BPSC CONCEPT WALLAH 70th BPSC Prelims Mock Test (Online & Offline)-2

1. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

(1) Boiling is a bulk phenomenon

(2) Evaporation is a surface phenomena
(3) Increase in the pressure around the surroundings increases the boiling point of liquid
(4) Increase in the pressure around the surroundings decreases the boiling point of the liquid.

Choose the correct answer from the codes below.

a) 1 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 4 only
Answer: d

Explanation:
● Bulk phenomenon are the phenomenon in which all molecules of the substance are involved. Eg: Boiling.
● While the Surface phenomenon occurs at the boundaries Eg. Evaporation and surface tension
● There is a direct relationship between pressure around the surroundings and the boiling point of the
liquid. This is the reason why food gets cooked faster in a pressure cooker, as increased pressure inside the
pressure cooker increases the boiling point of water, while at the hills or at high altitudes food gets cooked
slower as low pressure decreases the boiling point of the liquid.

2. “When we boil eggs, it becomes white and its yolk harden” this is primarily due to ?
A. Denaturation of amino acids
B. Denaturation of carbohydrates in eggs
C. Due to osmosis
D. Due to selective permeable hard cover of egg.
Ans:-A

Explanation:
· When a protein is in its native state, the amino acids are folded in a very specific way that gives the protein
its shape, and that shape, among other things, gives the protein its properties. A large part of what
determines this native shape is how it interacts with water. Parts of the protein are hydrophilic, meaning they
love water, and other parts are hydrophobic, meaning they will always avoid water. The water-loving parts will
find themselves with the water on the outside of the molecule while the water-avoiding parts hide on the
inside of the protein. This interaction, as well as many others, will keep the protein in its shape until we start
boiling eggs.
· When we put the eggs in the pot and start heating then the process of denaturation takes place .
Denaturation is what happens when heat is applied to the eggs. Chemically, this is the process by which the
chains of amino acids are changed from their original (or native) state. The heat coming from the stove
denatures the protein by disrupting some of its bonds that held the molecule into shape. In the case of
hard-boiled eggs, the proteins clump together and solidify, causing the egg white and yolk to harden.

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3. Grapes and unripe mangoes have which acid present in it?

A. Acetic acid
B. Tartaric acid
C. Oxalic acid
D. Ascorbic acid
Ans:-B

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Note: - This table is very important for BPSC and students are advised to be thorough with this table.

4. Which enzyme present in saliva acts as “Antibacterial” agent that prevents Infection?

A. Lipase

B. Lysozyme

C. Amylase

D. Peptase

Ans: - B

· The saliva secreted into the oral cavity contains electrolytes and enzymes, salivary amylase and lysozyme.

· The chemical process of digestion is initiated in the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the
carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase.

· About 30 per cent of starch is hydrolyzed here by this enzyme (optimum pH 6.8) into a disaccharide –
maltose.

· Lysozyme present in saliva acts as an antibacterial agent that prevents infections.

· It is to be noted that “Lysozymes” is also present in tears and hence prevents infection of eyes when
someone cries.

BCW Bits:-

· Stomach stores the food for 4-5 hours

· The food mixes with the gastric juices and then it is called “CHYME”.

· HCL of the stomach provides acidic environment for the optimal functioning of pepsins.

Objective of this question:-

· You can arrive at the right answer through the “Odd one out” rule.

5. Consider the following statements.

(i) Amatol is a mixture of TNT and Ammonium Nitrate
(ii) RDX is known as Plastic Explosives
(iii) Nitroglycerine is known as Noble’s Oil
(iv) RDX is an explosive that can’t be shaped or moulded.
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BPSC CONCEPT WALLAH 70th BPSC Prelims Mock Test (Online & Offline)-2

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?

1. (i) and (iii) only
2. (iv) only
3. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
4. None of the above

Answer- B

Explanation: statement (iv) - incorrect

Statements (i),(ii) and (iii) are correct.
● Trinitrotoluene(TNT) was invented by German Chemist Joseph Wilbrand, it requires a detonator hence
doesn’t explode with a shock. When mixed with Ammonium Nitrate it forms another explosive substance
called Amatol. (TNT + Ammonium Nitrate—> Amatol).
● The Royal Demolition eXplosive(RDX) was invented by Georg Friedrich Henning of Germany. It is also
known as Cyclonite or Hexogen. It can be moulded or re-shaped hence it is also known as Plastic Explosives.
● Nitroglycerine is also known as Noble’s Oil, it is formed when Glycerol reacts with a mixture of Nitric and
Sulphuric acid. Mixing Nitroglycerine with KieselGuhr forms Dynamite.

6. Which one of the following oxides reacts with both an acid and a base?
A) Aluminium oxide
B) Calcium oxide
C) Sodium oxide
D) Potassium oxide

Answer – A

Explanation – Aluminium oxide is an amphoteric oxide that reacts with both acid and base to form salt and
water.

Aluminium oxide behaves as an acidic oxide in the following example because here it reacts with a base to
form salt and water.

Al2O3 + 2 NaOH --- 2 NaAlO2 + H2O

Aluminium oxide also behaves as a basic oxide, when it reacts with an acid to form salt and water. For
example,

Al2O3 + 6 HCl --- 2 AlCl3 + 3 H2

Note – An amphoteric oxide is a metal oxide that can exhibit both acidic and basic properties, depending on
the reacting substance. In simple terms, it can act like both an acid and a base in different chemical reactions.

(i) Nature – They can react with both acids and bases to form salts and water.
(ii) Examples – Common examples include aluminium oxide (Al2O3) and zinc oxide
(ZnO).
(iii) Formation – They are formed from metals that can exist in multiple oxidation states.

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BPSC CONCEPT WALLAH 70th BPSC Prelims Mock Test (Online & Offline)-2

7. Consider the following statements.

1. Milk is an example of emulsion
2. Ice-cream is an example of colloid

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. None of the above

Answer: C

Explanation: A colloid is a heterogeneous system in which one substance is dispersed (dispersed phase) as
very fine particles in another substance called dispersion medium.
Example: Toothpaste, dust, ice-cream,Blood etc.

The essential difference between a solution and a colloid is that of particle size. While in a solution, the
constituent particles are ions or small molecules, in a colloid, the dispersed phase may consist of particles of
a single macromolecule (such as protein or synthetic polymer) or an aggregate of many atoms, ions or
molecules.
● Colloidal particles are larger than simple molecules but small enough to remain suspended. Their
range of diameters is between 10-10 to 10–7 m.
● Emulsion is a liquid colloidal system in which both the dispersion medium and the dispersed are
liquid.

8. Biodiesel is obtained by the process of

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A. Fractional Distillation
B. Distillation
C. Transesterification
D. Hydrogenation

Answer: C

Explanation: The fundamental procedure for converting triglycerides into biodiesel is transesterification,
which breaks down big triglyceride molecules into smaller ester molecules that can be utilised as a diesel fuel
replacement.

The typical transesterification reaction is:

Triglyceride + 3R'OH (alcohol) = 3RCOOR' (biodiesel) + Glycerol.

- Triglycerides are either vegetable oil or animal fat.

- R'OH is alcohol (methanol or ethanol).

- RCOOR' indicates the biodiesel (fatty acid methyl/ethyl ester).

Transesterification is a critical stage in biodiesel production, converting renewable resources into a

sustainable fuel supply.

9. German Silver is an alloy of

A. Copper,zinc and nickel
B. Copper,tin and zinc
C. Silver,zinc and nickel
D. Tin,nickel and zinc

Answer: A

Explanation:The various properties of metals can be improved by mixing other metals in it. The homogeneous
mixture of two or more metals is called an alloy. An alloy is prepared by mixing various metals in molten state
in required proportion and then cooling their mixture to room temperature.
Examples of some alloys:
● Pure iron is very soft and expands when heated, but with Carbon (C) it forms steel which is hard and
strong. Stainless steel is a mixture of Iron (Fe), Chromium (Cr) and Nickel (Ni). It is very strong and does not
rust. It is used in making cooking utensils, surgical equipment, dairy industry, etc.
● Brass is a mixture of Copper (Cu) and Zinc (Zn). Bronze is a mixture of Copper (Cu) and Tin(Sn). It is
tough, resistant to corrosion, used to make statues, coins, medals, utensils.
● An alloy of mercury metal with one or more metal is called an amalgam.

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BPSC CONCEPT WALLAH 70th BPSC Prelims Mock Test (Online & Offline)-2

10. Which is the main constituent of “ Lab grown diamond”?

A. Pure silicon
B. Carbon & Hydrogen
C. carbon & Quartz
D.Pure carbon
Ans:- D
• Laboratory-grown diamonds have essentially the same chemical, optical, and physical properties and
crystal structure as natural diamonds.
• Like natural diamonds, they are made of tightly-bonded carbon atoms(pure carbon). Hence the
correct option is D
• They respond to light in the same way and are just as hard as natural diamonds.
How lab grown diamonds are produced?

• There exist many methods to make lab grown diamonds but all the methods mimics the conditions
under which natural diamonds are formed inside the earth.
• To produce the lab diamond, a large machine is fed a certain amount of carbon materials that it then
crushes under pressures of more than 870,000 lbs. per square inch at extreme temperatures ranging from
1300 – 1600 degrees Celsius. This method leads to lab grown diamonds (This is called High pressure, high
temperature method)
• There are other methods like Chemical deposition methods too.
Note: - Students are advised to know this as in last Prelims exam question was asked from lab grown diamond
and BPSC tends to repeat its theme in one way or the other.

11. Which one of the following is an example of “White Meat”?

A. Meat from Goat
B. Pig Meat
C. Chicken meat
D. Lamb meat
Ans: - C
Generally, meat from mammals such as cows and calves, sheep, lamb and pigs is considered red meat, while
rabbit, chicken, and turkey meat is considered white meat.
BCW Bits:-
1. it’s all about the level of myoglobin – the iron-containing protein in muscle – giving meat its red colour.
2. White meat contains much less of myoglobin and that’s why it has a paler colour

12. Which one of the following is not a “Macro Nutrients” for the plants?
A.Carbon
B.Magnesium
C.Calcium
D. Iron
Ans:- D
• Nutrition is required for plant growth and is measured by Instrument called “CRESCOGRAPH”.
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BPSC CONCEPT WALLAH 70th BPSC Prelims Mock Test (Online & Offline)-2

• There are mainly 9 macro nutrients and 8 micro nutrients.

• Macronutrients :- Carbon (C), Hydrogen (H), Oxygen (O), Nitrogen (N), Phosphorous (P), Potassium
(K), Calcium (Ca), Sulfur (S), and Magnesium (Mg).
• Micronutrients:- Iron (Fe), Copper (Cu), Zinc (Zn), Manganese (Mn), Nickel (Ni), Boron (B),
Molybdenum (Mo) and Chlorine (Cl). Most of them occur as trace elements in soil
So the correct option is D.
Bcw Bits:-
• Sir Jagadish Chandra Bose invented the crescograph in the early 20th century. Bose was an Indian
scientist, botanist, physicist, biologist, and archaeologist.
• NPK — Nitrogen (N), Phosphorous (P) and Potassium (K) are the most significant macronutrients.

13. choose the incorrect statement?

A. The mass developed after the rotting of organic matter is called ‘compost”.
B. Vermicompost is developed using earthworms.
C. On an average Vermicompost contains 3% nitrogen, 1% phosphorus and 1.5% potassium.
D. Iron, manganese, copper, zinc, boron, molybdenum are macronutrients that is needed in abundance
by the plants.
Ans:-D
• According to the amount present in the plant, Nutrients are grouped as macro- and micronutrients.
• The elements present in large amount are called macro-elements and those found in small quantities
are termed as micro-elements.
• Iron, manganese, copper, zinc, boron, molybdenum and chlorine are micronutrients, as only traces of
these elements are required. However they are as important as macronutrients, which are required in
abundance.
So statement D is incorrect.
Note: - Keep in mind that “Plant Nutrition” is one of the most asked topics by the BPSC hence students are
advised to be thorough on this topic.

Compost:-
• The mass developed after the rotting of organic matter is called ‘compost. The composition of
compost varies according to the base material used for decomposition. Farm compost generally contains 0.5%
N, 0.5% p and 0.5% K.
• Town compost contains 1.4% N, 1.00% p and 1.4%

Vermicompost
• Vermicompost is developed using earthworms. Earthworms consume organic matter and excrete it as
cast. This cast is used as Vermicompost.
• Vermicompost, on an average, contains 3% nitrogen, 1% phosphorus and 1.5% potassium.

14. Chemical properties of elements are generally determined by ?

A. Number of Protons
B. Number of Electrons
C. Nucleus
D. Number of quarks & Qubit
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Ans:-B
An element is a substance comprising only one type of atom. Elements are the building blocks for all matter,
forming compounds and molecules that allow us to understand the chemical basis of life better.
Chemical properties indicate how elements react with other substances. These reactions are primarily
determined by the number and arrangement of electrons in an atom’s outermost energy level or shell
(VALENCE Electrons)

Elements with similar atomic structures tend to have similar chemical properties. For instance, all noble
gasses (Group 18) share the same electron configuration: stable, closed shells. So, they generally have
minimal reactivity or affinity toward other elements.
Hence the correct option is B

15. “This tissue smoothens bone surface at joints and is also present in ear,nose,larynx, trachea”, Which
tissue is being talked about?
A. Ligament
B. Cartilage
C. Tendons
D. Epithelial
Ans:-B
Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that has widely spaced cells. The solid matrix is composed of proteins
and sugars. Cartilage smoothens bone surfaces at joints and is also present in the nose, ear, trachea and
larynx. Hence correct option is B
BCW Bits:-
• Tendons connect Muscles to bones
• Two bones can be connected to each other by another type of connective tissue called the ligament.
Ligaments contain very little matrix and connect bones with bones
• NOTE: - Please keep in mind that connecting tissue is an important area for 70TH BPSC, hence we
have framed question on this.

16. Choose the “INCORRECT” statement?

A. Crocodiles, birds and mammals possess a 4-chambered heart with two atria and two ventricles.
B. The Heart beat 72 times per minute.
C. ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle
D. Fishes have a 3-chambered heart with an atrium and two ventricle
Ans:-D
• All vertebrates possess a muscular chambered heart. Fishes have a 2-chambered heart with an
atrium and a ventricle. Amphibians and the reptiles (except crocodiles) have a 3-chambered heart with two
atria and a single ventricle, whereas crocodiles, birds and mammals possess a 4-chambered heart with two
atria and two ventricles.
• The heart beats 72 times per minute, i.e., that many cardiac cycles are performed per minute.
• ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle

17. Why do optical fibers, used in telecommunications, transmit light efficiently over long distances?
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BPSC CONCEPT WALLAH 70th BPSC Prelims Mock Test (Online & Offline)-2

A. They use very low-intensity light to minimize loss

B. They are made of materials with high optical clarity and low absorption
C. They use total internal reflection to confine light within the core
D. They have a special coating that amplifies light as it travels

Answer: C

Explanation: The correct answer is option C. Optical fibers transmit light efficiently over long distances
primarily due to the principle of total internal reflection. When light travels through the fiber core, which has
a higher refractive index than the surrounding cladding, it is continuously reflected back into the core. This
containment minimizes light loss and allows the signal to travel long distances with minimal attenuation.
● Explanation of Options:
○ Option A (Use very low-intensity light to minimize loss) is incorrect. Optical fibers can carry
varying intensities of light; the efficiency is due to total internal reflection, not the intensity
of light used.
○ Option B (Materials with high optical clarity and low absorption) is partially correct, as the
materials used do have low absorption, but the main reason for efficient transmission is the
use of total internal reflection, which is crucial to preventing light loss.
○ Option D (Special coating that amplifies light) is incorrect. While some advanced fiber
systems may use amplifiers, standard optical fibers rely on total internal reflection, not
internal amplification, to transmit light efficiently.
BCW Bits:
● Practical Use in Data Transmission: Optical fibers are critical for high-speed data transmission in
internet and communication networks, providing the bandwidth needed for modern digital
communication.
● Medical and Industrial Applications: Besides telecommunications, optical fibers are widely used in
medical imaging devices like endoscopes and in industrial sensors for precise measurements.
● Physics Principle: The concept of total internal reflection is key to understanding how optical fibers
work, showing how light can be guided through thin strands of glass or plastic without escaping.

18. Which household device is an application of the heating effect of electric current?
A. Refrigerator
B. Air conditioner
C. Electric heater
D. LED light bulb

Answer: C

Explanation: The correct answer is option C. An electric heater is a device that directly utilizes the heating
effect of electric current. When electric current passes through the heater’s resistive element, it encounters
resistance, which converts electrical energy into heat energy. This heat is then used to warm up the
surrounding air or objects.
● Explanation of Options:
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○ Option A (Refrigerator) is incorrect; a refrigerator uses electric current to power a

compressor, which cools the air inside, not heat it.
○ Option B (Air conditioner) is incorrect; air conditioners use electric current to cool the air,
although they do produce some heat as a byproduct in the external unit, their primary
function is not based on the heating effect.
○ Option D (LED light bulb) is incorrect; LED bulbs convert electrical energy primarily into light
with minimal heat production, demonstrating energy efficiency rather than the heating
effect of current.
BCW Bits:
● Common Examples: Other devices using the heating effect of electric current include electric stoves,
toasters, and hair dryers. All these appliances convert electrical energy into thermal energy to
perform their functions.
● Safety Features: Many heating appliances are designed with thermal cutoffs or fuses to prevent
overheating and potential fire hazards.
● Physics in Daily Life: The heating effect of electric current is not only used in household appliances
but also in industrial processes like electric welding, where heat generated by current melts materials
to join them.

19. How does an ammeter measure the current flowing through a circuit?
A. By measuring the voltage drop across a known resistor
B. By being connected in parallel with the circuit
C. By being connected in series with the circuit
D. By using electromagnetic induction principles

Answer: C

Explanation: The correct answer is option C. An ammeter measures the current flowing through a circuit by
being connected in series with the circuit. In this configuration, the same current flows through both the
ammeter and the rest of the circuit, allowing the device to measure the current accurately.
● Explanation of Options:
○ Option A (Measuring the voltage drop across a known resistor) describes the method used
by a voltmeter, not an ammeter.
○ Option B (Connected in parallel with the circuit) is incorrect; connecting an ammeter in
parallel can cause it to short-circuit due to its low resistance, potentially damaging the device
or the circuit.
○ Option D (Using electromagnetic induction principles) is incorrect; while electromagnetic
induction is a key principle for certain types of current measurement devices (like a clamp
meter), it is not how a traditional ammeter functions.
BCW Bits:
● Safety Considerations: When using an ammeter, it's crucial to ensure that it has a low resistance to
avoid significant voltage drops across it, which could affect the circuit's operation.
● Historical Development: The invention of the ammeter was essential for electrical engineering, as it
enabled precise measurement of current, aiding in the development and troubleshooting of electrical
circuits.
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● Use in Laboratories: Ammeter usage is standard in physics and electronics labs to measure current
flow, which helps in understanding circuit behaviour and verifying Ohm's law experimentally.

