NODIA APP Sample Paper 01 Page 1

Sample Paper 01
Class X 2025-26
Social Science (087)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D-Economics.
3. Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
4. Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 40 words.
5. Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60
words.
6. Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120
words.
7. There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to
each question should not exceed 100 words.
8. The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19.
In Section B -Geography (3 marks).
9. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
10. In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired candidates
in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually
Impaired candidates only.

SECTION-A
HISTORY (20 marks)

1. Match the following terms/figures in Column A with their correct description in Column B.

Column A Column B
(i) Frédéric Sorrieu (a) Civil Code of 1804 which established equality before the law.
(ii) Napoleonic Code (b) An Italian revolutionary who founded the secret society ‘Young Italy’.
(iii) Giuseppe Mazzini (c) The legislative act that resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom
of Great Britain’.
(iv) Act of Union (d) A French artist who visualised a world of ‘democratic and social
(1707) Republics’.
Options:
(A) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
(B) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
(C) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(D) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

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Page 2 Sample Paper 01 CBSE Social Science Class 10

2. In Frédéric Sorrieu’s print (Fig. 1), what lie shattered on the earth in the foreground?

(a) The crowns of European monarchs

(b) The remains of the symbols of absolutist institutions
(c) The charters of the rights of man
(d) The symbols of the Church

3. In France, the popular Christian name chosen to represent the female allegory of the nation was:
(a) Germania (b) La Talia
(c) Marianne (d) Britannia

4. The liberal revolution in Germany in 1848 was suppressed by the combined forces of the monarchy and the
military, who were supported by which group of large landowners in Prussia?
(a) The Carbonari (b) The Jacobins
(c) The Junkers (d) The Slavs

5. A. “The Habsburg Empire that ruled over Austria-Hungary was a patchwork of many different regions and
peoples.” Explain the statement with any two examples.


o
B. ‘The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe.’ Explain the statement with any two
reasons.

6. A. ‘A variety of cultural processes played an important role in developing a sense of nationalism in Europe’.
Support the statement with suitable examples.


o
B. The ‘Greek war of independence’ became a key event that mobilized nationalist feelings across Europe.’
Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

7. A. ‘In Britain, the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or revolution but
was the result of a long-drawn-out process.’ Analyze this statement with suitable reasons.


O
B. ‘The Treaty of Vienna was drawn up in 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had
come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars.’ Highlight the significant provisions of this treaty.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 01 Page 3

8. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
1848: The Revolution of the Liberals
Parallel to the revolts of the poor and unemployed in 1848, a revolution led by the educated middle classes
was underway. In German regions, numerous political associations of middle-class professionals, businessmen,
and prosperous artisans came together in Frankfurt to vote for an all-German National Assembly. On 18
May 1848, 831 elected representatives marched to take their places in the Frankfurt parliament, convened
in the Church of St Paul. They drafted a constitution for a German nation to be headed by a monarch
subject to a parliament. When the deputies offered the crown on these terms to Friedrich Wilhelm IV, King
of Prussia, he rejected it and joined other monarchs to oppose the elected assembly. While the opposition
from the aristocracy and military grew stronger, the parliament’s social basis eroded. The parliament was
dominated by the middle classes who resisted the demands of workers and artisans, and consequently lost
their support . The issue of extending political rights to women was also controversial; though they had
participated actively, they were denied suffrage rights and were admitted only as observers in the visitors’
gallery. In the end, troops were called in and the assembly was forced to disband.
1. Where was the Frankfurt parliament convened on 18 May 1848?
2. Why did the social basis of the Frankfurt parliament erode?
3. What was the role of women in this liberal movement, and how were they treated by the assembly?

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTIO (2 marks)

9. Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their
correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) Indian National Congress session at this place in 1920.
(B) The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt law.

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Page 4 Sample Paper 01 CBSE Social Science Class 10

SECTION-B
GEOGRAPHY (20 marks)

10. Which of the following is a key example of a cooperative sector industry, where it is owned and operated by
the producers or suppliers of raw materials and has been particularly successful in states like Maharashtra?
(a) The Iron and Steel Industry (b) The Sugar Industry
(c) The IT Industry (d) The Automobile Industry

11. Identify the appropriate options to fill in the empty boxes regarding the conservation status of different
species.

Species Conservation Category

? Extinct Species
Nicobar pigeon ?
(a) Indian rhino, Vulnerable Species
(b) Asiatic cheetah, Endemic Species
(c) Black buck, Rare Species
(d) Asiatic elephant, Endangered Species

12. The construction of a large dam on a river leads to excessive sedimentation in the reservoir. This prevents
the natural flow of silt downstream and also causes the stream beds below the dam to become rockier.
What is the most likely direct impact of this on the river’s ecosystem?
(a) It improves the quality of water downstream for human consumption.
(b) It creates better habitats for the river’s aquatic life and helps in breeding.
(c) It increases the natural fertility of the floodplains downstream.
(d) It results in poorer habitats for aquatic life and hinders their migration for spawning.

13. Based on your understanding of fibre crops, which of the following is known as the ‘golden fibre’ and requires
high temperature and fertile, well-drained soils in the flood plains for its growth?
(a) Cotton (b) Hemp
(c) Silk (d) Jute

14. According to the land use data of India, what percentage of the total land area is comprised of plains, which
provide facilities for agriculture and industry?
(a) 27 per cent (b) 30 per cent
(c) 43 per cent (d) 54 per cent

15. Which of the following statements best evaluates why community participation is crucial for the conservation
of forests and wildlife in India?
(a) The government has officially transferred ownership of all forests to local villagers.
(b) Local communities are the only ones with the financial resources needed for conservation projects.
(c) Conservation is more effective and sustainable when it aligns with the livelihood and traditions of local
people who live in and around the forests.
(d) Community participation is only required for planting new trees, not for protecting existing wildlife.
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16. Black soil is well known for its capacity to hold moisture, but it is also difficult to work on. Explain two
challenges farmers face while cultivating this soil.

17. A. “Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other but are interdependent.” Justify this statement
by evaluating five ways in which they support each other.


o
B. “Community participation is crucial for successful conservation efforts.” Justify this statement by
evaluating five examples of community-led conservation movements or practices in India.

18. Read the given text and answer the following questions:
We all appreciate the strong dependence of industry and agriculture upon mineral deposits. However,
the total volume of workable mineral deposits is an insignificant fraction—merely one per cent—of the
earth’s crust. We are rapidly consuming mineral resources that required millions of years to be created and
concentrated. The geological processes of mineral formation are so slow that the rates of replenishment are
infinitely small in comparison to the present rates of consumption. Mineral resources are, therefore, finite
and non-renewable. Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing costs as mineral extraction comes from
greater depths along with a decrease in quality. In this context, a concerted effort has to be made in order
to use our mineral resources in a planned and sustainable manner. This involves using improved technologies
to allow the use of low-grade ores at low costs, recycling of metals, using scrap metals, and finding other
substitutes.
1. Why are mineral resources considered finite and non-renewable?
2. What is a major consequence of the continued extraction of ores?
3. “A concerted effort has to be made in order to use our mineral resources in a planned and sustainable
manner.” Analyse the importance of this statement.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTIO (3 marks)

19. On an outline political map of India, locate and label the following with suitable symbols
I. (p) A state where over-irrigation is the primary cause of land degradation.


o
(q) A state on the east coast where Red and Yellow soils are predominantly found.
II. Any two of the following:
(i) Mangaluru Seaport
(ii) Indira Gandhi International Airport
(iii) Kakrapara Nuclear Plant

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SECTION-C
POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)

20. Which of the following statement(s) are true regarding the different forms of power-sharing?
I. Sharing power among the legislature, executive, and judiciary is called horizontal distribution.
II. The ‘community government’ in Belgium is an example of power-sharing among different social groups.
III. Sharing power among different levels of government, like Centre and State, is called a unitary system.
IV. A coalition government is an example of power-sharing among different political parties.
Choose the correct option:
(a) I and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) All of the above

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21. The cartoon shows a powerful political leader controlling his party members like puppets. Which major
challenge to political parties does this best represent?

