
C–
O–
M–

Note:
____________________ is the only macrolide that has no enzyme inhibition effects.

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MODULE 3
Practice of Pharmacy FINAL COACHING NOVEMBER 2025

Question Rationale
78. Aspirin was administered with magnesium 78. Answer: ________ 79. Answer: ________
hydroxide. What will be the resulting
interaction? Drug Environment Form

A. Increased gastric absorption of aspirin Acidic

due to enhanced solubility Basic
B. Decreased aspirin absorption due to
Acidic
gastric alkalinization
C. Increased aspirin excretion due to urine Basic
acidification
D. Formation of aspirin–magnesium
complex, increasing absorption
79. Which of the following conditions will most
likely enhance the urinary excretion of
phenobarbital?
A. Co-administration with ammonium
chloride
B. Co-administration with sodium
bicarbonate
C. Presence of acidic urine
D. Administration with antacids
80. A serious potential adverse effect that may Answer: ________
occur; use is allowed but with heightened
caution. Term Meaning

A. Risk A condition that requires close monitoring or dose adjustment to

_________________ during drug use.
B. Precaution
C. Warning A serious potential adverse effect that may occur; use is allowed but
D. Contraindication with ___________________________.
A situation where the drug ___________ be used because it poses
___________________.

81. Which of the following can be dispensed Answer: ________

without a prescription?
Drug OTC Strength(s) Rx-Only Strength(s)
A. Advil® 400 mg
B. Cataflam® 50 mg Mefenamic acid
C. Ponstan® 250 mg Ibuprofen
D. Dolfenal 500 mg
Diclofenac
Naproxen

BNs:
• Advil -
• Cataflam/Voltaren -
• Ponstan/Dolfenal -
• Flanax -
82. Which of the following is not a prescription Answer: ________
(Rx) medication?*
Diphenhydramine ________ antihistamine
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Sertraline Sertraline ________ antidepressant
C. Amoxicillin Amoxicillin ________ antibiotic
D. Atorvastatin
Atorvastatin ________ statin for cholesterol

83. Black box warning for Celecoxib: Answer: ________

A. Risk of pulmonary fibrosis Celecoxib, a __________________ NSAID, increases the risk of
B. Increased risk of serious cardiovascular _____________________________ and serious _____________________ _________________,
and gastrointestinal adverse events particularly with long-term use. This is its FDA-mandated black box warning.
C. High potential for physical dependence
Due to significantly increased risks, _______________________ was withdrawn in 2004.
and withdrawal symptoms
D. Risk of agranulocytosis and aplastic
anemia
84. The following drugs should not be taken Answer: ________
together with milk, except: Milk contains _________________ that can _________ certain drugs, especially:
I. Griseofulvin III. Amoxicillin •
II. Minocycline IV. Ciprofloxacin •
A. II only C. I and III The interaction also applies in other food or drugs containing _____________________
B. I, II, and III D. II and IV ____________.
85. For how long should the prescription book Answer: ________
be kept on file?
Prescription Book
A. 1 year
B. 2 years Dangerous Drug Record
Book (__________________)
C. 3 years
D. 5 years Poison Book ___________ (in RA 5921)

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MODULE 3
Practice of Pharmacy FINAL COACHING NOVEMBER 2025