20. In which scenario would using an electromagnet provide a significant advantage over a permanent
magnet?
A. A refrigerator door seal that needs to maintain a constant magnetic attraction
B. A loudspeaker that requires precise control over sound production
C. A compass needle that needs to point towards magnetic north consistently
D. A simple bar magnet used for classroom demonstrations

Answer: B

Explanation: The correct answer is option B. In a loudspeaker, using an electromagnet provides a significant
advantage because it allows precise control over the magnetic field. This control enables the speaker to
produce varying sound frequencies and volumes by adjusting the current flowing through the electromagnet,
creating high-quality sound reproduction. The ability to vary the magnetic strength is crucial for the dynamic
response of the speaker.
Explanation of Options:
● Option A (Refrigerator door seal) is incorrect; a permanent magnet is ideal for maintaining a constant
magnetic attraction without requiring an external power source.
● Option C (Compass needle) is incorrect; a permanent magnet is suitable for consistently pointing
towards magnetic north, as it does not need to vary its magnetic strength.
● Option D (Simple bar magnet for demonstrations) is incorrect; bar magnets demonstrate basic
magnetic properties and do not require the controllable magnetic field provided by electromagnets.
BCW Bits:
Other Applications of Electromagnets: Electromagnets are also used in electric motors, where the ability to
control magnetic fields allows for efficient conversion of electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Industrial Use: Electromagnets are commonly used in scrap yards to move heavy metal objects, as the
magnetic field can be turned on and off as needed, providing flexibility and control.
Medical Technology: In MRI machines, electromagnets create powerful and controllable magnetic fields to
produce detailed images of the body's internal structures, highlighting their importance in medical
diagnostics.
21. Which of the following nitrogenous bases are present in both RNA and DNA?
A) Adenine and Thymine
B) Cytosine and Uracil
C) Adenine, Guanine, and Cytosine
D) Thymine and Uracil

Answer : C

Explanation: Adenine, Guanine, and Cytosine.

● Nitrogenous bases are one of the major components of nucleic acids. These Nitrogenous bases are of
two types Purine and pyrimidine.
● Adenine and guanine are purines that occur in both DNA and RNA.
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● Pyrimidine bases are cytosine, thymine, and uracil, in which cytosine is present in both DNA and RNA
whereas thymine is present in DNA and Uracil present in RNA.

22. In the branch of biology which of the following deals with the Study of the medical care of newborn
infants?
a. Nephrology
b. Neurology
c. Neonatology
d. Oncology

Answer: c

Explanation:
● Nephrology is a branch of medical science that deals with diseases of the kidney
● The kidneys are vital for life with their complex network of blood vessels and intricate network of tubes
and tubules that filter blood of its waste products and excess water.The kidneys maintain the fluid,
electrolyte, and acid-base regulation that are altered by several disease conditions as well as drugs and toxins.
● Neurology is a branch of medical science that is concerned with disorders and diseases of the nervous
system. The term neurology comes from a combination of two words - "neuron" meaning nerve and "logia"
meaning "the study of". There are around a hundred billion neurons in the brain, capable of generating their
own impulses.
● Neonatology is a subspecialty of pediatrics that consists of the medical care of newborn infants,
especially the ill or premature newborn. It is a hospital based specialty, and is usually practised in neonatal
intensive care units (NICUs).
● Oncology is a branch of medicine that deals with the study, treatment, diagnosis and prevention of
cancer. A medical professional who practices oncology is an oncologist..

23. Which of the following glands play significant role in maintaining the body's Circadian rhythm
A. Pituitary gland
B. Thyroid gland
C. Parathyroid gland
D. Pineal gland

Answer: D

Explanation: Pineal Gland is the smallest gland which is often called the “Third Eye” due to its position.

Pineal Gland
● It is in the epithalamus, near the centre of the brain.
● It secretes Melatonin, which plays a very significant role in maintaining the body's Circadian rhythm i.e;
body’s internal clock.
it also helps in-
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● maintaining the normal rhythms of the sleep-wake cycle.

● maintaining body temperature.
● It influences metabolism, pigmentation, as well as our defence capability.
● Neuroendocrine regulation of human reproductive physiology
● Control of sexual maturation.

Pituitary gland
● Pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called sella tursica and is attached to Hypothalamus by a stalk in
the brain.
● It produces growth hormone (GH), prolactin (PRL),thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH),adrenocorticotropic
hormone (ACTH),luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), melanocyte stimulating
hormone (MSH), oxytocin and vasopressin.
● Pituitary gland is also known as “The Master gland”.

Thyroid gland
● The thyroid gland is composed of two lobes which are located on either side of the trachea.
● It is composed of follicles and stromal tissues.
● Iodine is essential for the normal rate of hormone synthesis in the thyroid. The thyroid gland also secretes
a protein hormone called thyrocalcitonin (TCT) which regulates blood calcium levels.

● Thyroxine - This hormone is released by the thyroid gland and contains iodine. Iodine is necessary for the
synthesis of the thyroxine hormone. They regulate the metabolic rate of the body and stimulate protein
synthesis and hence promote the growth of the body tissues.
● Deficiency of iodine in our diet results in hypothyroidism and enlargement of the thyroid gland commonly
called goitre.
Parathyroid gland
● In humans, four parathyroid glands are present on the back side of the thyroid gland, one pair each in
the two lobes of the thyroid gland.
● The parathyroid glands secrete a hormone called parathyroid hormone (PTH). The secretion of PTH is
regulated by the circulating levels of calcium ions.

It helps in-
● increases the Ca2+ levels in the blood(PTH is a hypercalcemic hormone)
● acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption (dissolution/ demineralisation)
● stimulates reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules and increases Ca2+ absorption from the digested
food.

24. Read the following statements about blood and select the correct answer from the codes given below
1. Factors for coagulation or clotting of blood are also present in the plasma in an active form.
2. Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are different types of granulocytes, while lymphocytes and
monocytes are the agranulocytes.
3. Platelets formed by special cells in the bone marrow called megakaryocytes.

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Codes-
1. I only
2. II,III only
3. I,III only
4. I,II, III only

Answer: B

Explanation: Statement I is false because these factors are present in inactive form.

● Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or coagulation of blood.. Factors for coagulation or clotting of blood
are also present in the plasma in an inactive form. Plasma without the clotting factors is called serum.
● Calcium ions play a very important role in clotting.

Blood
Blood is a special connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix, plasma, and formed elements. pH of blood is -
7.4

WBC
WBCs are disease-fighting cells found in the blood. These act as defence systems against infection from
harmful microorganisms. These are formed in the bone marrow and circulated in the bloodstream and lymph
tissues.
● WBC is of two types : Granulocytes and agranulocytes.
● Granulocytes are divided into 3 types- Eosinophils, Basophils, and Neutrophils
● Agranulocytes are also divided into 2 parts Monocytes and Lymphocytes( B Lymphocytes and T
Lymphocytes).

Platelets
● Platelets, also called thrombocytes, are tiny blood cells formed by special cells in the bone marrow called
megakaryocytes.
● These cells lack a nucleus.
● It has a lifespan of 8-10 days.
● Platelets can release a variety of substances most of which are involved in the coagulation or clotting of
blood.
● A reduction in their number can lead to clotting disorders which will lead to excessive loss of blood from
the body.

25. Ultra Filtration of blood takes place in?

A. Ureter
B. Urinary bladder
C. Bowman’s capsule
D. Cortex
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Ans:-C
• In humans, the excretory system consists of a pair of kidneys, one pair of ureters, a urinary bladder
and a urethra.
• Each kidney of an adult human measures 10-12 cm in length, 5-7 cm in width, 2-3 cm in thickness
with an average weight of 120- 170 g.
• Each kidney has nearly one million complex tubular structures called nephrons which are the
functional units.
Urine formation:-
• The first step in urine formation is the filtration of blood, which is carried out by the glomerulus and
is called glomerular filtration. On an average, 1100-1200 ml of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute.
• It is to be noted that Bowman’s capsule surrounds the glomerular capillary loops and participates in
the filtration of blood from the glomerular capillaries hence the correct option is C.
Note :- Try to go through the video of “Excretory system” as explained in class as this is one of the area from
where you can expect question in BPSC Exam.

26. Electron Transport System (ETS) occurs in

A. Ribosome
B. Peroxisome

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C. Mitochondria
D. None of the above

Answer: C

Explanation: Electron Transport System (ETS) is located in mitochondrial Inner membrane.The electron
transport system usually takes place in the mitochondria. It occurs as the last step of aerobic respiration.
● The electron transport system contains a series of properly arranged 9 electron carriers that are
commonly called Coenzymes, in the inner membrane of the mitochondria.
● Mitochondria are surrounded by two membranes outer and inner.
Each mitochondrion is a double membrane-bound structure with the outer membrane and the inner
membrane dividing its lumen distinctly into two aqueous compartments, i.e., the outer compartment
and the inner compartment. The inner compartment is called the matrix.
● The outer membrane forms the continuous limiting boundary of the organelle.

● The inner membrane forms a number of infoldings called the cristae (sing.: crista) towards the
matrix. The cristae increases the surface area.
● The two membranes have their own specific enzymes associated with the mitochondrial function.
Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration. They produce cellular energy in the form of ATP,
hence they are called ‘power houses’ of the cell.
● The matrix also possesses single circular DNA molecule, a few
RNA molecules, ribosomes (70S) and the components required for the
synthesis of proteins. The mitochondria divide by fission.

BCW Bits
● Oxidative phosphorylation is the process where energy is harnessed through a series of protein
complexes embedded in the inner-membrane of mitochondria (called the electron transport chain
and ATP synthase) to create ATP.

27. Which of the following diseases is caused by a species of Plasmodium ?

A. Smallpox
B. Malaria
C. Tuberculosis
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D. None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation:

Why this question : Recently, the R21 vaccine became the second malaria vaccine which got recommended
by WHO.
● The RTS,S/AS01 malaria vaccine, also known as Mosquirix, which was developed by
GlaxoSmithKline (GSK) was the first malaria vaccine that got recommended by WHO.

Malaria
● Malaria is spread by a type of microscopic protozoan parasite called Plasmodium which is transmitted
mainly by the night-biting female Anopheles Mosquito.

● There are a few varieties of Plasmodium parasites that cause malaria in humans and 2 of these
species – Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax – pose the greatest threat.
● Alphonse Laveran, a French military doctor discovered the protozoan parasite in 1880 for which he
was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1907.
● Italian researchers Grassi and Filetti discovered Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium malariae
parasites in 1890.

Typhoid

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● Typhoid fever is a life-threatening infection caused by the bacterium Salmonella Typhi. In 1880,
German pathologist Karl Joseph Eberth discovered the microbe that causes typhoid fever and it was
first cultured in 1884 by Georg Theodor August Gaffky.

Smallpox

● Smallpox is an acute contagious disease caused by the variola virus, a member of the orthopoxvirus
family. Edward Jenner (1749 - 1823) was an English surgeon, who discovered a vaccination for
smallpox in 1796. It is, in fact, the world's first vaccine.

BCW Bits:

● After the discovery, Sir Ronald Ross continued his research into malaria in India, using a more
convenient experimental model named 'Malaria in birds'. By July 1898, Sir Ronald Ross had
demonstrated that mosquitoes could serve as intermediate hosts for bird malaria.

28. This is a plant growth hormone. It was first isolated from human urine. The naturally produced form of
this hormone is Indole-3-Acetic Acid (IAA). This hormone is -

A. Auxin
B. Cytokinin
C. Gibberellin
D. Ethylene

Answer: A

Explanation: Auxin is a plant growth hormone. The Greek word auxein means “to grow”. It was first isolated
from human urine. Auxin is generally produced by the growing apex of the stem and root of the plants. It
helps in the elongation of shoot and root tips behind apical meristem. The naturally produced Auxin is
Indole-3-Acetic Acid (IAA). Some of the synthetic Auxin are Indole-3-butyric acid (IBA), 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy
Acetic Acid (2, 4-D), and Naphthalene acetic acid (NAA).Auxins also induce parthenocarpy, e.g., in tomatoes.
They are widely used as herbicides. 2, 4-D widely used to kill dicotyledonous weeds.

BCW Bits

The other plant growth regulator-

● Gibberellins: Gibberellin or Gibberellic Acid (GA) was initially isolated from a fungus Gibberella
fujikuroi. In plants, it is produced in embryos, roots, and young leaves and it enhances growth.
Gibberellins cause fruits like apples to elongate and improve their shape. Spraying sugarcane crops
with gibberellins increases the length of the stem.

● Cytokinins: They were extracted from coconut milk. It helps to produce new leaves, chloroplasts in
leaves, lateral shoot growth and adventitious shoot formation.

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● Ethylene: Ethylene is a gaseous hormone. It is found in ripening fruits, young flowers and young
leaves.

● Abscissic acid: Abscissic acid also known as Dormin is a naturally occurring growth inhibitor found in
a wide variety of plants. It is synthesised in leaves. It stimulates the closure of stomata in the
epidermis and increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses. Therefore, it is also called
the stress hormone.

29. Consider the following statements :

1. Bile facilitates emulsification of fats.
2. Bile neutralises the acidic pH of the food coming from the stomach.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above

Answer: C

Explanation: Both the statements are correct.

Bile is a yellowish, green, alkaline liquid (pH about 8). It consists of (i) Water (98%), (ii) sodium carbonate in
large quantity which neutralizes the acid of the chyme (semi digested food) received from stomach; makes it
alkaline and (iii) bile salts (sodium glycocholate and sodium taurocholate) which emulsify fats. Bile is released
by the liver.

● The bile secreted by the hepatic cells passes through the hepatic ducts and stored in the gallbladder.

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● The duct of gallbladder (cystic duct) along with the hepatic duct from the liver forms the common
bile duct. Pancreatic juice and bile are released into the small intestine through the
hepato-pancreatic duct.
● The yellowish green colour of the bile is due to the pigments biliverdin and bilirubin produced by the
breakdown of the dead and worn out RBCs (Red Blood corpuscles). These pigments are excreted in
faeces (solid or semi-solid waste and undigested food) that is thrown out through the anus.
● Bile has no digestive enzymes. It simply emulsifies fats.

30. Which of the following vitamins is called “Poor Man’s vitamin” or “Sunshine Vitamin” ?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

Answer: D

Explanation: Vitamin D is called “Poor Man’s vitamin” or “Sunshine Vitamin”.

● Vitamin D is synthesised by our body by liver, kidney and skin in the presence of sunlight, that’s why
it is called sunshine vitamin.
● Sometimes it is called a hormone as it helps in absorption of calcium and magnesium which is
essential for good bone health.
● Cod liver oil, cheese, fish,egg yolk,and sunlight are major sources of vitamin D.
● Deficiency of Vitamin D causes Rickets/knock knee syndrome in childs and Osteomalacia in adults
which results in demineralisation of bones.

BCW Bits :
Vitamin A
● Vitamin A, also called Retinol, is a fat-soluble vitamin, stored in the liver.
● Vitamin A in humans is obtained by the conversion of beta-carotene.
● Green vegetables, carrots, milk, cheese, butter, egg, and cod liver oil are good sources of vitamin A.
● Vitamin A helps in the formation of WBCs, the growth of cells, and cell division.
● Nyctalopia, Xerophthalmia, and Keratinization of skin infection are diseases caused by the deficiency
of vitamin A.

Vitamin C
● The scientific name of this vitamin is Ascorbic Acid.
● In humans, this vitamin is essential for skin health and acts as an excellent source of antioxidants.
● Citrus fruits,Gooseberry are some excellent sources of vitamin C.
● Its deficiency causes Scurvy.

Vitamin B1
● This vitamin is called Thiamine.
● In humans, this vitamin is essential for growth and development.
● This vitamin can be sourced from cereals, legumes,soyabeans etc.
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● Beri Beri and growth retardation are the major disease or symptoms that can occur due to deficiency
of vitamin B1.

31.Swadeshi movement in some parts of the country was called as

A. August movement
B. Ottoman movement
C. Firangi Movement
D. Vandemataram Movement

Answer: D

Explanation: The Swadeshi Movement in Andhra Pradesh was referred to as “Vandemataram Movement”.
The Swadeshi movement was started in the early 20th Century as a fallout of the decision of the British
government to partition Bengal.

BCW Bits
● Use of Swadeshi goods and boycott of foreign goods were the two main objectives of this movement
● A Boycott Resolution was passed in Calcutta City Hall on August 7, 1905, where it was decided to boycott
the use of Manchester cloth and salt from Liverpool
● Bande Mataram became the theme song.
● The National Education Council was established in August 1906.
● The National College of Bengal was founded in Calcutta with Aurobindo as its principal.
● Prominent leaders during the Anti partition movement were Surendra Nath Banerjee and Krishna Kumar
Mitra.

32. Which of the following newspapers was not started/authored by Dada Bhai Naoroji ?

A. Voice of India
B. Rast Goftar
C. Poverty and Un-British Rule in India
D. Mathrubhumi

Answer: D

Explanation: “Voice of India” newspaper was started by Dadabhai Naoroji.

Dadabhai Naoroji, also known as the "Grand Old Man of India" and "Unofficial Ambassador of India".
In 1902 he was elected as a Member of the Liberal Party in the House of Commons, representing Central
Finsbury, he was the first Indian to become a British MP.
BCW Bits:
● He also published a newspaper Rast Goftar in Gujarati.
● He was appointed as Justice of the Peace in 1883.

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● His book named ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’ carried an awareness for his theory’ DRAIN OF
WEALTH’ from India to Britain.

R.C Dutt has written “The Economic History of India"

Mathrubhumi, a Malayalam newspaper published from Kerala, founded by K. P. Kesava Menon the prominent
freedom fighter, as its editor and K. Madhavan Nair as the first Managing Director of the Company.

33. Who among the following was a member of the “Swaraj Party”?
A. Subhas Chandra Bose
B. Rajendra Prasad
C. A. N. Singh
D. Rajaji

Answer: A

Explanation: Rajaji, Rajendra Prasad and A. N. Singh were not the member of the Swaraj Party.
Swaraj Party was established in 1923 by C.R.Das and Motilal Nehru. Swaraj Party was formed following the
failure of the Non-Cooperation Movement. CR Das was the President and Motilal Nehru was its secretary.
BCW Bits:
● The Swaraj Party was established as the Congress Khilafat Swaraj Party. It sought greater self-government
and political freedom for the Indian people. Important leaders associated with this party are Huseyn Shaheed
Suhrawardy, N C Kelkar, and Subhas Chandra Bose.
● The primary goal of the party was to contest the elections for the Central Legislative Assembly in 1923
and the achievement is that Vithalbhai Patel became the speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly in 1925
● Those who supported the Swaraj party were known as Pro changers and those who were against it were
known as No changers.
People like Vithalbhai patel,M A Ansari,Moti lal Nehru, C R Das, Kasturi Ranga Iyengar were the Pro-changers.
While people like Rajendra Prasad, Rajagopalachari, Brajkishore Prasad were the part of “No-changers”.

34. What was the primary objective of Zimmerman's plan?

A. To encourage Indian involvement in World War II efforts

B. To acquire weapons and ammunition from foreign sources
C. To target and eliminate unpopular British officials through assassination
D. To coordinate revolutionary activities among Indians living outside of India

Answer : B) To acquire weapons and ammunition from foreign sources

Explanation:

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● During the First World War, the Jugantar party led by Bagha Jatin arranged to import German arms
and ammunition through sympathisers and revolutionaries abroad and to bring about an all-India insurrection
which was called the ‘German Plot’ or the ‘Zimmerman Plan’.
● Rash Behari Bose was made incharge of Upper India.
● Funds were raised through a series of dacoities.
● The aim was to start an uprising through guerrilla force and the starting point was to seize Fort
Williams.
● It was not successful as the plot was leaked out by a traitor.
● It was for this purpose that the Berlin Committee for Indian Independence was established in 1915
by Virendranath Chattopadhyay, Bhupendranath Dutta, Lala Hardayal and others with the help of the German
foreign office.
● These revolutionaries aimed to mobilise the Indian settlers abroad to send volunteers and arms to
India to incite rebellion among them.