(a) The challenge of dynastic succession.

(b) A lack of meaningful choice for the voters.
(c) A lack of internal democracy and the concentration of power in one leader.
(d) The growing role of muscle power in elections.

22. Consider the following case and choose the correct option-
The Parliament of India wants to pass a new law regarding ‘marriage and divorce’, a subject on which the
State Legislature of Kerala also wishes to legislate.
According to the Indian Constitution, which government is empowered to make laws on this subject?
(a) Only the Parliament of India.
(b) Only the State Legislature of Kerala.
(c) Both the Parliament and the State Legislature can make laws on this subject.
(d) Neither, as this power is reserved for the local governments.

23. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most
appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Democracies do not appear to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities.
Reason (R): A small number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes in
democratic countries.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

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Page 8 Sample Paper 01 CBSE Social Science Class 10

24. Highlight any two ways in which democracy is an accountable form of government.

25. ‘For a long time, the growth of regional parties has made the Parliament of India politically more and more
diverse.’ Highlight any two consequences of this trend for national parties.

26. ‘A system of checks and balances ensures that none of the organs of government can exercise unlimited
power.’ Support this statement with suitable arguments.

27. A. ‘Democracy accommodates social diversity in a way that non-democratic regimes do not.’ Explain the
statement with five points.


o
B. ‘The 1992 Constitutional Amendment was a major step towards making the third-tier of democracy
more powerful and effective.’ Analyse the statement.

28. Read the given text and answer the following questions.
Despite being half the population, the role of women in public life, especially politics, is minimal in most
societies. In India, the proportion of women in the legislature has been very low. Their share in the Lok
Sabha touched 14.36% for the first time in 2019, while in state assemblies, it is less than 5%. This has led
many feminist movements and activists to the conclusion that unless women control power, their problems
will not get adequate attention. To address this, India has reserved one-third of seats in local government
bodies—panchayats and municipalities—for women. The Women’s Reservation Act, 2023, aims to extend
this to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
1. What has been the conclusion of many feminist movements regarding women’s problems?
2. What step has been taken in India at the local level to ensure women’s participation in governance?
3. Explain why political representation is considered crucial for addressing the issues of women’s well-
being.

SECTION-D
ECONOMICS (20 marks)

29. Which of the following activities falls under the secondary sector?
(a) Cultivating wheat on a farm.
(b) Transporting goods via trains.
(c) Providing banking services.
(d) Manufacturing bricks from earth.

30. What can be inferred about the primary sector’s role in the Indian economy, despite its declining share in
GDP?
(a) It is the most profitable sector.
(b) It requires the most skilled labor.
(c) It continues to be the largest employer.
(d) It is no longer important for the economy.

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31. Which of the following examples best demonstrates a non-material developmental goal?
(a) A farmer buying a new tractor.
(b) A landless laborer getting more days of work.
(c) A girl from a rich family wanting as much freedom as her brother.
(d) An urban youth getting a high-paying job.

32. Around which year did the Indian government start removing barriers to foreign trade and investment,
marking a major policy shift?
(a) 1947 (b) 1965
(c) 1991 (d) 2001

33. Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves. Which of the following
justifications best explains this practice?
(a) To discourage people from withdrawing money frequently.
(b) To reduce the bank’s security costs.
(c) Because on any given day, only some of its many depositors come to withdraw cash.
(d) Because the RBI does not allow banks to hold large amounts of cash.

34. Recognize and choose the option that correctly matches the term with its description.

Column A (Term) Column B (Description)

1. Secondary Sector i. An asset that a borrower owns and uses as a guarantee.
2. Right to Choose ii. Manufacturing activities.
3. Foreign Investment iii. Not being forced to buy an unwanted product.
4. Terms of Credit iv. Investment made by an MNC.
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (b) 1-ii, 3-iii, 3-iv, 4-i
(c) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii (d) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i

35. Evaluate the utility and limitations of using per capita income as the main criterion for measuring a
country’s development.

36. ‘The consumer movement in India arose out of the dissatisfaction of consumers.’ Justify this statement.

37. Highlight the different developmental goals of a landless rural laborer, a prosperous farmer, and a girl from
a rich urban family.

38. A. Self-Help Groups\ (SHGs) are seen as a solution to the credit problems of the rural poor. On the basis
of this, analyze the role and functioning of SHGs in the rural economy.


o
B. ‘Liberalisation and pressure from international organizations have been key factors in enabling
globalisation.’ Support this statement with arguments.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 02 Page 1

Sample Paper 02
Class X 2025-26
Social Science (087)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D-Economics.
3. Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
4. Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 40 words.
5. Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60
words.
6. Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120
words.
7. There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to
each question should not exceed 100 words.
8. The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19.
In Section B -Geography (3 marks).
9. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
10. In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired candidates
in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually
Impaired candidates only.

SECTION-A
HISTORY (20 marks)

1. Match the following figures/events in Column A with their correct description in Column B.

Column A Column B
(i) Alluri Sitaram Raju (a) Signed in September 1932, it gave Depressed Classes reserved seats
in legislative councils.
(ii) Lahore Congress (1929) (b) Formed in Bombay in March 1919 to defend the temporal powers of
the Khalifa.
(iii) Khilafat Committee (c) The session where the demand for ‘Purna Swaraj’ or full
independence was formalised.
(iv) Poona Pact (d) Led the militant guerrilla movement in the Gudem Hills of Andhra
Pradesh.
Options:
(A) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(B) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(D) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

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Page 2 Sample Paper 02 CBSE Social Science Class 10

2. The event depicted in this image was a powerful symbol of resistance against British rule. What major
movement did this event mark the beginning of?

(a) The Non-Cooperation Movement (b) The Khilafat Movement

(c) The Civil Disobedience Movement (d) The Quit India Movement

3. What was the most powerful weapon used by the Spanish conquerors in the colonization of America?
(a) Superior military firepower and cannons
(b) The use of cavalry in battles
(c) Germs, such as those of smallpox, against which the natives had no immunity
(d) Diplomatic treaties and alliances with native leaders

4. In the mid-nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states. Which of these was the only one ruled
by an Italian princely house?
(a) Lombardy-Venetia
(b) The Papal States
(c) The Kingdom of the Two Sicilies
(d) Sardinia-Piedmont

5. A. ‘The Rowlatt Act had been hurriedly passed through the Imperial Legislative Council.’ Explain the
statement with any two examples of its provisions.


o
B. ‘Different social groups conceived of the idea of Non-Cooperation in their own ways.’ Explain the
statement with two examples.

6. A. ‘The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in January 1921 with the participation of various
social groups’. Support the statement with suitable examples.


o
B. The Simon Commission ‘was greeted with the slogan ‘Go back Simon’ upon its arrival in India.’ Justify
the statement with suitable arguments.

