Tips:

📊 Google Cloud AI/ML Products – Quick

Reference
Produc Primary Use
Key Features When to Use
t Case
Real-time
Building
personalization,
Recom Personalized recommendation
context-aware,
mendat product/content engines for retail,
integrates with
ions AI recommendations media, or
retail/e-commerce
marketplaces
data
Pre-trained models Extracting insights
Vision Image analysis for object detection, from images (e.g.,
AI and classification OCR, face & landmark product tagging,
detection content moderation)
Drag-and-drop When you need
Custom ML model
interface, supports custom models but
AutoML training without
vision, NLP, tabular don’t want to code
deep ML expertise
data from scratch
Running ML Train models (linear When data already
BigQue models directly regression, logistic lives in BigQuery
ry ML inside BigQuery regression, k-means, and you want fast,
using SQL TensorFlow import) scalable ML
Natural language Building customer
Dialogfl Conversational AI
understanding, multi- support bots, IVR
ow for chatbots and
turn conversations, systems, or virtual
CX/ES voice assistants
integrations assistants
Unified ML
End-to-end ML Enterprise-scale ML
platform for
Vertex lifecycle, MLOps, projects with full
building, training,
AI integrates AutoML + control over training
and deploying ML
custom models and deployment
models
Cloud Text analysis Pre-trained NLP Extracting meaning
Natural (sentiment, entity, from text (reviews,
models, multilingual
Langua syntax, documents, chat
support
ge API classification) logs)
Cloud Real-time
Neural machine
Transla Language translation for apps,
translation, 100+
tion translation websites, or
languages
API chatbots
Speech
Voice interfaces,
-to- Real-time
Speech transcription
Text / transcription, voice
recognition and services,
Text- synthesis with
synthesis accessibility
to- WaveNet
features
Speech

🚀 Quick Memory Hooks

 Recommendations AI → Retail personalization

 Vision AI → Images
 AutoML → No-code custom ML
 BigQuery ML → SQL + ML inside BigQuery
 Dialogflow → Chatbots
 Vertex AI → Full ML lifecycle
 NLP API → Text insights
 Translation API → Multilingual apps
 Speech APIs → Voice interfaces

🚀 Google Cloud Cost Optimization Cheat

Sheet

1. Discount Types
Discount How It Works Best Use Case
Committed Commit to 1–3 years of steady usage Predictable
Use (vCPUs, RAM, GPUs, etc.) for up to workloads, long-
Discounts 70% savings term
(CUDs)
Sustained
Use Automatic discount when a VM runs Long-running but
Discounts for a large portion of the month variable workloads
(SUDs)
Spot VMs
Up to 90% cheaper, but can be Fault-tolerant,
(Preemptible
terminated anytime batch, ML training
)
When you need
Reservations Reserve capacity in a region/zone guaranteed
availability
Committed Multiple projects
Share commitments across projects
Use Discount with stable
under the same billing account
Sharing combined usage

2. Storage Optimization
 Object Lifecycle Policies → Auto-delete or move to cheaper storage
(Nearline, Coldline, Archive).
 Multi-Regional vs Regional Buckets → Use regional unless global
access is required.
 Filestore & Persistent Disks → Resize instead of overprovisioning.
 Compression & Deduplication → Especially for BigQuery and Cloud
Storage.

3. BigQuery Cost Control

 Partitioned Tables → Reduce scanned data.
 Clustered Tables → Improve query efficiency.
 Flat-rate Pricing → For predictable heavy workloads.
 Query Dry Run → Estimate cost before running.
 Materialized Views → Cache results for repeated queries.
4. Networking Optimization
 VPC Peering / Shared VPC → Avoid egress charges between
projects.
 Cloud CDN → Cache content closer to users.
 Choose Regions Wisely → Minimize inter-region traffic.
 Private Google Access → Avoid public internet egress for GCP APIs.

5. Compute Optimization
 Right-sizing VMs → Use Recommender to downsize underutilized
instances.
 Autoscaling → Scale up/down based on demand.
 Custom Machine Types → Pay only for the exact CPU/RAM needed.
 Serverless (Cloud Run, Functions, App Engine) → Pay per
request, no idle cost.
 Migrate to Spot VMs for non-critical workloads.

6. Monitoring & Governance

 Budgets & Alerts → Set thresholds in Cloud Billing.
 Recommender API → Automated cost-saving suggestions.
 Labels & Cost Allocation → Track spend by team/project.
 Policy Constraints → Prevent resource sprawl (e.g., restrict machine
types).

7. Interview-Ready Talking Points

 Always mention CUD sharing when multiple projects are involved.
 Stress automation: lifecycle policies, autoscaling, recommender.
 Highlight serverless adoption for unpredictable workloads.
 Show awareness of trade-offs: Spot VMs = cheap but unreliable.
 Mention BigQuery partitioning as a classic cost-saving move.
🔥 Quick mnemonic for exams: “C-SCAN”

 Commitments (CUDs, SUDs, Spot)

 Storage lifecycle & classes
 Compute right-sizing & autoscaling
 Analytics (BigQuery partitioning, clustering)
 Networking (CDN, peering, region choice)

🧮 IAM Role Assignment Decision Table

Principal to
Recommended
Scenario Assign Role Why This Works
Role Type
To
You want all Any IAM role Centralized access
✅ Google Group
members of an (e.g., control; easy to
synced with
LDAP group to roles/viewer, manage via group
LDAP
access a project roles/editor) membership
Direct control;
You want a
✅ Individual useful for
specific user to Any IAM role
user email exceptions or
have access
temporary access
Allows
✅ Google Group
You want a team roles/ impersonation of
(or user) → on
to deploy using a iam.serviceAcc the service
the service
service account ountUser account for
account
deployment
You want a Roles like Grants permissions
service account ✅ The service roles/editor, for workloads
to perform account itself roles/storage. (VMs, pipelines) to
automated tasks admin act
You want to Inherited by all
✅ Google Group
restrict access to projects/resources
or user → on Any IAM role
a folder or org- under that
the folder/org
wide folder/org
You want to give ✅ Google Group Resource- Fine-grained
access to a or user → on specific roles control at the
resource (e.g., the resource (e.g., resource level
BigQuery roles/bigquery
dataset) .dataViewer)

Questions
Q1.

Q2.
Q3.

Q4.
Q5.

Q6.
Q7.

Q8.
Correct Answer: C

The other options don't fit as well:

A is more about delegation than engineering contribution.

B increases toil, which SRE explicitly seeks to minimize.

D misunderstands SRE; solutions should be dynamic and resilient, not rigidly

static.

Q9.

Q10.
Q11.

The correct answer is: ✅ D. Migrate the workloads to Compute Engine

with a pay-as-you-go (PAYG) model

Explanation:

 Since the workloads are only needed during working hours and
can be shut down during weekends, a PAYG (pay-as-you-go)
model is most cost-efficient — you pay only for the compute time
actually used.
  The BYOL (bring-your-own-license) model (option C) wouldn’t
optimize cost in this case because you'd still be paying for licenses
even when the servers are not running.
 Renewing multi-year licenses (options A and B) also keeps you paying
for licenses continuously, regardless of usage.

Q12.

A. Cloud Data Fusion

Cloud Data Fusion is a fully managed, serverless data integration service

based on Apache CDAP, enabling developers to focus on data tasks without
infrastructure management. It supports building scalable ETL/ELT pipelines
for integrating data from various sources, cleaning/preparing/blending
datasets, transferring between systems, and transforming via visual
pipelines or code—ideal for time-restricted projects.

The other options fall short:

 B (Cloud Composer): Orchestrates workflows (e.g., Apache Airflow)

but requires defining DAGs and managing environments; it's not
primarily for direct data integration/transformation.
 C (Data Catalog): Focuses on metadata discovery and governance,
not active data processing or transfer.
 D (Dataproc): Provides managed Spark/Hadoop clusters, but involves
provisioning/managing compute resources, violating the no-infra
guideline.
Q13.

B. In different zones within a single region.

Here's a breakdown of why:

 Redundancy: The question asks for redundancy. Placing all VMs in a

single zone (Option A) offers no protection if that one zone fails.
Placing VMs in different zones (Option B) provides redundancy against
a zonal failure, which is a common requirement.
 Fast Communication (< 10ms): The question demands extremely
fast communication.
o Within a single region (Options A and B): Communication
between zones in the same region is very fast, typically with low
single-digit millisecond latency (well under the 10ms limit).
o Across multiple regions (Options C and D): Communication
between different regions involves greater physical distances
and will almost always have latency much higher than 10ms
(often 30ms-150ms+).

Therefore, Option B is the only choice that satisfies both the need for
redundancy (by using different zones) and the strict low-latency requirement
(by staying within a single region).
Q14.

Q15.
Q16.

Based on the requirements, the correct suggestion is A. Cold.

Explanation

Here is a breakdown of the disaster recovery patterns and why "Cold" is the
correct choice:

 Hot (and Live): This pattern involves a fully operational, duplicate

environment running in parallel with production. Data is replicated in
real-time. Failover is almost instantaneous. This is the most expensive
option and is used when speedy access and minimal downtime
are critical.
 Warm: This pattern involves a scaled-down version of the production
environment running in the DR site. Data is regularly backed up or
replicated. It's faster to fail over than a "Cold" setup (minutes to hours)
but slower than "Hot."
 Cold: This pattern involves having the data backed up (often in low-
cost, archival storage) but having little to no infrastructure provisioned
or running. In a disaster, the infrastructure must be created, the
application installed, and the data restored. This is the slowest and
cheapest recovery method.

Since the client's key requirement is that "speedy access to data is not a
requirement" for this historical compliance data, the most cost-effective
and appropriate pattern is Cold.

Q17.
The correct answer is A. Deploy the application on Compute Engine
using preemptible instances.

Explanation
This scenario describes the perfect use case for Preemptible Instances (now
also known as Spot VMs).

1. Cost-Optimized: This is the primary goal. Preemptible instances are

up to 80-91% cheaper than standard on-demand instances, offering
the most significant cost savings.
2. Interruptible Workload: The application is explicitly designed to "be
interrupted at any time to restart later." This perfectly aligns with the
nature of preemptible instances, which Google Cloud can "preempt"
(shut down) at any time if those resources are needed elsewhere.
3. No SLA: The requirement states there is "no service-level agreement
(SLA) for the completion time." This makes the unpredictable
termination of preemptible instances acceptable, as there is no penalty
for the job being delayed and restarted.
4. Job Duration: Preemptible instances have a maximum runtime of 24
hours. Since the individual jobs take less than 12 hours, they have a
high chance of completing, and even if they don't, the system is
designed to handle the interruption.

Why the other options are incorrect:

 B. Unmanaged instance group: This describes a way to group VMs,

but it doesn't, by itself, provide any cost-optimization. You would still
be paying standard prices for the instances within the group.
 C. Create a reservation: Reservations are used to guarantee
capacity and are often paired with Committed Use Discounts (CUDs)
for predictable, 24/7 workloads. This is the opposite of the described
workload, which is interruptible and not necessarily constant.
 D. Start more instances with fewer vCPUs: While "right-sizing"
instances is a good practice, it doesn't offer the deep, structural cost
savings that preemptible instances do. This strategy could (and should)
be combined with preemptible instances, but "preemptible" is the core
answer to the cost-optimization requirement for this type of workload.

Q18.
Q19.

The correct answer is A. Define an organization policy at the root

organization node to restrict virtual machine instances from having
an external IP address.
Explanation

 Organization Policy Service: This service provides centralized,

programmatic control over your organization's cloud resources. It
allows you to set "constraints" on how resources can be used.
 Resource Hierarchy and Inheritance: In Google Cloud, resources
are organized in a hierarchy (Organization > Folders > Projects).
Policies applied at a higher level (like the root organization node)
are automatically inherited by all resources beneath them.
 Why A is Correct:
o Centralized Control: It sets the rule in one place.
o Enforcement: It's a technical constraint, not a suggestion. It will
prevent any VM from being created with an external IP.
o Future-Proof: By setting it at the root, the policy will
automatically apply to all new folders and projects that are
created in the future, which is a key requirement of the question.
 Why the Other Options are Incorrect:
o B and C: Applying the policy only to existing folders or projects
is insufficient. The policy would not apply to any new folders or
projects that are created, failing a key part of the requirement.
o D: This is a weak, non-technical solution. It relies on human
agreement and manual compliance, which is prone to error and
cannot be enforced automatically. An organization policy
provides strong technical enforcement.

Q20.

The correct answer is B. Compliance.

Explanation
The key piece of information in the question is "customers' credit card data."
This type of data is highly regulated and falls under the Payment Card
Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS).

 Compliance refers to adhering to the specific laws, regulations, and

industry standards that govern data. Before migrating sensitive credit
card data, the company's primary concern must be to understand
Google's compliance with PCI DSS. They need to review Google's
Attestation of Compliance (AoC) and understand the shared
responsibility model for maintaining compliance.
 Security (D) is a component of compliance, but "compliance" is the
more precise answer. The company doesn't just need to know that the
platform is secure; it needs to know that it is secure in a way that
specifically meets the auditable requirements of PCI DSS.
 Privacy (C) and Availability (A), while important, are secondary
concerns to the specific legal and regulatory obligations tied to
handling credit card information.

Q21.

Q22.
The correct answer is D. Cloud Build can deploy to all these services.

Explanation
Google Cloud Build is a continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD)
platform that can execute custom steps, including building container images
and running deployment commands. Because it can execute any command-
line tool, it is capable of deploying applications to virtually any target
environment, including all the services listed:

 A. Kubernetes (e.g., Google Kubernetes Engine - GKE): Cloud

Build commonly uses kubectl commands to deploy containerized
applications to a GKE cluster.
 B. App Engine: Cloud Build can execute the gcloud app deploy
command to deploy code to App Engine standard or flexible
environments.
 C. Cloud Functions: Cloud Build can execute the gcloud functions
deploy command to deploy serverless functions.

Q23.
The correct solution for an organization that stores highly sensitive data on-
premises and needs to process it both on-premises and in the cloud without
sending it over the public internet is to establish a secure, private
connection.

The best option among those provided is:

C. Order a Partner Interconnect connection with your network

provider

Explanation of Options
Tech
O nolo Relevance to the Requirement
gy

Iden
tity-
Awa
IAP controls access to cloud applications, but it doesn't
re
A Prox provide a private network connection between the on-
premises data center and Google Cloud.
y
(IAP
)

Clou Cloud VPN establishes a secure IPsec VPN tunnel over the
B d public internet. This violates the requirement that the data
VPN cannot be sent over the public internet.

C Part Correct. Partner Interconnect provides a high-availability,

ner low-latency connection between your on-premises network
 and your Google Cloud VPC network through a supported
Inte
service provider. Critically, this connection is private and does
rcon
not traverse the public internet, satisfying all
nect
requirements.

Priv Private Google Access allows virtual machine (VM) instances in

ate a VPC network with internal IP addresses to reach Google APIs
Goo and services (like Cloud Storage) without using external IP
D gle addresses. It's for cloud-to-Google services traffic and
Acce doesn't connect the on-premises data center to the
ss cloud.

Why Partner Interconnect is the Solution

Partner Interconnect (or Dedicated Interconnect) is the solution
because it creates a dedicated, physical, private connection between
the organization's on-premises network and the Google Cloud network. This
ensures the highly sensitive data:

1. Stays off the public internet, maintaining security and compliance.

2. Can be processed both on-premises and in the cloud via the
secure, high-speed link, supporting a hybrid cloud architecture.

Q24.

The correct product to choose for configuring application-level monitoring,

monitoring Service-Level Objectives (SLOs), and triggering alerts when
SLOs are violated is Cloud Monitoring.

C. Cloud Monitoring
Explanation
Cloud Monitoring (formerly Stackdriver Monitoring) is the core Google
Cloud product for performance and availability monitoring.

 Application-Level Monitoring: It collects metrics, events, and

metadata from Google Cloud services, hosted uptime probes, and
application instrumentation, providing visibility into application
performance.
 Service-Level Objectives (SLOs): Cloud Monitoring is the dedicated
tool within Google Cloud for implementing SRE concepts like Service-
Level Objectives (SLOs) and Service-Level Indicators (SLIs). It allows
you to define SLOs, track compliance against error budgets, and
visualize performance against reliability targets.
 Alerting: It provides robust alerting capabilities to notify teams when
a metric crosses a specified threshold or when an SLO is violated,
which is a key SRE practice.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect

 A. Error Reporting: This product focuses specifically on aggregating
and viewing errors and crashes from running cloud services. While
part of monitoring, it doesn't cover general application metrics or SLO
creation/tracking.
 B. Cloud Logging: This product is for storing, viewing, searching, and
analyzing logs. While essential for debugging and analysis, it is not the
primary tool for defining SLOs, tracking real-time metrics, or general
performance monitoring and alerting.
 D. Cloud Trace: This product is for distributed tracing, which helps
analyze latency and performance of requests across microservices. It's
a specific performance analysis tool, not the general platform for
metrics, SLOs, and alerting.

Q25.
The correct choice for storing application images built by a CI/CD pipeline for
deployment on Cloud Run is to store them in a container registry.

B. Store the images in Container Registry

Explanation
Cloud Run is a managed compute platform that lets you run stateless
containers via web requests or Pub/Sub events.