35. Which committee's findings influenced the Communal Award, announced by British Prime Minister
Ramsay MacDonald on August 16, 1932?
A. Lothian Committee
B. Muddiman Committee
C. Butler Commission
D. Hartog Commission

Answer : A. Lothian Committee

Explanation:
● The Communal Award was announced by the British prime minister, Ramsay MacDonald, on August
16, 1932. The Communal Award, based on the findings of the Indian Franchise Committee (also called the
Lothian Committee), established separate electorates and reserved seats for minorities, including the
depressed classes which were granted seventy-eight reserved seats.
● The Muddiman Committee (1924) was appointed to examine the working of the Diarchy of the
Montague-Chelmsford reforms.
● The Butler Commission of 1927 was to examine the relation of Indian states with the British Crown.
● The Hartog Commission (1929) was appointed to survey the growth of education in British India.

36. Which of the following acts was also known as the Sunset Law due to the fact that the payment was to
be made by the sunset of the specified date?

A. Permanent Settlement
B. Ryotwari System
C. Mahalwari System
D. Taluqdari System

Answer: A

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Explanation: The Permanent Settlement was introduced in Bengal and Bihar in 1793 by Lord Cornwallis and
was planned by John Shore. It was later extended to Orissa, the Northern Districts of Madras, and the District
of Varanasi.

● Under this, the land revenue was collected from the farmers by the intermediaries known as Zamindars.
● The zamindars were made owners of the land and the ownership was hereditary until they paid the tax
on time, and in case of failure, the lands were auctioned. Thus, the ownership was made transferable.
● The state was to receive 10/11th of the rent the zamindars received from the peasantry, with only
1/11th going to the zamindars themselves.
● However, the amounts they would be required to pay as land revenue were made permanent.
● Any increase in the rent was to be kept by the zamindars themselves. The state would not put them
under any more demands.

37. The Civil Services Examination was held for the first time in India during the tenure of which Viceroy?

A. Lord Irwin
B. Lord Chelmsford
C. Lord Cornwallis
D. Lord Reading

Answer: D

Explanation: Charles Cornwallis was the Governor-General from 1786-93. He was the first to bring into
existence and organize the civil services.
● He abolished the District Faujdari Courts and established circuit courts at Calcutta, Dacca, Murshidabad
and Patna.
● Cornwallis Code: Under this code there was a separation of revenue and justice administration is
regarded as the founding father of the civil service.

During the Viceroyship of Lord Reading (1921-26), the exam was held in India for the first time in Allahabad in
1922 and from 1923 onwards simultaneous Civil Services Examination was held in Delhi as well as in London.
Some important events during his tenure were- Chauri Chaura incident (1922), Withdrawal of
Non-Cooperation Movement (1922), Establishment of Swaraj Party(1922), Kakori train robbery (1925).

38. Francis Buchanan, a physician who came to India and served in the Bengal Medical
Service (from 1794 to 1815) mentions in his journal about the folks who were the inhabitants of Rajmahal
hills, who were hunters, shifting cultivators, food gatherers, charcoal producers, silkworm rearers. Who are
the folks he is talking about?

A. Santhals
B. Gonds
C. Paharias
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D. Munda

Answer: C

Explanation: As per the late-eighteenth-century revenue records, Paharias or hill folk lived around the
Rajmahal hills, subsisting on forest produce and practicing shifting cultivation.
● They cleared patches of forest for agriculture. Enriched by the potash from the ash, the Paharias grew a
variety of pulses and millets for consumption.
● After a few years it was left fallow so that it could recover its fertility, and moved to a new area.
● From the forests they collected mahua (a flower) for food, silk cocoons and resin for sale, and wood for
charcoal production.
● The undergrowth that spread like a mat below the trees and the patches of grass that covered the lands
left fallow provided pasture for cattle.
● The life of the Paharias – as hunters, shifting cultivators, food gatherers, charcoal producers, silkworm
rearers – was thus intimately connected to the forest.
● They considered the entire region as their land, the basis of their identity as well as survival; and they
resisted the intrusion of outsiders. Their chiefs maintained the unity of the group, settled disputes, and led
the tribe in battles with other tribes and plains people.

39. Which of the given personalities fought in the famous Battle of Chinhat in which the British forces
under Henry Lawrence were defeated?

A. Shah Mal
B. Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah
C. Birjis Qadr
D. Nana Sahib

Answer: B

Explanation: Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah, born in 1787, more famously known as Maulavi of Faizabad, was one
of the leading figures of the great Indian revolt of 1857. In the Awadh region, Maulavi Ahmadullah Shah was
known as the ‘Lighthouse of Rebellion’.
● Educated in Hyderabad, he became a preacher when young. In 1856, he was seen moving from village to
village preaching jehad (religious war) against the British and urging people to rebel.
● He made Faizabad the center and launched revolts in all of the Awadh region. He made the local mosque
Masjid Sarai located in Chowk area of Faizabad his headquarters.
● He was therefore popularly called Danka Shah – the maulvi with the drum (danka).
● British officials panicked as thousands began following the maulvi and many Muslims began seeing him
as an inspired prophet.
● When he reached Lucknow in 1856, he was stopped by the police from preaching in the city.
Subsequently, in 1857, he was jailed in Faizabad. When released, he was elected by the mutinous 22nd Native
Infantry as their leader.

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● He fought in the famous Battle of Chinhat in Ismailganj of Lucknow on June 30, 1857 in which the British
forces under Henry Lawrence were defeated. He came to be known for his courage and power. Many people
in fact believed that he was invincible, had magical powers, and could not be killed by the British. It was this
belief that partly formed the basis of his authority.
● He kept Faizabad free from British rule for almost one year, until his death at the hands of British agents
on June 5, 1858.

40. Which of the following made Gandhi a truly national leader?

A. Champaran Satyagraha
B. Kheda Satyagraha
C. Rowlatt Satyagraha
D. Non- Cooperation Movement

Answer: C

Explanation: It was the Rowlatt satyagraha that made Gandhi a truly national leader.
● During the Great War of 1914-18, the British had instituted censorship of the press and permitted
detention without trial.
● Now, on the recommendation of a committee chaired by Sir Sidney Rowlatt, these tough measures were
continued.
● In response, Gandhiji called for a countrywide campaign against the “Rowlatt Act”, which led to protests
in towns across North and West India.
● The protests were particularly intense in the Punjab, where many men had served on the British side in
the War – expecting to be rewarded for their service. Instead they were given the Rowlatt Act.
● Gandhiji was detained while proceeding to the Punjab.
● The situation in the province grew progressively more tense, reaching a bloody climax in Amritsar in April
1919, when a British Brigadier ordered his troops to open fire on a nationalist meeting. More than four
hundred people were killed in what is known as the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
● It is to be noted that Rowlatt satyagraha was first “All India satyagraha” of Gandhiji

41. In 1851 Governor General Lord Dalhousie described which kingdom as “a cherry that will drop into our
mouth one day”?

A. Awadh
B. Satara
C. Jhansi
D. Banaras

Answer: A

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Explanation: In 1851 Governor General Lord Dalhousie described the kingdom of Awadh as “a cherry that will
drop into our mouth one day”. Five years later, in 1856, the kingdom was formally annexed to the British
Empire.

● Lord Dalhousie was India’s Governor-General from 1848 to 1856. He is famous for introducing the
annexation policy of Doctrine of Lapse. Under this policy, States without a natural heir were annexed.
● This policy, while expanding British territories, sowed seeds of discontent, culminating in the Revolt of
1857.
● Satara was the first state annexed in 1848 and Awadh was the last state to be annexed under Doctrine of
Lapse, as under this doctrine, British would take over a kingdom, if there was a misrule. Thus, Awadh was
annexed on 7th Feb 1856 on account of alleged misrule.

During his tenure, the first railway line connecting Bombay and Thane was inaugurated in 1853, and the
following year, a telegraph link was established between Calcutta and Agra. He also instituted P.W.D. and
passed the Widow Remarriage Act (1856), among other measures.

42. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(Movement) (Founder)

1. Satnami movement a. E.V Ramaswamy Naicker

2. Matua sect b. Shri Narayan Guru
3. Aravippuram Movement c. Saint Ghasidas
4. Self respect movement d. Haridchand Thakur

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

A. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b

B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
C. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
D. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a

Answer: D

Explanation:

● The Satnami movement was founded by Saint Ghasidas, a farm servant and member of the lower
(Chamar) caste in 1820 in Chhattisgarh region of central India.
1. His Satnam Panth (“Sect of the True Name”) succeeded in providing a religious and social identity for
large numbers of members of Satnamis.
2. He preached a code of ethical and dietary self-restraint and social equality and wrote Nirvan Gyan to
propagate his teachings.
3. He worked among the leatherworkers and organized this movement to improve their social status.

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● The Matuas are a depressed class of Bengali Hindus who are part of the Scheduled Caste group of
Bengal. Harichand Thakur, a social reformer, is considered the founder of the Matua Mahasangha in 1860, a
federation representing the Matua community. He questioned Brahmanical texts that supported the caste
system. He opposed caste oppression and worked towards education and social upliftment of Dalits.
● Aravipuram Movement was launched by Sri Narayana Guru on Shivaratri day of 1888. On that day, Sri
Narayana Guru defied the religious restrictions traditionally placed on the Ezhava community, and
consecrated an idol of Shiva at Aravipuram.
1. The Aravipuram Pratistha was a historic event, because a member of a lower caste, forbidden from
entering the temple, had himself consecrated the Shiva image in a temple.
● The Self Respect movement was initiated by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, popularly known as Periyar in the
mid-1920s. The movement aimed at destroying the contemporary Hindu social order in its totality and
creating a new, rational society without caste, religion, and God. The movement was started in Tamil Nadu in
1925.

43. Which among the following focused on the economic use of European learning and believed that
introducing the Indian people to European ways of life, would change their tastes and desires, and create a
demand for British goods, for Indians would begin to appreciate and buy things that were produced in
Europe?

A. Macaulay's Minute
B. Wood’s Despatch
C. William Adam report
D. Sadler Commission

Answer: B

Explanation: In 1854, the Court of Directors of the East India Company in London sent an educational
despatch to the Governor-General in India. Issued by Charles Wood, the President of the Board of Control of
the Company, it has come to be known as Wood’s Despatch.

Wood’s Despatch suggested that primary schools must adopt vernacular languages. Through the Despatch, he
also suggested that high schools should use anglo-vernacular mediums and that English should be the
medium for college-level education. Hence, the Wood’s Despatch is considered as ‘Magna-Carta’ of English
Education in India.

● Outlining the educational policy that was to be followed in India, it emphasised once again the practical
benefits of a system of European learning.
● One of the practical uses the Despatch pointed to was economic, which stated that European learning
would enable Indians to recognise the advantages that flow from the expansion of trade and commerce, and
make them see the importance of developing the resources of the country. Introducing them to European
ways of life, would change their tastes and desires, and create a demand for British goods, for
● Indians would begin to appreciate and buy things that were produced in Europe.
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● Wood’s Despatch also argued that European learning would improve the moral character of Indians. It
would make them truthful and honest, and thus supply the Company with civil servants who could be trusted
and depended upon. The literature of the East was not only full of grave errors, it could also not instil in
people a sense of duty and a commitment to work, nor could it develop the skills required for administration.

44. Which article of the Constitution describes the Chief Minister's role as a link between the Governor and
state council of ministers?

A) Article 163
B) Article 167
C) Article 168
D) Article 169

Answer: B

Explanation:

Under Article 167 of the Constitution, the Chief Minister acts as a link between the Governor and state
council of ministers. The functions with respect to the Governor are as follows:

● CM has to communicate to the Governor all the decisions of the council of ministers relating to the
administration of the states.
● Whenever the Governor calls for any information relating to the decisions taken or regarding the
administration, the CM has to provide him the same.
● The Governor can ask for consideration of the council of ministers when a decision has been taken
without the consideration of the cabinet.
● CM advises the Governor regarding the appointment of important officials like Attorney General,
State Public Service Commission (Chairman and Members), and State Election Commission etc.
● Article 164 of the Constitution envisages that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor. The
Governor is the nominal executive authority, but real executive authority rests with the Chief Minister.
● The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the governor, but it
has to be noted that he cannot be dismissed by the governor as long as he enjoys the majority support in the
legislative assembly.

BCW Bits;
● A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as Chief Minister for six months,
within which time, he should be elected to the state legislature, failing which he ceases to be the Chief
Minister.
● PART VI of the Constitution deals with the States.
● Article from 152-237 deals with various provisions related to States. It covers the executive, legislature
and judiciary wings of the states. Article 152 clarifies about the definition of state, while the next set of
articles from 153 to 162 deals with the Governor of state.
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45. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

A. Pardoning power of the President comes under Article 143.
B. Article 243-E of the Indian Constitution deals with the disqualification of the membership of
Panchayati Raj
C. Money Bill can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly.
D. Joint seating of parliament is presided by the speaker of Lok Sabha on the call of the Prime Minister.

Answer: C

Explanation: Article 72 of the Indian Constitution deals with the pardoning power of the President.
● Article 243 F of the Indian Constitution deals with the disqualification of the membership of the
Panchayati Raj.
● Money Bill can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly.
● Joint sitting of the parliament is presided by the speaker of the Lok Sabha on the call of the President.

46. Which of the following fact(s) about Preamble is/are incorrect?

A. The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of
legislature.
B. It is not justiciable, that is ,its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
C. The ideals behind the Preamble to India’s Constitution were laid down by B R Ambedakar’s
Objectives Resolution.
D. Preamble contains the summary or essence of the Constitution.

Answer: C

Explanation: The term ‘Preamble’ refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution. It contains the
summary or essence of the Constitution, along with the ideals and aspirations upon which the Indian state is
founded.
● While describing the meaning of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, an eminent jurist N.A.
Palkhivala has called it the ‘Identity Card of the Constitution’. Similarly, K.M. Munshi has described it
as the ‘Political Horoscope of the Constitution’.
● The ideals behind the Preamble to India’s Constitution were laid down by Jawaharlal Nehru’s
Objectives Resolution moved on 13 December 1946, which were further adopted by the Constituent
Assembly on January 22, 1947.
● Although the Preamble is not enforceable in court, the Preamble states the objectives of the
Constitution and acts as an aid during the interpretation of Articles when language is found
ambiguous.
● After the judgement of the Kesavanand Bharati case, it was accepted that the preamble is part of the
Constitution.

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● As a part of the Constitution, the preamble can be amended under Article 368 of the Constitution,
but the basic structure of the preamble can not be amended.
● As of now, the preamble is only amended once through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
● The term ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’ were added to the preamble through 42nd Amendment
Act, 1976.

47. Choose the incorrect statement(s):

A. The Supreme Court under article 32 cannot determine a question that does not involve fundamental
rights.
B. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
C. The Supreme Court acts as the defender and guarantor of fundamental duties.
D. Article 32 is a basic feature of the constitution.

Answer: C

Explanation: The Supreme Court acts as the defender and guarantor of fundamental rights and not duties.
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen.
● According to BR Ambedkar, article 32 is the heart and soul of the Constitution.
● Under article 32 the supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
● The purpose of article 32 is to provide a guaranteed, effective, expeditious, inexpensive and summary
remedy for the protection of the fundamental rights.
● Only the fundamental rights guaranteed by the constitution can be enforced under article 32 and not
any other rights like non fundamental constitutional rights,statutory rights,customary rights and so
on

48. Lokpal got a definite shape and structure with the passing of which of the following Act?

A) Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2011

B) Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
C) Whistleblowers Protection Act, 2011
D) Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act, 2017

Answer: B

Explanation:
● The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 provided for the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and
Lokayukta for States.
These institutions are statutory bodies without any constitutional status.
They perform the function of an "ombudsman” and inquire into allegations of corruption against certain
public functionaries and for related matters.
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● In the 1960s, the Administrative Reforms Commission of India suggested the creation of two specialised
authorities, the Lokpal and Lokayukta, to address citizens' complaints and grievances pertaining to corruption.
● The first Lokpal Bill was for the first time presented by Mr. Shanti Bhushan during the fourth Lok Sabha in
1968.
● The need for Lokpal got a definite shape and structure with the passing of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Bill
in 2013.
● The jurisdiction of Lokpal includes the Prime Minister, Ministers, Members of Parliament and Groups A, B,
C and D officers and officials of the Central Government.
.

49. Which body is responsible for regulating tariffs in the telecom sector as per the Telecommunications
Act, 2023?

A. The Central Government

B. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
C. The Ministry of Communications
D. The Universal Service Obligation Fund

Answer: B

Explanation: The correct answer is option B. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is responsible
for regulating tariffs in the telecom sector. Established under the TRAI Act, 1997, TRAI's role continues to be
vital even with the enactment of the Telecommunications Act, 2023. It ensures that telecom operators offer
services at fair and reasonable prices, protects consumer interests, and maintains the sector's financial
health.
● Regulatory Functions of TRAI: TRAI's mandate includes setting tariffs for telecom services, ensuring
compliance with service quality standards, and monitoring interconnection charges between
different telecom operators. By regulating tariffs, TRAI aims to balance the needs of consumers with
those of service providers, promoting affordability and ensuring that telecom companies can operate
sustainably.
● Consumer Protection: TRAI plays a significant role in protecting consumer interests. It implements
measures such as the "Do Not Disturb" (DND) registry to prevent unsolicited commercial
communication and mandates that telecom operators provide clear and transparent billing to
customers.
● Promoting Competition: One of TRAI's key objectives is to promote healthy competition in the
telecom sector. By regulating entry and exit of players, as well as preventing anti-competitive
practices, TRAI ensures that no single entity can dominate the market, thereby fostering innovation
and improving service quality.
● Digital Inclusion: TRAI also contributes to the broader goal of digital inclusion by ensuring that
telecom services reach underserved and remote areas. It works in conjunction with the Universal
Service Obligation Fund (USOF) to expand telecom infrastructure in rural and backward regions.
BCW Bits:

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● Historical Background: TRAI was set up in 1997, marking the beginning of the liberalisation of India's
telecom sector. Before its establishment, the government directly controlled telecom services and
their pricing.
● Amendments and Developments: The Telecommunications Act, 2023, does not replace the TRAI Act
but rather works alongside it to provide a comprehensive legal framework for telecom regulation in
India.
● Global Practices: Regulatory bodies similar to TRAI exist in many countries, such as the Federal
Communications Commission (FCC) in the United States and Ofcom in the United Kingdom. These
bodies play a crucial role in managing the telecom sector, ensuring it operates in a fair, transparent,
and efficient manner.

50. What is one significant benefit that states with Special Category Status receive?
A. Complete exemption from federal taxes
B. Higher share of grants for centrally sponsored schemes
C. Exemption from constitutional laws
D. Full autonomy in governance

Answer: B

Explanation: The correct answer is option B. One of the significant benefits of Special Category Status is that
these states receive a higher share of grants for centrally sponsored schemes, with a funding ratio of 90:10
(centre) as opposed to 60:40 for other states. This higher share of grants is aimed at supporting states with
developmental challenges.
● Rationale Behind Higher Grants: States with Special Category Status often face unique challenges like
difficult terrain, low infrastructure, and socio-economic disadvantages. The higher grant share helps
these states in effectively implementing development projects and schemes without straining their
limited financial resources.
● Non-Lapsable Funds: Another benefit is that any unspent funds allocated to SCS states in a financial
year do not lapse but are carried forward. This ensures that developmental activities can continue
without disruption due to financial constraints.
● Tax Concessions: Apart from higher grants, SCS states also enjoy various tax concessions such as
reduced excise and customs duties, which help attract investment and promote economic
development in these regions.

BCW Bits:
● SCS is a classification given by the Centre to assist development of states that face geographical and
socio-economic disadvantages.
● The Constitution does not make a provision for SCS and this classification was later done on the
recommendations of the 5th Finance Commission in 1969.
● Currently, 11 states have the SCS in the country including Assam, Nagaland, Himachal Pradesh,
Manipur, Meghalaya, Sikkim, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Uttarakhand, and Telangana.
● To be able to get the status, states have to fulfil the following requirements (based on Gadgil
formula):
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1. They need to have hilly and difficult terrain.