7. A. ‘The limits of the Civil Disobedience Movement were seen in the lukewarm response of some social
groups.’ Analyze this statement with suitable reasons.


o
B. ‘A variety of cultural processes played an important role in developing a sense of nationalism in India.’
Highlight the significant contributions of these processes.
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8. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
The Jallianwala Bagh Incident
On 13 April, the infamous Jallianwala Bagh incident took place. On that day a large, peaceful crowd
gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwala Bagh. Some came to protest against the government’s new
repressive measures, specifically the Rowlatt Act, while others had come to attend the annual Baisakhi fair.
Being from outside the city, many villagers were unaware of the martial law that had been imposed by the
British administration. General Dyer entered the area, blocked the only exit point, and commanded his
troops to open fire on the unarmed crowd, killing hundreds of innocent people. His object, as he declared
later, was not simply to disperse the crowd but to ‘produce a moral effect’. He wanted to create in the minds
of the satyagrahis a feeling of terror and awe, thereby crushing the nationalist movement. The news of the
Jallianwala Bagh massacre spread like wildfire, leading to strikes, clashes with the police, and attacks on
government buildings in many north Indian towns. Seeing the violence spread, Mahatma Gandhi called off
the Rowlatt satyaha .
1. On which date did the Jallianwala Bagh incident take place, and why had the crowd gathered there?
2. Who was the British officer responsible for the massacre, and what was his stated objective?
3. What was the immediate aftermath of the Jallianwala Bagh incident across north India, and how did
Mahatma Gandhi respond?

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTIO (2 MARKS)

9. Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The place where Congress Session was held in September 1920.
B. A place associated with Peasant Satyagraha.

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Page 4 Sample Paper 02 CBSE Social Science Class 10

SECTION-B
GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)

10. Which of the following energy sources refers to the heat and electricity produced by using the heat from the
interior of the Earth?.
(a) Solar Energy
(b) Tidal Energy
(c) Geothermal Energy
(d) Biogas Energy

11. Identify the appropriate options to fill in the empty boxes regarding major sea ports and their key features.

Sea Port Key Feature

? A tidal port developed after Independence to ease trade on Mumbai port.
Vishakhapatnam ?
(a) Mumbai, The biggest port in India
(b) Mormugao, Premier iron ore exporting port
(c) Deendayal (Kandla), The deepest landlocked and well-protected port
(d) Chennai, One of the oldest artificial ports

12. A country possesses vast mineral reserves, but its development is hindered because it lacks the appropriate
technology to extract these minerals and does not have the institutional framework, such as stable governance
and markets, to manage them.
What can be inferred from this situation?
(a) The mere availability of resources is sufficient to guarantee economic development.
(b) Development is hindered when the availability of resources is not accompanied by technology and
institutional changes.
(c) Foreign invasion is the only way for a resource-rich country to develop.
(d) The quality of human resources has no impact on a country’s development.

13. Based on your understanding of conservation movements, the Joint Forest Management (JFM) programme
is a good example of involving which of the following groups in the management and restoration of degraded
forests?
(a) Private corporations
(b) Foreign investors
(c) Government officials only
(d) Local communities

14. Which of the following is the second most important metallurgical industry in India, known for producing
a light, corrosion-resistant, and malleable metal from bauxite ore?
(a) Iron and Steel Smelting
(b) Copper Smelting
(c) Aluminium Smelting
(d) Zinc Smelting


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15. Which of the following statements best evaluates the primary purpose of the ‘Bhoodan-Gramdan’ movement
initiated by Vinoba Bhave?
(a) To encourage farmers to adopt modern agricultural technology.
(b) To demand that the government nationalize all agricultural land.
(c) To persuade wealthy landowners to voluntarily donate a portion of their land to landless people.
(d) To promote the consolidation of land holdings into large cooperative farms.

16. The production and consumption of steel are often regarded as the index of a country’s development. Using
your understanding of its uses, explain two reasons for this.

17. A. “Resource planning is a complex process.” Justify this statement by evaluating the three main stages
involved in resource planning in India.


o
B. “Railways are the principal mode of transportation in India, but their network is unevenly distributed.”
Justify this statement by evaluating five ways in which physiographic factors have influenced the
development of the railway network.

18. Read the given text and answer the following questions:
Given the rising resistance against multi-purpose dams, rainwater harvesting is being seen as a viable
alternative, both socio-economically and environmentally. In ancient India, there existed an extraordinary
tradition of water-harvesting systems, showing an in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types. In
the hill and mountainous regions of the Western Himalayas, people built diversion channels like the ‘guls’ or
‘kuls’ for agriculture. In the arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan, people traditionally had underground
tanks or ‘tankas’ for storing drinking water, which were built inside the main house or the courtyard. The
tankas were connected to the sloping roofs of the houses through a pipe. The rainwater falling on the
rooftops would travel down the pipe and be stored. This rainwater, or ‘palar pani’ as it is commonly known,
is considered the purest form of natural water. Many houses constructed underground rooms adjoining the
tanka to beat the summer heat, as it would keep the room cool.
1. What are the diversion channels in the Western Himalayas called?
2. What is the local name for rainwater in parts of Rajasthan?
3. “Rainwater harvesting system was a viable alternative to multi-purpose projects.” Analyse this statement
in the context of arid regions like Rajasthan.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTIO (3 MARKS)

19. On the same outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable symbols:
I. (p) A state where overgrazing is a major cause of land degradation.


o
(q) A state which is rich in minerals and coal deposits.
II. Any two of the following:
(i) A major port in Andhra Pradesh
(ii) A Nuclear Power Plant
(iii) Tehri Dam

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SECTION-C
POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)

20. Which of the following statement(s) are true regarding the concept of communalism?
I. It is based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social community.
II. In politics, it can take the form of majoritarian dominance.
III. It can lead to the demand for a separate political unit for a minority community.
IV. A secular state is one that gives special status to one religion.
Choose the correct option:
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) All of the above

21. This cartoon illustrates the multiple challenges faced by poor children in many democracies. What key
outcome of democracy has it failed to address, according to the cartoon?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 02 Page 7

(a) Political equality for all citizens. (b) Dignity of the individual.
(c) Reduction of inequality and poverty. (d) Accommodation of social diversity.

22. Consider the following case and choose the correct option-
In a country, the political landscape is dominated by two major parties. While several other parties exist,
contest elections, and may even win a few seats, only these two have a serious chance of winning a majority
to form the government.
What kind of party system is described here?
(a) A multi-party system (b) A one-party system
(c) A two-party system (d) A coalition system

23. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most
appropriate option.
Assertion (A) : The Belgian leaders amended their constitution four times between 1970 and 1993.
Reason (R) : This was done to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together
peacefully within the same country.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

24. Highlight any two key features of the ‘community government’ in Belgium.

25. ‘Democracy is superior to other forms of government because it promotes the dignity and freedom of the
individual.’ Highlight any two examples of how democracy has strengthened the dignity of disadvantaged
groups in India.

26. ‘Lack of internal democracy within parties is a major challenge to their functioning.’ Support this statement
with suitable arguments.

27. A. ‘The political expression of caste differences in India has both positive and negative aspects.’ Explain
the statement.


o
B. ‘The creation of linguistic states and the language policy adopted by India have strengthened the spirit
of federalism.’ Analyse the statement.
Page 8 Sample Paper 02 CBSE Social Science Class 10

28. Read the given text and answer the following questions.
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community, who were
in the majority, sought to secure dominance over the government. In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise
Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil. The governments followed preferential policies
that favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs. A new constitution also
stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism. These measures, coming one after the other,
gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils, leading to a strained relationship
between the two communities.
1. What major step was taken in 1956 to establish Sinhala supremacy?
2. Mention one preferential policy adopted by the Sri Lankan government.
3. Explain the impact of these majoritarian measures on the Sri Lankan Tamils.

SECTION-D
ECONOMICS (20 marks)

29. Which of the following is an example of a primary sector activity?

(a) Weaving cloth from cotton yarn. (b) Working in a call centre.
(c) Dairy farming to produce milk. (d) Constructing a building with bricks.

30. What can be inferred about the impact of globalisation on small, domestic producers? Choose the correct
option as the answer.
(a) It has been uniformly beneficial as they get access to new technology.
(b) It has provided them with an opportunity to become MNCs themselves.
(c) It has posed major challenges as they struggle to compete with cheaper imported goods.
(d) It has not affected them as they cater only to local markets.