1. Cloud Run Requirement: Cloud Run accepts application images

packaged as Docker containers.
2. Container Registry Purpose: Container Registry (or its successor,
Artifact Registry) is Google Cloud's private Docker image registry. It
is specifically designed to store, manage, and secure Docker container
images and is fully integrated with the entire Google Cloud ecosystem,
including Cloud Run.
3. CI/CD Efficiency: Storing the container images here allows the CD
(Continuous Deployment) part of the pipeline to pull the image directly
from the registry for deployment to Cloud Run in the fewest number
of steps possible, leveraging the native integration.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect

 A. Create a Compute Engine image containing the application:
Compute Engine images are used to launch Virtual Machines (VMs).
They are not the correct format for containerized applications deployed
on Cloud Run.
  C. Store the images in Cloud Storage: While Cloud Storage can
technically store any file, including container images, it is an object
storage service. It is not optimized for the container image format
(which involves manifests and layers) and cannot be natively used by
Cloud Run or other container orchestration tools to pull and run the
images.
 D. Create a Compute Engine disk containing the application:
Compute Engine disks are persistent storage volumes for VMs. Like
Compute Engine images, this is the wrong storage type for a container-
based platform like Cloud Run.

Q26.

Sup
por P1 Case
Meets 1-Hour
t Response Time Cost/Pricing
SLO?
Pla SLO
n

A. Not applicable;
Bas community Free No
ic support only.

B.
Sta Fixed monthly fee + %
4 hours No
nda of monthly charges
rd

C. 1 hour Higher fixed monthly Yes ✅

Enh fee + % of monthly
anc charges
 ed

D.
Highest fixed monthly Yes (but
Pre
15 minutes fee + % of monthly excessive for the
miu
charges requirement)
m

Q27.

B. You want to minimize the level of management by the customer

SaaS is the right choice when the customer seeks to minimize management
responsibilities, as the cloud provider handles most infrastructure, platform,
and application management. This includes updates, security, and
maintenance, offering a fully managed solution ideal for businesses wanting
to focus on using the software rather than managing it.

Q28.
A. The ability to predict API traffic patterns

C. The ability to modernize legacy services via RESTful interfaces

D. The ability to record and analyze business metrics

Apigee provides these benefits: it uses analytics to predict API traffic

patterns, supports modernizing legacy services with RESTful interfaces, and
enables recording and analyzing business metrics through its monitoring and
reporting tools. The ability to make backend services visible (B) is not a
primary feature of Apigee.

Q29,
The problem describes a situation where VM-based application upgrades
are slow due to OS boot times, hindering an organization's goal of
increasing release velocity. The need is to make application
deployments faster.

Analysis of Options
The root cause of the slowdown is the time taken to boot the full Operating
System (OS) with each Virtual Machine (VM) upgrade, which is inherent to
the VM model. To significantly speed up deployments and upgrades, a
technology that eliminates or greatly reduces the need for OS booting with
every application deployment is required.

 A. Migrate your VMs to the cloud, and add more resources to

them: Migrating to the cloud or adding resources might offer a
marginal speed increase, but it doesn't solve the fundamental
problem of the long OS boot time required for each VM-based rolling
upgrade. VMs still require booting a full OS, whether on-premises or in
the cloud.
 B. Convert your applications into containers: Containers (like
Docker or Kubernetes) package an application with its dependencies
and run on a shared host OS kernel. Unlike VMs, they don't need to
boot a full OS for each instance. This results in near-instantaneous
 startup times (seconds instead of minutes), which directly addresses
the problem of slow OS boot times and dramatically increases
application deployment and upgrade speed (release velocity).
This is the most effective architectural solution.
 C. Increase the resources of your VMs: Similar to option A,
increasing resources (CPU, RAM) may slightly speed up the application
runtime or the boot process but won't eliminate the inherent time
required to load a complete OS, which is the core bottleneck.
 D. Automate your upgrade rollouts: Automation is essential for
release velocity, but it automates the existing slow process. It
reduces manual effort and errors but doesn't change the execution
time of the underlying slow VM OS boot cycle.

Conclusion
The most effective solution to overcome the bottleneck of long OS boot
times in VM-based rolling application upgrades is to eliminate the need for a
full OS boot per application instance.

The correct choice is B. Convert your applications into containers.

Q30.
Q31.

Based on the image provided, the correct answer is D.

D. Configure single sign-on in the Google domain

Explanation

 Single Sign-On (SSO): When you configure SSO, you make Active
Directory (AD) your Identity Provider (IdP) and Google your Service
Provider (SP). This means all authentication requests for Google
accounts are redirected to your Active Directory.
 Meeting the Requirement: If a user's Active Directory account is
terminated or disabled, they can no longer successfully authenticate
against AD. Because Google relies on AD for authentication in an SSO
setup, the user will be unable to log in to their Google account. This
directly fulfills the requirement that terminating the AD account
removes Google account access.

Why the other options are incorrect

 A. Configure two-factor authentication: This adds a layer of

security to the login process but does not link the Google account's
status to the Active Directory account.
 B. Remove the Google account from all IAM policies: This is a
manual (or scripted) action you might take, not the configuration that
automatically links the two systems. It also only addresses Google
Cloud resource access, not the entire Google account (like Workspace).
 C. Configure BeyondCorp and Identity-Aware Proxy (IAP): This is
a zero-trust security model for controlling access to specific
applications. It doesn't solve the core problem of federating identity
and linking account lifecycles between AD and Google.
Q32.

Based on the image provided, the correct answer is D.

D. Dual-region with turbo replication

Explanation
Here is a breakdown of the requirements and why this option is the only one
that fits:

1. Editors in New York and London: This requirement immediately

suggests a configuration that spans both the US and Europe to provide
low-latency access for both teams. A Dual-region bucket, using one
region in North America (near NY) and one in Europe (near London), is
the ideal choice for this geographic spread.
2. Maximum 15-minute wait for availability: This is the key
requirement. When an editor in New York uploads a new video file, the
editor in London must be able to access it within 15 minutes. Standard
dual-region replication is asynchronous and can take much longer.
Turbo replication is a specific feature for dual-region buckets that
provides an SLA, guaranteeing that 99.9% of new objects are
replicated within 15 minutes.
3. Minimal loss exposure: This refers to the Recovery Point Objective
(RPO), or the amount of data you're willing to lose in a disaster.
Because turbo replication copies the data to the second region much
faster, it significantly shortens the time window where that data exists
in only one location. This drastically minimizes potential data loss if the
primary region fails.
Why the other options are incorrect

 A. Single region: This would provide very high latency for one of the
teams (e.g., if the bucket is in the US, the London team suffers) and
has no protection against a regional outage.
 B. Dual-region: This is a good start, as it solves the geography
problem. However, standard dual-region replication is "best-effort" and
does not guarantee the 15-minute replication time. It could take
hours for a file to be available in the other region.
 C. Multi-region: This provides high availability across a continent
(e.g., US or EU). It doesn't solve the specific use case of high-
performance access between two specific continents (North America
and Europe).

Q33.

Based on the image provided, the correct answer is B.

B. Host all your subsidiaries' services together with your existing

services on the public cloud.

Explanation
The question asks for a solution that achieves two primary goals:

1. Reduce overhead in infrastructure management.

2. Keep costs low.

Let's analyze the options based on these goals:

  A. Host... on-premises: This increases overhead and cost. You
would need to buy new hardware, manage data centers, and handle
physical maintenance for three new international locations.
 B. Host... on the public cloud: This reduces overhead because
the cloud provider (like Google, AWS, or Azure) manages all the
physical hardware, networking, and data center operations. It keeps
costs low by converting large upfront capital expenses (CapEx) into
pay-as-you-go operational expenses (OpEx), leveraging the cloud's
economies of scale. Modern clouds also provide robust security and
high quality of service, meeting the constraints.
 C. Build a homogenous infrastructure at each subsidiary, and
invest in training: This is the opposite of the requirements. It means
building three separate on-premises sites, which is a massive increase
in both cost (CapEx) and management overhead.
 D. Build a homogenous infrastructure at each subsidiary, and
invest in hiring: This is even more expensive than option C, as it
involves building three separate sites and increasing long-term
operational costs by adding new salaries.

Q34.

The best tool for a startup to migrate over 1 TB of data from a private data
center to Google Cloud within a strict timeline of 1-2 days while
accounting for available bandwidth is A. Storage Transfer Service.
Explanation
 A. Storage Transfer Service (specifically the Transfer Service for
On-Premises Data) is designed for high-volume, high-performance,
and high-security migrations from a private data center (on-premises)
directly to Google Cloud Storage. It can handle petabytes of data and is
managed by Google to optimize speed and efficiency based on
available network bandwidth, making it ideal for the 1 TB+ size and
tight deadline.
 B. gsutil is a command-line utility. While excellent for smaller,
scriptable transfers and management, it's generally not the preferred
tool for a multi-terabyte bulk migration with a hard time constraint, as
it may lack the high-level management, performance optimization, and
job scheduling capabilities of a dedicated service.
 C. Transfer appliance is a physical device provided by Google that
you fill with data and ship back. This is used for very large migrations
(petabytes) or when network bandwidth is extremely limited or costly.
Given the 1-2 day deadline, the time required to ship, load, and ingest
the appliance makes it unsuitable.
 D. Migrate for Anthos and GKE is a tool used for migrating virtual
machines (VMs) to run as containers on Google Kubernetes Engine
(GKE) or Anthos. It is focused on workload migration, not bulk data
transfer from a private data center to Cloud Storage, which is the
immediate requirement.

Q35.
Q36.

The most cost-effective Google Cloud Storage class for data that you plan to
access at most once per quarter is Coldline Storage.

Google Cloud Storage Class Comparison

Google Cloud Storage offers four main storage classes designed to balance
cost and access frequency:

Stor Recommended Minimum Primary Benefit

age Access Frequency Storage
Clas
 s Duration

Lowest access/operation
Stan Frequent (multiple
None costs (best
dard times a month)
performance).

Nea Infrequent (once a Lower storage cost than

30 days
rline month or less) Standard.

Rarely (at most

Cold
once per quarter 90 days Very low storage cost.
line
(90 days))

Arch Very Rarely (less

365 days Lowest storage cost.
ive than once per year)

Why Coldline is the Best Choice

 Cost Optimization: Coldline Storage is specifically priced to be the

most cost-effective option for data that is accessed roughly once every
three months (a quarter). It offers significantly lower storage costs per
gigabyte per month compared to Nearline and Standard.
 Access Pattern: The design of Coldline is an ideal match for the
requirement of accessing data "at most once per quarter."
o Nearline is for data accessed up to once per month.
o Archive is for data accessed less than once per year.
 Retrieval: While Coldline has higher retrieval fees (per GB accessed)
than Nearline or Standard, the infrequent access pattern ensures these
fees are incurred minimally, resulting in the lowest total cost of
ownership for this specific use case.

Q37.
✅ Correct Answer: A. Public cloud

Explanation:

 The question asks for near-unlimited availability of computing

resources without the need to procure or provision new
hardware.
 That exactly describes the Public Cloud (like Google Cloud, AWS, or
Azure).

Why Public Cloud:

 Provides on-demand scalability — you can increase or decrease

compute, storage, or networking resources almost instantly.
 No need for upfront hardware investment — resources are
managed by the cloud provider.
 Offers global availability and elastic capacity.

Why not the others:

 B. Containers: Help with deployment and scalability but still need

infrastructure underneath (cloud or on-prem).
 C. Private cloud: Still requires you to procure and manage your
own hardware.
 D. Microservices: Refers to software architecture, not infrastructure
availability.

✅ Final Answer: A. Public cloud

Q38.
The correct answer that best defines a private cloud is D.

Defining Private Cloud

A private cloud is a cloud computing environment where the infrastructure
and services are exclusively operated for a single organization.

 D. A collection of resources that are isolated on-premises for

use by an organization captures the key elements: isolation
(exclusive use) and operation for a single organization. While a
private cloud can also be hosted externally by a third party, the core
characteristic is that the resources are not shared with other
organizations, ensuring high levels of control and security.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect

 A. A collection of resources that are not shared with the

general public: This is too broad. Many corporate internal networks
or secure external services fit this description without being a "cloud."
While true for a private cloud, it isn't the defining characteristic that
distinguishes it from other enterprise IT solutions.
 B. A collection of virtual on-demand services that are offered
to the public: This is the definition of a public cloud (e.g., Amazon
Web Services, Microsoft Azure).
 C. A collection of resources that are shared between private
and public cloud users: This describes a hybrid cloud model.

Q39.
The ideal Google Cloud compute resource for running lightweight, event-
driven code (like responding to a database write and scaling to zero) is
Cloud Functions (now often referred to as Cloud Run functions).

Cloud Functions is a fully managed, serverless platform designed for this

exact use case.

Key Benefits
 Event-Driven: It is built to automatically execute your code in
response to specific events, such as:
o A document write in a Cloud Firestore or Firebase Realtime
Database.
o A message published to a Cloud Pub/Sub topic (for
notifications).
o A file being uploaded to Cloud Storage.
 Scales to Zero: Cloud Functions are an integral part of the serverless
model. If there are no events to process, the function instances are
automatically scaled down to zero, meaning you pay nothing when
the code is idle.
 Minimal Management: As a Function-as-a-Service (FaaS) offering,
you only focus on writing the application logic; Google Cloud
automatically manages the underlying infrastructure, operating
system, scaling, and patching.
 Cost-Effective: Billing is granular, charged only for the execution
time, number of invocations, and resources consumed (CPU/memory),
making it highly cost-effective for sporadic or lightweight tasks.
For slightly more complex event-driven applications that require custom
environments (like those built using custom containers) but still need to
scale to zero, Cloud Run would also be a strong candidate. However, for a
simple, lightweight function triggered by a database write, Cloud Functions
is the most precise and simplest solution.

Q40.

This looks like a multiple-choice question about Google Cloud cost

management. The question asks for a tool to provide an "at-a-glance
waterfall overview of their monthly costs and savings" to the
management team, specifically to optimize Google Cloud spend.

The best option to provide a waterfall-style overview of cost changes and

savings in Google Cloud is:

A. Cost Breakdown reports

Explanation
The Cost Breakdown report in Google Cloud's Cloud Billing is the primary
tool for visualizing and analyzing cost changes over time, which is essential
for understanding the sources of costs and the impact of savings.

 This report allows users to see costs broken down by various

dimensions (like projects, services, SKUs, or even custom labels).
 Crucially, when comparing two different time periods, it can generate a
visualization that is essentially a waterfall chart (or a similar
breakdown of change), showing the increase or decrease in cost due to
different factors. This directly addresses the need for an "at-a-glance
waterfall overview of their monthly costs and savings."
The other options are less suitable:

 B. Budget notifications are used to send alerts when spending

approaches or exceeds a predefined budget. They don't provide a
visual, historical, or waterfall breakdown of costs and savings.
 C. Cost Table reports (sometimes referred to as the Cost
Management Table or simply the detailed cost table) provide a
granular, tabular view of cost data. While comprehensive, a table is not
an "at-a-glance waterfall overview" for a management team; it
requires more detailed analysis.
 D. Pricing table reports show the current pricing for different Google
Cloud services. They are about potential cost based on rates, not the
actual incurred monthly costs and savings that have already
happened.

Q41.

The best Google Cloud product for your organization's needs is D. Cloud
Bigtable.

Why Cloud Bigtable is the Right Choice

Cloud Bigtable is specifically designed for the requirements outlined in the
question:

 Worldwide, High-Speed Data Storage: Bigtable is a petabyte-

scale, fully managed, NoSQL database service that is ideal for high-
throughput, low-latency workloads. It's built for speed and can
handle a massive number of read and write requests globally.
  Large Amount of Unstructured Data: As a NoSQL database,
Bigtable is highly suitable for storing large volumes of unstructured or
semi-structured data, which is typical for sensor data.
 Sensor Data (Time-Series Data): Bigtable is the premier choice on
Google Cloud for time-series data (like sensor readings), IoT data,
and operational monitoring due to its efficient design for handling data
ordered by time.

Why the Other Options are Less Suitable

 A. Firestore: While a great NoSQL document database, Firestore is
generally optimized for mobile, web, and serverless application
development, often involving smaller datasets and different access
patterns than petabyte-scale sensor data. It has built-in features like
real-time updates and offline support, which may be secondary to pure
high-throughput storage in this scenario.
 B. Cloud Data Fusion: This is an ETL/ELT data integration
service, not a database. It is used to move, transform, and unify data
from various sources, but it can't be used to store the primary data
itself.
 C. Cloud SQL: This is a fully managed relational database
service (for MySQL, PostgreSQL, and SQL Server). It excels at
structured data and complex joins but is not the best choice for
petabyte-scale, high-speed storage of unstructured sensor data, where
a NoSQL solution is preferred for performance and scaling.

Q42.

The client should use Filestore (B).

Here's why Filestore is the best solution for the stated requirements:

Why Filestore is the Right Choice

Google Cloud Filestore is a fully managed file storage service for
applications running on Google Compute Engine and Google Kubernetes
Engine. It provides Network File System (NFS) file shares, which are ideal
for the client's needs:

 File Sharing: NFS is a standard protocol built for file sharing across
multiple clients, making it perfect for a company's internal file sharing
needs.
 Web Content Management: Filestore provides the shared, high-
performance file system structure often required for content
management systems.
 Media Processing and Rendering: High-throughput, low-latency file
access is crucial for demanding workloads like media rendering and
processing, which Filestore's performance tiers can provide.
 Data Analysis: Filestore can serve as a shared data source for
analysis tools running on Compute Engine or GKE.