2. They need to have low population density and /or a sizable share of the tribal population.
3. They must be in a strategic location along borders with neighbouring countries.
4. They must be economically and infrastructurally backward.
5. They must have a non-viable nature of state finances

51. According to the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, what is the maximum size of the Council of
Ministers (COM) in India?
A. 10% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha
B. 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha
C. 20% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha
D. No fixed limit

Answer: B

Explanation: The correct answer is option B. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, limits the size of
the Council of Ministers (COM) to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha at the Centre and the Legislative
Assembly in the states. This amendment was introduced to prevent the excessive expansion of the COM for
political reasons and to promote efficient governance.
● Background of the 91st Amendment: Before the 91st Amendment, there was no constitutional limit
on the number of ministers, leading to frequent expansions of the COM to accommodate political
allies and manage coalition dynamics. This often resulted in bloated cabinets, increased government
expenditure, and administrative inefficiency.
● Specific Provisions: Article 75 of the Indian Constitution was amended to include this cap for the
Union, while Article 164 was amended to apply the same rule to the states. For Union Territories with
legislatures like Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu & Kashmir, the cap is set at 10% of the total strength of
their legislative assembly.
● Rationale: The cap aims to ensure that the executive remains manageable and accountable, and the
government functions effectively without unnecessary political appointments.
BCW Bits:
● First COM Size: The first Council of Ministers under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru had 15
ministers, demonstrating a much leaner structure compared to later cabinets.
● Impact on Governance: A smaller COM helps improve coordination among ministers, leading to more
streamlined decision-making processes and reducing internal conflicts within the government.
● Historical Context: By 1999, under Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, the size of the COM had
expanded to 74 ministers, illustrating the need for the constitutional amendment to limit the
number.

52. Who among the following can recognize the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha?
A. The Prime Minister
B. The President
C. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. The Chief Justice of India

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Answer: C

Explanation: The correct answer is option C.

The position of Leader of Opposition was officially described in The Salary and Allowances of Leaders of
Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977. The Act describes the Leader of Opposition as a “member of the Council
of States or the House of the People, as the case may be, who is, for the time being, the Leader in that House
of the party in opposition to the Government having the greatest numerical strength and recognised as such
by the Chairman of the Council of States or the Speaker of the House of the People”.
● Speaker's Role: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to decide on matters of recognition
for the Leader of Opposition, ensuring that the opposition’s leadership is both representative and
capable of providing effective oversight of the government’s actions. This recognition is crucial for
maintaining the checks and balances necessary in a parliamentary democracy.
● Functions of the Leader of Opposition: Beyond parliamentary debates, the Leader of Opposition is
involved in key decision-making processes, including the selection of members for important
constitutional positions and committees, adding to the transparency and accountability of the
governance process.
BCW Bits:
● Council of States: Similarly, in the Rajya Sabha, the Leader of Opposition is recognized by the
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, following the same criteria used in the Lok Sabha.
● The office of the Leader of Opposition is not mentioned in the Constitution of India. Thus, it is not a
constitutional position.
● The office of the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha was accorded statutory
recognition in 1977 under the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act,
1977.
● Thus, the office of the Leader of Opposition is a statutory position.
● The rank of the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is equivalent to that of a
Cabinet Minister.
● Hence, they are also entitled to a salary, allowances, and other facilities similar to that of a Cabinet
Minister.
● Note: An official ‘Leader of Opposition’ (Ram Subhag Singh of Congress Party (O)) was recognized for
the first time in the year 1969 in the Parliament of India. He was born in Arrah district of Bihar and
was elected to the first Lok Sabha from Sasaram constituency.
Note: (Minor correction from Test 1)
Numerical strength: According to a conventional understanding, in order to get the post of Leader of
Opposition a party must have at least 10% of MPs in the House.

There is no such rule in the act, which requires a party to have at least 10% of the members of the House
for recognising someone as the Leader of the Opposition.Before the BJP in 2014 and 2019, the Congress
(having 415 members in Lok Sabha) in 1984 denied TDP (with 30 MPs) the post of Leader of Opposition, on
the basis of the above mysterious rule.

53. Which organisation releases the Global Gender Gap Report annually?
A. United Nations
B. World Economic Forum
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C. International Monetary Fund

D. World Bank

Answer: B

Explanation: The correct answer is option B. The Global Gender Gap Report is released annually by the World
Economic Forum (WEF). This report measures gender parity across four key dimensions: Economic
Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment.
● World Economic Forum: The WEF is an international organisation for public-private cooperation,
known for its annual meetings in Davos, Switzerland. The Global Gender Gap Report is one of its
significant publications, highlighting global progress and challenges in achieving gender equality.

BCW Bits:
● Four Key Dimensions: The report evaluates gender parity in Economic Participation and Opportunity,
Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment. These dimensions provide
a holistic view of gender equality in society.
● Global Leaders in Gender Equality: According to the latest report, Iceland continues to be the most
gender-equal country, maintaining its top position for the 15th consecutive year, with a gender parity
score of 93.5%.
● India’s Ranking: In the 2024 report, India ranked 129th out of 146 countries, highlighting the
significant work needed to improve gender equality, particularly in economic and political
participation.

54. According to the recent amendments to the Central Civil Services (Leave) Rules, 1972, how many days
of maternity leave are granted to surrogate mothers in India?

A. 45 days
B. 90 days
C. 120 days
D. 180 days

Answer: D

Explanation: The correct answer is option D. The Government has notified an amendment to Central Civil
Services (Leave) Rules, 1972 to grant maternity leave and other benefits to government employees in case of
children born through surrogacy. This includes both the surrogate mother and the commissioning mother (the
intended mother) with less than two surviving children.
● The new rules also grant 15 days of paternity leave to the "commissioning father" (the intended
father) who is a male government servant with less than two surviving children.
● This leave can be availed within 6 months from the date of delivery of the child.
● Additionally, the commissioning mother with less than two surviving children is eligible for childcare
leave, as per the existing provisions in the Central Civil Services (Leave) Rules.

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● The extension of maternity leave to surrogate mothers is consistent with the provisions of the
Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021, which aims to regulate surrogacy practices in India, ensuring the
rights and welfare of surrogate mothers.
BCW Bits:
● Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021: This Act prohibits commercial surrogacy and allows only altruistic
surrogacy. It aims to protect the rights of surrogate mothers and children born through surrogacy.
● Comparison with Global Standards: The provision of 180 days of maternity leave is comparable to
global standards, where countries like Norway, Sweden, and Canada offer extensive maternity leave
benefits to ensure the well-being of mothers and children.
● Gender Equality in Workplace: Providing equal maternity leave benefits to surrogate mothers
promotes gender equality and supports women’s rights in the workplace, encouraging a more
inclusive and supportive work environment.

55.According to Chanakya's Saptanga principle in "Arthashastra," punishment, one of the 7 organs of the
state, is related to which organ of the body?

A) Head (representing the King)

B) Eyes (representing the Chief Secretary)
C) Brain (representing the Army)
D) Face (representing the Treasure)

Answer : C

Explanation:- Chanakya has propounded the Saptanga principle in his classical work “Arthashastra”. Through
this, he has explained the 7 organs of the state as equal to the organs of the body, which together maintain
the political balance. The state can work well only in that condition when all these seven organs do their work
properly and with mutual cooperation.

State organs Meaning Equivalent body parts

Swami (King) King Head

Amatya (Minister) Chief Secretary Eye

Janapada (District) Population Thigh

Durg (Fort) Castle Arm

Kosh (Fund) Treasure Face

Danda (Punishment) Army Brain

Mitra (Friend) Associate Ear

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Foreign policy and diplomacy have been openly debated in the Arthashastra. It is compared to the work "The
Prince" by the famous writer "Machiavelli".

56. Who referred to Samudragupta as the "Napoleon of Ancient India" due to his extensive military
conquests?

A) V A Smith
B) Walter Rodney
C) Charles A. Beard
D) R.C. Majumdar

Answer: A

Explanation:- Samudragupta, the Gupta emperor who ruled from around 335 to 375 CE, was often referred to
as the "Napoleon of India" by the British historian Vincent Arthur Smith. Vincent Arthur Smith, in his work
"The Early History of India," published in 1904, drew a parallel between Samudragupta and Napoleon
Bonaparte, the French military and political leader.

His courtier and renowned poet Harisena in the 'Prayag Prashasti' praised him as 'Hero of a hundred fights'
for his wars and conquests.
● He himself was a poet also known as Kaviraj.
● Samudragupta defeated 12 kings of south India.

BCW Bits:

● The Gupta Dynasty was founded by Sri Gupta in the year 240 CE. Sri Gupta ruled the empire between
240 CE to 280 CE.
● Sri Gupta was followed by his son Ghatotkacha (280-319 CE) and later his son Chandragupta I
(319-335 CE).
● Samudragupta was the son of Chandragupta I, who was born in the year 318 CE. Samudragupta ruled
the Gupta empire from 335 CE to 375 CE. Of all the emperors in the Gupta dynasty, Samudragupta is
the most prominent and great emperor. He increased the political authority of his dynasty.

57. Pulika, a courtier, killed the last ruler of the Brihadratha dynasty to ascend the throne of the Magadha
province. What was the name of the ruler?

A) Ripunjaya
B) Naggadasaka
C) Mahanandin
D) Kshemajit

Answer: A
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Explanation: Brihadratha founded the Brihadratha dynasty, the first dynasty to establish rule over the
Magadha.
● The details of the Brihadratha dynasty are given in the Mahabharata and Puranas.
● According to this, he was the eldest of the five sons of Vasu, the Kuru king of Chedi, and his queen
Girika. Even the Rig Veda mentions the name Brihadratha.
● The kings of this dynasty ruled for a very long period, and King Jarasandha was the most famous and
influential king of the Brihadratha dynasty.
● He is also mentioned in the Mahabharata as a mighty warrior. Jarasandha was said to have been
succeeded by his son Sahadeva, who was killed in the Kurukshetra War of Mahabharata.
● Ripunjaya was the last of the Brihadratha dynasties.
● Pulika killed his master, Ripunjaya, the last king of the Brihadratha dynasty and blessed the kingdom
to his child.

58. The Vishwa Shanti Stupa, also known as the 'Peace Pagoda', located on Ratnagiri hills in Rajgir, features
four golden statues of Lord Buddha that represent:

A) Four Noble Truths

B) Four Directions
C) Four Stages of Buddha's Life
D) None of the above

Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Vishwa shanti stupa also called the ‘Peace-Pagoda’ is located on Ratnagiri hills in Rajgir. It was built
in the 1969 to promote world peace and is one of the tallest stupas in India.
It was conceptualised and built by Nichidatsu Fujii also known as Fujii Guruji, a renowned Japanese Buddhist
monk and founder of Nipponzan Myohoji order of Buddhism.
Built completely with marble, the stupa has four golden statues of Lord Buddha with each representing -
Birth, Enlightenment, Preaching and Death.

BCW Bits:

● Vishnupad-temple in Gaya is believed to be a major shrine dedicated to lord vishnu, it was built by
maratha princess Ahilya Bai Holkar(queen of Malwa-kingdom) in 1787.
● The Mahabodhi Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site(recognized as UNESCO world heritage site in
2002), is an ancient Buddhist temple in Bodh-Gaya, marking the location where the Buddha is said to have
attained enlightenment.

59. The symbols of Horse and Wheel represent which aspect of Lord Buddha's life respectively?
A) Birth and Enlightenment
B) Teaching and Renunciation
C) Renunciation and first sermon
D) Nirvana and Return to Kapilavastu
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Answer : C

Explanation: The great life of Buddha is represented by a number of symbols. These events are central to the
story of the Buddha and the development of Buddhism as a religion and philosophy. They are often depicted
in Buddhist art and serve as inspiration for followers of the religion.
The event and their symbols are as follows:

SYMBOLS ASSOCIATED WITH PLACES

● Lotus and Bull ● The Buddha was born. ● Lumbini

● Horse ● Mahabhinishkramana ● Kapilavastu

(Renunciation)- Buddha
left his palace and
renounced his luxurious
life in order to seek
spiritual enlightenment

● Bodhi tree ● Nirvana/Sambodini ● Bodh Gaya

(Enlightenment)- After
several years of spiritual
practice, Buddha
achieved enlightenment,
or Nirvana, under a
Bodhi tree

● Wheel ● Dharmachakra ● Sarnath

Pravartana (First
Sermon)- The Buddha's
first sermon was
delivered to a group of
five ascetics in the Deer
Park

● Stupa ● Mahaparinirvana ● Kushinagar

(Moksha)- Buddha died
at the age of 80 in
Kushinagar, the capital of
the Mallas
(Mahajanapada).

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60. The practice of Jharokha Darshan was started by Mughal emperor Akbar on a daily basis but it was
banned later by?
A. Aurangzeb
B. Humayun
C. Shahjahan
D. Jahangir

Answer: A

Explanation: Jharokha Darshan was a daily practice of addressing the public audience (darshan) at the balcony
(jharokha) at the forts and palaces of the emperor.
This practice was started by Mughal emperor Akbar on a daily basis but it was banned later by Aurangzeb
citing it as UnIslamic practice (a kind of Idol worship).
Aurangzeb also banned the practice of Tuladan i.e weighing the emperor in Gold which was also started by
Akbar.

61. What was the nickname used by Sikandar Lodi for his literary works?

A) Gulrukhi
B) Shahrukhi
C) Lodi Sai
D) Delhi Darpan

Answer: A

Explanation : Sikandar Lodi was fond of literature and poetry and used to write in Persian language using the
nickname “”Gulrukhi”.

BCW bits:

● Bahlul Lodi was the founder of the Lodi dynasty in 1451 AD. He ruled Delhi sultanate till AD 1489. The
Lodi Dynasty lasted for about 76 years.The dynasty derives its name from an Afghan tribe known as
Lodi.
● After the death of Bahlul Lodi, Sikandar Lodi ascended the throne. He was second ruler of the Lodi
dynasty and ruled from 1489 AD to 1517 AD.
● Sikander Lodi’s real name was Nizam Shah and was also called ‘Sultan Sikandar Shah’.
● He was considered to be a good administrator who laid roads and encouraged irrigation facilities.
During his reign the price of commodities was very cheap.
● Sikandar Lodi considered the position of the Sultan as superior to the nobles. He compelled nobles
and amirs to show formal respect to the Sultan in darbar and outside, and treated them harshly.
● He re-annexed Bihar, Dholpur, Narwar and some parts of Gwalior and Nagor to the Delhi Sultanate.
● He also introduced ‘Gaj-i-sikandari’ for measurement of land and abolished Octroi duty on grain.
● Sikandar Lodi controlled the Ganga valley as far as western Bengal and moved his capital from Delhi
to a new town which later became famous as the city of Agra.
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● He was indulged in the destruction of temples. He showed little tolerance towards Non-Muslims and
imposed Jizya on them.
● Sikandar Lodi composed poems with pen-name Gulrukhi.

The last ruler was Ibrahim Lodi who was defeated by the Mughal emperor Babur, in first Battle of Panipat in
1526, who laid the foundation of the Mughal dynasty

62. What was the earlier name of Daulatabad, the city to which Muhammad Bin Tughlaq shifted his capital
from Delhi?

A) Devagiri
B) Sikandarpur
C) Tughlaqabad
D) Sangrampur

Answer: A

Explanation: Muhammad Bin Tughlaq reigned from February 1325 until his death in 1351. He was the eldest
son of Ghiyath al-Din Tughluq, founder of the Tughlaq dynasty.
He is known for his ambitious schemes and novel experiments failed miserably as they were far ahead of their
time.
● One such experiment was him wanting to shift his capital from Delhi to Devagiri so that he might be able
to control south India better. He forcibly moved the entire population to the new capital, Devagiri which was
renamed as Daulatabad. After two years, the Sultan abandoned Daulatabad and shifted back to Delhi due to
the scarcity of water supply in Daulatabad. The distance between the two places was more than 1500
kilometres and many people died during the rigorous journey in summer.

63. Who wrote the Shahnama, a long epic poem, between CE 977 and 1010 CE, which is the national epic of
Greater Iran?

A) Omar Khayyam
B) Rumi
C) Firdausi
D) Hafez

Answer - C

Explanation -
● Shahnama is a long epic poem written by the Persian poet Abu Al-Qasim Firdausi between CE 977 and
1010 CE and is the national epic of Greater Iran.
● Shahnama literally means the 'book of kings'.
● Firdausi was the court laureate at the court of Mahmud of Ghazni.

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● Shahnama consists of some 50,000 couplets and is lauded to be the largest epic poem ever written
by a single poet.
● The Shahnama gives a chronological account of the prehistory and history of Iran, beginning with the
creation of the world and the introduction of civilization and ended with the Islamic conquest of
Persia.

BCW Bits:

● Tabaqat-i-Nasiri a mediaeval text by Minhaj-i-Siraj.The history of the first fifty years of Muslim rule in
Bengal is found only in this text.Tabaqat-i-Nasiri is the only authentic source for the history of Bengal from the
conquest of Muhammad Bakhtiyar Khilji till 1259 AD, when it comes to an end.
● Tarikh-i-Daudi written by Abdullah deals with the history of the Afghan rulers from Bahlol Lodi of Delhi to
Daud Khan Karrani the last Afghan sultan of Bengal. The book was dedicated to Daud Karrani who was
defeated in the battle of Rajmahal in 1576 by Khan Jahan, the general of Akbar.

64.Which mediaeval king is famous for conducting the sacred ritual of Hiranya Garbha, a Vedic ceremony
for royal legitimation?
A) Gopala
B) Vijayalaya
C) Harsha Vardhana
D) Dantidurga

Answer: D

Explanation: The word 'hiranya-garbha' literally means 'golden womb'. The ritual hiranya-garbha was
performed by new rulers to demonstrate their rebirth as Kshatriyas.

● When Dantidurga, the founder of the Rashtrakuta empire conquered Malwa and parts of Gujarat, he
performed a ritual, Hiranyagarbha (golden womb) Mahanadana to proclaim himself as a Kshatriya ruler.

BCW Bits:

● Dantidurga, who was one of the feudal chieftains of Chalukya kings, was the founder of the
Rashtrakuta dynasty in the 8th century. He fought his way to the front and overthrew Kirtivarman-II,
thus bringing an end to the main branch of Chalukyas. He fixed his capital at Manyakheta or Malkhed
near modern Sholapur.
● He attacked Kanchi, the capital of the Pallavas, and struck up an alliance with Nandivarman
Pallavamalla.
● He captured the outlying territories of the extensive Chalukyan empire in 753 CE and then assaulted
the heart of the empire and easily defeated Kirtivarman.
● The Samangadh inscription of 754 CE records that Dantidurga overthrew the last Chalukya ruler of
Badami called Kirtivarman II and assumed full imperial rank and described himself as:
1. Prithivivallabha,
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2. Maharajadhiraja,
3. Parameshvara, and
4. Parama Bhattaraka.

65. NABARD was established on 12 July 1982 as a Development Bank on the recommendations of which
committee?
A) Shah Committee
B) Kelkar Committee
C) B. Sivaraman Committee
D) Narasimham Committee

Answer : C

Explanation: NABARD was established on 12 July 1982 as a Development Bank on the recommendations of
the B. Sivaraman Committee.
● NABARD is the apex regulatory body for the overall regulation of regional rural banks and apex
cooperative banks in India.
● It provides investment and production credit for various developmental activities and projects taking
place in rural areas. It provides finance through cooperative and commercial banks and regional rural banks.
Core functions of Nabard:-
● Short-term refinance for production credit activities contributing to food security.
● Medium–term and long-term refinance for investment credit activities for giving a boost to private
capital formation in agriculture.
● Acts as a subsidy channelizing agency for various Government of India schemes.