31. Which of the following examples best demonstrates a public sector enterprise?
(a) A shoe factory owned by a private individual. (b) A large IT company like Infosys.
(c) A local grocery shop. (d) The Indian Railways.

32. The Human Development Report, which compares countries based on education, health, and income, is
published by:
(a) The World Bank
(b) The World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(c) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(d) The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

33. When a government removes barriers to foreign trade and investment, what is the most likely immediate
effect on domestic markets?
(a) The quality of domestic goods automatically improves.
(b) Prices of all goods in the market increase.
(c) Competition among producers in the domestic market increases.
(d) Domestic producers face less competition than before.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 02 Page 9

34. Recognize and choose the option that correctly matches the term with its description.

Column A (Term) Column B (Description)

1. Final Good i. An asset used as a guarantee for a loan.
2. Collateral ii. A key health indicator for children under one year.
3. SEZ iii. A good that reaches the final consumer.
4. IMR iv. Industrial zones set up to attract foreign investment.
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (b) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
(c) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii (d) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i

35. Evaluate the utility of using money as a medium of exchange compared to the barter system.

36. ‘The most common route for MNC investments is to buy up local companies.’ Justify this statement.

37. Highlight three significant benefits that workers in the organised sector enjoy.

38. A. Public facilities are essential for a country’s development. On the basis of this statement, analyze why
a state like Kerala, with a lower per capita income, has a better human development ranking than a
high-income state like Haryana.


o
B. ‘While COPRA has empowered consumers, the consumer redressal process is becoming cumbersome,
expensive, and time-consuming.’ Support this statement with arguments.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 1

Sample Paper 03
Class X 2025-26
Social Science (087)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D-Economics.
3. Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
4. Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 40 words.
5. Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60
words.
6. Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120
words.
7. There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to
each question should not exceed 100 words.
8. The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19.
In Section B -Geography (3 marks).
9. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
10. In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired candidates
in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually
Impaired candidates only.

SECTION-A
HISTORY (20 marks)

1. Match the following and choose the correct option:

Column I Column II
A. Frederic Sorrieu 1. Symbolizes the Torch of Enlightenment
B. Statue of Liberty 2. Represents the shattered remains of absolutist institutions
C. Foreground of the image 3. Envisions a world of democratic and social republics
D. Sorrieu’s utopian vision 4. A French artist known for his prints on nationalism
Options:
(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(d) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

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Page 2 Sample Paper 03 CBSE Social Science Class 10

2. Identify the nationalist leader in the image who played a significant role in the Non-Cooperation Movement.

(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (b) Lala Lajpat Rai

(c) Bipin Chandra Pal (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

3. Which of the following was a primary reason for the formation of the Swaraj Party by C.R. Das and Motilal
Nehru?
(a) To demand ‘Purna Swaraj’ or complete independence for Indians.
(b) To argue for a return to council politics after the Non-Cooperation Movement was called off.
(c) To lead the peasant movement in Awadh.
(d) To protest against the arrival of the Simon Commission.

4. The novelist Louise-Sebastien Mercier proclaimed, “Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! Tremble before
the virtual writer!” Who are the ‘tyrants’ being referred to in this context?
(a) The newly educated middle class who challenged social norms.
(b) Corrupt publishers and booksellers who exploited writers.
(c) The common people who were gaining literacy and political awareness.
(d) Despotic rulers and authoritarian institutions like the monarchy and the Church, whose power was
threatened by print.

5. A. Explain the role of Baba Ramchandra in the peasant movement of Awadh.

O
B. Why was the Khilafat issue taken up by Mahatma Gandhi in the Non-Cooperation Movement?

6. A. Why did the Non-Cooperation Movement gradually slow down in the cities? Give three reasons.


O
B. How did plantation workers in Assam have their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion
of Swaraj? Explain with three points.

7. A. Explain the reasons for the limited participation of Dalits and Muslim political organisations in the
Civil Disobedience Movement.


O
NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 3

B. “The sense of collective belonging came partly through the experience of united struggles, but also
through a variety of cultural processes.” Explain with five examples from the Indian national movement.

8. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
Rebellion in the Countryside
The Non-Cooperation Movement spread from the cities to the countryside, where it drew into its fold the
struggles of peasants and tribals. In Awadh, peasants were led by Baba Ramchandra, a sanyasi who had
been an indentured labourer. The movement here was against talukdars and landlords who demanded
high rents and forced peasants to perform begar. The peasant movement demanded reduction of revenue,
abolition of begar, and social boycott of oppressive landlords. The name of Mahatma Gandhi was invoked to
sanction all actions. However, the movement developed in forms that the Congress leadership was unhappy
with; bazaars were looted and grain hoards were taken over. In the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh, a
militant guerrilla movement spread in the early 1920s. The colonial government had closed large forest areas,
preventing people from grazing their cattle or collecting fuelwood and fruits. The hill people revolted under
Alluri Sitaram Raju, who, inspired by Gandhiji, persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking, but
also asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of force, not non-violence .
1. Who led the peasant movement in Awadh, and what were their primary demands?
2. Who was the leader of the Gudem Hills rebellion, and how was his vision of swaraj different from that
of Mahatma Gandhi?
3. Compare the methods of struggle of the peasants in Awadh with those of the rebels in the Gudem Hills.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTIO (2 MARKS)

9. Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their
correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) Indian National Congress Session was held at this place in 1927.
(B) The place where the movement of Indigo Planters started.
Page 4 Sample Paper 03 CBSE Social Science Class 10

SECTION-B
GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)

10. Which of the following is a major socio-economic disadvantage of constructing large multi-purpose river
valley projects?
(a) They generate clean, hydro-electric power.
(b) They lead to the large-scale displacement of local communities.
(c) They help in controlling floods in the river basin.
(d) They provide water for irrigating large areas of land.

11. Identify the appropriate options to fill in the empty boxes regarding different soil types and their
characteristics.

Soil Type Key Characteristic

? Known for its capacity to hold moisture; ideal for growing cotton.
Laterite Soil ?
(a) Red Soil, Rich in kankar nodules
(b) Black Soil, Formed as a result of intense leaching due to heavy rain
(c) Alluvial Soil, Found in arid regions
(d) Arid Soil, Made of lava flows

12. The Government of India has introduced schemes like the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) and has promoted the
establishment of Grameen banks and cooperative societies to provide loans to farmers at lower interest rates.
What major problem in Indian agriculture is this policy aimed at solving?
(a) The fragmentation of land holdings due to the right of inheritance.
(b) The heavy dependence of farmers on the monsoon for irrigation.
(c) The problem of farmer indebtedness and their dependence on informal credit sources like moneylenders.
(d) The low productivity of land due to a lack of modern inputs.

13. Based on your understanding of different industries, which of the following is known for being its own largest
consumer, where basic chemicals like sulphuric acid are used to manufacture other chemicals like fertilisers
and plastics?
(a) The Automobile Industry
(b) The Information Technology Industry
(c) The Chemical Industry
(d) The Textile Industry

14. What is the name for the soil type that is ideal for growing cotton, is made up of fine clayey material with
a high capacity to hold moisture, and is also known as ‘Regur soil’ ?
(a) Alluvial Soil
(b) Laterite Soil
(c) Black Soil
(d) Arid Soil

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 5

15. Which of the following statements best evaluates the primary purpose of the ‘Joint Forest Management’
(JFM) programme?
(a) To completely transfer the ownership of forests from the government to local communities.
(b) To create a partnership between local communities and the Forest Department to manage and restore
degraded forests.
(c) To clear degraded forest lands for industrial use.
(d) To declare all degraded forests as wildlife sanctuaries.