Question Rationale
86. Which of the following adverse drug 86. Answer: ________ 87. Answer: ________ 88. Answer: ________
reactions is classified as Type C?
ADR Type
A. Anaphylaxis from penicillin
B. Teratogenicity from isotretinoin ________________ – • ____________________ with insulin
__________________ and • ______________ with warfarin
C. EPS with prolonged antipsychotic use
______________ from known
D. Rebound hypertension after clonidine pharmacology
• Bradycardia with beta-blockers
withdrawal
ADR Type
87. Which of the following are correctly
______________ – Not dose- • Anaphylaxis from penicillin
paired? dependent, unpredictable, • Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) from _________________
I. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome from often immunologic or
• SLE from HIPS (_______________, _______________, _______________,
genetic
sulfonamides – Type B _______________)
II. Bleeding from warfarin – Type C ADR Type
III. Carcinogenicity from alkylating agents
– Type D ___________ – Related to • _______________________ (Adrenal suppression from chronic
long-term therapy steroids)
IV. Oral contraceptive failure due to
• _______ with prolonged antipsychotic use
rifampin – Type F
• Alcohol addiction/ dependence
A. I and II only C. I, III, and IV only
ADR Type
B. II, III, and IV only D. All of the above
_________ – Effects appear
88. An unknowingly pregnant woman took after prolonged use (even
diethylstilbestrol (DES) for prevention of after discontinuation)
miscarriage. The baby was delivered safely, ADR Type
but after 20 years, she developed clear
cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina, a rare __________________ • _______________________ (adrenal insufficiency after CS withdrawal)
(withdrawal) – Reactions • _______________________ after stopping clonidine or beta-blockers
malignancy. What type of adverse drug due to __________
reaction is this? • Insomnia, anxiety after discontinuing SSRIs
__________________
A. Type D C. Type B ADR Type
B. Type C D. Type A
________ of therapy – • Therapeutic failure of OCPs due to _________ ______________
Usually due to drug–drug • Antibiotic resistance
interactions, resistance, or
• Subtherapeutic dosing
inadequate dosing
• Lack of ______________ _________________

89. Studies on Drug X have shown it to be Answer: ________

safe in pregnant animals, but no adequate
studies have been conducted in pregnant Category Animal Studies Human Studies Examples
women. What is the FDA pregnancy A Folic acid, levothyroxine
category of Drug X?
Metformin, amoxicillin,
A. Category D B ondansetron
B. Category B
C. Category C C
Fluoroquinolones, SSRIs,
D. Category X tramadol
Phenytoin, valproic acid,
D
ACE inhibitors
Isotretinoin, thalidomide,
X
warfarin, DES

90. Ebstein’s anomaly is a teratogenic effect 90. Answer: ________ 91. Answer: ________
caused by taking ___________ during the
first trimester of pregnancy. Drug / Drug Class Teratogenic Effects

A. Enalapril Isotretinoin Craniofacial, cardiac, and CNS defects

B. Warfarin Valproic acid Neural tube defects (e.g., ______________), facial dysmorphism
C. Diethylstilbestrol
Phenytoin ___________________________: cleft palate, growth retardation, cardiac
D. Lithium defects
91. Which of the following drugs are paired Carbamazepine ____________________, craniofacial defects
correctly with their teratogenic effects:
ACE inhibitors
I. Warfarin: Nasal hypoplasia
Warfarin _____________________________: _________________________, stippled
II. Ciprofloxacin: Tendinitis epiphyses, CNS defects
III. Valproic Acid: Renal Dysgenesis
IV. Thalidomide: Phocomelia Tetracyclines ________ discoloration, inhibition of ______ __________
Thalidomide Phocomelia/ Amelia (deformed/ no limbs)
A. I, II, and IV
Lithium ________________________ (tricuspid valve malformation)
B. I, III, and IV
C. II, III, and IV Fluoroquinolones Cartilage damage, _____________
D. AOTA Diethylstilbestrol (DES) _____________________________________ in female offspring

92. The principle of Mantoux test is based on Answer: ________

which type of Bizarre ADR?
Type Mechanism Examples
A. Type I
B. Type II Immediate (IgE-mediated, Anaphylaxis (penicillin), urticaria, allergic
I
________________) asthma
C. Type III
D. Type IV II
________________ (antibody-mediated) ________________ (e.g., aplastic anemia by
Chloramphenicol)
III _____________ __________–mediated Serum sickness, SLE
_____________ (T-cell–mediated) Contact dermatitis from poison ivy
IV (____________), ____________ test (Tuberculin
Skin Test)