Why Other Options Are Not Ideal

Se
rv
O ic Why it's Not the Best Fit

Ar
ch
iv This is a storage class for Google Cloud Storage (GCS)
e designed for data that is accessed less than once a year. It's
A St meant for long-term backup and disaster recovery, not
or active use like file sharing or media processing.
ag
e

C Pe This is block storage that can only be attached to a single

rsi Compute Engine virtual machine (VM) at a time (though it
st can be attached to multiple VMs in read-only mode). It's not a
 en
t
native, multi-client, managed file sharing solution.
Di
sk

Lo This is ephemeral block storage physically attached to a host

ca VM, offering extremely high performance but no data
D l persistence beyond the life of the VM. It's unsuitable for any
SS persistent application data, file sharing, or long-term content
D management.
In summary, Filestore is the only option that is a fully managed, multi-client
file storage solution explicitly designed to support the shared access and
performance requirements of file sharing, content management, and
media processing.

Q43.

The correct Google Cloud product for building streaming data pipelines
without managing individual servers and that automatically scales is
Dataflow.

Explanation
The requirement is for a managed service that can handle streaming
data pipelines and automatically scale to process the data, removing the
need to manage individual servers.

 B. Dataflow: This is a fully managed, serverless service for stream

and batch data processing. It's based on the Apache Beam
programming model. It perfectly matches the requirements as it
 automatically scales resources and requires no server
management (it's serverless), making it the ideal choice for building
scalable streaming data pipelines.

Why the other options are incorrect:

 A. Pub/Sub: This is a fully managed real-time messaging service.

It's excellent for ingesting streaming data and decoupling components,
but it does not perform the data processing itself; it only handles
the transport of messages. You still need a compute service like
Dataflow to process the data coming from Pub/Sub.
 C. Data Catalog: This is a fully managed metadata management
service (a data discovery and governance tool). It doesn't process
data or build pipelines.
 D. Dataprep by Trifacta: This is a serverless data preparation
service for visually exploring, cleaning, and preparing data. While
serverless, its primary use case is interactive data transformation and
quality, not building and executing large-scale, general-purpose
streaming processing pipelines, which is Dataflow's core function.

Q44.

The correct answer is D. Organizational transformation.

When an organization adopts cloud technology to define and create new

ways of communicating and collaborating for its customers, employees, and
stakeholders, it's undergoing Organizational transformation.
Explanation
 Organizational transformation refers to significant, fundamental
changes in how an organization operates, often driven by the adoption
of new technologies (like cloud computing) to improve processes,
create new business models, and redefine interactions with all
stakeholders. The act of creating and defining new ways of
communication and collaboration is a core component of this change.
 A. A reduced need for security: This is incorrect. Adopting cloud
technology introduces new security considerations, not a reduced
need for security. Security remains paramount.
 B. The burning platform effect: This is a metaphor used to describe
an urgent and compelling need for change, often due to a crisis or
existential threat. While this can be a reason for adopting cloud
technology, the outcome described in the question (new ways of
collaborating) is the transformation itself, not the impetus.
 C. Virtualization of all business operations: This is too absolute
and often too narrow. While virtualization is a component of cloud
technology, the adoption described in the question goes beyond just
the technical aspect of virtualization to encompass the business
impact—new communication and collaboration methods. It's an
operational change, not just a technical one.

Q45.
Q46.

Q47.
Q48.

Analysis of the Question

Let's break down the three key requirements in the prompt:

1. "hierarchically organize and group resources": This is the most

important phrase. In Google Cloud, the fundamental resource hierarchy
is: Organization -> Folders -> Projects. All other resources (like
VMs, GKE clusters, or Artifact Registry repositories) live inside projects.
 2. "manage access control": This refers to managing who can do what.
In Google Cloud, this is done via IAM (Identity and Access
Management) policies. These policies can be set at the Organization,
Folder, or Project level and are inherited down the hierarchy.
3. "manage... configuration settings for container resources": This
is the most specific part. It means enforcing specific rules or settings
on resources like GKE clusters, Cloud Run services, or Artifact Registry.
This is primarily handled by the Organization Policy Service.

Evaluating the Options

 A. Eventarc: This service is for building event-driven architectures. It

connects services by routing events (e.g., "when a file is uploaded to a
bucket, trigger a Cloud Run service"). It does not organize resources or
manage broad access control. This is incorrect.
 B. Artifact Registry: This is the most common distractor for this
question.
o It is for "container resources" (specifically, container images).
o It does "manage access control" (you can set repository-level
IAM permissions).
o It does "hierarchically organize" in a limited sense (images are in
repositories, which are in projects).
o Why it's wrong: It fails the main requirement. It does not
manage the Organization -> Folder -> Project hierarchy. It
lives inside that hierarchy. You cannot use Artifact Registry to
group projects or apply overarching configuration rules to GKE
clusters. It only manages the images themselves.
 C. Container Registry: This is the legacy version of Artifact Registry.
It's less correct than option B for all the same reasons. This is
incorrect.
 D. Resource Manager API: This is the correct answer. Let's see why
it matches all three requirements perfectly:
o "hierarchically organize and group resources": This is the
definition of the Resource Manager API. It is the programmatic
interface for creating, managing, and organizing Organizations,
Folders, and Projects.
o "manage access control": The Resource Manager API is used
to set the IAM policies on Organizations, Folders, and Projects.
These policies are inherited by all resources within, including all
"container resources."
 o "manage... configuration settings for container
resources": This is handled by the Organization Policy
Service, which is part of the Resource Manager API. This service
allows you to set "constraints" that are enforced on all resources.
For example, you can create a policy that:
 Restricts which regions GKE clusters ("container
resources") can be created in.
 Enforces that all GKE clusters use specific node types.
 Disables the creation of public-facing load balancers for
container services.

Conclusion
The question is not about managing the container images themselves (which
would be Artifact Registry). It is about managing the governance, structure,
and security of the cloud environment where those container resources will
live.

This top-down, hierarchical management of projects, folders, IAM policies,

and organization-wide configuration rules is the precise and sole function of
the Resource Manager API.

Q49.
The Google Cloud product you should use to establish private network
connectivity between an on-premises network and Google Cloud workloads
as soon as possible is C. Cloud VPN.

Explanation
Cloud VPN (Virtual Private Network) is the fastest and most practical
solution for establishing a private, secure connection quickly.

 Speed and Ease of Setup: Cloud VPN uses the public internet to
establish an IPsec VPN tunnel between your on-premises VPN
gateway and the Google Cloud VPC network. Setting it up primarily
involves configuration on both ends, which can be done much faster
than provisioning dedicated physical connections.
 Use Case: It's designed specifically for connecting on-premises
networks to Google Cloud over an encrypted private tunnel.

Why not the others?

 A. Cloud Interconnect: This provides a dedicated, high-

bandwidth physical connection to Google Cloud. While offering
greater bandwidth and lower latency than VPN, it requires physical
provisioning, which takes significantly longer (weeks to months) to set
up and is therefore not suitable for the "as soon as possible"
requirement.
 B. Direct Peering: This is used for exchanging internet traffic
directly with Google, typically for large-scale public internet content
delivery or when an organization needs to access Google's public
services directly (like Google Workspace). It's not the primary service
for a private network connection between an organization's on-
premises network and its own Google Cloud workloads.
 D. Cloud CDN (Content Delivery Network): This is a service for
caching web content close to users to improve website performance
and reduce latency. It has nothing to do with establishing private
network connectivity between an on-premises data center and Google
Cloud.

Q50.
The correct Google Cloud solution for the detection and classification of
stored sensitive data across Cloud Storage, Datastore, and BigQuery is B.
Cloud Data Loss Prevention (Cloud DLP).

Explanation
Cloud Data Loss Prevention (Cloud DLP) is specifically designed to:

 Discover, classify, and protect sensitive data.

 Scan data across various Google Cloud services, including Cloud
Storage, Datastore, and BigQuery, as well as other data
repositories.
 Identify various types of sensitive information, such as credit card
numbers, Social Security numbers, names, and other personally
identifiable information (PII).
 Provide tools for de-identification and risk analysis.

The other options are not the primary or best-suited tools for this specific
task:

 A. Cloud Armor is a security service that provides protection

against DDoS and application attacks (like SQL injection and XSS)
 for applications deployed on Google Cloud. It's for network security,
not data classification.
 C. Risk Manager (likely referring to the security assessment features
within Security Command Center or a legacy tool) is too vague or not
the dedicated service for data classification.
 D. Security Command Center is a centralized security and risk
management platform that helps you gain visibility into your cloud
assets and security posture. While it can surface findings from Cloud
DLP, Cloud DLP is the actual service that performs the detection
and classification.

Q51.

The Google Cloud product your organization should use for developing a
mobile app and selecting a fully featured cloud-based compute platform is B.
Firebase.

Explanation
Firebase is the most appropriate choice because it is a comprehensive
application development platform designed specifically for mobile and web
applications. It provides a wide array of ready-to-use services—such as real-
time database, authentication, hosting, storage, analytics, and more—which
significantly speed up the development process for a "fully featured" app.
Why the Other Options are Less Suitable

 A. Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE): GKE is a powerful platform for

deploying, managing, and scaling containerized applications (using
Kubernetes). While it could host the backend of a mobile app, it is a
complex, infrastructure-focused solution that would require
significantly more setup and operational overhead compared to
Firebase, which is designed to handle many common mobile app needs
out-of-the-box.
 C. Cloud Functions: Cloud Functions is a serverless compute
platform for running small pieces of code (functions) in response to
events. It's excellent for specific backend tasks and integrations but is
generally used alongside other services (like Firebase or App Engine)
rather than as the single, "fully featured cloud-based compute
platform" for an entire mobile app.
 D. App Engine: App Engine is a Platform as a Service (PaaS)
offering for building and deploying web and mobile backends. It's a
strong contender, but Firebase is the solution specifically tailored and
marketed by Google for a fully featured mobile application
development experience, encompassing more than just compute (like
analytics, crash reporting, and user engagement tools) that are crucial
for a mobile app.

Q52.
Q53.

The Google Cloud product you should use to maintain custom Linux images
is B. Compute Engine.

Why Compute Engine is the Best Choice

Compute Engine provides Virtual Machines (VMs) that you can configure
with your own custom disk images. This is the standard, most direct way to
migrate and run internal applications that rely on specific, pre-built Linux
custom images on Google Cloud.

Here's a quick breakdown of why the other options are less suitable for
maintaining custom operating system images:

 A. App Engine flexible environment and C. App Engine standard

environment are Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) offerings primarily
focused on running application code. While the flexible environment
uses custom runtimes via Docker containers, it's generally not the
primary service for managing and maintaining VM-level custom OS
images for direct application migration. The standard environment is
even more restrictive.
 D. Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE) is a container orchestration
service. It runs Docker containers, not custom VM operating system
images directly. While you can containerize your application that was
previously using a custom image, the question asks which product to
use to maintain the custom images themselves, making Compute
Engine the most appropriate choice for managing the underlying VM
image resource.

Q54.
Comparison of candidate services by relevant attributes

Serve Document Mobile and Rich query

Product
rless database web SDKs engine
Memoryst No; in-memory key-
No No Limited
ore value
Cloud
No Wide-column store No Limited
Bigtable
Yes via
Cloud SQL No Relational (SQL) Yes (SQL)
REST/ORMs
Yes, native Yes, built-in Yes, powerful
Firestore Yes
document model SDKs queries

Recommended product

Firestore

Why Firestore fits

 Serverless managed service that scales automatically.

 Native document model designed for JSON-like documents and
hierarchical data.
 First-class mobile and web SDKs for real-time sync and offline
support.
 Powerful query capabilities including compound queries, indexing,
and real-time listeners.

Why the others are not the best match

 Memorystore is an in-memory cache for Redis/Memcached, not a

document database.
  Cloud Bigtable is a scalable wide-column store suited for time-series
and analytical workloads, not mobile/web document apps.
 Cloud SQL is a managed relational database that requires schema
design and is not serverless in the same way or optimized for real-time
mobile/web SDKs.

Final answer: D. Firestore.

Q55.

Based on the requirements in the image, the correct answer is D. Cloud

Spanner.

Here's a breakdown of why:

 Cloud Spanner is the only service listed that meets all the criteria. It's
a globally distributed, fully managed relational database that provides
strong transactional consistency (ACID) using SQL. It's specifically
designed to dynamically scale horizontally to handle massive
amounts of data ("at scale").

Why the other options are incorrect:

 A. BigQuery: This is Google Cloud's serverless data warehouse. It's
excellent for running analytical SQL queries (OLAP) on historical data at
scale, but it does not support transactional (OLTP) workloads.
 B. Cloud Bigtable: This is a NoSQL (wide-column) database. While it
scales massively, it does not use SQL and is not designed for the
multi-row ACID transactions implied by "transactional SQL."
 C. Pub/Sub: This is a messaging and event streaming service used for
ingesting data, not a database for storing and querying data.
Q56.

The correct answers are A. Web Client protection and B. Data

protection.

These responsibilities are part of the Shared Responsibility Model in

public cloud computing, where certain tasks are always retained by the
customer regardless of the service model (IaaS, PaaS, or SaaS).

Shared Responsibility in Public Cloud

In a public cloud environment, the customer and the cloud provider share the
security and management responsibilities, but the division changes
depending on the service model:

 Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS): The provider manages the

underlying infrastructure (servers, storage, networking, virtualization),
and the customer manages the operating system, middleware,
applications, and data.
 Platform as a Service (PaaS): The provider manages the operating
system and above, and the customer manages the application and
data.
 Software as a Service (SaaS): The provider manages almost
everything, including the application, but the customer still controls
access and data.

Always the Customer's Responsibility

Two key areas are always the responsibility of the customer across all cloud
service models:
 1. Data Protection (Option B): The customer is ultimately responsible
for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of their data and
content, including deciding where it resides, who has access to it, and
ensuring it is encrypted and backed up. This includes managing data
classification and compliance.
2. Web Client Protection (Option A): This refers to the security of the
devices and software used by the end-user to access the cloud
service (e.g., laptops, tablets, browsers, local applications). The
security of the connection endpoint is always the customer's or end-
user's responsibility.
 Patch Management (D) and Network Controls (C) are
responsibilities that shift. For instance, in an IaaS setup, the customer
handles Operating System Patch Management and Network
Controls within their virtual network. However, in a PaaS or SaaS
model, the cloud provider handles the patching of the
platform/application and much of the underlying network control.

Q57.

Q58.
Based on the image provided, the two correct answers are A and B.

Correct Answers Explained

 A. Implement log versioning on log buckets in Cloud Storage.

When logs are exported to Cloud Storage buckets for long-term retention,
enabling Object Versioning is a key step for integrity. This feature keeps a
history of all versions of an object (a log file, in this case). If a file is
overwritten or deleted (either accidentally or maliciously), the previous
versions are still retained and can be recovered. This creates a tamper-
evident audit trail.

 B. Copy the logs to another project with a different owner.

This is a fundamental security principle known as separation of duties. By

exporting or copying logs to a separate, dedicated project (e.g., an "audit" or
"security" project) that is owned by a different team (like the security or
compliance team), you isolate the logs. This ensures that even if an
administrator or service account in the application project is compromised,
they won't have the permissions to access, modify, or delete the logs in the
separate logging project.
Incorrect Answers Explained

 C. Set the logging level to only collect log output for critical messages.

This action affects the completeness or verbosity of the logs, not their
integrity. Reducing the log level only means less data is collected. It does
nothing to prevent the logs that are collected from being tampered with or
deleted.

 D. Export all log files to BigQuery.

Exporting logs to BigQuery is primarily done for analysis, querying, and

visualization, not for ensuring integrity. While BigQuery has security controls,
its main purpose in this context is to make large volumes of logs searchable.
The standard GCP practices for integrity and immutability focus on using
locked or versioned Cloud Storage buckets (as in option A) and strict access
controls via separate projects (as in option B).

Q59.

Q60.
Q61.

Q62.
Q63.

Q64.
Answer

A. App Engine

Explanation

 App Engine is a fully managed platform where developers only write

code and deploy with minimal configuration.
 Zero-configuration deployments are supported through standard
runtimes and built-in deployment workflows that abstract servers and
OS management.
 Developers do not manage infrastructure: App Engine handles
provisioning, patching, monitoring, and runtime maintenance.
 Automatic, high-granularity autoscaling handles traffic surges
without manual provisioning.
 Built-in security features (managed TLS, IAM integration, and
platform patching) reduce application exposure to common threats.

Why the other options do not match the requirements

 Cloud Functions is also serverless and good for single-purpose event-

driven code but is designed for functions, not full applications with
broader runtime needs; it may force architectural changes unsuitable
for general app development.
 Confidential VMs provide hardware-backed memory encryption and
require VM management, provisioning, and patching, so developers
must manage infrastructure.
  Eventarc is an event-routing service, not a hosting platform; it helps
deliver events to services but does not provide the managed, zero-
config application hosting described.
Q65.

The Google Cloud product your organization should use is A. Google

Kubernetes Engine cluster (GKE).

Here's a breakdown of why GKE is the best fit, based on the requirements:

Why Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE)?

GKE is a managed service for deploying, managing, and scaling
containerized applications using Kubernetes. It addresses all the stated
needs:

1. Fine-Grained Control Over Traffic Between Containers 🚦

Kubernetes, and by extension GKE, natively supports Network Policies.
These policies allow you to define rules for how Pods (which host your
containers) are allowed to communicate with each other, with external
endpoints, and with other services, providing the exact fine-grained
security control over traffic required. Furthermore, GKE often integrates
well with service mesh technologies like Istio (via Google Cloud's Anthos
Service Mesh), which offers even more advanced traffic management,
including mTLS, circuit breaking, and detailed routing rules.