16. Coal is a bulky, weight-losing raw material. Using your understanding of industrial location, explain two
reasons why heavy industries are located near coalfields.

17. A. A farmer in Punjab has been noticing a decline in his farm’s productivity over the years, with the soil
becoming increasingly saline. He is advised that his farming practices are the primary cause of this land
degradation. Based on this, analyze the most likely reason for the situation.


o
B. “India has witnessed a significant shift from subsistence to commercial farming.” Justify this statement
by evaluating five key characteristics of commercial farming.

18. Read the given text and answer the following questions:
The cotton textile industry occupies a unique position in the Indian economy. In ancient India, cotton
textiles were produced with hand spinning and handloom weaving techniques. The first successful modern
textile mill was established in Mumbai in 1854. In the early years, the industry was concentrated in the
cotton-growing belt of Maharashtra and Gujarat. The availability of raw cotton, a ready market, good
transport including accessible port facilities, abundant labour, and a moist climate contributed towards its
localisation in this region. This industry has close links with agriculture and provides a living to farmers,
cotton boll pluckers, and workers engaged in ginning, spinning, and weaving. It is also the only industry
in the country which is self-reliant and complete in the value chain, i.e., from raw material to the highest
value-added products. By creating demand, it also supports other industries such as chemicals and dyes,
packaging materials, and engineering works.
1. Where and when was the first successful textile mill established in India?
2. Mention any two factors that contributed to the initial concentration of the cotton textile industry in
Maharashtra and Gujarat.
3. “The textile industry is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and complete in the value
chain.” Analyse this statement.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTIO (3 MARKS)

19. On an outline political map of India, locate and label the following with suitable symbols:
I. (p) A major rice-producing state in North India.


o
(q) The Sardar Sarovar Dam.
II. Any two of the following:
(i) Singrauli Thermal Power Plant
(ii) A Major Seaport in Kerala
(iii) An International Airport in Punjab

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Page 6 Sample Paper 03 CBSE Social Science Class 10

SECTION-C
POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)

20. Which of the following statement(s) are true regarding the distribution of legislative powers in India?
I. Subjects like Defence and Banking are on the Union List.
II. Subjects like Police and Agriculture are on the State List.
III. Subjects like Education and Forests are on the Concurrent List.
IV. ‘Residuary’ subjects like cyber law fall under the jurisdiction of the State Governments.
Choose the correct option:
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) All of the above

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 7

21. The bilingual street sign shown in the image is a reflection of the Belgian government’s approach to its
linguistic diversity. What is this approach called?

(a) Majoritarianism (b) Accommodation

(c) Unitary government (d) Secularism

22. Consider the following case and choose the correct option-
A country is ruled by a government that was not elected by the people. The government does not allow for
open public debate, and citizens have no right to question its decisions.
Which expected outcome of democracy is clearly missing in this country?
(a) Economic development
(b) A government that is accountable and legitimate
(c) A society free of all conflicts
(d) Quick and efficient decision-making

23. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most
appropriate option.
Assertion (A): In many political parties, top positions are often controlled by members of one family.
Reason (R): This practice of dynastic succession is bad for democracy as people without adequate experience
can come to occupy positions of power.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

24. Highlight the dual objectives of a federal system.

25. ‘The rise of coalition governments at the Centre after 1990 has led to a new culture of power-sharing.’
Highlight any two ways this trend has strengthened federalism in practice.

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Page 8 Sample Paper 03 CBSE Social Science Class 10

26. ‘Democracy is better than other forms of government because it enhances the dignity of the individual.’
Support this statement with suitable arguments.

27. A. ‘Several efforts and suggestions have been made to reform political parties in India.’ Explain any five
such measures.


o
B. ‘The story of Belgium is a stark contrast to the story of Sri Lanka in how they have dealt with the
question of power-sharing.’ Analyse the statement.

28. Read the given text and answer the following questions.
The relationship between caste and politics in India is not a one-way street. It is not just that politics
gets caste-ridden; the caste system itself gets politicised. This takes several forms. For instance, each caste
group tries to become bigger by incorporating within it neighbouring castes or sub-castes which were earlier
excluded. Various caste groups are required to enter into a coalition with other castes or communities and
thus enter into a dialogue and negotiation. New kinds of caste groups have also come up in the political
arena like ‘backward’ and ‘forward’ caste groups. This has helped people from Dalit and OBC castes to gain
better access to decision-making.
1. What is meant by the statement that “caste gets politicised”?
2. How do caste groups try to become bigger in the political arena?
3. Explain how the politicisation of caste has helped people from Dalit and OBC castes.

SECTION-D
ECONOMICS (20 marks)

29. The sector of the economy that generates services like transport, banking and communication is known as
the:
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Organized Sector

30. What can be inferred about the fate of small producers who cannot compete with cheaper imports due to
globalisation?
(a) They have all successfully collaborated with MNCs.
(b) The government provides them with large subsidies to continue production.
(c) Many of their units have had to shut down, rendering workers jobless.
(d) They have shifted to producing high-end luxury goods.

31. Which of the following examples best demonstrates the use of collateral in a loan agreement?
(a) A farmer promises to sell his crop to the trader who gave him a loan.
(b) A person submits their salary records to the bank to get a loan.
(c) A person submits the papers of their new house to the bank for a housing loan.
(d) A worker promises to work for the employer in return for a loan.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 03 Page 9

32. According to recent evidence, which renewable resource is under a serious threat of overuse in many parts
of India?
(a) Solar Energy (b) Wind Energy
(c) Forests (d) Groundwater

33. An engineering graduate files an application under the RTI Act to know the reason for a delay in her
appointment. Which of the following justifies her action?
(a) It was her right to get the job immediately after the interview.
(b) It was her right to know the result in a reasonable time so she could plan her future.
(c) It was her right to question the qualifications of other candidates.
(d) It was her right to demand a higher salary.

34. Recognize and choose the option that correctly matches the term with its description.

Column A (Term) Column B (Description)

1. Public Sector i. A company that owns production in more than one nation.
2. Per Capita Income ii. Requires a double coincidence of wants.
3. MNC iii. The main criterion used by the World Bank to compare countries.
4. Barter System iv. Its motive is public welfare, not just profit.
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (b) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
(c) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii (d) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i

35. Evaluate the utility of the primary sector for an economy.

36. ‘Lenders require collateral as a crucial form of security against loans.’ Justify this statement.

37. Highlight three significant non-material goals that people seek for development, besides income.

38. A. The formal and informal sectors of credit have vastly different features and impacts. On the basis of
this, analyze the key differences between the formal and informal credit sectors in India.


o
B. ‘Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are a vital tool for improving the financial condition of the rural poor.’
Support this statement with arguments explaining how SHGs function and benefit their members.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 1

Sample Paper 04
Class X 2025-26
Social Science (087)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D-Economics.
3. Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
4. Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 40 words.
5. Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60
words.
6. Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120
words.
7. There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to
each question should not exceed 100 words.
8. The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19.
In Section B -Geography (3 marks).
9. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
10. In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired candidates
in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually
Impaired candidates only.

SECTION-A
HISTORY (20 marks)

1. Match the following and choose the correct option:

Column I (Region) Column II (Political Status)

A. Sardinia-Piedmont 1. The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871
B. The Balkans 2. Italian provinces under the Austrian Habsburgs.
C. Ireland 3. Ruled by an Italian princely house before unification.
D. Lombardy-Venetia 4. Forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom in 1801.
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

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Page 2 Sample Paper 04 CBSE Social Science Class 10

2. The image below shows the Frankfurt Parliament convened in 1848. What was the status of women in this
assembly?.

(a) They were granted full suffrage rights.