66. Who is known as the "Father of the Pink Revolution" in India?

A) Verghese Kurien
B) Durgesh Patel
C) M.S. Swaminathan
D) Kailash Satyarthi

Answer: B) Durgesh Patel

Explanation:
● The term "pink revolution" refers to a revolution in the technology employed in the nation's poultry and
meat processing industry. Durgesh Patel is known as the Father of the Pink Revolution. The poultry and meat
industry, onion production, and pharmaceuticals were the three main areas of emphasis during the Pink
Revolution.
● The brown revolution is known to promote the production of coffee. The most unique part of this
revolution is that its target was to produce environment-friendly coffee. This revolution brought about many
changes in the coffee, and cocoa production in the country.The brown revolution is also related with
production of leather.
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● The Silver Revolution is related to the immense growth of egg production in India by using advanced
methods and technologies to enhance efficient growth in poultry farming. The Silver Revolution was started
in 1969-1978 and medical sciences and innovation played an important role in this revolution.
● The Grey Revolution started in the 1960s to 1970s in India. Noticing the grey among the greenery, the
grey revolution has its roots laid during the agricultural revolution of India. After India was successful in
increasing the higher-yielding varieties of seeds, the grey revolution focused on the use of fertiliser to boost
the growth.

67. When the total value of goods and services produced in an economy, calculated using constant prices,
exceeds the value calculated using current prices, which of the following statements is true?

A) Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is greater than Nominal GDP

B) Real GDP is less than Nominal GDP
C) Real GDP is equal to Nominal GDP
D) Real GDP is calculated using current prices

Answer : A

Explanation:- A GDP(Gross Domestic Product ) is defined as the total market value of all the final goods and
services produced within a geographical periphery of a nation during a year.
● Real GDP:- GDP calculated as per the price of the commodities in the base year(2011-12) (also known
as constant-price). As,it is calculated at constant price(the price in the base year-2011-12) so
inflation(price-rise) is not included in real-gdp.

● Nominal GDP:- GDP calculated as per the price of the commodities in the required year(also known
as current-price). As,it is calculated at current price(the price in the given year) so inflation(price-rise) is
included in nominal-gdp.
● Hence , when the market value of goods and services at constant price is greater than that of
Current price then Real GDP will be greater than Nominal GDP.

68. Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) is a supervisory tool and is imposed when:
A) A bank shows high profits and growth
B) A bank breaches certain regulatory thresholds on CRAR
C) A bank breaches certain regulatory thresholds on net NPAs
D) B & C

Answer: D

Explanation: Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) is a framework under which banks with weak financial metrics
are put under watch by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
The RBI introduced the PCA framework in 2002 as a structured early-intervention mechanism for banks that
become undercapitalised due to poor asset quality, or vulnerable due to loss of profitability. It is a supervisory
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tool and is imposed when a bank breaches certain regulatory thresholds on capital to risk weighted assets
ratio (CRAR), net Non Performing Assets (NPAs) and return on assets (RoA). The PCA framework applies to:
● All Scheduled Commercial Banks, Payment Banks, and Small Finance Banks.
● Most NBFCs, including government NBFCs.

When a bank falls under PCA, the regulator imposes restrictions on its operations, such as curbs on lending
activities, deeper audit, branch expansion etc.

69. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is governed by the provisions of which Act?
A) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
B) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
C) Indian Companies Act, 2013
D) Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999

Answer : B

Explanation: The Statutory Liquidity Ratio or SLR is a minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank
has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold or other securities.
● It is basically the reserve requirement that banks are expected to keep before offering credit to
customers. These are not reserved with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), but with banks themselves. The SLR is
fixed by the RBI.
● CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) and SLR have been the traditional tools of the central bank's monetary policy to
control credit growth, flow of liquidity and inflation in the economy. The SLR was prescribed by Section 24
(2A) of Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
● State Development Loans qualify for Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) status.

70. In which of the following combinations of districts in Bihar does the Ganga river not flow?
A) Patna, Vaishali, Samastipur
B) Gaya, Jehanabad, Arwal
C) Munger, Khagaria,Katihar
D) Begusarai, Bhojpur, Saran

Answer : B. Gaya, Jehanabad, Arwal (The Ganga river does not flow through these districts)

Explanation: The number of districts situated on the bank of the Ganga river in Bihar state is 12.
These 12 districts are Buxar, Bhojpur, Saran, Patna, Vaishali, Samastipur, Begusrai, Munger, Lakhisarai,
Khagaria,Katihar and Bhagalpur.
● Ganga enters Bihar at Chausa(Buxar) and exits by making a boundary between Katihar and Bhagalpur.
● District of Bihar which has the longest length of the Ganga river is Patna.

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71. Who succeeded in breaking the Salt Law in Nakhas Pond on 23rd April 1930 during the Salt Satyagraha
in Bihar?

A) Sri Krishna Singh

B) Rajendra Prasad
C) Ram Briksha Benipuri
D) Brajkishore Prasad

Answer: -C

Explanation: Salt Satyagraha in Bihar:

● The Salt Satyagraha in Bihar was started on April 15, 1930 in Saran and Champaran and overall
leadership was provided by Dr. Rajendra Prasad..
● On 16th April 1930, volunteers moved to Nakhas Pond, near Mangal Tank in Patna city under the
leadership of Ambika Kant Sinha to break the Salt law but unfortunately got arrested. Finally, Ram Briksha
Benipuri succeeded in breaking the Salt Law in Nakhas Pond on 23rd April 1930.
● Being a landlocked state, tokenistic measures were selected to break the salt law i.e not pay salt tax and
chaukidari tax in Bihar.
Salt march was led by different leaders at different places in Bihar:-
● Munger- Sri Krishna Singh
● Bhagalpur-Mahadev Lal Saraf
● Chapra- Prisoners in jail went on Nangi strike, boycotting British clothes
● Gaya - It was led by Chandravati Devi.
● Darbhanga-Satyanarayan Singh
● Patna- Ambika Kant Sinha

BCW Bits
Rambriksh Benipuri (1899-1968) hailed from the Muzaffarpur district of Bihar, from a rural household. He
took an active part in the freedom movement in 1920 being a founder of The Bihar Socialist Party. Between
1930 and 1942, he was imprisoned on fourteen separate occasions, for a duration of seven years.
The suffering he underwent sharpened and honed his creativity to bring forth literary masterpieces such as
“Qaidi Ki Patni”, “Ambapali” and the famous “Maati Ke Moortein” which was honoured with the Sahitya
Academy Award.
As a prolific journalist he edited periodicals: the Kisan, Tarun Bharat, Balak, Yuvak, Karmveer, Yogi, Himalaya,
Chunnu-Munnu, Janta, and Nai Dhara, and wrote plays, radio features, novels, stories, word-sketches,
reminiscences, travelogues, biographies, etc. His works have been translated into many languages.

72. Who returned his Padma Shri award, received in 1970, during Jayaprakash Narayan's (JP) Sampoorna
Kranti movement?

A) Satyendra Narayan Sinha

B) Ramanand Tiwary
C) Phanishwarnath Renu
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D) Bhishma Narain Singh

Answer- C

Explanation:-
● Phanishwarnath Renu was born in Aurahi Hingna, Purnea (present day Araria). In ninth grade, he started
a handwritten magazine "Khangar Sevak". And went to Nepal for further studies. Joined Azad Dasta and went
to jail for agitations and was released in 1944 and actively contributed to the Nepali revolution. Reportage -
Jai Ganga and Dyankosi, wrote “Hil Raha Himalaya” (which was published in the name of Nepali Kranti Katha).
Maila Aanchal, published in 1954, made him famous in Indian literature.
● His story ‘Mare Gaye Gulfam’ became the Teesri Kasam film, which also won the National Award in
1967.
● Renu also received Padma Shri award for his work Maila Anchal in 1970, which he returned calling it
'Paapshri' for the police raid and attack on an unarmed student during emergency and Jayaprakash Narayan's
Sampoorna Kranti movement.
● In 1972, he contested the Legislative Assembly election from Forbesganj. He died on 11 April 1977.
● His main literary works- Batbaba, Pahalwan ki Dholak, Na Mitne wali Bhukh, Parti Parikatha, thumri,
Aadim Ratri KI Mahek, Juloos etc.

Bcw Bits:

● In his honour, Renu Van is being built in Araria.

● The translation of his work Maila Aanchal in Japanese language has been published under the name
of "Dorono Susi" by Japan's Miki Yuichiro. Dorono Suso literally means dirty pallu. It was officially
launched on the day of World Hindi Day in the Nimoh Senba Campus of Osaka University of Japan.

73. The Valmiki Tiger Reserve is situated on the bank of the following river, which originates from:

A) River Gandak, originating from Nepal

B) River Budhi Gandak, originating from Nepal
C) River Bagmati, originating from Nepal
D) River Ganges, originating from Gangotri Glacier

Answer – A

Explanation:- Valmiki Tiger Reserve is located in the foothills of Himalayas on the north-west corner of Bihar,
spread over the Northern part of the West Champaran district. It was established in 1990 and it is the 18th
tiger reserve in the country.It is situated on the banks of river Gandak. Its earlier name was Bhainsalotan
● The extension of Valmiki Tiger Reserve in Nepal is called Chitwan National Park.
● The terrain is undulating with rich soil.
● Rivers Gandak, Pandai, Manor, Harha, Masan and Bhapsa flow through various parts of the reserve.

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● By and large, the reserve is spread over the lower Shivalik region with a deep water table. The tract is
porous with boulders and sand deposits.
● The Reserve occupies a core area of 909.86 sq km of the Valmiki Sanctuary. It has reported a 75
percent increase in tiger population from 31 in 2018 to 54 in 2022.

74. Most of the rivers of Bihar have “Dendritic drainage pattern”, which one of the following is correct
about dendritic drainage pattern?

1. Tree like branching or veins of leaf pattern is formed by streams in Dendritic pattern

2. The tributaries join the large stream at right angles.

3. The rivers of the northern plains like Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra have Dendritic pattern

Chose the correct option

A. 1 & 2 only

B. 2 & 3 only

C. 1,2,3

D. 1 & 3 only.

Ans:-D

· Tree like branching or veins of leaf pattern formed by streams is dendritic pattern. The tributaries join the
large stream in random fashion but always at acute angles – that is angles less than 90º.

· This is the most common pattern in the major streams of the world

· The Dendritic pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the terrain

● The rivers of the northern plains; Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra form dendritic drainage
patterns.

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Note: - This drainage pattern is very important as most of Bihar Rivers have this pattern.

This concept has been explained in great detail in class too hence students are advised to be thorough with
this topic as you can expect a question on this.

75. Karpuri Thakur was not associated with which of the following movement?

A . Kisan sabha movement

B. Quit india movement

C. Emergency

D.Non-cooperation movement in Bihar

Ans:-D

· Karpoori Thakur, famously called as “Jan Nayak”, was a prominent Indian politician who served as the 11th
Chief Minister of Bihar twice, from 1970-71 and 1977-79
oHe belonged to the Nai community, which is listed as an Extremely Backward Class .

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o He Entered politics in 1952, and won the election as “Socialist party” candidate.
● He actively participated in the Quit India movement and was arrested in 1943.
● He became deputy CM of Bihar in 1967 and chief minister on 22nd Dec 1970.
● He was arrested from Gandhi maidan in 1977 during the emergency.
● Karpoori Thakur was born on 24th January 1924 at Pitaunjhia (now Karpuri gram) in Darbhanga
(Samastipur).
● Non-cooperation movement (NCM) was at its peak in 1920 and he wasn't even born at that
time,hence no question arises for his participation in NCM.
● Karpoori Thakur was the 49th recipient of “Bharat Ratna”.

BCW Bits :

● Shri Thakur, inspired by the freedom struggle, formed the Navyuvak Sangh at the age of 14 and
took part in the farmers' movement led by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati.
● He actively participated in the Quit India Movement and was arrested in 1943. He continued a
non-violent struggle against the British Raj and for the landless farmers even after his release from
jail in 1945.
● He was elected provincial minister of the Socialist Party, formed under the leadership of Acharya
Narendra Dev and Jayaprakash Narayan in 1948, and also became a member of the Central
Committee of Hind Kisan Panchayat.
● He won the first election of Independent India in 1952 as a Socialist Party nominee. Continuing to
represent Tajpur in the assembly after winning the 1957 and 1962 elections, he raised his voice
against the plight of the landless peasants and denounced the continuing caste-based oppression
of scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and backward castes in the Bihar assembly.
● He became the Deputy Chief Minister of Bihar in 1967 holding the Education and Finance
Ministries. He made primary education free to help the poor and removed the mandatory
requirement of passing English to pass the 10" Examination to make education inclusive and more
relevant. He exempted land rent on land holdings up to 7 acres.

76. "Fool's Gold" is mainly found in which valley region of Bihar?

A) Gandak Valley
B) Ganga Valley
C) Son Valley
D) Kosi Valley

Answer- C

Explanation:-
● Bihar is the leading producer of PYRITE in India. It is mainly called “FOOL’S Gold”.

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● In Bihar it is mainly found in the Son Valley region of Rohtas district. Bihar has a monopoly in terms of
production of pyrite ore. About 95% of total pyrite ore production comes from Bihar.
● Pyrite is a brass-yellow mineral with a bright metallic lustre. It has a chemical composition of iron
sulphide (FeS2) and is the most common sulphide mineral.
● It forms at high and low temperatures and occurs, usually in small quantities, in igneous, metamorphic,
and sedimentary rocks worldwide. Pyrite is so common that many geologists would consider it to be a
ubiquitous mineral.

77. Choose the incorrect statement?

A . Chhath Puja is the only festival where the setting sun is worshipped along with the rising sun.
B. According to the Hindu calendar, Chhath Puja is celebrated on the sixth day of falgun month
C. Chhath Puja is a Festival of four-day long strict and spiritual observance
D. The night of the third day witnesses a colorful event known as Kosi.
Ans:-B
· Chhath Puja is the only festival where the setting sun is worshipped along with the rising sun.
· According to the Hindu calendar, Chhath Puja is celebrated on the sixth day of Kartik month.
Hence Chhath Puja,is also known as Surya Shashti.
· The first day of the Chhath Puja includes taking a dip in the holy river/any water body. People
also take the water of Ganges to their homes to perform special offerings and rituals. Houses
are thoroughly cleaned on this day.
· The second day of Chhath, also known as Kharna, involves devotees observing a day long fast,
which is broken in the late evening after performing the worship of Mother Earth.
· The third day of Chhath goes in the preparation of the prasad (offerings) for the evening
offerings, also known as Sanjhiya Arghya.
· The night of the third day witnesses a colorful event known as Kosi. A canopy is made from
sugarcane sticks and lighted earthen lamps are placed inside the canopy along with baskets
filled with prasad.
· On the fourth and final day of Chhath, family members and friends go to the banks of rivers
before sunrise and make offerings (Arghya) to the rising sun. After this ritual, devotees break
their fast and distribute Prasad to neighbours and relatives.

78. Which Buddhist scholars treated Bakhtiyar Khilji when he was sick, leading him to perceive Buddhism as
a threat to Islam?
A) Bodhananda
B) Rahul Shribhadra
C) Vasubandhu
D) Dharmakirti

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Answer- B

Explanation:-. It is said that around 1190 BC, Bakhtiar Khilji had captured some areas ruled by Buddhists in
North India. During this time he fell so ill that even his doctors had given up and people had assumed that he
would die in a few days. Meanwhile, someone advised him to get treatment from Acharya Rahul Sribhadra,
head of the Ayurveda department of Nalanda University.
● Khilji had more faith in his Hakims, so he did not agree to get treatment from Acharya. He felt that his
Hakims were more capable and knowledgeable than the Indian Vaidyas. But in the end Acharya Rahul
Sribhadra was called to save his life.
● Now Bakhtiar Khilji put a strange condition in front of the Vaidyaraj that he would not eat any kind of
medicine given by him. Bakhtiyar Khilji's condition was that the Vaidyaraj should cure him without
medicine.
● The Vaidyaraj agreed to his condition and after a few days he came to him with a Quran and asked
him to read some pages of the Quran. Vaidyaraj Acharya Rahul Sribhadra said that after reading these
pages, he will be cured.
● Bakhtiar Khilji got cured after reading those pages of the Quran. In fact, it is said that Vaidyaraj had
applied medicine on the pages of the Quran that Bakhtiar Khilji had asked him to read. When Khilji
would turn the pages with his saliva, the medicine would come into his mouth and he got cured.
● Disturbed by the fact that an Indian scholar and teacher knew more than the Haqims of his own
court, Khilji decided to destroy the roots of all knowledge and Ayurveda in this country. So he set fire
to the Great Library of Nalanda in 1193 and burned down 9 million manuscripts.

According to records, Nalanda University was destroyed thrice by invaders, but it was rebuilt only twice.
● The first destruction was caused by the Huns under Mihirkul during the reign of Skandagupta
(455-467 AD) . But Skandagupta's successors got the library repaired and improved it with a larger
building.
● The second destruction was caused by Gaudas in the early 7th century . This time, the Buddhist king
Harshvardhana (606-648 AD) got the university repaired.
● The third and most devastating attack was in 1193 when the Turk commander Ikhtiyaruddin
Muhammad bin Bakhtiyar Khilji and his army destroyed the ancient Nalanda University.
● Tabaquat-i-Nasiri was written by Minhaj-i-siraj. This book is the source of the Incident of demolition
of nalanda and Vikramshila university by Bakhtiyar khilji. The Library of Nalanda university was called
Dharamganj,which was burnt by Bakhtiyar khilji.
● Makhdum Ul Mulk Bihari was a famous sufi saint and the Patron of Firdausi silsila. A hot spring in
Rajgir is named after him “Makhdum-kund”.
● Tarikh-i-Sher Shahi was written by Abbas khan Sarwani in which he documented historic details of
the regime of emperor Sher shah suri.
● Tarikh-i-Daudi was written by Abdullaha which includes the historical records of the regime Of Lodis
and Surs.

79. Slogan “Bihar for Bihari” was first published in ?

A. Motherland

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B. Murgesulema
C. SEARCHLIGHT
D. Patna daily
Ans:- B
· Slogan Bihar for Bihari was first published in Murgesulema in 1874 which advocated for
separate Bihar and representation of Bihari’s in administration of Bengal.
· “Bihar Bandhu” journal in 1876 reiterated this demand and advocated for separate Bihar from
Bengal.
· It is to be noted that Motherland was published from Sadaquat Ashram by Mazharul Haq.
· “Searchlight” newspaper was started by SACHIDANAND SINHA in 1918 and Dr Rajendra
Prasad was one of its founding members.
Bcw Bits:-
· “Bihar Herald” newspaper was edited by Guruprasad Sen.

80. Consider the following statements about India’s service export.

1. The services sector continues to be a significant contributor to India's growth, accounting for about
55% of the total size of the economy in FY 2023-24.
2. The share of India’s services exports in world services exports has risen remarkably from 0.5% in 1993
to 4.3% in 2022.
3. India is now the eight-largest services exporting country globally, with a phenomenal rise from its
24th position in 2001.

Which of the given statements is/ are correct?

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. All of the above

Answer: A

Explanation: The services sector continues to be a significant contributor to India's growth, accounting for
about 55% of the total size of the economy in FY 2023-24.
● The services sector witnessed a real growth rate of more than 6% in all the years in the last decade
except in the pandemic-affected FY 2020-21.
● The share of India’s services exports in world services exports has risen remarkably from 0.5% in 1993
to 4.3% in 2022.

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● India is now the seventh-largest services exporting country globally, with a phenomenal rise from its
24th position in 2001.
● India ranks second in the world in telecommunication, computer, and information services exports,
sixth in personal, cultural, and recreational services exports, eighth in other business services
exports, 10th in transport services exports, and 14th in travel services exports.