2. Fine-Grained Control Over Scaling Policies 📈

Kubernetes provides extensive, fine-grained control over scaling through two
primary mechanisms:
  Horizontal Pod Autoscaler (HPA): This can automatically scale the
number of Pod replicas based on metrics like CPU utilization, memory
usage, or custom metrics from your application.
 Cluster Autoscaler: This automatically adds or removes nodes (VMs)
in the GKE cluster based on the demand of the workloads, ensuring
efficient use of resources.
 Custom Scaling Rules: You can implement complex, event-driven
scaling using tools like KEDA (Kubernetes Event-driven Autoscaling) or
custom metrics servers, giving maximum control over the operational
scaling needs.

3. Increasing Complexity and Container-Based

Application 📦
Kubernetes is specifically designed to manage complex, production-grade
containerized applications and microservices at scale. As the application
is expected to increase in complexity, GKE provides the necessary
orchestration, service discovery, load balancing, and self-healing
capabilities to manage a large number of interconnected services reliably.

Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable

 B. App Engine: Offers great simplicity but is generally more
opinionated and provides less fine-grained control over networking and
scaling rules than GKE. It abstracts away the container orchestration
layer.
 C. Cloud Run: An excellent serverless container platform focused on
simplicity and autoscaling to zero. While it handles containers, it is a
higher-level abstraction and does not offer the same level of fine-
grained Network Policy control between multiple services running
within a single platform/cluster environment that GKE provides.
 D. Compute Engine virtual machines: This would require you to
manage all the container orchestration, networking, and scaling logic
yourself (e.g., installing and managing Kubernetes or another
orchestration tool), which defeats the purpose of using a managed
container platform and adds significant operational overhead.

Q66.
The correct Google Cloud compute service for the scenario described is
Cloud Run.

Here's why:

Cloud Run is a fully managed, serverless compute platform that

enables you to deploy containerized applications that can be invoked via
web requests or events.

Key Benefits for the Scenario

 Serverless and Fully Managed: The most critical requirement is to
have "no infrastructure management problems." Cloud Run
handles all the underlying infrastructure, operating system patching,
and scaling, completely eliminating the need for the Cloud Engineers
to worry about servers. This is the definition of a fully managed,
serverless service.
 Containerized Applications: Cloud Run is designed specifically for
containerized applications, which fits the team's development
approach.
 Invokable via Requests or Events: The application needs to be
invokable via "requests or events." Cloud Run supports both:
o Requests: It can serve HTTP requests (like a standard web
service).
 o Events: It can be triggered by events from various Google Cloud
sources (like a new image being uploaded to Cloud Storage)
using Cloud Run for Anthos or by integrating with Cloud
Pub/Sub or Cloud Functions.

The other options are incorrect because:

 A. Cloud Build: This is a CI/CD (Continuous Integration/Continuous

Deployment) service used for building software and containers, not for
running the final application.
 B. Cloud Code: This is a set of IDE extensions (for VS Code and
IntelliJ) to help developers write, run, and debug applications for
Kubernetes and Cloud Run, not the actual compute service.
 D. Cloud Deploy: This is a CD (Continuous Delivery) service used to
manage and automate deployments to target environments like
Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE) and Cloud Run, not the runtime
environment itself.

Q67.

The Google Cloud product that makes specific recommendations based on

security risks and compliance violations is B. Security Command
Center.

Security Command Center

Security Command Center (SCC) is a risk and vulnerability
management service for Google Cloud. It provides a centralized view of
your security and data risk posture across all your Google Cloud resources.

Key functions of Security Command Center include:

  Asset Inventory: Discovering and inventorying all your Google Cloud
assets.
 Vulnerability Detection: Identifying misconfigurations,
vulnerabilities, and threats.
 Compliance Monitoring: Checking compliance against industry
benchmarks and standards.
 Actionable Recommendations: Crucially, it provides specific
recommendations to help you fix security risks, correct
misconfigurations, and address compliance violations.

Why the other options are incorrect:

 A. Google Cloud firewalls: These are network security features that

control traffic access to and from your virtual machine (VM) instances.
They enforce rules but don't provide centralized risk recommendations.
 C. Cloud Deployment Manager: This is an infrastructure automation
tool that uses configuration files to provision resources. It's for creating
and managing infrastructure, not for security monitoring and
recommendations.
 D. Google Cloud Armor: This is a security service that provides
DDoS protection and a Web Application Firewall (WAF) for
applications running on Google Cloud. While a security product, its
primary function is protection from attacks, not comprehensive risk
assessment and recommendation across the entire environment.

Q68.
Q69.

The correct answer is D. Anthos.

Explanation
Anthos is Google Cloud's modern application platform that provides a
consistent way to manage your applications and infrastructure across on-
premises data centers, Google Cloud, and other public clouds (multi-
cloud).

 It delivers a consistent platform by leveraging open-source

technologies like Kubernetes.
 It extends other Google Cloud services (like Cloud Run, Config
Management, Service Mesh, and Logging/Monitoring) to your
 organization's environment, regardless of where your applications are
running.

Why the other options are incorrect:

 A. Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE): While GKE is a core part of

Anthos, it is primarily a managed Kubernetes service on Google Cloud.
Anthos is the product that specifically focuses on extending this
functionality for multi-cloud and hybrid deployments.
 B. Virtual Public Cloud (VPC): VPC is a networking service that
allows you to provision a logically isolated section of the Google Cloud,
but it doesn't serve as a consistent platform for multi-cloud application
deployment and service extension.
 C. Compute Engine: This is Google Cloud's Infrastructure as a Service
(IaaS) offering for running virtual machines. It is a fundamental
compute resource, not the overarching platform for multi-cloud
consistency and service extension.

Q70.

The correct Google Cloud solution to protect your website from bots and
ensure it's accessed only by human users is A. reCAPTCHA Enterprise.

Why reCAPTCHA Enterprise?

reCAPTCHA Enterprise is specifically designed to detect and prevent
automated, malicious traffic (like bots and spam) on websites. It works by
analyzing interactions to distinguish between human users and automated
software, offering a robust defense against various types of abuse without
disrupting the experience for legitimate users.
The scenario—a public website that allows user uploads and text input,
experiencing suspicious traffic, likely from bots creating spam memes—is a
perfect use case for reCAPTCHA Enterprise.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect

 B. Policy Troubleshooter: This is a tool used to understand and
debug Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on Google
Cloud. It's for security configuration within Google Cloud, not for
protecting a public-facing website from spam bots.
 C. Web Risk: This is a Google Cloud service that lets client
applications check URLs against Google's constantly updated
lists of unsafe web resources (like phishing and malware sites). It
helps warn users about malicious links, but it doesn't prevent bots
from interacting with your meme-creation application.
 D. Cloud Identity: This is Google's Identity as a Service (IDaaS)
solution, providing identity and access management for Google Cloud
and other applications. It's used for managing user accounts and
logins, not for bot detection on a public website.

Q71.

Based on the requirements of storing files, graphical images, and videos

economically while ensuring secure access and sharing, the best Google
Cloud product would be A. Cloud Storage.

Q72.
The correct cloud computing model is A. Serverless computing.

Serverless computing allows developers to build and run applications and

services without having to manage the underlying infrastructure. The cloud
provider handles all the infrastructure management tasks, such as
provisioning, scaling, and maintenance. This perfectly aligns with the Head of
AppDev's goal to free developers from infrastructure and
management tasks so they can focus entirely on creating the new
customer preference analysis and suggestion service.

Why Serverless Computing is the Best Fit

 Focus on Code: Developers write and deploy code (often as
functions), and the cloud provider executes it in response to events
(like a customer opening the app or finishing an order).
 No Infrastructure Management: The developers don't have to
worry about managing servers, operating systems, or capacity
planning. The cloud handles all of that, including automatically scaling
the service up or down as demand fluctuates. This directly addresses
the requirement of freeing developers from management tasks.
 Cost Efficiency: You typically only pay for the compute time
consumed when your code is running, which is often very cost-
effective for event-driven or intermittent workloads like analyzing
orders and making suggestions.

Why Other Options Are Not the Best Fit

 B. IoT (Internet of Things): This refers to a network of physical
objects embedded with sensors and software. While the food delivery
 service uses applications, it doesn't primarily deal with a network of
physical, connected devices in the typical IoT sense.
 C. High-performance computing (HPC): This involves processing
very large data sets and performing complex calculations at extremely
high speeds. While the analysis part of the service is intensive, HPC
usually refers to specialized, expensive infrastructure for scientific or
large-scale modeling problems, not the most efficient model for
general application development and freeing developers from
infrastructure tasks.
 D. Edge Computing: This involves processing data closer to where
it's created, at the "edge" of the network, to reduce latency. This might
be used to improve the speed of the suggestion service, but it's a
location strategy, not a development model that inherently frees
developers from infrastructure management like Serverless does.

Q73.

The correct Google Cloud product your organization should choose is A.

BigQuery ML.

Here's a breakdown of why:

Why BigQuery ML is the Best Choice

BigQuery ML (BQML) allows you to create and execute machine learning
models using standard SQL queries directly within BigQuery, your data
warehouse.

 Leverages Database Skills: Since your team has strong database-

related skills and only basic machine learning skills, BQML is ideal. It
enables them to train, evaluate, and predict with ML models using
familiar SQL commands, eliminating the need to learn complex, low-
level ML frameworks.
  Directly on Data: The training is done directly on the data already
stored in BigQuery, simplifying the data preparation and movement
process.

Why the Other Options Aren't as Suitable

Pr
od
uct
O / Why it's less suitable for this scenario
Fe
atu
re

This is the modeling language used within Looker (a business

Lo
intelligence and data application platform). It's used for defining
B ok dimensions, measures, and relationships for data analysis and
ML
visualization, not for building machine learning models.

Te
This is an open-source machine learning framework that
ns
requires advanced machine learning skills and coding
C orF knowledge (e.g., Python). It is not suitable for a team with only
lo
basic ML skills who want to use their database knowledge.
w

This is a managed relational database service (e.g., for MySQL,

Clo
PostgreSQL, SQL Server). While it's great for transactional
ud
D SQ databases, it's primarily a storage and management service,
and it does not have the native, SQL-based ML capabilities that
L
BigQuery ML offers.

Q74.

The correct cloud computing concept is A. Elasticity.

Explanation
Elasticity is the defining feature of cloud computing that allows the
automatic and rapid scaling of computing resources (like virtual machines,
storage, and networking) both up (increasing resources) and down
(decreasing resources) to precisely match the current workload demand.

 This process ensures you have enough capacity during peak traffic
while also saving costs by reducing unused resources during low-
demand periods.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

D
e
fi
Optio n
Concept
n it
i
o
n

B.
Fault The ability of a system to continue operating without
toler interruption even when one or more of its components fail.
ance

C.
Distributing incoming application traffic across multiple
Load
servers to prevent any single server from becoming a
balan
bottleneck.
cing

D.
High Designing a system to remain operational for a very high
avail percentage of the time, often by minimizing downtime due
abilit to component failure.
y

Q75.
The correct choice for migrating a MySQL database from another cloud
provider to Google Cloud SQL with minimal disruption and secure data transit
is C. Database Migration Service.

Explanation
The Database Migration Service (DMS) by Google Cloud is specifically
designed for this type of scenario.

 Minimal Disruption (Near-zero downtime): DMS supports

continuous migration (or online migration) where it replicates
changes from the source database to the Cloud SQL target. This allows
the application to continue using the original database while the bulk
of the data is moved, and you only need a quick cutover at the end,
minimizing downtime.
 Target: It is designed to migrate databases to Cloud SQL (which
supports MySQL).
 Secure Transit: DMS secures data by using VPC peering and an
encrypted connection between the source and Google Cloud.

Why the other options are incorrect:

 A. BigQuery Data Transfer Service: This service is for moving data
into BigQuery, Google Cloud's serverless data warehouse, not into the
operational database service Cloud SQL.
 B. MySQL batch insert: This is a method for loading data, not a
complete migration service. It doesn't inherently provide the
continuous replication, minimal downtime, or secure, managed
 connection needed for a production migration from one cloud to
another. It would likely involve significant manual effort and downtime.
 D. Cloud Composer: This is a managed Apache Airflow service for
workflow orchestration. It's used for scheduling and managing data
pipelines and ETL processes, not for the actual migration of a working
database instance.

Q76.

The prompt asks for the best way to fully isolate development workloads
from production workloads on Google Cloud while keeping spending
tracking as simple as possible.

The correct answer is D. Put the development resources in their own

project.

Explanation
On Google Cloud, the Project is the fundamental unit for organizing
resources. It acts as a container for resources and is the main boundary for
isolation and billing.

 Isolation: A Google Cloud Project provides strong logical and

administrative separation. Resources in one project are fully isolated
by default from resources in another project, including Compute
Engine virtual machines, Cloud Storage buckets, and networking
configurations. This is the simplest and most robust way to ensure
development and production environments are kept completely
separate.
  Simple Spending Tracking: Billing is associated with a specific
project. By putting development resources into a separate project from
production resources, all costs associated with development are
automatically rolled up and tracked under the development project's
billing ID. This makes spending tracking straightforward, as you can
see the cost breakdown by the project itself.

Why the Other Options are Less Effective

 A. Apply a unique tag to development resources: Tags can help

with billing reporting and filtering, but they do not provide resource
isolation. Resources in the same project, even with different tags, can
still interact (e.g., in the same network or security context).
 B. Associate the development resources with their own
network: While using separate Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs) would
provide network isolation, it doesn't isolate the resources at the
administrative or billing level. The resources might still share the same
project, IAM policies, and billing account, complicating overall isolation
and spending analysis.
 C. Associate the development resources with their own billing
account: This would achieve separate spending tracking (addressing
the second part of the prompt), but it does not provide resource
isolation. A project can change which billing account it uses, and two
projects associated with two different billing accounts can still be
logically or functionally connected (e.g., share a service network or be
under the same organization). Furthermore, resources within the same
project can't be split across different billing accounts. The isolation is
at the project level, not the billing account level.

Therefore, using a separate project for development is the single best

practice that simultaneously ensures full resource isolation and
simplifies cost tracking.

Q77.
Based on the scenario, the correct answer is D.

Explanation
The key requirement in the question is to "modernize workloads as much
as possible by adopting cloud-native technologies."

 Cloud-native technologies primarily refer to concepts like

containers, microservices, and managed services (like Kubernetes).
 Migrate for Anthos (now part of Google Cloud Migrate) is a tool
specifically designed to take existing virtual machines (VMs) and
automatically convert them into containers running on Google
Kubernetes Engine (GKE) or Anthos clusters.

This directly achieves the goal of modernization, moving from a VM-based

architecture to a more flexible and scalable container-based (cloud-native)
architecture.

Why the other options are incorrect:

 A. Export... into Compute Engine: This is a "lift-and-shift"

migration. You are just moving the VM from your data center to a VM in
Google Cloud. This is not modernization.
 B. Export... into Google Cloud VMware Engine: This is also a "lift-
and-shift" migration, specifically moving your VMware VMs to a
managed VMware environment in Google Cloud. This provides cloud
benefits but does not modernize the workload itself into a cloud-native
format.
  C. Migrate... using Migrate for Compute Engine: This tool
(formerly Velostrata) is excellent for migrating VMs to Compute Engine
(IaaS) quickly and efficiently. However, like option A, the end result is
still a VM, not a modernized, containerized workload.

Q78.
Q79.

The correct answer is B. Enroll in Enhanced Support.

Here’s a breakdown of why:

 1. Analyze the Requirements: The key requirements are that the
application is "critical" and needs a "2-hour SLA" (Service Level
Agreement), and the goal is to "minimize costs." In the context of
support, SLA refers to the target response time for critical issues.
2. Evaluate Google Cloud Support Tiers:
a. Basic Support: Free, but offers no technical support or
guaranteed response times. Not suitable for a critical application.
b. Standard Support: Offers a 4-hour target response time for P1
(critical impact) issues. This does not meet the 2-hour
requirement.
c. Enhanced Support: Offers a 1-hour target response time for P1
issues. This meets the 2-hour requirement.
d. Premium Support: Offers a 15-minute target response time for
P1 issues. This also meets the requirement, but it is the most
expensive support tier.
3. Conclusion: To meet the 2-hour SLA while also minimizing costs,
Enhanced Support is the appropriate choice. It's the least expensive
plan that provides a faster response time (1 hour) than the 2-hour
requirement.

P1 (Critical P2 (High
Supp Impact) Impact)
ort Target Target Cost Consideration
Plan Response Response
Time Time

A.
Pre
Highest cost (high minimum
miu
15 minutes 2 hours monthly fee and percentage of
m
spend).
Supp
ort

B.
Enha Moderate cost (lower minimum
nced 1 hour 4 hours monthly fee and percentage of
Supp spend than Premium).
ort

C. 1 hour 4 hours Lower cost, but does not meet

 Stan
dard
the 2-hour SLA for P2.
Supp
ort

D.
Lowest cost, but only covers
Basi
billing/payment issues; does
c N/A N/A
not provide technical
Supp
support SLA.
ort

Q80.

The correct choice is B. Identity Platform.

This Google Cloud service is specifically designed for Customer Identity

and Access Management (CIAM), which fits your requirement to check
and maintain users' usernames and passwords (authentication) and
control their access to different resources based on their identity
(authorization) for public mobile apps and websites.