(b) They were elected as representatives to the assembly.
(c) They were admitted only as observers in the visitors’ gallery.
(d) They were not allowed to enter the church during the proceedings.

3. Which of the following secret societies was founded by Giuseppe Mazzini in Marseilles?
(a) The Carbonari
(b) Young Europe
(c) Young Italy
(d) The Jacobin Club

4. A new ‘British nation’ was forged through the propagation of a dominant English culture. Which of the
following was NOT one of the new symbols of Britain actively promoted?
(a) The British flag (Union Jack)
(b) The national anthem (God Save Our Noble King)
(c) The Gaelic language
(d) The English language

5. A. Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’.”
Explain the statement with any two reasons.


o
B. ‘The German confederation of 39 states created barriers to economic exchange.’

6. A. ‘The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial one within the liberal movement.’
Support this statement with examples from the Frankfurt Parliament.


o
B. The 1848 revolutions saw the demands for constitutionalism combined with national unification.
Justify this with the example of the German regions.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 3

7. A. ‘The process of German unification was carried out with the help of the Prussian army and bureaucracy
under the leadership of Otto von Bismarck.’ Analyze this statement.


o
B. ‘Nationalism, aligned with imperialism, led Europe to disaster in 1914.’ Explain this statement with
special reference to the Balkan issue.

8. Read the given text and answer the following questions:

Ideas of national unity in early-nineteenth-century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism.
The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free. For the new middle classes liberalism
stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it emphasised the concept
of government by consent. Since the French Revolution, liberalism had stood for the end of autocracy and
clerical privileges, a constitution and representative government through parliament. Yet, equality before the
law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage. In revolutionary France, the right to vote was granted
exclusively to property-owning men. Men without property and all women were excluded from political
rights. Throughout the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries women and non-propertied men organised
opposition movements demanding equal political rights. In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the
freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.
1. From which Latin root is the term ‘liberalism’ derived, and what does it mean?
2. For the new middle classes, what did liberalism stand for politically?
3. Analyze the limitations of the liberal concept of ‘equality before the law’, especially with regard to
political rights in revolutionary France.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTIO (2 MARKS)

9. Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in September 1920.
B. The place where the Jallianwala Bagh incident took place.
Page 4 Sample Paper 04 CBSE Social Science Class 10

SECTION-B
GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)

10. The famous ‘Chipko Movement’ in the Himalayas, where local people embraced trees to prevent them from
being cut, is a significant example of which of the following?
(a) Government-led afforestation
(b) Community participation in conservation
(c) A project to promote commercial forestry
(d) A wildlife protection program

11. Identify the appropriate options to fill in the empty boxes regarding the classification of industries based
on ownership.

Industry Example Ownership Type

? Joint sector
Bajaj Auto Ltd. ?
(a) Dabur Industries, Public sector
(b) Oil India Ltd. (OIL), Private sector
(c) SAIL, Cooperative sector
(d) TISCO, Joint sector

12. For a fiscal year, a country’s financial records show that the total value of its exported goods and services is
Rs. 5 lakh crore, while the total value of its imported goods and services is Rs. 4 lakh crore.
What can be inferred about the country’s balance of trade from this situation?
(a) The country has an unfavourable balance of trade.
(b) The country has a favourable balance of trade.
(c) The country’s balance of trade is in deficit.
(d) The country does not have any trade relations.

13. Based on its mode of formation, which of the following minerals is formed by the decomposition of surface
rocks and the removal of soluble constituents, leaving a residual mass of weathered material?
(a) Coal
(b) Bauxite
(c) Gold
(d) Potash Salt

14. Which of the following is a rabi crop, typically sown in winter and harvested in summer?
(a) Rice (Paddy)
(b) Jowar
(c) Cotton
(d) Gram

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 5

15. Which of the following statements best evaluates the primary characteristic of ‘Khadar’ soil?
(a) It has a high concentration of kankar nodules and is less fertile.
(b) It is older alluvial soil found away from the river beds.
(c) It has more fine particles and is more fertile as it is renewed almost every year by floods.
(d) It is a type of black soil ideal for growing cotton.

16. Dams are now referred to as multi-purpose projects. Using your understanding of their functions, explain
two reasons for this change in terminology.

17. A. “Conservation of energy resources is crucial for sustainable development.” Justify this statement by
evaluating five ways in which we, as concerned citizens, can conserve energy resources.


o
B. “Land degradation is a serious problem in India caused by various human activities.” Justify this
statement by evaluating five different human-induced causes of land degradation in the country.

18. Read the given text and answer the following questions:
For a growing population, agriculture needs serious technical and institutional reforms. After Independence,
the government prioritized institutional reforms. ‘Land reform’ was the main focus of our First Five Year
Plan, with an emphasis on the consolidation of holdings and the abolition of the zamindari system. In
the 1960s and 1970s, the government embarked upon introducing agricultural reforms to improve Indian
agriculture. The Green Revolution, based on the use of package technology, and the White Revolution
(Operation Flood) were some of the strategies initiated. However, these reforms also led to the concentration
of development in a few selected areas. Therefore, in the 1980s and 1990s, a comprehensive land development
programme was initiated, which included both institutional and technical reforms. The provision of crop
insurance against natural calamities, the establishment of Grameen banks and cooperative societies for
providing loan facilities, and schemes like the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) and Minimum Support Price (MSP)
were some important steps in this direction.
1. What was the main focus of the First Five Year Plan regarding agriculture?
2. Name one technological reform introduced to improve Indian agriculture.
3. “A comprehensive land development programme was initiated in the 1980s and 1990s.” Analyse the key
features of this programme.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTIO (3 MARKS)

19. On an outline political map of India, locate and label the following with suitable symbols:
I. (p) A state with less than 10% of its area as Net Sown Area.


o
(q) A state with over 80% of its total area as Net Sown Area.
II. Any two of the following:
(i) Software technology parks in UP - Noida
(ii) A nuclear power plant in Tamil Nadu-Kalpakkam
(iii) Ramagundam thermal power station.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 04 CBSE Social Science Class 10

SECTION-C
POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)

20. Which of the following statement(s) are true regarding different party systems?
I. A country with a two-party system, like the USA, has only two political parties in existence.
II. A multi-party system allows for a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation.
III. India and the USA are both examples of multi-party systems.
IV. When several parties in a multi-party system join hands to contest elections, it is called an alliance.
Choose the correct option:
(a) I and III
(b) II and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) All of the above

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 7

21. The cartoon shows political leaders accessing lockers labeled with different caste names. What does the term
‘vote bank’ usually mean in this context?

(a) All voters of a particular caste vote for only one party.
(b) A large proportion of the voters from a particular caste vote for one party.
(c) It is a government scheme to provide loans to different caste groups.
(d) It refers to the total number of voters in a particular caste.

22. Consider the following case and choose the correct option-
A political leader argues for power-sharing by stating, “Sharing power is the very spirit of democracy. A
government is legitimate only when citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the system.”
Which type of reason for power-sharing is the leader emphasizing?
(a) Prudential reason (b) Economic reason
(c) Moral reason (d) Majoritarian reason

23. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most
appropriate option.
Assertion (A): In a democracy, citizens have the right and the means to examine the process of decision-
making.
Reason (R): This right to information and examination of the process is known as transparency.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

24. Highlight any two reasons for the tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities
in Belgium.

25. ‘The rise of regional political parties has contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy in
our country.’ Highlight any two reasons why this has happened.

26. ‘Majoritarianism can undermine the unity of a country.’ Support this statement with examples from the Sri
Lankan case.
Page 8 Sample Paper 04 CBSE Social Science Class 10

27. A. ‘The real success of federalism in India is not merely because of its constitutional provisions but also
due to the nature of its democratic politics.’ Explain the statement with reference to linguistic states
and Centre-State relations.