81. The setting up of a 2,400 MW power plant was announced in the Indian Budget of 2024-25 for which
district of Bihar?

A. Gaya
B. Bhagalpur
C. Purnea
D. Munger

Answer: B

Explanation: According to the Union Budget of 2024-25, a 2,400-MW power plant will be set up in Pirpainti of
Bhagalpur district of Bihar at a cost of ₹21,400 crore.

82. Consider the following statements about the Logistics Performance Index ( LPI).

1. The index is released annually by the World Economic Forum.

2. India ranked 38th among 139 countries in the LPI of 2023.

Which of the given statements is/are true?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation: The LPI is an interactive benchmarking tool developed by the World Bank to help countries
identify the challenges and opportunities they face in their performance on trade logistics and what they can
do to improve their performance.
● Parameters: At present, the World Bank considers six parameters that include customs,
infrastructure, international shipments, logistics competence, tracking and tracing, and timelines.
● India’s Ranking: It has climbed six places on the World Bank’s Logistic Performance Index (LPI) 2023,
now ranking 38th in the 139 countries index.
● Singapore ranked first.
● The national logistics policy has fixed a target to take up India’s ranking in top 25 by 2030.
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83. To support the manufacturing and services sector, the limit of Mudra loans have been extended upto
which of the following in the Tarun category?

A. 10 Lakhs
B. 15 Lakhs
C. 20 Lakhs
D. 25 Lakhs

Answer: C

Explanation: The limit of Mudra loans will be enhanced to ₹ 20 lakh from the current ₹ 10 lakh for those
entrepreneurs who have availed and successfully repaid previous loans under the ‘Tarun’ category.
● The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) was launched by the government in 2015 for providing
loans up to Rs. 10 lakh to the non-corporate, non-farm small/micro-enterprises.
● MUDRA, which stands for Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd., is a financial institution
set up by the Government.
● It provides funding to the non-corporate small business sector through various last-mile financial
institutions like Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) and Micro Finance Institutions
(MFIs).
● MUDRA does not lend directly to micro-entrepreneurs/individuals.
● MUDRA has created three products i.e. 'Shishu', 'Kishore' and ‘Tarun’ as per the stage of growth and
funding needs of the beneficiary micro unit.
1. Shishu: Covering loans up to Rs. 50,000.
2. Kishore: Covering loans above Rs. 50,000 and up to Rs. 5 lakh.
3. Tarun: Covering loans above Rs. 5 lakh and up to Rs. 10 lakh.
● Loans under this scheme are collateral-free loans.

84. Which of the following statements about the Current Account Deficit (CAD) are incorrect ?

A. India's CAD improved to 0.7% of GDP in FY24 from 2.0% in FY23.

B. A lower CAD can boost investor sentiment and make the country's currency more attractive to
investors.
C. CAD and fiscal deficit together make up twin deficits that can impact the stock market and investors.
D. Reduction in the export subsidy can help reduce the CAD.

Answer: D

Explanation: Current account deficit (CAD) is when the value of a country's imports of goods and services is
greater than its exports.
● CAD and fiscal deficit together make up twin deficits that can impact the stock market and investors.
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● Fiscal Deficit is the gap between the government’s expenditure requirements and its receipts. This
equals the money the government needs to borrow during the year.
● The CAD is significant because it affects the economy, stock markets, and people's investments.
● A lower CAD can boost investor sentiment and make the country's currency more attractive to
investors.
● A surplus in the current account indicates that money is flowing into the country, which can boost
foreign exchange reserves and the value of the local currency.
● The CAD improved to 0.7% of GDP in FY24 from 2.0% in FY23.
● Increasing exports is one of the most effective ways to reduce CAD. The government can provide
incentives for export-oriented industries, streamline export procedures and regulations, and
negotiate better trade agreements with other countries.

85. Consider the following statements about Grameen Bank.

1. The Grameen Bank project started in 1976 as an action research pilot project in "Jobra" village in
Chattogram district of Bangladesh.
2. The unique feature of Grameen Bank is that no collateral is required to get the credit from the bank.
3. Grameen Bank and Prof. Muhammad Yunus won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2005.

Which of the given statements are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation: Grameen is Bengali for "Rural" or "Village" Bank. Mohd. Yunus began a research project,
together with a national commercial bank and the University of Chittagong, extending microcredit to test his
method for providing credit and banking services to the rural poor.
● The Grameen Bank project started in 1976 as an action research pilot project in "Jobra" village in
Chattogram district of Bangladesh.
● In 1983, the pilot project was transformed into a bank with the aim of alleviating poverty and
empowering the marginalized poor in Bangladesh through micro-credit.
● The unique feature of Grameen Bank is that no collateral is required to get the credit from the bank.
● Grameen Bank and Mohd. Yunus were awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2006 in appreciation of its
efforts to create economic and social development from the bottom of the society through
microcredit.

86. Which of the following statements about Capital Gains Tax is incorrect?

A. Any profit or gain that arises from the sale of a ‘capital asset’ is a capital gain. This gain or profit
comes under the category of ‘income’.
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B. Tax on capital gains is triggered only when an asset is sold, or "realized”.

C. The short term capital gain on specified financial assets was changed to 20% instead of the earlier 15
% in the Budget.
D. The long term capital gain on all financial and non-financial assets was changed to 12.5 % instead of
the earlier 15% in the Budget.

Answer: D

Explanation : Any profit or gain that arises from the sale of a ‘capital asset’ is a capital gain. This gain or profit
comes under the category of ‘income’.
● Hence, the capital gain tax will be required to be paid for that amount in the year in which the
transfer of the capital asset takes place. This is called the capital gains tax, which can be both
short-term and long-term.
1. Long-Term Capital Gains (LTCG): This applies to assets held over a specified period (over 36
months).
2. Short-Term Capital Gains (STCG): Profits from assets held for shorter durations. Any asset
that is held for less than 36 months is termed as a short-term asset. In the case of
immovable properties, the duration is 24 months.
● Capital gains can be reduced by deducting the capital losses that occur when a taxable asset is sold
for less than the original purchase price. The total of capital gains minus any capital losses is known
as the "net capital gains".
● Tax on capital gains is triggered only when an asset is sold, or "realized". Stock shares that appreciate
every year will not be taxed for capital gains until they are sold.
● Short-term capital gains on specified financial assets shall be taxed at a rate of 20% instead of the
previous rate of 15%.
● The rate for other long-term capital gains on all assets has been rationalized to 12.5%. Previously, this
rate was 20%.

87. Which of the following schemes received the maximum allocation in the Union Budget of 2024-25?

A. POSHAN 2.0
B. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)
C. Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs in the Manufacturing Sector
D. PM Awas Yojana 2.0

Answer: D

Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) is a credit-linked subsidy scheme initiated to provide
affordable housing to low and moderate-income residents across the country.
● The scheme has two components: PMAY-U for the urban poor and PMAY-G and PMAY-R for the rural
poor.
● It was initiated in 2015 by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
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● It is a centrally sponsored scheme (Both the Union and the State governments financially contribute
to it).

The government plans to provide three crore more houses under the PM Awas Yojana in rural and urban
areas.
● Under the PM Awas Yojana Urban 2.0, the housing needs of 1 crore urban middle-class and poor
families will be addressed with an investment of Rs.10 lakh crore.
● This will include the central assistance of Rs.2.2 lakh crore in the next 5 years.

88. Which of the following statements about Angel Tax is incorrect?

A. It was introduced in 2012 and expanded through the Finance Act of 2023.
B. It is paid on the funds raised by listed companies through the issuance of shares in off-market
transactions if they exceed the fair market value of the company
C. It is governed by section 56(2)(viib) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
D. It was levied at a rate of 30.9% on net investments in excess of the fair market value, however it has
now been abolished.

Answer: B

Explanation: Angel Tax is a tax that is levied on the capital raised via the issue of shares by unlisted companies
if the share price of issued shares is seen in excess of the fair market value of the company.
● The excess funds raised at prices above fair value is treated as income, on which tax is levied.
● Angel tax essentially derives its genesis from section 56(2)(viib) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
● The finance act, 2012 introduced section 56(2)(viib) in the IT act which taxes any investment,
received by any unlisted Indian company, valued above the fair market value by treating it as income.
● It was levied at a rate of 30.9% on net investments in excess of the fair market value, however it has
been abolished in the Union Budget of 2024-25.

89. A point of infinite density and gravity where the concept of space-time breaks down and the laws of
physics do not work is known as?

A. Black Hole
B. Singularity
C. Event Horizon
D. White Dwarfs

Answer: B

Explanation:

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● The Big Bang theory proposes that the universe began from an infinitely hot and dense single point,
known as a singularity, around 13.7 billion years ago.
● Singularity refers to a point where the concept of space-time breaks down and the laws of physics do
not work. It is a point of infinite density and gravity.
● Event horizon: The boundary around a black hole beyond which nothing can escape, not even light.
It's the point of no return.
● White Dwarfs: Average stars like our Sun near the end of their life cycle shed outer layers exposing
only the stellar core, resulting in a White Dwarf.Despite being a stellar remnant, White Dwarfs retain
intense heat, resembling glowing cinders.They remain stable with the pressure from fast-moving
electrons preventing complete gravitational collapse.The more massive the core, the denser the
resulting white dwarf will be.
● A black hole is a region in space where the gravitational pull is so strong that nothing, not even light,
can escape from it. This intense gravity occurs because a large amount of matter has been squeezed
into a very small space.

90. Consider the following statements about Earthquakes -

1. The point where the energy is released is called the hypocentre.

2. The primary waves are slower but they are the first to arrive at the surface.
3. The secondary waves can travel through solid, liquid and gaseous states.

Which of the following statement/s are incorrect ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: C

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Explanation: An earthquake in simple words is shaking of the earth. It is a natural event. It is caused due to
release of energy, which generates waves that travel in all directions.
● The point where the energy is released is called the focus of an earthquake, alternatively, it is called
the hypocentre.
● The energy waves traveling in different directions reach the surface. The point on the surface, nearest
to the focus, is called epicentre. It is the first one to experience the waves. It is a point directly above
the focus.
● Earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves. Body waves are
generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions traveling through the
body of the earth. Hence, the name body waves. The body waves interact with the surface rocks and
generate new sets of waves called surface waves. These waves move along the surface.
● There are two types of body waves. They are called P- waves and S-waves.

P - Waves S - Waves

● P-waves move faster and are the first to ● S-waves arrive at the surface with some
arrive at the surface. time lag. These are called secondary waves.

● These are also called ‘primary waves’. ● An important fact about S-waves is that
they can travel only through solid materials.

● The P-waves are similar to sound waves. ● The surface waves are the last to report on
seismographs.

● They travel through gaseous, liquid and ● These waves are more destructive.
solid materials. ● They cause displacement of rocks, and
hence, the collapse of structures occurs

91. St. Martin's Island, recently seen in the news, is situated in which of the following?

A. Arabian Sea
B. Mediterranean Sea
C. Bay of Bengal
D. Gulf of Aden

Answer: C

Explanation: St Martin’s Island is situated in the north-eastern region of the Bay of Bengal, near the border
between Bangladesh and Myanmar.
● It is located nine kilometers from the southern tip of Bangladesh’s Cox’s Bazar-Teknaf peninsula.
● The island is 7.3 km long and flat. It has an elevation of 3.6 meters above sea level.

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● It is Bangladesh’s only coral island, surrounded by reefs located 10-15 km to the west-northwest.

92. Consider the following statements.

1. It ranks as Africa’s 4th largest Saline lake by surface area and holds the title of the world’s largest
permanent desert lake.
2. Also known as Lake Rudolf or the Jade Sea, it is a vast, shallow lake located in the arid northern
region of Kenya, with its northernmost section extending into Ethiopia.
3. The lake and its surrounding areas are considered as world heritage sites.

Which Lake is being talked about in the above statements?

A. Lake Victoria
B. Lake Malawi
C. Lake Tanganyika
D. Lake Turkana

Answer: D

Explanation: Lake Turkana is also known as Lake Rudolf or the Jade Sea.
● It is a vast, shallow lake located in the arid northern region of Kenya, with its northernmost section
extending into Ethiopia.
● It ranks as Africa’s 4th largest lake by surface area and holds the title of the world’s largest permanent
desert lake.
● Lake Turkana is Africa’s largest saline lake by volume and the 4th largest in the world.
● The lake and its surrounding areas are known as Lake Turkana National Parks are recognized as
UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

93. Consider the following statements about gharial.

1. Gharial is the only crocodilian species which exhibits sexual dimorphism in both size and appearance.
2. The Gharial has been categorized as ‘critically endangered’ under the IUCN's red list.
3. Their major population occurs in three tributaries of the Ganga River: the Chambal and Girwa Rivers
in India and the Rapti-Narayani River in Nepal.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
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D. All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:
● Gharial is a freshwater crocodile belonging to the Crocodylia Order and Crocodylidae Family.
● Historically, the gharial's range spanned the rivers of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, and
Pakistan. Today, only fragmented populations remain in Nepal and northern India.
● Their major population occurs in three tributaries of the Ganga River: the Chambal and Girwa Rivers
in India and the Rapti-Narayani River in Nepal.

Features:
● Gharials exhibit sexual dimorphism — or differences in characteristics between males and females of
the same species — in both size and appearance. The gharial is the longest of all crocodilian species,
with males reaching 16 to 20 feet (5 to 6 meters) in length. Females typically grow to lengths of 11.5
to 15 feet (3.5 to 4.5 meters).
● They have thick skin covered with smooth epidermal scales that do not overlap.
● The snout of the gharial is uniquely the thinnest and most elongated among all the crocodilians.
● In addition, the adult males sport a large bulb at the tip of their snout, called the 'ghara'.
● The teeth are more numerous than any other crocodilian species.
● It is also the most aquatic of all crocodilians, for it never moves far from the water.
● Because of their weak leg muscles, gharials are poorly equipped for locomotion on land.

Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Critically endangered.
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
CITES: Appendix I

94. The famous Pashupatinath temple, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site is situated on the bank of
which river?

A. Budhi Gandak
B. Bagmati
C. Kamala
D. Kosi

Answer: B

Explanation: The Bagmati River flows through south-central Nepal and northern Bihar state, India.
● The Bagmati originates from Shivapuri Hills about a few kms from Kathmandu in Nepal. It is a rain fed
river and passes the center of Kathmandu, Tarai then enters into India near Dheng in district
Sitamarhi, Bihar.
● It flows across Sitamarhi, Sheohar, Muzaffarpur and Darbhanga districts.
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● Main tributaries of this river are Manusmar, Lakhandei and KamlaBalan.

● It finally joins Budhi Gandak near Hayaghat, District-Darbhanga.
● The total course of the river is 225 miles (360 km). The Bagmati River basin transacts three distinct
latitudinal physiographic zones in the Nepal Himalayas- Mountain Zone, Siwalik Zone and Terai Zone.
● The river is considered holy by both Hindus and Buddhists.
● The banks of the Bagmati River are home to various temples, including the Pashupatinath Temple
which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

95. The tropical cyclone Remal which formed in the region of Bay of Bengal was named by which country?

A. Bangladesh
B. Myanmar
C. Oman
D. Saudi Arabia

Answer: C

Explanation: Cyclone Remal is a tropical cyclone that formed in the Northern Indian Ocean, specifically in the
Bay of Bengal.
● The name “Remal” means “sand” in Arabic and was named by Oman, following the standard naming
protocol for cyclones in the region.

Naming of cyclones
● In 2000, a group of nations called WMO/ESCAP (World Meteorological Organisation/United Nations
Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific), which comprised Bangladesh, India,
Maldives, Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Thailand, decided to start naming cyclones in the
region.
● After each country sent its suggestions, the WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones (PTC) finalized
the list.
● The WMO/ESCAP expanded to include five more countries in 2018 — Iran, Qatar, Saudi Arabia,
United Arab Emirates and Yemen.
● The list of 169 cyclone names released by IMD in April 2020 were provided by these countries — 13
suggestions from each of the 13 countries.

BCW Bits
● Tropical cyclones are violent storms that originate over oceans in tropical areas and move over to the
coastal areas bringing about large scale destruction caused by violent winds, very heavy rainfall and
storm surges.
● Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm tropical oceans.
● The conditions favorable for the formation and intensification of tropical storms are:
1. Large sea surface with temperature higher than 27° C.
2. Presence of the Coriolis force.
3. Small variations in the vertical wind speed.
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4. A pre-existing weak low- pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation.

5. Upper divergence above the sea level system.

96. Match List- I with List- II :

List - I List - II
(Wildlife Sanctuary) (District)

a. Udaypur 1. Rajgir
b. Pant 2. Gaya
c. Barela Jheel Salim Ali 3. Vaishali
d. Gautam Buddha 4. West Champaran

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. a b c d
4 1 3 2
B. a b c d
1 3 2 4
C. a b c d
2 4 1 3
D. a b c d
3 2 1 4

Answer: A

Explanation:
● The Gautam Buddha Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary located in Gaya district of Bihar state
and Koderma district of Jharkhand state in east-central India. It was established on 14 September
1971.
● The Pant Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary close to the town of Rajgir in Bihar. It is a part of
the Nalanda Forest Division. The five mountains that make up the Pant Wildlife Sanctuary’s landscape
are Ratnagiri, Vipulgiri, Vaibhargiri, Songiri, and Udaygiri.
● The Udaypur Vanya Prani wildlife Sanctuary is located in West Champaran district. It is located over
8.74 sq km of land and was established in 1978. It is located in the moist deciduous wood ecoregion
of the Lower Gangetic Plains. The wildlife sanctuary is primarily a wetland and is situated on an
oxbow lake in the Gandaki River floodplain.
● The Barela jheel Salim Ali sanctuary is located in Vaishali district. It was established in 1997. The area
of this bird sanctuary is 1.92 sq km.

97. The indigenous scheduled tribe Muria recently seen in news, belongs to which of the following regions?
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A. Mewar Plateau
B. Chotanagpur Plateau
C. Bhander Plateau
D. Dandakaranya Plateau

Answer: D

Explanation: Dandakaranya is located in the Bastar region of the present-day state of Chhattisgarh in the
central part of India.
● Extending over a neighborhood of about 35600 square miles, it includes the Abujhmad Hills within
the west and borders the Eastern Ghats within the east.
● Abujmarh is a hilly forest area in Chhattisgarh, covering Narayanpur district, Bijapur district, and
Dantewada district. It is home to indigenous tribes of India, including Gond, Muria, Abuj Maria, and
Halbaas.
● The Dandakaranya Plateau includes parts of the Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Telangana, and Andhra
Pradesh states. It’s a dimension of about 200 miles from north to south and about 300 miles from
east to west.

The Muria are an indigenous Adivasi, scheduled tribe of Dravidian community in the Bastar district of
Chhattisgarh, India. They are part of the Gondi people.
● They speak Koya, which is a Dravidian language.
● They have progressive perspective towards marriage and life as a whole. The biggest example being
the Ghotul (a commune or dormitory), which is meant to create an environment for Muria youth to
understand their sexuality.

98. Arrange the following Himalayan rivers from west to east.

1. Jhelum
2. Indus
3. Ravi
4. Chenab
5. Sutlej

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

A. 2-3-1-5-4
B. 4-2-5-3-1
C. 3-5-2-1-4
D. 2-1-4-3-5

Answer: D

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Explanation: The correct sequence of the Himalayan rivers is Indus, jhelum, Chenab, Ravi and Sutlej.