Why Identity Platform is the Best Choice

Identity Platform is Google Cloud's robust, fully managed service for
securing customer-facing applications. It provides the following
functionalities that directly address your needs:

 User Management: It handles the entire lifecycle of user accounts,

including sign-up, sign-in, and account management, which covers
checking and maintaining usernames and passwords.
 Authentication: It supports various sign-in options, such as
email/password, phone numbers, and popular social identity providers
 (Google, Facebook, Twitter, etc.), which is crucial for public-facing
applications.
 Authorization: It integrates with other Google Cloud services (like
Firebase and Google Cloud IAM) to control access to resources based
on the verified user identity.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect

 A. VPN tunnels: Virtual Private Network tunnels are used to create
secure, private connections between networks, typically for site-to-
site connectivity or secure remote access for employees. They
are not an identity management solution for public application users.
 C. Compute Engine firewall rules: These rules manage network
traffic to and from virtual machine instances. They control access
based on IP addresses, ports, and protocols, not on a user's identity
(username and password).
 D. Private Google Access: This service allows virtual machines in a
Google Cloud Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) network to access Google
APIs and services using internal IP addresses instead of external ones,
which is a network connectivity feature for private instances, not a
user identity management solution.

Q81.

The service that lets you build machine learning (ML) models using
Standard SQL and your data already stored in a data warehouse is:

A. BigQuery ML
Explanation
BigQuery ML (BQML) is Google Cloud's feature that allows data analysts
and data scientists to create and execute machine learning models directly
within BigQuery, Google's serverless data warehouse.

The key benefit, which directly answers the question, is that BQML uses
Standard SQL syntax. You can train, evaluate, and predict with models (like
linear regression, logistic regression, k-means clustering, etc.) using simple
CREATE MODEL and SELECT statements, eliminating the need to learn
specialized programming languages like Python or export your data to
another platform.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

 B. TensorFlow: TensorFlow is an open-source ML framework, typically

used with Python. While it can be used with BigQuery data, it does not
allow you to build models using only Standard SQL within the BigQuery
console.
 C. AutoML Tables: This is a no-code/low-code service for training
tabular data models, but it does not use Standard SQL as the primary
language for model creation; it relies on a managed UI and API.
 D. Cloud Bigtable ML: Cloud Bigtable is a NoSQL database, not a
data warehouse, and it does not have a dedicated, integrated ML
feature called "Cloud Bigtable ML."

Q82.

A. Purchase committed use discounts for the baseline load

Explanation
Here's a breakdown of why this is the best strategy and why the other
options are incorrect:

 A. Purchase committed use discounts for the baseline load:

This is the correct answer. The workload has a predictable "baseline
level" that is always running. Committed Use Discounts (CUDs)
provide the deepest discounts (significantly more than sustained use
discounts) in exchange for a 1 or 3-year commitment. By purchasing
CUDs for this known baseline, the organization locks in the lowest
possible price for the resources it knows it will always be using. The
"spike" workload can then be handled by regular on-demand instances
(which can scale up and down), ensuring you only pay for the extra
capacity when it's needed.
 B. Purchase committed use discounts for the expected spike
load: This is financially inefficient. If you commit to the spike level, you
will be paying for those committed resources even during the
"baseline" periods when they are not being used. This would increase,
not control, your costs.
 C. Leverage sustained use discounts for your virtual machines:
Sustained Use Discounts (SUDs) are applied automatically to VMs that
run for a significant portion of the month. While the baseline VMs
would receive these, SUDs offer a smaller discount than CUDs. The
question asks what the organization should do to control costs.
Actively purchasing CUDs is a more effective and deliberate cost-
optimization action for a known, continuous baseline.
 D. Run the workload on preemptible VM instances: This is a poor
choice for this specific workload. The problem states the processing
"takes hours to create a result for each image." Preemptible VMs (now
called Spot VMs) can be shut down (preempted) by Google at any time
with very little notice. If a VM is preempted 3 hours into a 4-hour job,
all that computational work is lost. This makes preemptible VMs
unsuitable for long-running, non-interruptible tasks.

Q83.
The correct answer is: ✅ B. Define your resource hierarchy with an
organization node on top

Explanation:

When migrating to Google Cloud, the best practice is to start by properly

setting up your resource hierarchy, which provides structure, security, and
governance for all your resources.

 Organization node — represents your entire company and is the root

of the resource hierarchy.
 Folders — group projects by departments or teams.
 Projects — contain resources like VMs, databases, etc.

This setup helps:

 Apply IAM policies at appropriate levels (organization, folder, project).

 Manage billing and access control centrally.
 Scale cleanly as your cloud usage grows.

Why others are wrong:

 A. Creating projects per department might be part of the structure but

should come after defining the organization hierarchy.
 C. Creating projects based on team requests is ad-hoc and not a best
practice.
 D. Giving everyone project owner access is a major security risk.

✅ Correct Answer: B. Define your resource hierarchy with an

organization node on top
Q84.

❌ Option A: Purchase a commitment per project for each

project's usual minimum

 Inefficient. Since each project’s usage fluctuates, you risk

underutilization of commitments in some projects while others might
exceed theirs. This leads to wasted spend.

❌ Option B: Create a billing account per project

 Wrong direction. Splitting billing accounts removes the ability to

share discounts and makes cost management harder. It increases
overhead instead of reducing cost.

✅ Option C: Turn on committed use discount sharing, and

create a commitment for the combined usage

 Correct. With CUD sharing enabled, all projects under the same
billing account can share the pool of committed resources.
 Since the aggregate usage is stable, you can safely commit at the
combined level and maximize discount utilization.
 This avoids the risk of overcommitting per project and ensures the
discount applies broadly.
 ❌ Option D: Move all workloads into one single
consolidated project

 Not necessary. Google Cloud best practices encourage separating

workloads into projects for isolation, IAM, and quota management.
Consolidating into one project just for billing is a bad practice.

✅ Correct Answer: C. Turn on committed use discount sharing, and

create a commitment for the combined usage.

Since you’re actively preparing for Google Cloud exams and interviews,
here’s a decision table you can reuse for similar questions:

Scenario Best Practice

Multiple projects, fluctuating usage, stable
Enable CUD sharing at billing account level
combined usage
Single project, predictable steady usage Buy CUDs for that project
Consider Sustained Use Discounts
Highly variable, unpredictable workloads
(SUDs) or on-demand
Keep projects separate, link to same billing
Need workload isolation but shared billing
account

Q85.
The correct approach for a multinational organization migrating to Google
Cloud to ensure compliance with global security and privacy standards is A.
Comply with data security and privacy regulations in each
geographical region.

Here's why:

 Regional Regulations are Key 🔑: Security and privacy regulations

are often jurisdictional. A multinational organization processes data
in many different countries, and each country or region (like the
European Union, with GDPR) has its own specific set of laws. The
organization must adhere to the strictest applicable law for the data
it handles in that specific location.
 No Universal Superseding Standard ❌: Neither international
standards (Option C) nor regional standards (Option B) automatically
supersede all others. Global compliance means satisfying the
requirements of every jurisdiction where data is collected, stored, or
processed.
 Scope 🌍: Option D incorrectly prioritizes data security over privacy and
focuses only on regional regulations without emphasizing compliance
in each region where the organization operates.

Therefore, the organization must implement policies and controls that satisfy
the data security and privacy requirements of every geographical region
it operates in.

Would you like to know more about Google Cloud's specific compliance
offerings that help with these regulations?

Q86.
To optimize the cost for this workload, you should choose the 3-year
committed use discount for 200 CPUs (Option C).

Here's the breakdown of the logic:

Workload Requirements
The organization has the following CPU requirements for the next 3 years:

 Baseline Load: 200 CPUs constantly (100% of the time).

 Peak Load: An additional 100 CPUs (totaling 300 CPUs)
approximately 30% of the time.

💰 Cost Optimization Strategy

The goal is to cover the constant, baseline workload with the maximum
possible discount, as this usage is guaranteed for the longest period (3
years).

 Constant Load (200 CPUs): Since you are guaranteed to use 200
CPUs for the full 3 years, securing a 3-year committed use
discount (CUD) for this amount provides the largest and most reliable
savings. CUDs offer the best discounts for predictable, long-term
usage.
 Spike Load (Additional 100 CPUs): The usage of the additional 100
CPUs is unpredictable and only occurs 30% of the time. Committing to
this variable usage for 3 years (Option B) would mean paying for
capacity you won't use 70% of the time, leading to wasted expense.
For these variable spikes, it is most cost-effective to use the regular
pay-as-you-go pricing on the extra 100 CPUs when they are needed.

✅ Evaluation of Options
Co
mm T
itte e
O d Evaluation
r
CPU m
s
 1

200
y The 3-year term gives a better discount than 1 year. This is
A CPU e sub-optimal.
s
a
r

300 y Committing to 300 CPUs means paying for the extra 100
B CPU e CPUs even when they are not in use (70% of the time),
s a resulting in wasted spend.
r
s

200 y Optimal. This covers the constant 3-year baseline with

C CPU e the maximum CUD. The spikes (30% of the time) will be
s a covered by cheaper pay-as-you-go pricing.
r
s

N Using only pay-as-you-go pricing is the most expensive

D N/A / option and misses out on the huge savings from a 3-year
A CUD for the baseline 200 CPUs.
The correct choice is C. You lock in the maximum discount for the
predictable, constant load of 200 CPUs over the entire 3-year period, and
pay-as-you-go for the remaining variable usage.

Q87.
The correct choice to minimize data traffic costs from the Google network
to the internet is:

A. Choose the Standard network service tier.

💡 Explanation of Network Service Tiers

Google Cloud offers two network service tiers: Premium and Standard.

 Premium Tier: This is the default and provides the lowest latency
and highest quality by routing traffic over Google's global fiber
network for the majority of the path. However, it is also the more
expensive option, as the cost for data transfer out (egress traffic) is
generally higher.
 Standard Tier: This tier routes traffic over the public internet for
the last mile, closer to the destination, using Google's network only
within a region. Because it uses the public internet for part of the route
and provides a "best-effort" quality of service, it is offered at a
significantly lower price point than the Premium Tier. This makes
the Standard Tier the best choice for organizations focused on cost
minimization.

🚫 Why the Other Options are Incorrect

 B. Choose the Premium network service tier: This tier is more
expensive than the Standard tier, which is the opposite of the goal to
minimize costs.
 C. Deploy Cloud VPN: Cloud VPN is used for securely connecting on-
premises networks to a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) network. While it
has associated costs, it doesn't directly control the egress cost
from the Google network to the general internet.
 D. Deploy Cloud NAT: Cloud NAT (Network Address Translation)
allows instances without external IP addresses to connect to the
internet. While it can introduce charges, it's a mechanism for
connectivity and not a choice for minimizing the cost per GB of
data transferred to the internet.

Q88.
The correct option is B. Artifact Registry and Cloud Storage.

Here's why:

 Artifact Registry is used for securely storing and managing container

images. It is the appropriate Google Cloud product for migrating and
housing your container images.
 Cloud Storage is Google Cloud's object storage service and is
commonly used as a secure, durable, and highly available staging or
final location for migrating and storing large objects, including virtual
machine disks (VM disk images).

❌ Why the other options are incorrect:

 A. Compute Engine and Filestore:

o Compute Engine is for running VMs, not primarily for storing or
migrating VM disk images or container images.
o Filestore is a managed file storage service (Network File
System/NFS), not the standard tool for VM disk images or
container images.
 C. Dataflow and BigQuery:
o Dataflow is a unified stream and batch data processing service.
o BigQuery is an enterprise data warehouse.
o Neither is used for migrating and storing VM disks or container
images.
 D. Pub/Sub and Cloud Storage:
o Pub/Sub is an asynchronous messaging service. It's not involved
in storing these artifacts.
 o While Cloud Storage is correct for VM disks, Pub/Sub is
incorrect for container images.

Q89.

The correct answer is ✅ C. Assign the proper role to the Google Group
in the project's IAM Policy.

🧠 Here's why:

Google Cloud IAM supports using Google Groups as principals in IAM

policies. If your company manages access via an LDAP directory group, you
can sync that LDAP group with a Google Group using Cloud Identity or
Google Workspace. Once synced:

 You can assign IAM roles directly to the Google Group.

 All members of the LDAP group (now reflected in the Google Group)
inherit the permissions granted to that group.
 This approach centralizes access control and aligns with enterprise
identity management.

🔍 Why the other options are incorrect:

 A. Service Account roles are for workload identities, not human

users or LDAP groups.
 B. Granting roles/iam.serviceAccountUser to individuals is valid
in some contexts, but it doesn’t reflect LDAP group-based access
control.
 D. Creating a project in a folder named after the LDAP group
has no bearing on IAM permissions—it’s just a naming convention.
Let me know if you’d like a quick decision table comparing IAM principals or
a cheat sheet for LDAP integration with Google Cloud Identity.

Q90.

The two Google Cloud cost management features that help an organization
gain greater visibility into its cloud resource costs are:

 A. Billing dashboards
 B. Resource labels

🔎 Explanation
 A. Billing dashboards: These provide a centralized view of your
spending, trends, and forecasts across all your Google Cloud services.
They are essential for gaining visibility into total cloud expenditures
and identifying areas of high cost.
 B. Resource labels (or tags): These allow you to apply key-value
pairs (like environment:production, department:marketing, or
cost-center:123) to your Google Cloud resources. By applying labels,
you can then filter and group your billing data to understand exactly
which projects, teams, or applications are generating specific
costs, thus significantly increasing cost visibility.

Why the others are incorrect:

 C. Sustained use discounts: This is a mechanism for reducing

costs (a discount feature), not a tool for gaining cost visibility.
 D. Financial governance policies: These are broader organizational
rules or processes for managing finances, but they are not specific
 Google Cloud features that provide direct cost visibility or detailed
billing data segmentation.
 E. Payments profile: This contains information about who pays for
the resources (payment method, contact info) but does not provide
dashboards, reporting, or resource-level detail to improve cost
visibility.

Q91.

The correct choice for your organization is D. Dataflow.

Here's why:

Dataflow: Fully Managed Stream and Batch Processing 🌊

The requirements are to:

1. Process large amounts of data from a continuous online application

(implying stream processing).
2. Avoid provisioning infrastructure or creating server clusters
(requiring a fully managed, serverless service).
 Dataflow is a fully managed, serverless service for unified stream
and batch data processing, based on the Apache Beam programming
model. It automatically provisions and manages the necessary
compute resources, scaling them up or down as needed. This
perfectly meets the requirement to avoid infrastructure provisioning
and server clusters.
Why the Other Options are Incorrect ❌

 A. Compute Engine with BigQuery: Compute Engine is

Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS), requiring you to provision and
manage virtual machines (VMs), which violates the requirement to
avoid provisioning infrastructure. BigQuery is for data
warehousing/analytics, not continuous stream processing.
 B. Dataproc: Dataproc is a fully managed service for running Apache
Hadoop and Spark clusters. While it's managed, it still involves
creating and managing clusters (even if simplified), which goes
against the requirement to avoid creating server clusters.
 C. Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE) with Cloud Bigtable: GKE is
a managed service for running containerized applications, but it still
requires significant cluster configuration and management
(defining nodes, auto-scaling, etc.), violating the serverless
requirement. Cloud Bigtable is a NoSQL database, not a data
processing service.

In summary, Dataflow is the only option that is both designed for

continuous, large-scale data processing (stream/batch) and is truly
serverless, eliminating the need to provision or manage clusters.

Q92.

Q93.
Q94.

The best course of action for your organization is to contact Cloud Billing
Support (option C), as they are responsible for handling billing-related issues,
including correcting mistakes with committed use discounts.

Q95.

The correct answer is C. The Compute Engine service account.

🔑 Rationale
In Google Cloud, when a Compute Engine instance needs to access a
Google Cloud resource like a BigQuery dataset, the access is typically
managed through an IAM service account associated with the instance.

 Service Account as Identity: The Compute Engine instance runs as

the identity of its attached service account. This service account is the
entity that you grant permissions to.
 IAM Policy: The IAM Policy on the BigQuery dataset defines who (the
principal) can access the data and what (the role) they can do.
 Applying Permissions: To allow the production job to access the
dataset, you must add the service account (which acts as the
principal for the job/instance) to the BigQuery dataset's IAM policy and
grant it the appropriate BigQuery role (e.g., BigQuery Data Viewer).

The other options are incorrect:

 A. The Compute Engine instance group: Instance groups are for

managing collections of instances; they are not an IAM principal that
can be granted permissions.
 B. The project that owns the Compute Engine instance: Granting
permissions at the project level is too broad and violates the principle
of least privilege. While the project contains the service account, you
should grant permissions directly to the specific service account.
 D. The Compute Engine instance: A specific Compute Engine
instance is not an IAM principal. Its identity for access purposes is the
service account attached to it.

Therefore, the service account is the specific identity that must be included
in the IAM Policy.

Q96.
The key difference between Migrate for Compute Engine and Migrate
for Anthos lies in their migration targets:

 Migrate for Compute Engine → moves workloads into Google

Cloud VMs (lift-and-shift style migration).
 Migrate for Anthos → transforms workloads into containers that run
on Kubernetes (Anthos or GKE).

So the correct answer is:

D. Migrate for Anthos migrates to containers, and Migrate for

Compute Engine migrates to virtual machines.

💡 Quick way to remember:

 Compute Engine = VMs

 Anthos = Containers

Q97.
The correct way for an organization with a large, frequently changing, on-
premises LDAP database to provision Google accounts and groups to
access Google Cloud resources is to use Google Cloud Directory Sync
(GCDS).

The correct option is C.

🧐 Why GCDS is the Right Choice

Google Cloud Directory Sync (GCDS) is a tool provided by Google to
synchronize user and group data from an existing directory (like LDAP or
Microsoft Active Directory) to Google Workspace (which manages the
Google accounts used for Google Cloud access).