15
MODULE 3
Practice of Pharmacy FINAL COACHING NOVEMBER 2025

Question Rationale
93. Which of the following conditions Answer: ________
will result in decreased absorption or Refer to Item 78 rationale.
reabsorption of the drug?
Duodenum (Small Intestine) - ______ environment
I. Acidic drug in the duodenum
II. Acidic drug in the stomach Stomach - ________ environment
III. Basic drug in the stomach
IV. Alkaline drug in acidic urine
Same pH →
A. I and II C. II and III
B. I, III, and IV D. I, II, III, and IV Opposite pH →
94. What type of Error is shown in the 94. Answer: ________ 95. Answer: ________ 96. Answer: ________
prescription?
Error Type Examples Fill File and report
Patient Name: Juan dela Cruz
Age/Gender: 35/Male - ____ written before ____
Date: June 27, 2025 Erroneous - GN in _______________
- ____ not enclosed in parenthesis
Rx
Biogesic (Paracetamol) 500 mg - Only the ____ is written
Take 1 tablet every 6 hours as needed for Violative - GN is _________________
headache
- "_____________________"

Prescribed by: - Only GN is written but ____ _____________

Dr. Patricia Beatrice M. Santos, RPh, MD - Entire prescription is _____________
License No.: 142563 Impossible
- BN does not _____________ with GN
PTR No. : 67890
- Not ___________________
A. Erroneous C. Impossible
B. Violative D. No error ______________________
• Amended ___________________________________________ to allow prescribers to
95. What type of error is it when multiple
write ______________________ drug or preparation per prescription form.
drugs/drug preparation is written in a
single prescription form only?
A. Erroneous C. Impossible
B. Violative D. No error
96. The following makes a prescription
impossible, except:
I. Procainamide (Prozac®)
II. “No substitution”
III. Drug is not FDA registered
IV. BN precedes the GN
A. III only C. II and IV
B. I and III D. I, II, and IV
97. A patient taking warfarin was recently Answer: ________
started on sulfamethoxazole. Both drugs
are highly protein-bound. What is the most Drug-drug interactions
likely result of this interaction? Pharmacokinetic ________ affected
A. Decreased warfarin free concentration Pharmacodynamic _____________ of drug effect affected
leading to reduced anticoagulant effect
B. Increased warfarin protein binding and This is a ________________ interaction involving drug ________________. The main
delayed onset of action interaction is due to plasma protein ________________. Sulfamethoxazole will
C. Increased free warfarin concentration compete for __________ _________________ → _________ free warfarin → ___________
leading to enhanced anticoagulant anticoagulation.
effect .
D. Increased renal elimination of warfarin
due to competition for tubular secretion
98. Which of the following drugs is most likely Answer: ________
to cause kernicterus when administered to
neonates? • Bilirubin - breakdown product of ______
A. Chloramphenicol • __________________ compete with bilirubin for albumin binding sites → ↑
B. Gentamicin unconjugated (free) bilirubin → crosses into CNS → _______________ (bilirubin
C. Cotrimoxazole encephalopathy)
D. Ampicillin • Cotrimoxazole = Trimethoprim + _____________________

99. Explain the interaction between topical Answer: ________

lidocaine and epinephrine. Lidocaine + Epinephrine (______________________ Interaction)
A. Epinephrine enhances the effect of • Epinephrine + local anesthetics → localized _____________________ →
lidocaine by increasing its lipid solubility, _______________ the systemic absorption of lidocaine, thereby:
allowing deeper tissue penetration • _______________ its anesthetic effect
B. Epinephrine and lidocaine interact • Reducing the risk of __________________
pharmacodynamically to suppress nerve • Minimizing ____________ at the injection site
conduction via dual mechanisms
C. Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction,
which prolongs lidocaine’s local effect
and reduces bleeding
D. Epinephrine inactivates lidocaine
enzymatically, reducing its local
anesthetic effect

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MODULE 3
Practice of Pharmacy FINAL COACHING NOVEMBER 2025

Question Rationale
100. Which of the following is the most Answer: ________
common adverse effect associated with Isosorbide dinitrate (ISDN), a ________ vasodilator, causes _________________,
ISDN therapy? leading to increased intracranial blood flow. This commonly results in
A. Bradycardia C. Hypokalemia ________________________, especially at the start of therapy.
B. Headache D. Dry cough
Recall ________________________________.

17