● The Indus River rises from a glacier near Bokhar Chu in the Kailash Mountain range in Tibet. It is
known as ‘Singi Khamban’ (Lion’s mouth).
1. In India, it flows for 1,114 km through Ladakh. It enters Pakistan near Chilas of Dardistan
region and finally discharges into the Arabian Sea.
2. Left bank tributaries: Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej, Zanskar etc.
3. Right bank tributaries: Shyok, Gilgit, Kabul, Kurram, Gomal, Shigar, etc.
4. Important place: Leh is located on the right bank of the Indus River.
● Chenab is the largest tributary of the Indus River. It is formed after the two streams, Chandra and
Bhaga, originating near Baralacha La Pass in Lahaul and Spiti, merge with each other at Tandi.
1. The drainage area of the Chenab River basin within India is located in the two states —
Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir.
2. It joins the Indus River near Shorkot in Pakistan.
● Jhelum originates from a spring at Verinag in J&K, located at the foot of the Pir Panjal Range.
1. It is called Vyeth in Kashmiri, Vetesta in Sanskrit, and Hydaspes in Greek.
2. It is the main waterway of the Kashmir Valley, which flows through Srinagar and Wular Lake.
3. This transboundary river joins the Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.
4. Major tributaries: Liddar, Dudhganga and Sindh.
5. Important cities: Srinagar, Baramulla and Uri.
● Ravi, a transboundary river, rises near Rohtang Pass in the Kullu hills of HP and flows through the
Chamba Valley.
1. It joins the Chenab near Sarai Sidhu in Pakistan.
2. It drains the area lying between the Pir Panjal and Dhauladhar ranges.
3. It passes through Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, and Punjab.
4. Important cities: Amritsar and Pathankot.
● Sutlej rises in Rakshas Tal near Mansarovar in Tibet, where it is called Langchen Khambab.
1. It flows almost parallel to the Indus before entering India. It is the longest tributary of the
Indus.
2. The main tributaries of the Sutlej River in India are Ravi and Beas.
3. Important cities: Ferozpur and Ludhiana.

99. Teak, a commercially important tree is found in which of the following types of forest?

A. Tropical moist deciduous forest

B. Tropical semi evergreen forest
C. Tropical wet evergreen forest
D. Montane wet temperate forest

Answer: A

Explanation: Teak is found in Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests which have a mean annual temperature of
about 27°C and annual rainfall 100 to 200 cm.
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● In such forests, Spring (between winter and summer) and summer are dry.
● The trees drop their leaves during the spring and early summer when sufficient moisture is not
available.
● The general appearance is bare in extreme summers (April-May).
● These forests occupy a much larger area than the evergreen forests but large tracts under these
forests have been cleared for cultivation.
● These are present in belt running along the Western Ghats, a strip along the Shiwalik range including
terai and bhabar from 77° E to 88° E, Manipur and Mizoram, Hills of eastern Madhya Pradesh and
Chhattisgarh, Chota Nagpur Plateau, Most of Odisha, parts of West Bengal and Andaman and Nicobar
islands.
● These forests provide valuable timber like Teak.
● The main species found in these forests are teak, sal, laurel, rosewood, amla, jamun, bamboo, etc.
● It is comparatively easy to exploit these forests due to their high degree of gregariousness (more pure
stands).

100. Which states of India share a border with Bangladesh?

A. Manipur, Mizoram, West Bengal, Tripura, Nagaland.

B. Nagaland, West Bengal, Assam, Tripura, Mizoram.
C. Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya, West Bengal, Mizoram.
D. West Bengal, Manipur, Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram.

Answer: C

Explanation: Bangladesh and India share a 4,096-km international border. Five Indian states share borders
with Bangladesh, which includes 262 km in Assam, 856 km in Tripura, 318 km in Mizoram, 443 km in
Meghalaya, and 2,217 km in West Bengal.

101. Which among the following local weather phenomena helps in the blossoming of coffee flowers?

A. Mango shower
B. Nor westers
C. Blossom shower
D. Bordoisila

Answer: C

Explanation: Some Famous Local Storms of Hot Weather Season

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● Mango Shower: Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common
phenomenon in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are known as mango showers
since they help in the early ripening of mangoes.
● Blossom Shower: With this shower, coffee flowers blossom in Kerala and nearby areas.
● Nor Westers: These are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. Their notorious nature
can be understood from the local nomenclature of ‘Kalbaisakhi’, a calamity of the month of Baisakh.
These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. In Assam, these storms are known as
“Bordoisila”.

102. The Afar triangle which is a huge geological depression is located in which of the following continents?

A. Africa
B. Asia
C. South America
D. Australia

Answer: A

Explanation: The Afar Triangle, located in the Horn of Africa, is a geological depression where three tectonic
plates- the Nubian, Somali, and Arabian plates- meet.
● In addition to its geological importance, the Afar Triangle has a rich palaeontological history, revealing
fossils of some of the earliest hominins.
● It is part of the Great Rift Valley in East Africa.
● It spans across Eritrea, Djibouti, and the Afar Region of Ethiopia.
● It contains Lake Assal, which is Africa’s lowest point.
● It is bordered by the Ethiopian Plateau, the Danakil block, the Somali Plateau, and the Ali-Sabieh
block.

103. Which among the following are depositional landforms?

1. Playas
2. Drumlin
3. Pediplain
4. Eskers
5. Moraine

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 3 and 5 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
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Answer: B

Explanation: Among the given options, drumlins, eskers and moraines are depositional landforms whereas
playas and Pediplain are erosional landforms.

● Playa is a flat-bottom depression found in interior desert basins and adjacent to coasts in arid and
semiarid regions, periodically covered by water. It slowly filtrates into the groundwater system or
evaporates into the atmosphere, causing salt, sand, and mud deposition along the bottom and
around the depression's edges
● Drumlins are smooth oval shaped ridge-like features composed mainly of glacial till with some
masses of gravel and sand.
● Pediplain is a broad and relatively flat rock surface formed by the joining of several pediments. As
water and wind slowly erode and disintegrate rock surfaces, they reduce mountain ranges into a
series of pediments at the base, and these pediments gently slope outward, where they coalesce
with each other to form one large plain, which is the pediplain.
● Eskers are ridges made of sands and gravels, deposited by glacial meltwater flowing through tunnels
within and underneath glaciers, or through meltwater channels on top of glaciers. Over time, the
channel or tunnel gets filled up with sediments. As the ice retreats, the sediments are left behind as a
ridge in the landscape.
● Moraines are long ridges of deposits of glacial till.

104. “Phulwaria Dam” has been identified as a potential site for solar power installation in Bihar, It is
present in which district?
A. Patna
B. Gaya
C. Nawada
D. Aurangabad
Ans:- C
· As per Economic survey 2023-24 of Bihar Renewable energy constitutes only 31% of total power generation
and is expected to reach 35% by 2025-26.
· Solar power project at Kajra (Lakhisarai) & pirpainti (Bhagalpur) has been given sanctions and state
Government has identified “Phulwaria Dam” in Nawada district for the installation of 10MW Floating solar
power project.

105. Which one is “Odd one out” vis-à-vis Power Projects in Bihar?
A. Kajra
B. Pirpainti
C. Phulwaria Dam
D. Nabinagar
Ans:- D

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· Solar power project at Kajra (Lakhisarai) & pirpainti (Bhagalpur) has been given sanctions and state
Government has identified “Phulwaria Dam” in Nawada district for the installation of 10MW Floating solar
power project.
· Kanti in Muzaffarpur and Nabinagar in Aurangabad,Bihar are sites of Thermal power plants .Hence the
correct answer is D.
· Ultra mega power project is being set up in Banka (4000MW) too.
· Satluj jal vidyut nigam limited is executing a project of 600 MW in Chausa ,Bihar.
Note: - BPSC has often asked questions on sites related to power projects; hence this question seeks your
attention.

106. In which districts of Bihar project “Niche machli aur Upar Bijli” concept is getting implemented?
A. Kajra and pirpainti
B. Nabinagar & kanti
C. Darbhanga & supaul
D. Patna & Muzaffarpur
Ans:-C
· To prevent the evaporation of water and generate electricity, state Government of Bihar is implementing
“Floating solar power projects” in the DISTRICT of “Darbhanga” & “supaul” under “Niche machli aur upar Bijli”
concept.
· It will have fish cultivation in ponds with floating solar panels on the water to generate electricity.
· So it is the best technique to use the available resources in the best possible manner.

107. Choose the correct option.

1. It is only in Bihar that “Gram Kachahari” is established.
2. It has no power to pass an order for imprisonment.
A . Only 1
B . only 2
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:- c
·Under Bihar Panchayati Raj Act 2006, there is provision for “Gram Kachahari” along with gram panchayat.
· Gram kachahari secretary and nyaya mitra are deployed in “Gram kachahari”.
· It is only in Bihar where “Gram Kachahari” is established and it has power to impose a penalty up to Rs 1000
but it can’t impose any jail sentence.
· It is primarily meant to cater small criminal and civil cases to reduce the burden on judiciary.

108. Which agency is funding the “Patna Metro Rail Project”?

A. Asian development Bank
B. World Bank
C. Japan International cooperation agency
D. BRICS bank
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Ans:-C
o Patna Metro rail project was started in 2019 with centre and state contributing 20 percent each while 60%
of the project cost is being borne by Japan International cooperation agency in the form of soft loans.

o Status Till July 2023:- One third project is completed and centre has allocated Rs 872.50cr and state
Government has allocated Rs 2529.59cr to implement the project.

109. “e-LOTS” is related to which department of Bihar?

A. Health
B. Education
C. Physical infrastructure
D. Environment
Ans:-B
· e-LOTS stands for e-learning for teachers and students.
· The main aim is to provide contents in digital format (audio, video, quizzes etc) to teachers and students so
that education reaches to every nook & corner of the state.

110. Southwest monsoon contributes what amount of total rainfall in Bihar as per Economic survey
2023-24?
A. 74.1%
B. 81.7%
C. 91.2%
D. 64.8%
Ans:-B
· Bihar receives most of its rainfall from south –west monsoon (81.7%).
· From 2001-22 Bihar received average rainfall of 1009.4mm.
· In 2022-23 State of Bihar received only 849.1mm of rainfall.
Note:-
1. South west monsoon in Bihar lasts from June to September
2.BPSC often asks questions on rainfall patterns, hence this fact is important for exam.

111. Bhaluni dham conservation reserve is present in which district of Bihar?

A. Purnea
B. Katihar
C. Begusarai
D. Rohtash

Ans:-D
· Bihar has 13 wildlife sanctuaries and three Ramsar sites namely Kabartal (Begusarai),nagi & nakti in
Jamui.
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· Bhaluni Dham is present in Rohtash and has an area of 0.12 sq.km.

· Kaimur wildlife sanctuary is the largest wildlife sanctuary of the state.

112. Choose the correct option

1. Kishanganj received the highest rainfall in 2022-23
2. Average rainfall in Bihar in 2022-23 is 1009.4mm
3. Araria is the district with least rainfall

A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1,2,3
Ans:- A
· Bihar receives most of its rainfall (81.7%) from south west monsoon which is predominant from June to
September.
· Average rainfall in Bihar was 1009.4mm in the year ranging from 2001 to 2022
· In the year 2022-23 Bihar received the rainfall less than average (i:e 849.1mm).Hence statement 2 stands
incorrect.
· Kishanganj received the maximum rainfall (2155mm) while Jehanabad (577mm) received the least rainfall
in 2022-23.Hence statement 3 stands incorrect too.
· Note :- Araria received the highest rainfall only after Kishanganj in 2022-23.

113. At which of the following places, the evidence of three phases of Stone age has been discovered ?
A. Banas Valley
B. Hunsgi Valley
C. Soan Valley
D. Belan Valley
Ans : D
Exp : Sequential evidence of the Stone Age has been discovered on the northern spurs of the Vindhyas,
especially in the Belan Valley (Uttar Pradesh). All three periods of the Palaeolithic era, followed by the
Mesolithic era and then the Neolithic era, has been uncovered in a successive order.
• Banas Valley situated in south-eastern Rajasthan, is famous for one of the earliest Chalcolithic
cultures in India, known as the Ahar culture or Banas culture.
• Hunsgi Valley of north Karnataka, is known for one of the earliest known Acheulian site in India ,
which denote the Lower Paleolithic period in India. It is the longest period in human history and extends for
over a million years.
• Soan Valley located in Pakistan contains the archaelogical evidences of stone tools belonging to early
paleolithic era.

114. Consider the following statements regarding Indus valley civilization -

I. Bones of a camel was found at Sutkagendor.
II. There was an absence of citadel at Chanhudaro.
III. Dholavira was divided into three townships.
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IV. Bronze dancing girl was found at Mohenjodaro.

Identify the correct statements -
A. I and III
B. II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV
Ans : D
Exp : Bones of a camel was found at Kalibangan.
• A Priest-King sculpture and bronze dancing girl were found at Mohenjodaro.
• The Harappan city - Dholavira was divided into three parts — the Citadel, the Middletown and the
Lower town.
• Chanhudaro was the only Harappan city which does not have a fortified citadel.

115. Who among the following is described as ‘Aparo Parashurama’ in puranas ?

A. Ajatsatru
B. Mahapadma Nanda
C. Pushyamitra Shunga
D. Bindusara
Ans : B
Exp : In Puranas, Mahapadma Nanda has been described as ekarat (sole sovereign) and Sarva-kshatrantaka
(destroyer of all the Kshatriyas). The Puranas also mentioned him as ‘second Parashurama’ or “Aparo
Parashurama”. Also, the Buddhist texts describe him as Ugrasena.

116. The famous Tamil epic 'Manimekalai' was authored by ?

A. Tiruvalluvar
B. Seethalai Saathanar
C. Ilango Adigal
D. Tolkappiyar
Ans : B
Exp : Seethalai Saathanar, a grain merchant from Madurai, authored the literary work known as Manimekalai.
The narrative revolves around the daughter of Kovalan and Madhavi. Nevertheless, this epic holds more
significance in terms of religion rather than literature.
• Another Tamil epic, Silappadikaram is considered to be the brightest gem of early Tamil literature. It
was composed by a poet named Ilango Adigal. It narrates the romantic tale of Kovalan, a merchant residing in
Puhar, who becomes infatuated with Madhavi, a courtesan, and disregards his wife Kannagi, who hails from a
prestigious lineage.
• The Tolkappiyam deals with Tamil grammar and poetics. It was authored by Tolkappiyar.
• Thirukkural deals with philosophy and wise maxims and is also known as ‘Kural’ or 'Muppal'. It was
composed by the famous poet Tiruvalluvar. It is also regarded as the Bible and Laghuveda of Tamil literature.

117. Which of the following pillar contains an inscription in Nastaliq script ?

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A. Allahabad pillar
B. Rampurva pillar
C. Delhi- Topra pillar
D. Delhi-Meerut pillar
Ans : A
Exp : The Allahabad pillar was initially erected by Ashoka at Kaushambi, which was later shifted to Allahabad
by Akbar. This pillar contains five distinct inscriptions: an Ashokan inscription in the Brahmi script, the Queen
Edict detailing the benevolent actions of Ashoka’s wife, Karuvaki, the Schism Edict, the Samudragupta’s
inscription (Prayag Prashasti), and Jehangir’s inscription in the Persian language and Nastaliq script.

118. Which among the following was the smallest denomination of coins, used during the Mauryan period
?
A. Mashaka
B. Pana
C. Kakani
D. Anna
Ans : C
Exp : The punch-marked silver coins also known as karshapana (or pana) coins, formed the imperial currency
of the Mauryas. These coins were issued from mints of the Mauryan empire and do not specify the issuing
authority, however they do carry certain symbols that have been associated with Mauryan kings. Silver coins
were found in four denominations viz. 'pana', 'ardha-pana', 'pada' and 'asta-bhaga' or 'ardha-padika'.
•As per Kautilya's Arthashastra, the silver currency 'pana' was the standard currency during the Mauryan
Administration. Smaller denomination coins were made of copper.
•One 'Pana' was divided into 16 ‘mashakas', which were copper currency.
•One 'mashaka' was divided into 4 'kakanis', made of copper.
•The highest denomination currency was 128 times of the lowest denomination currency.
•Thus it is presumed that 2 'pana' was the highest denominator and 1 'kakani' the lowest.

119. Who was the first women to join Bhikkhuni Sangha of Buddhism ?
A. Amrapali
B. Mahaprajapati Gotami
C. Yasodhara
D. Visakha
Ans : B
Exp : It was because of Buddha's disciple “Ananda”, that women could join the Bhikkhuni Sangha.
Mahaprajapati Gotami, who was Buddha’s maternal aunt, was the first woman to be admitted into the
Sangha.

120. Match the following -

Ancient name Modern name
I. Shutudri a. Ravi
II. Askini b. Gandak
III. Parushni c. Chenab
IV. Sadaneera d. Sutlej
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A. I-a , II-b, III-c, IV-d

B. I-d , II-c, III-b, IV-a
C. I-d , II-c, III-a, IV-b
D. I-c , II-b, III-d, IV-a
Ans : C
Exp:
Ancient name Modern name
I. Shutudri d. Sutlej
II. Askini c. Chenab
III. Parushni a. Ravi
IV. Sadaneera b. Gandak

121. Which of the following place was renamed as 'Khizrabad' by Alauddin Khilji ?
A. Chittor
B. Siwana
C. Chanderi
D. Jallor
Ans : A
Exp : Alauddin Khilji sieged Chittorgarh in 1303, by toppling the Guhila king Rana Ratan Singh. Alauddin
assigned Chittor to his son Khizr Khan (or Khidr Khan), who was 7 or 8 years old. The Chittor fort was renamed
"Khizrabad" after the prince. Khizr Khan was given a gold-embroidered robe and a red canopy, which was
usually bestowed upon an heir apparent.
Later, Alauddin decided that it was best to govern Chittor indirectly through a Hindu ruler. He transferred the
governance of Chittor from Khizr Khan to the Chahamana chief Maladeva (Maldeo), who was supported by
the locals.

122. The first example of a tomb within a madrasa to be built in India, was related to -
A. Iltutmish
B. Balban
C. Alauddin Khilji
D. Firoz Shah Tuglaq
Ans : C
Exp : 'Madrasa of Alauddin Khilji' is an Islamic school (madrasa) located in the Qutab Minar complex, Mehrauli
(Delhi). It was built by Alauddin Khilji in 1315, and the tomb attributed to him is located inside the madrasa.
This is the first instance of such tomb-madrasa combination in India.
•The tomb attributed to Alauddin Khilji is located in the central room of the southern wing of the L-shaped
madrasa in Qutab Minar complex. It is located south west of the Qutab Minar and Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque.
•The tomb is the first example of a tomb within a madrasa to be built in India, a feature possibly influenced
by Seljuk architecture (Iranian architecture).
•Along with other monuments of Qutab Minar complex (Delhi), it is designated as UNESCO World heritage
site in 1993.

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123. Which of the following is oldest among the seven cities of medieval Delhi ?
A. Tuglaqabad
B. Siri fort
C. Dinpanah
D. Qila Rai pithora
Ans : D
Exp : The Tomar Rajputs are credited with the founding the first historic city of Delhi, which has today few
monuments and relics remaining. The Tomars are also known for building the first regular defence fort, later
known as the fort Lal Kot, which the famous warrior king Prithvi Raj Chauhan (also known as Rai Pithora) took
over and extended to cover his much wider kingdom in around 1160 AD. Prithvi Raj Chauhan’s city was
named by Muslim historians as Qila Rai Pithora and the ruins of the fort ramparts are still visible today in
Saket, Qutub complex in Mehrauli, Kishangarh and Vasant Kunj areas.
•In order to protect the city from Mongol invasions, Alauddin Khilji built the second of the seven cities of
Delhi in 1303, known as Siri fort (The Fort of Decapitated Heads).
•Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty, built the third medieval city of Delhi called
Tughlaqabad, in 1321. However, due to the curse of Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya, this cherished city
unfortunately did not survive for long,
•The fourth city, known as Jahanpanah (“The Refuge of the World”)was built by Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, in
1326, to meet the threat of the Mongols, but then inexplicably abandoned the city by shifting his capital to
Daulatabad in the Deccan.
•Ferozabad or Firoz Shah Kotla (The Palace of Spirits) was the fifth city built by Feroz Shah Tughlaq, in 1354.
•The Purana Qila is said to be the site of the ancient Indraprastha, where Humayun started the construction
of the city named Dinpanah in 1533. In 1540, Sher Shah defeated Humayun and became the Emperor of
Hindustan. He completed both the Purana Qila and the city and named it Sher Garh
•The walled city ( presently known as Purani Dilli ) was built by the emperor Shah Jahan, in 1639 and named it
Shahjahanabad. It remained the capital of the Mughal empire until its fall in 1857.