 Synchronization: GCDS is specifically designed to bridge the gap

between an on-premises directory and Google's cloud identity
system, automatically creating, updating, and suspending users and
groups based on the LDAP data.
 Central Management: It allows the organization to keep its on-
premises LDAP database as the single source of truth for user
identity information, ensuring consistency and simplified
administration.
 Handling Changes: Since the organization is "large and frequently
changing," GCDS's automated synchronization is essential for
maintaining accurate user and group membership in Google
Workspace/Cloud.
❌ Why Other Options Are Incorrect
 A. Replicate the LDAP infrastructure on Compute Engine: This
creates a duplicate, introduces complexity, and doesn't directly solve
the provisioning and synchronization challenge between the on-
premises LDAP and Google's identity service.
 B. Use the Firebase Authentication REST API to create users:
Firebase Authentication is primarily a service for authenticating end-
users of mobile or web applications, not for enterprise-wide
synchronization of corporate identities from an on-premises LDAP for
Google Cloud access.
 D. Use the Identity Platform REST API to create users: Google
Cloud Identity Platform is an advanced customer identity and access
management (CIAM) platform. While powerful, it's not the standard
tool for bulk synchronization of enterprise user data from an on-
premises LDAP to Google Workspace/Cloud. GCDS is the purpose-
built synchronization tool for this specific scenario.

💡 Quick Tip for Interviews/Exams: When you see “on-prem LDAP/AD” +

“provision Google accounts/groups”, the keyword to lock onto is Google
Cloud Directory Sync (GCDS). It’s the bridge between enterprise
directories and Google Cloud.

Q98.

Q99.
Q100.

The correct Google Cloud product for the organization's needs is B. Cloud
Spanner.

☁️Rationale for Cloud Spanner

The application has two critical requirements that point directly to Cloud
Spanner:

1. Consistency for Transactions: The application manages payments

and online bank accounts, meaning each transaction "must be
handled consistently" in the database. This is a core requirement for
a banking/payment system and mandates strong consistency (ACID
properties).
2. Global Scale and Growth: The application operates in "multiple
regions" and anticipates "almost unlimited growth in the amount
of data stored." This requires a globally distributed database that
can scale horizontally without limits.
Google Cloud Spanner is a globally
distributed database service that offers
strong consistency (ACID properties, which
are vital for financial transactions) combined
with horizontal scalability and high
availability. It's designed specifically for
applications that require a relational
structure and strong transactional
consistency at a massive, global scale.
❌ Why the Other Options are Not Suitable
 A. Cloud SQL: This is a fully managed relational database service
(MySQL, PostgreSQL, or SQL Server). While it provides strong
consistency, it is regionally constrained and does not offer the
near-unlimited horizontal scalability required for the anticipated
growth and global, multi-region deployment.
 C. Cloud Storage: This is an object storage service, not a relational or
transactional database. It is used for storing files, backups, and large
unstructured data, but cannot handle live transactional data with
strong consistency and SQL queries like a payment application
requires.
 D. BigQuery: This is an analytics data warehouse, not an
operational database for managing live, transactional application data.
It's optimized for massive-scale querying and reporting on historical
data, not for real-time, strongly consistent read/write transactions (like
depositing or withdrawing money).

Cloud Spanner is the only option listed that provides the necessary blend of
global distribution, strong transactional consistency, and massive
horizontal scalability.

Q101.
The correct answer is A. Product inventory. A relational database can store
structured raw data like product inventory without any processing, as it
consists of well-defined fields such as product IDs, names, and quantities.
Other options like product photographs, instructional videos, and customer
chat history typically require processing or are better suited for file storage
systems.

Q102.

The best reason a public cloud is a better option for digitizing and sharing
large volumes of historical text and images, compared to an on-premises
solution, is C. Cost-effective at scale.

☁️Public Cloud vs. On-Premises for Large-

Scale Digitization
Digitizing and sharing large volumes of data requires significant storage
and computing resources that must often scale quickly to handle spikes in
demand or an expanding collection.

 Cost-effective at scale: Public cloud providers offer a pay-as-you-

go model. An organization only pays for the storage and computational
 resources (like servers for sharing or processing) it actually consumes.
This is highly cost-effective for a large, growing project because the
organization avoids the massive upfront capital investment and
maintenance costs of buying, housing, cooling, and powering physical
servers and storage arrays that an on-premises solution requires. The
cloud effortlessly handles the growth (scale).

Why the Other Options are Incorrect

 A. In-house hardware management: This is a characteristic of an

on-premises solution, which is the exact opposite of the main benefit
of a public cloud. A public cloud eliminates the need for in-house
hardware management, as the cloud provider handles it.
 B. Provides physical encryption key: Cloud security uses various
methods, including strong digital encryption keys, but the idea of a
physical key is not a standard, differentiating benefit of public cloud
over on-premises for this scenario. Encryption is available on both
platforms.
 D. Optimizes capital expenditure (CapEx): While a public cloud
does optimize CapEx by shifting costs to operational expenditure
(OpEx), the more complete and fundamental reason for its advantage
in this specific context is the cost-effectiveness when scaling that
large volume of data. Cost-effectiveness at scale is a more
comprehensive answer that encompasses both the CapEx benefit and
the ability to grow without penalty.

Q103.
The best reason to build a cloud-native application instead of modernizing
an existing on-premises application for an application that requires
continuous personalization and updates is:

B. Developers can launch new features in an agile way.

☁️Explanation
A cloud-native approach, which leverages technologies like containers,
microservices, and continuous delivery, is fundamentally designed for
agility and speed of iteration.

 Continuous Updates: The ability to personalize an application

"throughout the year" implies frequent updates, feature rollouts,
and changes based on user preferences.
 Agile Development: Cloud-native architecture supports this by
allowing developers to build, test, and deploy small, independent
feature updates (often using CI/CD pipelines) quickly and with
minimal downtime.
 Contrast with On-Premises: Modernizing a traditional on-premises
application often involves monolithic structures and slower, more
complex deployment cycles, making it difficult to deliver personalized
updates rapidly and consistently.

The other options are incorrect:

 A. Developers can rely on the cloud provider for all source

code: The organization still owns and develops its application source
code; the cloud provider just hosts the platform/infrastructure.
 C. IT managers can migrate existing application architecture
without needing updates: Cloud-native development typically
requires significant changes and updates to the existing architecture
(moving from monolithic to microservices, for instance).
 D. IT managers can accelerate capital expenditure planning:
Cloud-native computing typically shifts costs from capital expenditure
(CapEx) to operational expenditure (OpEx), as you pay for resources
as you use them. It doesn't accelerate CapEx; it minimizes it.

Q104.
The technology that allows organizations to run multiple computer operating
systems on a single piece of physical hardware is Hypervisor.

This concept is known as virtualization.

 A hypervisor (option A) is the core technology behind virtualization.

It's a layer of software, firmware, or hardware that creates and runs
Virtual Machines (VMs). It allows the physical hardware resources
(like CPU, memory, storage) to be shared among multiple isolated VMs,
each of which can run its own operating system (OS).
 Containers (option B) isolate applications, but they typically share the
host operating system's kernel, unlike VMs which run a full, separate
OS.
 Serverless computing (option C) is a cloud computing execution
model where the cloud provider manages the server infrastructure,
allowing developers to build and run applications without managing
servers. It doesn't directly address running multiple OSes on a single
physical machine.
 Open source (option D) refers to a type of software licensing where
the source code is made publicly available; it is not a technology for
running multiple operating systems.

The correct answer is A. Hypervisor.

Q105.
Q106.

Q107.
❓ Question Recap

An organization wants to:

 Transform multiple types of structured + unstructured data

 Store it in the cloud
 Make it readily accessible for analysis and insights

Which storage system should they use?

🔎 Option Analysis

 A. Relational database
o Best for structured, transactional data (rows/columns).
o Not ideal for unstructured data or large-scale analytics.
 B. Private data center
o On-premises, not cloud-based.
o Doesn’t meet the requirement of cloud-native scalability.
 C. Data field
o Not a valid storage system in this context. Likely a distractor.
 D. Data warehouse ✅
o Purpose-built for analytics.
o Can ingest structured and semi-structured data (e.g., JSON,
Parquet).
o Optimized for queries, insights, and BI tools.
o Cloud-native warehouses (BigQuery, Snowflake, Redshift) handle
scale and transformation.
🧠 Quick Memory Hook

Think:

 Database → Transactions
 Data Lake → Raw storage
 Data Warehouse → Analytics/Insights

Since the question emphasizes analysis and insights, the correct answer is
Data Warehouse.

Q108.

Multiple regression (option D) is a statistical method used to understand the

relationship between one dependent variable and several independent
variables. While it can be useful for predictive purposes, it doesn't inherently
improve over time or adapt to new data in the way machine learning (option
C) does.

Machine learning, on the other hand, involves algorithms that can learn
from data, adjust, and improve their predictions over time, making it more
suitable for offering predictive suggestions that evolve with new information.

Q109.
The most complete answer describing what Google's Enterprise Support
offers is B. the fastest response times and opportunities to work
directly with a dedicated TAM contact.

🏆 Explanation
Google's Enterprise Support (often referred to as Premium Support for
Google Cloud or Google Workspace Enterprise plans) is the highest tier of
support and typically includes:

 Fastest Response Times: This tier offers the most aggressive

Service Level Agreements (SLAs), including the fastest initial response
times for critical issues (e.g., 15 minutes for P1 cases).
 Dedicated Technical Account Manager (TAM): A named TAM
provides proactive, expert guidance, deep awareness of your
architecture and projects, and serves as a dedicated point of contact.
This aligns with the "ability to work directly with a dedicated TAM
contact."

Options C and D are both accurate features of Enterprise Support but are
incomplete when compared to Option B, which combines two of the most
significant benefits. Option A, regarding more predictable rates and flexible
configuration, is generally less of a primary distinction for the highest
support tier when compared to the speed and personalization of a TAM.

Q110.
The Google product that is specifically designed to generate highly
personalized product recommendations is Recommendations AI.

Recommendations AI 🤖
The correct option, based on Google's specific cloud offerings, is the one
related to AI.

 C. Recommendations AI is the Google Cloud product (now often

referred to as a capability within Vertex AI Search in Google Cloud)
that leverages advanced machine learning models, developed and
used by Google for its own products like Search and YouTube, to
provide highly personalized, real-time product suggestions for retailers.

The term "Recommendations AI" fits the description of a Google product that
specializes in generating highly personalized product recommendations
using artificial intelligence and machine learning.

Q111.
Direct Answer

The false statement is B. Database Migration Service has integrations

with services such as BigQuery, Cloud Spanner, Dataflow, and Data
Fusion.

 Key Points:
o Google's Database Migration Service (DMS) primarily supports
migrations to managed relational databases like Cloud SQL and
AlloyDB for PostgreSQL, focusing on low-downtime transfers for
MySQL, PostgreSQL, SQL Server, and Oracle sources.
o It does not directly integrate with analytics or processing
services like BigQuery, Cloud Spanner, Dataflow, or Data Fusion;
these are more closely associated with Datastream for real-time
replication.
o The other statements (A, C, D) accurately describe Datastream's
low-latency, low-impact replication and DMS's serverless setup,
ease of use, and continuous replication capabilities.
o No significant controversy exists here, as these are well-
documented technical features from official sources.

Overview of Services

Google Cloud's Database Migration Service (DMS) is a serverless tool for

one-time or continuous migrations of relational databases to Google Cloud,
emphasizing minimal downtime and simplicity. It handles initial data
snapshots and ongoing replication without requiring custom infrastructure
management.

In contrast, Datastream is a change data capture (CDC) service for real-

time, low-latency replication from databases like MySQL, PostgreSQL, Oracle,
and SQL Server to various Google Cloud destinations, reducing source
database load through log-based methods.

Evaluation of Statements

S S A Explanation
t e c
a r c
t vi u
 e
r
m
c a
e
e c
n
y
t

D
a
t
T
a Datastream uses log-based CDC for near-real-time replication
r
A st with minimal impact on the source database, avoiding
u
r performance bottlenecks.
e
e
a
m

F
D a DMS destinations are limited to Cloud SQL and AlloyDB;
B M l integrations with BigQuery, Spanner, Dataflow, and Data Fusion
S s are features of Datastream, not DMS.
e

DMS is fully serverless, eliminating the need to provision

T
D migration resources. When targeting managed services like
r
C M Cloud SQL, users avoid manual over- or under-provisioning of
u
S underlying infrastructure, though instance sizing is still
e
configurable.

T
D DMS setup is console-based with minimal clicks, supporting
r
D M seamless continuous replication post-initial migration for zero-
u
S downtime scenarios.
e

Detailed Analysis

Google Cloud offers distinct tools for database handling: DMS for structured
migrations and Datastream for ongoing synchronization. This separation
ensures specialized performance but can lead to confusion in feature
attribution, as seen in statement B.
Database Migration Service (DMS) Features

 Core Functionality: Enables homogeneous (e.g., MySQL to Cloud SQL

for MySQL) and heterogeneous migrations with automatic schema
conversion for supported engines.
 Serverless Nature: No need to manage compute resources for the
migration job itself—DMS handles scaling, networking, and connectivity
(e.g., via VPC peering or Cloud VPN).
 Destinations: Primarily Cloud SQL (for MySQL, PostgreSQL, SQL
Server) and AlloyDB for PostgreSQL. No native support for BigQuery
(analytics warehouse) or Cloud Spanner (distributed SQL database),
which require alternative tools like Dataflow for bulk loads.
 Process Initiation: Users create a migration job in the Google Cloud
Console, specifying source connection, destination instance, and
replication type (one-time or continuous). This typically takes a few
steps, followed by automated ongoing sync.
 Provisioning Benefits: For targets like Cloud SQL, DMS abstracts
away migration-specific provisioning, allowing focus on destination
sizing. Cloud SQL's managed autoscaling and recommendations further
mitigate over-/under-provisioning risks.
 Limitations: Pricing is free for homogeneous migrations but per-byte
for heterogeneous ones; it's not designed for real-time analytics
pipelines.

Datastream Features

 Core Functionality: Serverless CDC for capturing database changes

(inserts, updates, deletes) and streaming them to sinks.
 Performance: Achieves low latency (seconds) via efficient log
reading, ensuring the source database experiences negligible
overhead—ideal for operational databases.
 Integrations: Directly supports BigQuery for analytics, Cloud Spanner
for distributed storage, Dataflow for transformations, and Data Fusion
for ETL pipelines. This makes it complementary to DMS for post-
migration replication.
 Use Cases: Suited for real-time data warehousing or hybrid setups,
with built-in error handling and schema evolution.
Why Statement B is False

Official documentation confirms DMS's scope is limited to relational database

targets. For example:

 Migrations to BigQuery or Spanner typically involve exporting data via

Dataflow templates or third-party tools, not DMS.
 Datastream's marketing and docs explicitly highlight its ecosystem ties
(e.g., "integrate with BigQuery, Spanner, Dataflow, and Data Fusion"),
which DMS lacks. This distinction avoids overloading DMS with
analytics features, keeping it focused on core database lifts.

Comparative Table: DMS vs. Datastream

Database Migration
Aspect Datastream
Service (DMS)

Primary One-time/continuous Real-time CDC replication to

Use migration to managed DBs analytics/processing services

Latency N/A (batch-oriented initial Low latency; minimal source DB

/Impact loads) load

Destina BigQuery, Spanner, Cloud SQL,

Cloud SQL, AlloyDB
tions GCS (via Dataflow)

Integra BigQuery, Spanner, Dataflow,

Limited to DB targets
tions Data Fusion

Provisi Serverless; no migration

Fully serverless; auto-scales
oning infra management

Few clicks in console for

Setup Stream profiles via console/API
jobs

Free for homogeneous; per-

Pricing Per-stream-hour + data processed
byte otherwise
Recommendations

 For migrations: Start with DMS for relational targets to leverage its
simplicity.
 For real-time needs: Pair DMS with Datastream for full lifecycle
management.
 Best Practice: Assess source compatibility using Google's migration
assessment tools before starting.

This analysis draws from current (as of October 2025) Google Cloud
documentation, ensuring alignment with evolving features like DMS's recent
object-level observability additions.

Key Citations

 Google Cloud Database Migration Service Overview

 Datastream Overview
 Supported Databases for DMS
 Datastream Integrations
 DMS Serverless Features

Q112.

Based on the provided image, the correct answer is A.

This statement is false.

 A. You can find the latest ISO/IEC certificates, SOC reports, and
self-assessments in the Container Registry. This is incorrect. The
Container Registry (or its successor, Artifact Registry) is a service
 used to store, manage, and secure container images (like Docker
images). Compliance documents like ISO certificates and SOC reports
are found in the Compliance Reports Manager in the Google Cloud
Console.

Why the other options are true:

 B. Container Registry is tightly integrated with all of Google's

container services. This is true. Services like Google Kubernetes
Engine (GKE) and Cloud Run are designed to natively and easily pull
container images from the Container Registry.
 C. The resources found in the Compliance Reports Manager
tool can be used to aid your own company's reporting and
compliance efforts. This is true. This is the primary purpose of the
tool. It allows you to access Google's compliance reports, which you
can then provide to your own auditors to demonstrate the compliance
of the underlying cloud infrastructure.
 D. All of the GCP services receive independent verification for
security, privacy, and compliance. This is true. Google Cloud
services regularly undergo independent, third-party audits to verify
they meet various international security, privacy, and compliance
standards (like ISO 27001, SOC 2/3, PCI DSS, etc.).

Q113.

Q114.
For this question, the key is in the phrase “migrate data in Oracle to a
new type of database in GCP.”