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B. ‘Caste alone cannot determine election results in India.’ Analyse the statement with five points.

28. Read the given text and answer the following questions.
There is one respect in which democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives: democratic
government is a legitimate government. It may be slow, less efficient, not always very responsive or clean.
But a democratic government is people’s own government. That is why there is an overwhelming support
for the idea of democracy all over the world. As evidence from South Asia shows, the support exists in
countries with democratic regimes as well as countries without democratic regimes. People wish to be ruled
by representatives elected by them.
1. What is the one aspect in which a democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives?
2. Why is a democratic government called the “people’s own government”?
3. Explain why the ability of democracy to generate its own support is considered a significant outcome.

SECTION-D
ECONOMICS (20 marks)

29. The institution that issues currency notes on behalf of the central government and supervises the functioning
of banks in India is known as:
(a) SHG (b) NABARD
(c) RBI (d) WTO

30. What can be inferred as a key reason for the development of services like transport and trade in an economy?
(a) These services are the easiest to provide.
(b) The government mandates the growth of these services first.
(c) The development of the primary and secondary sectors creates more demand for such services.
(d) These services do not require any skilled labor.

31. Which of the following examples best demonstrates a formal sector loan?
(a) A farmer taking a loan from a village moneylender at a high interest rate.
(b) A worker taking an advance salary from their employer.
(c) A person taking a loan from a commercial bank with proper documentation and collateral.
(d) A person borrowing money from a friend without any paperwork.

32. Besides per capita income, which two other dimensions are included in the Human Development Index
(HDI)?
(a) Industrial growth and agricultural output.
(b) Health and Education.
(c) Political stability and cultural diversity.
(d) Environmental quality and infrastructure.

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 04 Page 9

33. A government imposes a high tax on imported cars. Which of the following justifications best explains this
policy?
(a) To increase the number of foreign cars on the road.
(b) To make cars more affordable for everyone.
(c) To protect domestic car manufacturers from foreign competition.
(d) To fulfill the requirements of a free trade agreement.

34. Recognize and choose the option that correctly matches the term with its description.

Column A (Term) Column B (Description)

1. Public Sector Motive i. The process of removing barriers to foreign trade.
2. Double Coincidence of Wants ii. Enacted in 2005 to ensure access to information.
3. Liberalisation iii. A problem of the barter system.
4. Right to Information iv. Public Welfare.
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (b) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
(c) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii (d) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i

35. Evaluate the utility of money as a medium of exchange in an economy.

36. ‘Development for one may not be development for the other.’ Justify this statement.

37. Highlight three significant challenges faced by workers in the unorganized sector.

38. A. The terms of credit vary substantially from one credit arrangement to another. On the basis of this
statement, analyze the differences in the terms of credit for a medium farmer like Arun and a landless
laborer like Rama from the textbook.


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B. ‘For a country’s development, it is crucial to expand the role of the formal credit sector.’ Support this
statement with arguments explaining why formal credit is more beneficial than informal credit.

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Sample Paper 05
Class X 2025-26
Social Science (087)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C-Political Science, and D-Economics.
3. Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
4. Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 40 words.
5. Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60
words.
6. Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120
words.
7. There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to
each question should not exceed 100 words.
8. The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19.
In Section B -Geography (3 marks).
9. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
10. In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired candidates
in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually
Impaired candidates only.

SECTION-A
HISTORY (20 marks)

1. Match the following publications in Column A with their correct editor/author in Column B.

Column A Column B
(i) Bengal Gazette (a) A Persian newspaper published from 1822.
(ii) Istri Dharm Vichar (b) Edited by Balgangadhar Tilak to encourage nationalist activities.
(iii) Kesari (c) A fast-selling book by Ram Chaddha to teach women how to be
obedient wives.
(iv) Shamsul Akhbar (d) Edited by James Augustus Hickey from 1780, considered India’s first
newspaper.
Options:
(A) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(B) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
(C) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
(D) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d

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Page 2 Sample Paper 05 CBSE Social Science Class 10

2. The image shows a print by Raja Ravi Varma. What major shift in Indian culture did the mass circulation
of such prints signify by the end of the nineteenth century?

(a) The decline of handwritten manuscripts (b) The rise of a new visual culture
(c) The spread of Western art forms (d) The revival of folk art

3. What was the ‘Biliotheque Bleue’ in eighteenth-century France?

(a) A series of luxury books printed on vellum for aristocrats
(b) An official library containing the government’s prohibited books
(c) Low-priced small books sold by pedlars to the common people
(d) A journal of political cartoons and satire mocking the royalty

4. The first printing press was brought to India in the mid-sixteenth century by which group of people?
(a) British traders from the East India Company (b) Dutch Protestant missionaries
(c) Portuguese missionaries (d) French explorers

5. A. “Superbly skilled craftsmen could duplicate, with remarkable accuracy, the beauty of calligraphy.”
Explain this statement in the context of early Chinese woodblock printing.


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B. Briefly describe the contribution of the Grimm Brothers to the development of a German national
identity.

6. A. How did the invention of the printing press by Johann Gutenberg mark a revolutionary breakthrough
in print technology? Explain with three points.


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B. In nineteenth-century India, issues of caste discrimination began to be written about in many printed
tracts and essays. Explain with three examples.

7. A. “The nineteenth century saw vast leaps in mass literacy in Europe, bringing in large numbers of new
readers among children, women, and workers.” Analyse this statement.
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B. Explain the measures taken by the British colonial state to control the press in India after the Revolt
of 1857.

8. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
Religious Debates and the Fear of Print : Print created the possibility of wide circulation of ideas and
introduced a new world of debate and discussion. Even those who disagreed with established authorities
could now print and circulate their ideas, persuading people to think differently. In 1517, the religious
reformer Martin Luther wrote Ninety Five Theses criticising many of the practices and rituals of the Roman
Catholic Church. A printed copy of this was posted on a church door in Wittenberg, challenging the Church
to debate his ideas. Luther’s writings were immediately reproduced in vast numbers and read widely across
Germany. This led to a division within the Church and to the beginning of the Protestant Reformation.
Luther’s translation of the New Testament sold 5,000 copies within a few weeks. Deeply grateful to print,
Luther famously said, ‘Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.’ Several scholars believe
that print brought about a new intellectual atmosphere and helped spread the new ideas that ultimately led
to the Reformation. His writings inspired many to question the established religious authority and interpret
faith in their own way .
1. What were the Ninety Five Theses written by Martin Luther?
2. What was the immediate impact of the printing and circulation of Luther’s writings?
3. Explain why Martin Luther was “deeply grateful to print” and said it was the “ultimate gift of God”.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTIO (2 MARKS)

9. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their
correct names on the lines drown near them.
A. The place where Peasant Satyagraha took place.
B. The place associated with Jallianwala Bagh incident.
Page 4 Sample Paper 05 CBSE Social Science Class 10

SECTION-B
GEOGRAPHY (20 Marks)

10. The Brundtland Commission Report of 1987 is globally significant for introducing and popularising which
of the following concepts for resource conservation?
(a) Resource Planning
(b) Agenda 21
(c) Sustainable Development
(d) Club of Rome

11. Identify the appropriate options to fill in the empty boxes regarding different types of farming.

Farming Type Key Characteristic

? Use of primitive tools like hoe, dao, and digging sticks.
Plantation Agriculture ?
(a) Commercial Farming, Use of high doses of modern inputs
(b) Intensive Subsistence, Production for self-consumption
(c) Primitive Subsistence, A single crop is grown on a large area
(d) Shifting Agriculture, High productivity per hectare

12. It is often stated that the economic strength of a nation is measured by the development of its manufacturing
industries. This is because countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of finished goods
of higher value are generally more prosperous.
What is the most logical inference from this statement?
(a) A country’s prosperity depends solely on its reserves of raw materials.
(b) Manufacturing adds significant value to raw materials and is a key driver of economic growth.
(c) Exporting raw materials is always more profitable than exporting finished goods.
(d) Agriculture is not important for a country with a strong manufacturing sector.