124. Which of the following Sikh guru started the " Guru ka Langar" ?
A. Guru Nanak
B. Guru Arjan Dev
C. Guru Ramdas
D. Guru Gobind Singh
Ans : A
Exp : Guru Nanak started the community kitchen known as ‘Guru Ka Langar’. The followers used to eat
together without paying any attention to the caste.
• Guru Nanak was born in Talwandi in Punjab in 1469 AD, which is now known as ‘Nankana Sahib’ and
is located in Shaikhpura district of western Punjab (now in Pakistan).
• Guru Nanak was the founder of Sikh religion during the reign of Sikandar Lodi.
• He believed in monotheism and emphasized the worship of Nirgun Brahma. He says, “God knows the
qualities of a person, but he does not ask about his caste, because there is no caste in the world."
• Guru Nanak died in 1539 AD at Kartarpur (Pakistan).

125. Mughal emperor Akbar divided his empire into how many provinces ?
A. 23
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B. 19
C. 15
D. 12
Ans : C
Exp : Akbar divided his empire into fifteen provinces. These were: Agra, Ahmedabad, Ahmednagar, Ajmer,
Allahabad, Awadh, Bengal, Berar, Bihar, Delhi, Kabul, Khandar, Lahore, Malwa and Multan. Each province was
under the charge of the Subedar (Governor). He was assisted by a ‘Diwan’ who looked after the revenue
records.
•Bakshi looked after the needs of the army.
•The Kotwal was entrusted with the maintenance of law and order in the main cities.
•Qazi looked after justice.
•Provinces were divided into Sarkars, Sarkars into Parganas and Parganas into villages.
•Panchayats looked after the village administration and also dispensed justice.

126. April 14 was once declared as “ Bindeshwar pathak” day by the mayor of which city/state?
A. London
B. New York
C. Delhi
D. patna
Ans:-B
Note:-
This question is important as shri Bindeshwar pathak has been awarded Padma Vibhusan in 2024.
· Dr. Bindeshwar Pathak, the Founder of Sulabh International Social Service Organisation, is widely
recognised in India and the world for developing a low-cost two-pit pour-flush toilet system and leading the
nationwide social sanitation and reform movement since 1970.
· His organisation, Sulabh International, was awarded the International Gandhi Peace Prize (2016) for its
contribution to improving the condition of sanitation in India and the emancipation of manual scavengers. In
2016 Shri Pathak became the Brand Ambassador of the Swachh Rail Mission of Indian Railways.
· Mayor of the City of New York, declared April 14, 2016, as 'DR. BINDESHWAR PATHAK DAY' as a token of
respect.
.He passed away on 15th aug 2023.

· He has been awarded “Padma Vibhushan" in 2024 posthumously.

127. Recently Dr C P Thakur has got “Padma Bhusan”, he is well known for his contribution to ?
A. Malaria
B. Kalazar
C. Cancer
D. AIDS
o Ans:-B
● Visceral leishmaniasis is commonly known as kala-azar (KA), a word coined in the late nineteenth
century in India, which means “black disease”, referring to the greyish or blackish discoloration of the
skin during infection, from the Hindi word for black (kala) and the Persian word for disease (azar).
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● Kala-azar is a slow progressing indigenous disease caused by a protozoan parasite of genus

Leishmania
● In India Leishmania donovani is the only parasite causing this disease
● The parasite primarily infects reticuloendothelial system and may be found in abundance in bone
marrow, spleen and liver.
Dr C P Thakur is former Health minister and is known for his research in the field of “Kalazar”.

128. Neeraj Chopra won the Silver medal at Olympic 2024 in Javelin Throw with a throw of
A. 88.45m
B. 89.45 m
C. 88.75 m
D. 89.75 m

Ans: B
Exp: Neeraj Chopra has won Silver medal at Paris Olympic 2024 with a throw of 89.45 m.

Gold medal-Arshad Nadeem(92.97)

Silver medal- Neeraj Chopra(89.45)
Bronze medal- Anderson Peters(88.54)

129. Which country will be the headquarters for the newly constituted International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)
?
A. India
B. UK
C. USA
D. China

Ans A
Exp: The Union Cabinet approved the establishment of the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) with
headquarters in India with a one-time budgetary support of Rs.150 crore for a period of five years from
2023-24 to 2027-28. Globally, the ‘big cats’ include - tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, puma, jaguar, and
cheetah

130. Which telecom operator became the world’s largest mobile operator in data traffic?
A. Airtel
B. AT&T
C. Reliance jio
D. Vodafone
Ans C
Exp Reliance Jio became the world’s (Its total traffic reached 40.9 exabytes in the January March quarter of
2024)

131. Who has been appointed as the first woman vice chancellor of the Aligarh Muslim University ?
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A. Naima Khatoon
B. Sayrah sah
C. Nargis Bano
D. Shazia Ilmi
Ans: A
Exp: President Droupadi Murmu, on 23 April 2024 appointed professor Naima Khatoon as the first woman
vice-chancellor of the Aligarh Muslim University (AMU)

132. Maritime Security Joint Exercise ‘Sea Defenders-2024’ ,was held between
A. India and France
B. France and USA
C. India and USA
D. India and UK
Ans : C
Exp : India and USA participated in the Maritime Security Joint Exercise ‘Sea Defenders-2024’ took place on
9-10 March 2024 off the coast of Port Blair.

BCW Bits:
Other important Exercises :
● Sampriti- India & Bangladesh
● Mitra Shakti- India & Sri Lanka
● Vajra Prahar- India & US
● Yudh Abhyas- India & US
● Nomadic Elephant- India & Mongolia
● Garuda Shakti- India & Indonesia
● Dharma Guardian- India & Japan
● Surya Kiran- India & Nepal
● Hand in Hand Exercise- India & China
● Shakti Exercise- India & France
● Exercise Indra- India & Russia
● Ajeya Warrior- India & UK
● Indradhanush- India & UK
● Eastern Bridge - India & Oman
● Ekuverin- India & Maldives

133. Recently a national campaign "Naanoo Rani Chennamma" ("I am Rani Chennamma too") was
launched to commemorate the 200th anniversary of Rani Chennamma's rebellion.
Consider the following statements
I. Rani Chennamma was a freedom fighter and Rani of Kittur, a princely state in Karnataka.
II. She rebelled against the British in 1824 after they declined to acknowledge her adopted son
as the successor according to the ‘Doctrine of Lapse'.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. I only
B. II only
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C. Both I and II
D. Neither I and II
Ans: C
Exp : Rani Chennamma was a freedom fighter and Rani of Kittur, a princely state in Karnataka. She led the
Kittur revolt of 1824, which stands as one of the earliest woman-led anti-colonial struggles against British rule
in India.
She married Raja Mallasarja of Kittur at 15 and played a crucial role in defending her kingdom after his death.
She initiated a rebellion against the British , in 1824 after they declined to acknowledge her adopted son as
the successor according to the ‘Doctrine of Lapse'.
Although she was initially successful, the British captured Kittur Fort in their 3rd attempt in December 1824,
resulting in Rani Chennamma's imprisonment and eventual death in 1829.

134. Recently the Prime Minister unveiled the statue of Sant Ravidas in Varanasi on the occasion of his
647th birth anniversary. Consider the following statements about Sant Ravidas
I. Guru Ravidas was a mystic poet-saint of the Bhakti Movement and founded the Ravidassia religion.
II. His compositions are also included in Guru Granth Sahib, the Holy text of Sikhism.
III. He is one of the most famous personalities of the Saguna Sampradaya and was one of the prominent
leaders of the North Indian Bhakti movement.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. All of the above
Ans: B
Exp: Guru Ravidas was a mystic poet saint of the Bhakti Movement, and founded the Ravidassia religion. He
was a revered poet and a renowned philosopher.
A few of his compositions are also included in Guru Granth Sahib, the Holy text of Sikhism.
He is one of the most famous personalities of the nirguna sampradaya (sant parampara) and was one of the
prominent leaders of the North Indian Bhakti movement.
He also became a symbol of opposition to untouchability in society.

135. Recently Maharishi Valmiki International Airport was inaugurated in Ayodhya, Uttar Pradesh. Consider
the following statements regarding Maharishi Valmiki.
I. He is credited with composing the Ramayana.
II. Pargat Diwas is celebrated annually to commemorate the birth anniversary of Maharishi Valmiki.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I and II
Ans: C
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Exp: Maharishi Valmiki is referred to as Adi Kavi, which translates to the first/original poet in Sanskrit. He is
credited with composing the Ramayana, one of the earliest and most revered epic poems in the Sanskrit
literary tradition.
Valmiki's Ramayana is composed of 24,000 verses and is divided into 7 kandas (books), each telling a different
part of Lord Ram's story. Valmiki himself makes an appearance in the Bala and Uttara Kandas.
Valmiki Jayanti, also known as Pargat Diwas, is celebrated annually to commemorate the birth anniversary of
Maharishi Valmiki. It is celebrated on the full moon day of the Hindu month of Ashvin (September-October).

136. Year 2023 marked Sir Syed Ahmed Khan's 125th death anniversary. Which of the following statements
are correct about him?
I. He instituted the Scientific Society in 1863.
II. He founded Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh in 1875 and started the Aligarh
movement.
III. As part of the National Movement, he encouraged the Indian Muslims not to join the National
Movement and was one of the founders of the Two-Nation Theory.
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. All of the above
Ans: D
Exp: Sir Syed Ahmed Khan (1817-1898): Year 2023 marked Sir Syed Ahmed Khan's 125th death anniversary.
He worked as a civil servant, journalist, educationist, social reformer and historian.
Transformation in the Education sector- He instituted Scientific Society in 1863 and founded
Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh in 1875 and started the Aligarh movement.
As part of National Movement, he encouraged the Indian Muslims not to join the National
Movement and was one of the founders of the Two-Nation Theory.

137. The 525th birth anniversary of Sant Meerabai was recently celebrated in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh.
Consider the following statements about her.
I. Meerabai was a Bhakti saint, Hindu mystic poet and a devotee of Lord Shiva.
II. She was born as Princess of Mewar and her childhood name was Yashodha.
III. In 1516, Meera Bai married Rana Bhoj Raj the crown prince of Mewar who was the son of the Rana
Sanga.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. All of the above
Ans: C
Exp: Sant Meera Bai (1498-1546): The 525th birth anniversary of Sant Meerabai was recently celebrated in
Mathura, Uttar Pradesh. Meerabai was a great Bhakti saint, Hindu mystic poet and a devotee of Lord Krishna.
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She was born as Princess of Mewar and her childhood name was Yashodha.
In 1516, Meera Bai married Rana Bhoj Raj the crown prince of Mewar who was the son of the Rana Sanga.
After the death of Bhoj Raj in 1521, she left Mewar in search of lord Krishna.
Life as a saint: Moved to multiple places including Brindavan and in her later years she moved to Dwarka. She
followed Saguna bhakti and considered Lord Krishna as her husband since her childhood. She addresses Lord
Krishna as Giridhar Gopal.

138. Total Tiger reserves in the country as of September 2024 is?

A. 53
B. 54
C. 55
D. 56
Ans:-C
Exp:- At present the total number of reserves in India is 55.
Some of the recently declared tiger reserves are as follows:-
1. Srivilliputhur Megamalai- Tamil Nadu
2. Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve- Rajasthan
3. Ranipur Tiger Reserve- Uttar Pradesh
4. Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve- Madhya Pradesh
5. Dholpur – Karauli Tiger Reserve- Rajasthan

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139. The satellite named as SWOT (Surface Water and Ocean Topography) has been launched by?
A. ISRO
B. NASA
C. JAXA
D. COSMOS
Ans:-B
Exp: Recently, NASA has launched a satellite to conduct a comprehensive study of Oceans, rivers and Lakes
around the world.
● The advanced radar satellite is designed to give an unprecedented view of the life covering 70% of
the planet, shedding new light on the mechanics and consequences of climate change.

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● The satellite incorporates advanced microwave radar technology which will collect surface
measurements of oceans, lakes, reservoirs and rivers in high-definition details.

140. Recently India (through its entity Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL))has signed Agreement for
Lithium Exploration & Mining Project in?
A. Argentina
B. Brazil
C. China
D. Bolivia
Ans:-A
Exp: A joint venture company namely Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) is mandated to identify and acquire
overseas mineral assets of critical and strategic nature (lithium, cobalt) to ensure supply side assurance. The
equity participation between NALCO, HCL and MECL is in the ratio of 40:30:30.
The most important use of lithium is in rechargeable batteries for mobile phones, laptops, digital cameras and
electric vehicles (EVs). Lithium is often dubbed as “white gold” for electric vehicles. Lithium metal is made
into alloys with aluminium and magnesium, improving their strength and making them lighter.
Aluminium-lithium alloys are used in aircraft, bicycle frames and high-speed trains.
The Union Ministry of Mines, through the state-owned Khanij Bidesh India Ltd (KABIL), has entered into a
draft exploration and development agreement with Argentinean miner CAMYEN. This agreement is for
possible acquisition and development of five-odd lithium blocks. The company has also entered into a
non-disclosure agreement with Chilean miner ENAMI for “possible exploration, extraction, processing and
commercialisation” of the mineral. It has also appointed consultancy major PwC for identification of
investable projects in Australia.

141. The 100th term of this progression 5, 11, 17, 23, … is

A. 599
B. 499
C. 594
D. 604
Ans: A
Exp: According to the question the given progression is: 5, 11, 17, 23, …

Here, 11-5 = 17-11 = 6

So the progression is an arithmetic progression.

Here,
First term, a = 5
Common difference, d = 6
So, nth term = a + (n-1)d
100th term = 5 + (100-1)6 = 599

142. The missing number in the sequence 4, 18, 48, 100, 180, ?, 448 is
A. 532
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B. 630
C. 294
D. 192
Ans: C
Exp: According to the question the series is 4, 18, 48, 100, 180, ?, 448
After observing it the logic followed is:
23 - 22 = 8 - 4 = 4
33 - 32 = 27 - 9 = 18
43 - 42 = 64 - 16 = 48
53 - 52 = 125 - 25 = 100
63 - 62 = 216 - 36 = 180
73 - 72 = 343 - 49 = 294
83 - 82 = 512 - 64 = 448
Hence, '294' is the correct answer.

143. If n C 12 = n C 11 , then the value of n is

A. 1
B. 17
C. 23
D. 36
Ans: C
Exp: We know that,
nCr = n!/r!(n-r)!
Putting the value r and solving for n we get
n = 23

144. The 171st term of the arithmetic progression 12, 22, 32, … is
A. 1712
B. 1700
C. 1724
D. 1688
Ans: A
Exp: We know that,
Nth term of an AP is given by,
an=a+(n−1)d
Here, a= 12 and d= 10 and n= 171
So, 171st term = 12+ (171-1)10
=12+1700
=1712

145. If the average of p numbers is q2 and that of q numbers is p2, then the average of p+q numbers is
A. q/p
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B. p/q
C. pq
D. p-q
Ans: C
Exp: We know that average of 10 numbers will be
(Sum of those 10 numbers)/10

So, average of p numbers = sum of p numbers/p

Now according to the question the average of p numbers = q2
So, the sum of p numbers/p = q2
Therefore the sum of p numbers= pq2

Similarly sum of q numbers = qp2

Now average of p+q numbers = (sum of p numbers + sum of q numbers)/ p+q
= (pq2+qp2)/(p+q)
=pq

146. A pie chart gives the sale of tickets to various destinations by Sunrise Airlines. The destinations are
namely England, Huwaie, Manhattan, Seychelles and Saudi Arabia. Tickets to Manhattan, England, Huwaie,
Seychelles correspond to 90°,50°, 70°, 80 ° respectively. If Sunrise airlines sold total 900 tickets, then by
how much percentage the tickets sold for England and Manhattan differ from the tickets sold for Seychelles
and Huwaie?
a) 5%
b) 6.66%
c) 4.33%
d) 6%
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
We know that the sum of degrees corresponding to all the tickets sold is 360 degrees.
Given,
Manhattan --90°
England --- 50°
Huwaie---- 70°
Seychelles----80°
So, the degree corresponding to Saudi Arabia is [360 - ( 90 + 50 + 70 + 80 )) = 70°
Given total sales of ticket is 900
Tickets sold for Manhattan and England = (90 + 50) /360) x 900 = 350---(1)
Tickets sold for Seychelles and Huwaie = ( 80 +70 )/360)x900 = 375-----(2)
Difference between equation 1 and 2 is (375-350) = 25
% difference = (25 /375)x 100 = 6.66%

147. Identify the next term in the series Seres given given below:
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А,А,В,С,Е,Н,М, U,?

A. H
B. G
C. I
D. J
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
The gap between subsequent terms of the series
A-A=0
B-A=1
C-B=1
E-C=2
Н-Е=3
M-H=5
U-M=8
The difference between the two letter values is sum of previous two differences.
So, the next term will be 13th number after U will be H
Hence option a is the correct answer.

148. A, B, C, D and E are five different natural numbers all greater than 5 and each number except the
smallest number is a multiple of some number from the group. If the average of these numbers is 24, what
is the value of maximum possible number amongst them?
a) 48
b)54
c)69
d)60
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Average = 24
Sum of all five numbers = 24 x 5 = 120
For one to be maximum, we make others smallest possible.
Now all numbers are greater than 5, the least numbers possible is 6.
As other numbers have to multiple and different also then can be nothing but multiples of 6
Other numbers are 12, 18, 24
So, maximum value of highest number = 120 - (6 + 12 +18+ 24)
Maximum value = 60
Hence option d is the correct answer

149. If PORT is written as NRNY, then BASEL is written as?

a) ZDPJE
b) ZDOJF
c) XDOKF
d) XTOJF
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Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4,E-5,F-6,G-7,H-8,1-9,J-10,K-11,L- 12,M-1 13, N- 14, 0-15,P -16, Q-17,
R -18, s - 19, T - 20, U - 21, V - 22, W - 23,X - 24,Y - 25,Z- 26
let's follow the pattern for the word "PORT" and then for "BASEL":
For "PORT" to "N-R-N-Y":
P: Move 2 positions backward->N
O: Move 3 positions forward -> R
R: Move 4 positions backward -> N
-
T: Move 5 positions forward ->Y

2. For "BASEL"
B: Move 2 positions backward ->Z
A: Move 3 positions forward -> D
S: Move 4 positions backward ->O
E: Move 5 positions forward -> J
L: Move 6 positions backward > F
So, "BASEL" would be coded as "ZDOJF”

150. The cost price of 300 books is the same as the selling price of x books. If the profit is 50%, then the
value of x is:
A. 150
B. 160
C. 200
D. 180
Ans: C
Exp: Let us assume that the CP of 1 book is 1 rupee
So CP of x books = x rupee - - - - (i)
And CP of 300 books = 300 rupees
According to question CP of 300 books is the same as the selling price of x books

So, SP of x books = 300 - - - - (ii)

With (i) and (ii), Profit = 300-x
And profit percent = (300-x)x/100
50= (300-x)x/100
Solving for x we get x=200

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