👉 Database Migration Service (DMS) is great when you’re moving from

Oracle to another relational database (like Cloud SQL for PostgreSQL or
MySQL). But it doesn’t support migrating Oracle directly into non-relational
or new database types.

Here’s how the options stack up:

Option What it is Why it fits/doesn’t fit

Serverless change data
capture (CDC) and
✅ Best choice here. Works well
replication service.
A. when moving Oracle data into
Streams data from
Datastream a different type of database
Oracle/MySQL into
(e.g., BigQuery or Spanner).
BigQuery, Cloud SQL,
Spanner, etc.
❌ More for transformations and
B. Data Managed ETL/ELT service
integrations, not direct
Fusion for building pipelines.
migration.
C. Cloud A distributed relational ❌ This is a target database, not
Spanner database. a migration tool.
Stream/batch data ❌ Can be used for custom
D. Dataflow processing (Apache pipelines, but not the
Beam). recommended migration tool.

✨ Correct Answer: A. Datastream

Because Datastream can capture changes from Oracle and continuously

replicate them into a new type of GCP database, it’s the better choice when
DMS isn’t suitable.
Q115.

Q116.

Q117.
The Google product used to dynamically translate between languages is
Translation.

This corresponds to Option D in the image provided, which is also marked

as the correct answer.

🌐 Google Cloud Translation

The product, often referred to as Google Cloud Translation, is a service
that enables translation of text between thousands of language pairs. It's a
key tool for real-time (dynamic) language translation in various applications
and services, including the popular Google Translate consumer product.

 Option A: Vision OCR is used for optical character recognition

(extracting text from images).
 Option B: Natural Language (referring to Google Cloud Natural
Language) is used for text analysis like sentiment analysis, entity
recognition, and syntax analysis.
 Option C: Text AI is a broad or non-standard term.
 Option D: Translation is the correct service specifically designed for
language translation.

Q118.
Q119.

Q120.
The correct Google Cloud product or service for an organization searching for
an open-source machine learning platform to build and deploy custom
ML applications using TPUs is TensorFlow.

💻 Explanation
 TensorFlow is an open-source machine learning framework
developed by Google. It is the most appropriate choice because it is
designed to work seamlessly with Tensor Processing Units (TPUs),
Google's custom-developed ASICs for machine learning workloads. It
provides the flexibility and tools needed to build and deploy custom
machine learning applications.
 BigQuery ML is for creating and running ML models using standard
SQL queries on data inside BigQuery. It's not an open-source platform
for general custom ML application development.
 Vision API is a pre-trained ML model service (a fully managed API) for
image analysis. It is not an open-source platform for building custom
models.
 AutoML Vision is a managed service that allows users to train high-
quality custom image classification and object detection models with
minimal coding. While it involves custom models, it is not an open-
source framework.

The correct Google Cloud product or service is A. TensorFlow.

🧠 Rationale
 TensorFlow is the leading open-source machine learning framework
developed by Google.
 It is specifically designed to be optimized for, and easily integrated
with, Google's Tensor Processing Units (TPUs).
 The framework provides the necessary tools and flexibility for an
organization to build and deploy their custom machine learning
applications.

Q121.
Q122.

Q123.

Q124.
Direct Answer

Key Points:

 The most suitable Google Cloud product for searching an application's

source code to identify potential issues in a distributed, multi-container
environment is Cloud Logging.
 Cloud Logging aggregates and indexes logs from across containers
(e.g., in Google Kubernetes Engine or Cloud Run), allowing searches for
stack traces and source code locations to pinpoint errors.
 Other options like Cloud Trace focus on performance tracing rather
than log-based code inspection, while Cloud Monitoring handles
metrics, and the Cloud Console is a general management interface.

Why Cloud Logging?

Cloud Logging provides a centralized platform to query and analyze

application logs, including those with embedded source code references. For
containerized apps, it automatically ingests runtime logs, enabling quick
identification of issues without manual code traversal.

Comparison of Options

Product Primary Function Suitable for Source Code

 Search in Containers?

A. Google Web UI for resource No – Lacks advanced search for

Cloud Console management logs or code.

B. Cloud Distributed tracing for No – Focuses on request paths,

Trace latency analysis not code logs.

C. Cloud Metrics and alerting for No – Deals with performance

Monitoring system health data, not logs.

D. Cloud Log aggregation, Yes – Searches stack traces

Logging search, and analysis with code locations.

Q125.

Q126.
Q127.

Q128.

The benefit of using an Application Programming Interface (API) to

allow a mobile app to make reservations with a hotel's legacy systems is that
they do not have to rewrite the legacy system.

The correct option is D.

💡 Why APIs are Beneficial for Legacy
Modernization
When modernizing a system, the primary goal is often to add new
functionality (like a mobile app) without undertaking the massive, risky, and
expensive task of replacing or rewriting the core legacy system.

 An API acts as a middleware or a standardized interface that

exposes specific functions (like "make reservation" or "check
availability") of the existing legacy system. * The mobile app (the new
component) communicates only with the API, which then translates
the request into a format the legacy system can understand and
process.
 This approach decouples the modern front-end (the mobile app) from
the complex, old back-end (the legacy system), allowing the hotel to
leverage its existing, functional business logic and data without
rewriting it.

Analysis of Other Options:

 A. They do not have to develop the end-user application: This is

false. The mobile app is the end-user application, and it still needs to
be developed to communicate with the API.
 B. They can deprecate their legacy systems: This is false. The
legacy system must remain active for the reservations to be processed
and stored. Deprecation would be the opposite of using an API to
connect to it.
 C. They can transform their systems to be cloud-native: This is
possible but not the direct benefit of simply using an API. APIs can
be a step toward cloud-native, but using an API does not automatically
transform a system's architecture to be cloud-native (which involves
microservices, containers, etc.). The most immediate and core benefit
is the ability to integrate without rewriting.

Q129.
The organization could experience the benefit of D. Reduced likelihood of
system failure during high demand events. A multi-cloud architecture
allows for better load distribution and redundancy across different cloud
providers, enhancing reliability and reducing the risk of system failures
during peak usage.

Q130.

The correct answer is B. Seamless changes can be made without

causing any application downtime.

Why GKE for Frequent Updates? 🚀

Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE) is an ideal solution for organizations
needing to run frequent updates for their business applications primarily
because of its capabilities in managing containerized workloads, enabling
zero-downtime deployments.

 Zero-Downtime Deployments: Kubernetes, which is managed by

GKE, excels at rolling updates. This deployment strategy allows you
to gradually replace old versions of your application with new ones.
New application pods are started and verified healthy before the old
pods are terminated. This ensures the application remains fully
 available to users throughout the update process, making the changes
seamless and preventing downtime.
 Automation and Orchestration: GKE automates the entire process
of deployment, scaling, and managing containerized applications,
making frequent updates manageable and reliable.

Analysis of Other Options 🧐

 A. Customer expectations can be adjusted without using
marketing tools: This is irrelevant to GKE's technical function.
Customer expectations are not adjusted by container orchestration
software.
 C. GKE handles version control seamlessly and out of the box:
GKE manages container deployment and orchestration. Version
control (like Git) is a separate process handled by developers for
source code management, not by GKE itself.
 D. GKE is well suited for all monolithic applications: While GKE
can run monolithic applications, it is primarily designed and best
suited for microservices architectures. Furthermore, the statement
says "all," which is an overgeneralization. The benefit of zero-downtime
updates is maximized when applications are containerized, which is a
key step toward microservices.

Q131.

Apigee is primarily an API management platform. Its core strengths are

around governance, monitoring, and monetization of APIs. Let’s break
down the options:
  A. Increase application privacy → Not really Apigee’s focus.
Privacy/security is handled more by IAM, OAuth, and encryption,
though Apigee can enforce policies.
 B. Measure and track API performance ✅ → Exactly what Apigee
does best. It provides analytics dashboards, traffic monitoring,
latency tracking, error rates, and usage metrics so organizations
can optimize APIs.
 C. Analyze application development speed → That’s more of a
DevOps/Agile metrics thing, not Apigee.
 D. Market and sell APIs → Apigee does have a developer portal
that helps publish APIs and onboard developers, but the core exam-
style answer is performance tracking.

👉 A good way to remember this: Apigee = API visibility + control +

analytics.

Q132.

C. Profile picture

Unstructured data refers to information that lacks a predefined format or

organization, making it harder to analyze with traditional databases (e.g.,
free-form text, images, or audio). From social media, profile pictures are a
prime example because they're visual content—binary image files without
inherent tabular structure—that organizations might capture for sentiment
analysis, facial recognition, or branding insights via machine learning tools.

For contrast:
  A. Post comments: Often treated as semi-structured (e.g.,
extractable keywords or entities), though raw text can be
unstructured.
 B. Tagging: Typically structured metadata (e.g., hashtags or user IDs
in a database-friendly format).
 D. Location: Usually structured (e.g., GPS coordinates or city names
stored as discrete fields).

Q133.

The organization should use App Engine for their customer app because it
autoscale during peaks in demand (option B), which is crucial for handling
the increased traffic during seasonal sales when the majority of their annual
revenue is generated.

Q134.

Based on the requirement to privately, securely access a large volume of

on-premises data from Google Cloud workloads while minimizing
latency, the best solution is to establish a dedicated, low-latency
connection.

The correct choice is:

B. Create a VPC between your on-premises data center and your
Google resources

🧐 Rationale
 VPC (Virtual Private Cloud) itself is a Google Cloud networking
component, not the direct link to on-premises. However, this option is
the best fit as it is the most likely way to represent setting up a
private interconnection, such as Cloud Interconnect (Dedicated or
Partner), which directly links your on-premises network to your VPC
network in Google Cloud.
 Cloud Interconnect (which works with your Google Cloud VPC)
provides a high-bandwidth, low-latency connection for hybrid cloud
environments, which is necessary for real-time access to large
volumes of data while minimizing latency. It avoids the public internet,
ensuring security and privacy.

Why other options are incorrect:

 A. Use Storage Transfer Service: This service is for migrating data

into Google Cloud, primarily from external sources or other cloud
providers. It's for one-time or periodic transfers, not for real-time,
low-latency access to data that remains on-premises.
 C. Peer your on-premises data center to Google's Edge
Network: This is not a standard, supported product or practice for
direct enterprise connectivity. Google's Edge Network primarily deals
with services like CDN (Content Delivery Network) or peering for large
service providers. Cloud Interconnect is the service used for private
on-premises connectivity.
 D. Use Transfer Appliance: This is a physical appliance used for
offline migration of extremely large volumes of data into Google
Cloud storage. Like Storage Transfer Service, it's a migration tool, not a
solution for low-latency, real-time access to data that stays on-
premises.

Option B is the most accurate representation of the necessary networking

setup (e.g., Cloud Interconnect into a VPC) to meet the requirements for
low-latency, secure hybrid connectivity.

Q135.
The correct way to group Google Cloud projects to simplify the management
of identity and access policies is to use folders to group each team's
projects.

📁 Google Cloud Resource Hierarchy

The recommended approach leverages the Google Cloud resource
hierarchy, which allows you to manage resources at different levels:

 Organization Node: The root of the hierarchy, representing your

company.
 Folders: An intermediate grouping mechanism that sits between the
organization and projects. They can contain projects and other
folders.
 Projects: The base container for all your Google Cloud resources
(VMs, APIs, storage, etc.).

🔑 Simplified Identity and Access Management

(IAM)
Using Folders is the most effective solution because:

 Policy Inheritance: IAM policies (which define identity and access)

applied to a folder are inherited by all projects and sub-folders within
it.
 Centralized Control: By creating a folder for each team and applying
an IAM policy to that folder, you can grant the entire team access to all
their projects in one action, rather than managing access for each
project individually. This significantly simplifies management and
 ensures consistent access policies across the team's entire set of
projects.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option Reason for Incorrectness

A. Group each
A domain is related to G Suite/Workspace, not the
team's
primary means of grouping projects for IAM policy
projects into a
inheritance within the Google Cloud Resource
separate
Hierarchy.
domain

B. Assign Labels are key/value pairs used for resource

labels based organization, billing, and filtering, but they do not
on the virtual support IAM policy inheritance. You cannot
machines... simplify access control by applying policies to a label.

D. Group each
team's An organization node is the root of the hierarchy. You
projects into a should have only one organization node per domain
separate (or enterprise). Creating separate organization nodes
organization for each team is not practical or supported.
node

Q136.

Q137.
The best way to host the data to make large amounts of it available to other
researchers and the public at minimum cost is to use a Cloud Storage
bucket and enable 'Requester Pays'.

Therefore, the correct option is A.

🧐 Explanation of the Options

A. Use a Cloud Storage bucket and enable 'Requester
Pays' (Correct)

 Cloud Storage: It's ideal for hosting large amounts of data and
making it publicly or semi-publicly available. It's generally cost-
effective for storage compared to on-premises solutions.
 Requester Pays: When enabled, the requester (the researcher or
public user downloading the data) is charged for the network egress
(download) costs and the cost of the operations (like GET requests),
instead of your team being charged. Since the goal is to make the data
available at minimum cost to your team, this is the most effective
solution. Your team only pays for the storage cost.

B. Use a Cloud Storage bucket and provide Signed URLs

for the data files. (Incorrect)

 Signed URLs are used for granting temporary, time-limited access

to private files. More importantly, the uploader/owner of the bucket
still pays for the egress and operations costs, which does not meet the
"minimum cost" requirement for your team.
C. Use a Cloud Storage bucket and set up a Cloud
Interconnect connection to allow access to the data.
(Incorrect)

 Cloud Interconnect is used to create a private, high-throughput

connection between an on-premises data center and the cloud
network. It is designed for enterprise hybrid cloud environments, not
for distributing data to the general public or a broad professional
community. It would be an expensive and unnecessary setup.

D. Host the data on-premises, and set up a Cloud

Interconnect connection to allow access to the data.
(Incorrect)

 Hosting on-premises would involve significant costs for hardware,

maintenance, and high-speed network infrastructure, contradicting the
"minimum cost" goal.
 Cloud Interconnect is the wrong tool for public distribution, as
explained above.

The Requester Pays feature in a Cloud Storage bucket directly addresses

the requirement of making large data available while minimizing the host's
cost.

Q138.

Q139.
Based on the image provided, the correct answer is D.

Here’s a breakdown of why:

 D. Create a group consisting of all Canada-based employees,

and give the group access to the bucket. This is the most
effective and efficient solution. It uses Google Cloud's standard
Identity and Access Management (IAM) system. By creating a group,
you can assign the necessary "view" permission (like the
storage.objectViewer role) to the group just once. Then, you can
simply add or remove employees from that group as they join or leave
the company. This is scalable and easy to manage.

Why the other options are incorrect:

 A. Deploy the Cloud Storage bucket to a Google Cloud region in

Canada: This option controls data residency (where your data is
stored). It has no effect on who can access the data. An employee in
any other country could still access it if they have the correct
permissions.
 B. Configure Google Cloud Armor to allow access to the bucket
only from IP addresses based in Canada: This is a network-level
control. It's problematic for a few reasons:
o It restricts access based on the location of the request, not the
identity of the employee. An employee who is "based in Canada"
but traveling to the US would be incorrectly blocked.
o It's overly complex and less efficient, requiring you to set up a
Load Balancer in front of the bucket to use Cloud Armor.
 C. Give each employee who is based in Canada access to the
bucket: This is not efficient. While it would work, you would have to
manually add and remove permissions for every single employee on
 the bucket itself. If you have hundreds of employees, this becomes
unmanageable and error-prone. Using groups (Option D) is the
standard best practice to avoid this.

Q140.

The correct Google Cloud product or feature to use is D. Private Google

Access.

🔑 Explanation
The requirement is to allow Compute Engine virtual machines (VMs) without
public internet access to connect to publicly accessible Google Cloud
services like BigQuery and Cloud Storage.

 Private Google Access allows VMs with internal IP addresses only

(no external IP address) to reach the external IP addresses of Google
APIs and services, including BigQuery and Cloud Storage.
 The traffic remains within the Google network, satisfying the security
requirement that the virtual machines are not allowed to access
the public internet.
 This feature is enabled on a subnet level within a VPC network.

❌ Why other options are incorrect:

 A. Identity-Aware Proxy (IAP): IAP is a way to establish a central

authorization layer for applications accessed by HTTPS, not a
mechanism for VMs to access Google Cloud APIs privately.
 B. Cloud NAT (Network Address Translation): Cloud NAT is used
to allow VMs without external IP addresses to connect to the
public internet (i.e., external non-Google destinations) by translating
their internal IP to a public NAT IP. This violates the security
requirement of not accessing the public internet.
 C. VPC internal load balancers: Internal load balancers are used to
distribute traffic among VMs within a VPC network, not to connect VMs
to external Google Cloud services.

Q141.
For this healthcare OCR project, the key is in the client’s requirements:

 Digitize clinical records (X-rays, health records) → OCR needed

 Extract text from images → OCR again
 Translate text into English → Translation API
 Store final text → Cloud Storage / Database
 Preference: Pre-trained ML models via REST APIs, no overhead

Let’s break down the options:

Option What it Does Why it Fits / Doesn’t Fit

Lets you train custom ML Overhead of training, not
A. AutoML
models for image needed since OCR is a solved
Vision
classification. problem with pre-trained APIs.
Pre-trained OCR, label
✅ Perfect fit: extracts text from
B. Vision detection, handwriting
medical images and records
API recognition, REST API
without training.
based.
C. Cloud Analyzes text sentiment, Not for OCR, only works once
 Natural
Language syntax, entities. text is already extracted.
API
D. Vertex Customizable ML pipelines Too heavy for this use case;
AI Vision for video/image analysis. requires setup and training.