13. Based on your understanding of traditional water harvesting systems, which of the following methods is best
suited for storing drinking water in individual households in the arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan,
such as Bikaner and Phalodi?
(a) Inundation Channels
(b) Guls or Kuls
(c) Khadins
(d) Tankas

14. In which of the following states is the traditional ‘bamboo drip irrigation’ system used for tapping stream
and spring water?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Kerala
(d) Assam

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 05 Page 5

15. Which of the following statements best evaluates the primary advantage of using non-conventional energy
sources like solar and wind power over conventional sources like coal and petroleum?
(a) They are easier to set up and have lower initial costs.
(b) They can generate power continuously, 24 hours a day, without interruption.
(c) They are renewable and have a much lower environmental impact, thus promoting sustainable
development.
(d) They are finite resources that are abundantly available all over India.

16. The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented in 1972. Using your understanding of its objectives,
explain two key provisions of this act.

17. A. “India has three distinct cropping seasons.” Justify this statement by evaluating the key characteristics
of the Rabi and Kharif seasons, including their timeframes and important crops.


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B. “The location of industries is influenced by several factors.” Justify this statement by evaluating five
key factors that are crucial for deciding the ideal location of an industry.

18. Read the given text and answer the following questions:
The exchange of goods among people, states, and countries is referred to as trade. While local trade is
carried in cities and villages, trade between two countries is called international trade. The advancement of
international trade is an index of a country’s economic prosperity, which is why it is often considered the
‘economic barometer’ for a country. No country can survive without international trade as resources are
space-bound. Export and import are the components of trade. The balance of trade is the difference between
a country’s exports and imports. When the value of exports exceeds the value of imports, it is a favourable
balance of trade. India has trade relations with all major trading blocs. Major commodities exported from
India include gems and jewellery, chemicals, agricultural products, and software. Key imports include
petroleum crude and products, gems and jewellery, and electronic items. With the help of efficient transport
and communication, India has emerged as a software giant, earning large foreign exchange through exports.
1. What is a ‘favourable balance of trade’ ?
2. Name one major export commodity of India mentioned in the passage.
3. “International trade is considered the ‘economic barometer’ for a country.” Analyse this statement.

19. On the same outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable symbols:
I. (p) An iron ore mine located in Chhattisgarh.


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(q) An important bauxite deposit in the Koraput district of Odisha.
II. Any two of the following:
(i) A Coal mine in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) A dam built on river Chenab.
(iii) A large natural major seaport located at Andhra Pradesh.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 05 CBSE Social Science Class 10

SECTION-C
POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)

20. Which of the following statement(s) are true regarding the promotion of dignity and freedom in a democracy?
I. Democracy is superior to other forms of government in promoting the dignity of the individual.
II. The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy.
III. In non-democratic regimes, the principle of individual dignity often lacks legal and moral force.
IV. Democracies have successfully eliminated all forms of discrimination against women.
Choose the correct option:
(a) I and II only
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) All of the above

21. The cartoon below depicts two world leaders tightly holding the reins of a vehicle named ‘Democracy’. What
does this cartoon suggest?

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NODIA APP Sample Paper 05 Page 7

(a) Democracy functions best under strong and decisive leaders.

(b) The concentration of power in the hands of a few leaders can restrain and weaken democracy.
(c) Leaders must protect democracy from the public.
(d) Democracy is a complex vehicle that requires multiple drivers.

22. Consider the following case and choose the correct option-
The constitution of a country prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion and provides all individuals
the freedom to profess any religion. However, it also allows the state to intervene in religious matters to ban
practices like untouchability.
Which principle of the Indian Constitution is reflected here?
(a) Majoritarianism (b) The Indian model of Secularism
(c) Communalism (d) Patriarchy

23. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most
appropriate option.
Assertion (A): In a large democracy without political parties, every candidate in the elections will be
independent.
Reason (R): This would lead to a stable government, as every representative would be free to make their
own decisions.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

24. Highlight the complex ethnic composition of Brussels, the capital of Belgium.

25. ‘The anti-defection law was a significant reform, but it has made dissent more difficult.’ Highlight any two
ways the law functions.

26. ‘The era of coalition governments since 1990 has strengthened the practice of federalism in India.’ Support
this statement with suitable arguments.

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Page 8 Sample Paper 05 CBSE Social Science Class 10

27. A. ‘Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom
of the individual.’ Analyse the statement.


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B. ‘While the old notions of caste hierarchy are breaking down in modern India, caste has not disappeared
from contemporary life.’ Analyse the statement.

28. Read the given text and answer the following questions.
All over the world, people express strong dissatisfaction with the failure of political parties to perform their
functions well. Popular dissatisfaction and criticism have focussed on four problem areas. The first is a lack
of internal democracy, where power is concentrated in the hands of a few leaders. The second is the challenge
of dynastic succession, where top positions are controlled by members of one family. The third is the growing
role of money and muscle power in parties, especially during elections. The fourth challenge is that parties
often do not offer a meaningful choice to voters as ideological differences between them have reduced.
1. What is meant by the challenge of ‘dynastic succession’ ?
2. Mention the first challenge faced by political parties, as described in the text.
3. Explain how the growing role of money and muscle power undermines democratic politics.

SECTION-D
ECONOMICS (20 marks)

29. An asset that the borrower owns (such as land or building) and uses as a guarantee to a lender until the
loan is repaid is called:
(a) An Interest Rate (b) A Demand Deposit
(c) Credit (d) Collateral

30. What can be inferred about the employment practices of companies facing intense global competition?
(a) They provide lifelong job security to all their employees.
(b) They prefer to hire workers ‘flexibly’ on a temporary basis to cut costs.
(c) They are forced to increase wages and benefits for all workers.
(d) They hire more workers than are actually needed.

31. Which of the following examples best demonstrates a conflict in developmental goals?
(a) An unemployed youth getting a secure job in a bank.
(b) A farmer using a loan to buy a new tractor for his farm.
(c) An industrialist wanting more dams for electricity, versus the tribals whose lands will be submerged.
(d) A student getting a scholarship to study abroad.

32. The international organization that publishes the Human Development Report, which compares countries
based on their educational levels, health status, and per capita income, is the:
(a) World Bank
(b) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
(c) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

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33. Economists classify economic activities into primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors. Which of the following
justifications best explains this classification?
(a) To determine which sector is the most profitable.
(b) To separate government jobs from private jobs.
(c) To group them using an important criterion (nature of activity) to understand the economy better.
(d) To make the calculation of GDP more complicated.

34. Recognize and choose the option that correctly matches the term with its description.

Column A (Term) Column B (Description)

1. Public Sector i. A company that owns production in more than one nation.
2. Human Development Index ii. A loan from a bank.
3. MNC iii. Its motive is public welfare, not just profit.
4. Formal Credit iv. Published by the UNDP.
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (b) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
(c) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii (d) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i

35. Evaluate the utility of foreign trade for the consumers of a country.

36. ‘The problem of underemployment is hidden and is also called disguised unemployment.’ Justify this
statement.

37. Highlight three significant reasons why the government must spend on public facilities.

38. A. The Reserve Bank of India plays a crucial supervisory role over formal lending institutions. On the basis
of this statement, analyze the key functions performed by the RBI.


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B. ‘While per capita income is a common tool for measuring development, it is also an inadequate measure
with several weaknesses.’ Support this statement by explaining both the utility and the limitations of
this criterion.

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