👉 Correct Answer: B. Vision API

Workflow would look like:

1. Upload image → Vision API extracts text.

2. Pass extracted text → Cloud Translation API → English.
3. Store translated text → Cloud Storage / Firestore / BigQuery
depending on downstream needs.

This aligns with the client’s “no overhead, pre-trained REST API”
requirement.

Would you like me to also create a decision table comparing Vision API vs
Vertex AI Vision vs AutoML Vision for interview-style answers? That way
you’ll have a crisp justification ready if asked in a panel.

Q142.

The correct Google Cloud solution for an organization that requires a fully
managed, scalable queuing service to help manage the execution,
dispatch, and delivery of multiple distributed tasks is Cloud Tasks.

☁️Google Cloud Solution

The best choice is B. Cloud Tasks.

 Cloud Tasks is a fully managed service that allows you to manage

the execution, dispatch, and delivery of a large number of distributed
 tasks. It is specifically designed to handle asynchronous work and
provides features like:
o Rate limiting (controlling the rate at which tasks are
dispatched).
o Retry mechanisms (automatic retries for failed tasks).
o Scheduled delivery (delivery at a specified future time).
o Scalable queuing (queues can scale to meet demand).

🔎 Why the Other Options are Incorrect

Opti
Service Description Why it's Not the Best Fit
on

A. It is primarily for scheduling

Clo A fully managed cron job recurring jobs at specific times,
ud service for scheduling not for managing a scalable
Sch batch, big data, and cloud queue of distributed tasks that
edul infrastructure operations. require dispatch and delivery
er management.

C.
Ser A foundational set of
This is an underlying layer for
vice platform services for
service management, not an
Infr developers to manage their
application-level queuing service
astr APIs and services on
for task execution and delivery.
uct Google Cloud.
ure

It is excellent for orchestrating

A fully managed
steps in a process, but Cloud
D. orchestration engine that
Tasks is the direct and primary
Wor executes steps in a defined
service for the queuing,
kflo sequence to automate
dispatch, and delivery of
ws and connect Google Cloud
distributed tasks described in the
and HTTP-based services.
question.
Therefore, Cloud Tasks is the solution that directly meets the requirement
of a scalable queuing service for managing task execution and dispatch.
Would you like a brief explanation of how Cloud Tasks integrates with App
Engine or Cloud Functions?

🎯 Key Takeaway

When the question mentions “fully managed, scalable queuing service”

→ think Cloud Tasks. When it mentions “cron jobs / scheduled triggers”
→ think Cloud Scheduler. When it mentions “orchestration of multiple
services” → think Workflows.

Q143.

The correct answer here is:

C. By federating third-party identity providers with Google Cloud

🔑 Why this is correct:

 Google Cloud recommends identity federation so that organizations

can let users sign in with their existing corporate credentials (from
providers like Active Directory, Okta, Ping, etc.) instead of creating
separate Google accounts.
 This approach centralizes identity management, enforces existing
security policies (like MFA, password rotation, conditional access), and
avoids the overhead of managing multiple credentials.
 It also aligns with Single Sign-On (SSO) best practices, improving
both security and user experience.

❌ Why the other options are wrong:

 A. Delegating responsibility to service accounts and groups →

Service accounts are for workloads, not human users. Groups help with
access control but don’t solve the identity federation problem.
  B. Implementing the principle of least privilege → This is a best
practice for IAM roles and permissions, but it doesn’t address how
users authenticate with corporate credentials.
 D. Migrating unmanaged accounts to personal accounts → This
is the opposite of what enterprises want. They want centralized,
managed identities, not personal accounts.

👉 In short: Federation = bridge between corporate identity provider

and Google Cloud IAM.

Q144.

Based on the image provided, the correct answer is A. Vertex AI Matching

Engine.

Here's a breakdown of why:

 A. Vertex AI Matching Engine: This is the correct choice. It's a high-

scale, low-latency service specifically designed for finding similar items
(vector similarity matching). This is the core technology needed to
build a recommendation system that "suggests products" based on
"purchasing behavior" (e.g., finding products similar to what a user has
bought, or finding users similar to the current user and recommending
what they bought).
 B. Vertex AI: This is too general. Vertex AI is the overall managed
machine learning platform that includes many services, one of which is
the Matching Engine.
 C. Vertex Explainable AI: This service is used to understand and
interpret why a machine learning model made a specific prediction. It
doesn't make the prediction or suggestion itself.
  D. Vertex AI Workbench: This is a managed notebook environment
where data scientists build and train models. It's not the service that
serves the predictions at scale to users on a live e-commerce website.

Q145.

The advantage of the Infrastructure-as-a-Service model to consider is C.

Google assumes responsibility for server maintenance.

Q146.

B. Use SSD disks

For a high-IOPS workload like an inventory management system, Google

Cloud's SSD persistent disks (pd-ssd) are the best choice among the options.
They deliver up to 30,000 read/write IOPS per disk (scaling with size and
vCPUs), single-digit millisecond latency for random operations, and are
optimized for enterprise applications with frequent reads/writes. This directly
addresses the on-premises performance issues by providing higher
throughput and lower latency than HDD-based alternatives.

In comparison:
  A. Local SSDs: Offer even higher IOPS (up to 1.6 million reads) and
sub-millisecond latency but are ephemeral—data is lost on instance
stops or maintenance—making them unsuitable for persistent
inventory data.
 C. Standard persistent disks: HDD-based with only up to 7,500
IOPS, optimized for sequential I/O, and higher latency for random
access, which would not resolve high-IOPS bottlenecks.
 D. Balanced persistent disks: SSD-based with similar max IOPS to
SSD disks but lower IOPS per GiB and slightly higher cost-efficiency
focus, making them a good general option but less ideal for maximum
performance needs.
Q147.

Correct option

B. Platform as a Service (PaaS)

Why this is correct

PaaS lets developers deploy and run custom application code without
managing operating systems, runtime, or infrastructure. The team writes and
manages application code and data while the provider handles the platform,
middleware, and underlying servers.
Key points

 Developers build and deploy custom apps; they do not manage OS or

infrastructure.
 PaaS provides development tools, runtimes, scaling, and platform
maintenance.
 IaaS would require managing VMs and OS-level concerns; SaaS
delivers complete applications with no custom-code control; on-
premises requires full infrastructure management.

Examples

Cloud Run; App Engine.

Q148.

The correct answer is ✅ A. Create Cloud Billing Budgets, set a budget

amount, and set budget alert threshold rules.

Explanation:

 Cloud Billing Budgets in Google Cloud let you:

o Set budget amounts for your projects or billing accounts.
o Configure alert threshold rules (e.g., 50%, 90%, 100%).
o Receive email alerts when spending reaches those thresholds.

Why not the others:

 B. Cloud Billing Reports with Data Studio → for visualization, not

for alerts.
 C. Export to BigQuery + Data Studio → for advanced analytics, not
for email alerts or thresholds.
  D. Create a Cloud Billing account → necessary step before budgets,
but doesn’t provide alerting functionality itself.

Hence, A directly meets the requirement of tracking spend and receiving

email alerts when spending crosses thresholds.

Q149.

Q150.

Lifecycle management for Cloud Storage

Answer: A. Configure object lifecycle management.

Why: Object lifecycle rules automatically transition objects older than a

specified age from Standard to Coldline storage without custom code or
scheduling, minimizing cost and manual effort.
Q151.

The question asks for two areas that are the sole responsibility of the
customer across all three major cloud service models: SaaS, PaaS, and
IaaS. This relates to the Shared Responsibility Model in cloud computing.

The correct answers are A and B.

 A. Devices (Mobile and PCs): The customer is always responsible for

the endpoint devices used to access the cloud services, regardless of
the service model. This includes their laptops, phones, and the security
of those devices.
 B. Information and data: The customer is ultimately responsible for
their data and information, including its sensitivity, its security
within the application or service, and meeting regulatory compliance
requirements for that data. This is a constant across SaaS, PaaS, and
IaaS.

❌ Why the other options are incorrect:

 C. Physical network: In all three cloud models (SaaS, PaaS, IaaS), the
cloud provider is responsible for the physical network infrastructure
within the data center.
 D. Physical security of the data center: In all three cloud models,
the cloud provider is responsible for the physical security of the data
center building, servers, and infrastructure.

Q152.
The correct answers are A. Establish Role-based access policies and C.
Monitor application security.

When deploying a business-critical application on Google App Engine, the

organization is responsible for specific security areas, in line with the Shared
Responsibility Model in cloud computing.

Shared Responsibility Model

Google handles many aspects of the underlying infrastructure, but the user
is still responsible for security within the application itself.

 A. Establish Role-based access policies (Customer

Responsibility): This is a key part of securing the application's data
and functionality. You must define who can access what within your
application and its data stores. This falls directly under the
organization's control.
 C. Monitor application security (Customer Responsibility): You
are responsible for monitoring application logs, detecting application-
level vulnerabilities, and watching for suspicious activity related to
your code and user authentication.

❌ Why the others are less likely to be expected

 B. Encrypt data at rest (Google Responsibility): Data stored in

Google Cloud services like Cloud Storage or Cloud Datastore (used by
App Engine) is automatically encrypted at rest by default. While an
organization can manage their own encryption keys, the basic
expectation for encryption at rest is handled by Google.
 D. Maintain network security (Google Responsibility): This
typically refers to the security of the underlying physical network,
firewalls, and network intrusion detection up to the boundary of the
 application's environment. In a Platform as a Service (PaaS)
offering like App Engine, Google manages the core network
infrastructure, including its security. The organization only manages
application-level network rules (e.g., via App Engine firewall rules) but
not the maintenance of the entire network.

The two primary expectations the organization must directly manage are
access control and application-level monitoring/security.

Q153.

Answer

C. Implement horizontal scaling

Why this is best

 Horizontal scaling adds more machines or nodes to handle increased

traffic during peak seasons, allowing the service to grow capacity
without downtime.
 It supports fault tolerance because traffic can shift away from failing
nodes, and it enables cost-effective scaling by adding instances only
when needed.
Why the other options are less suitable

 A. Scale vertically (upgrading a single server) is limited by hardware

ceilings, risks downtime during upgrades, and becomes expensive at
large scale.
 B. Increase the number of servers is effectively manual horizontal
scaling but lacks automation and orchestration; it’s less flexible and
error-prone if not paired with orchestration/autoscaling.
 D. Implement load-balancing is necessary but not sufficient by
itself; load balancers distribute traffic across resources but do not
increase capacity unless additional instances are added (horizontal
scaling).

Practical recommendation

 Use horizontal scaling with autoscaling policies plus load

balancing to automatically add/remove instances during October–
January spikes and keep uptime stable.

Q154.

The correct answer is B. Enable Private Google Access.

Here's a breakdown of why:

🌐 Accessing External APIs from Internal VMs

The scenario describes an application running on a Virtual Machine (VM)
that has an internal IP address and no external IP address. This VM
needs to reach an external Google service, specifically the Analytics
Reporting API.

Key Concepts

 Internal IP Address Only: A VM without an external IP address

cannot directly route traffic over the public internet.
 Google APIs: Google services like the Analytics Reporting API are
accessible over the public internet, but Private Google Access allows
internal VMs to reach them without an external IP address.
 Private Google Access: This feature enables VMs that only have
internal IP addresses to reach Google API endpoints using the Google
internal network, while still accessing the APIs using their public IP
addresses. This keeps the traffic off the public internet for security and
performance.

Evaluating the Options

 A. Disable Private Google Access: This is incorrect. Disabling it

would prevent an internal-only VM from reaching external Google APIs.
 B. Enable Private Google Access: This is the correct solution.
Enabling this feature on the subnet where the VM resides allows the
VM to use its internal IP address to securely access Google APIs.
 C. Ensure that VM interface has an external IP address
assigned: This would work, but it's often avoided for security reasons
and adds unnecessary complexity if the VM only needs to access
Google services. Private Google Access is the intended, more secure,
and often cheaper solution in this scenario.
 D. Ensure that the VM interface is connected to a subnet where
Private Google Access is disabled: This is incorrect, as a disabled
setting is the problem, not the solution.

Therefore, to access the external Analytics Reporting API without assigning

an external IP to the VM, you must Enable Private Google Access on the
subnet.

Would you like to know more about how to configure Private Google Access?

Q155.
Public cloud availability

The selected answer A. Public cloud is correct. Public cloud providers offer
virtually unlimited compute capacity on demand by pooling massive shared
infrastructure and scaling resources automatically, so your organization
doesn't need to buy or provision new hardware.

 Why not B Containers: Containers package and run applications but

still need compute hosts to run on and do not by themselves remove
the need to provision infrastructure.
 Why not C Private cloud: Private clouds can provide scalability but
require your organization to own, operate, or lease and manage the
underlying equipment.
 Why not D Microservices: Microservices are an architectural pattern
for organizing applications and do not provide infrastructure capacity
on their own.

Answer A is the best choice because it delivers on-demand, large-scale

compute without new equipment procurement.

Q156.
The correct answer is A. roles.

In Google Cloud Platform (GCP), you control which permissions are granted
to users, groups, or service accounts by assigning them Identity and
Access Management (IAM) roles.

🔑 IAM Roles in GCP

 Roles are collections of permissions.
 When you grant a role to a user, you grant them all the permissions
that the role contains.
 This is the fundamental principle of how permissions are managed in
GCP's IAM framework.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect

 B. access lists is a general security term but not the specific

mechanism used for permission assignment in GCP's IAM.
 C. authentications is the process of verifying a user's identity (e.g.,
username and password) but does not define what actions they are
authorized to perform.
 D. resources are the objects (like virtual machines, storage buckets,
etc.) that the permissions apply to, but they are not what is assigned
to users to grant permissions.

Q157.
Q158.

Q159.
The question asks to identify the false statement about billing in Google
Cloud Platform (GCP).

Based on the provided image and the Correct Answer: B, the false
statement is:

B. Setting a budget creates a hard cap on spending.

💡 Explanation of the Correct Answer

Setting a budget in Google Cloud Platform does not create a "hard cap" or
automatically stop your resource usage once the budget is reached.

 A GCP budget is primarily a monitoring and alerting tool.

 It sends notifications (alerts) when your spending approaches, meets,
or exceeds a specified amount, allowing you to take manual action.
 To enforce a hard cap, you would typically need to link the budget
alerts to a script or system that automatically disables billing or uses
a Cloud Functions trigger to shut down or modify the running
resources.
✅ Review of the Other Statements (True
Statements)
 A. Google has a free tier, which gives you limited access to
some GCP services. This is True. GCP offers a Free Tier with
services that are either always free or free for a specific usage limit.
 C. Disabling billing stops automatic payments. This is True.
Disabling billing prevents new charges from being applied and stops
the automatic payment process.
 D. When you disable billing, you are still responsible for all
outstanding charges for the project. This is True. Disabling billing
only stops future automatic payments and usage, but any charges
already incurred up to that point must still be paid.

Would you like to review other GCP billing concepts, such as how to link a
budget to actions?

Q160.
Q161.

Q162.
Q163.

The correct answer is D. billing exports.

In Google Cloud Platform (GCP), Billing Exports are the detailed copies of
your charges that can be automatically exported and stored inside a
BigQuery database. This allows for detailed analysis and custom reporting
of your cloud spending.

 A. billing monitors and B. billing queries are not standard GCP

terminology for this specific function.
 C. budgets are tools used to track your actual spending against a set
threshold and trigger alerts, but they are not the detailed copies of the
charges themselves.
🎯 GCP Billing Exports
Billing exports specifically refer to the feature that streams detailed usage
and cost data from Cloud Billing to BigQuery. This includes fields like
project ID, service description, SKU, usage, and cost information.

Q164.

Compute Engine predefined roles

Correct — A. Compute Viewer is the right answer.

 What Compute Viewer does: Grants read-only access to inspect

current Compute Engine resources and their metadata, allowing users
to list and view instances, disks, images, networks, and related
configuration.
 Why the others are incorrect:
o Compute Security Admin grants permissions to manage
security-related settings, such as firewall rules and security
policies.
o Compute Admin allows full management of Compute Engine
resources, including create, modify, and delete.
o Compute Browser provides the ability to list resources and see
limited metadata but does not necessarily grant the same
detailed read access to inspect resource configurations as
Compute Viewer.
  When to use Compute Viewer: Give it to auditors, inventory or
monitoring users, and anyone who must examine compute resources
without making changes.
Q165.

Q166.

❌ Why the Other Options are Incorrect

 B & D (Compliance Reports Manager/PCI/SOC 1 Audit):
Compliance audits (like PCI for credit card data or SOC 1 for internal
controls over financial reporting) are about meeting regulatory
standards, not actively managing real-time security vulnerabilities on
 individual VMs. They provide historical reports, not an effective,
current tool for identifying all unpatched VMs.
 C (View the Security Command Center to identify virtual
machines started more than 2 weeks ago): While an older VM
might be unpatched, using a VM's start time is an indirect and
unreliable proxy for vulnerability. A VM started yesterday could still be
running an old, unpatched image, and a VM started three weeks ago
could have been diligently updated last night. The key is the
vulnerability status, not the age of the instance.

The most direct way to identify VMs with security update issues is to check a
dedicated security tool for known vulnerabilities tied to the disk images
they use.

Q167.

Q168.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Not Suitable

 B. Migrate for Anthos: This product is designed to migrate virtual

machines (VMs) from on-premises or other clouds to run as
containers in Anthos. It is not the tool for simply moving flat data files
into Cloud Storage.
 C. BigQuery Data Transfer Service: This service automates data
transfers from external data sources (like Google SaaS apps or
Amazon S3) into BigQuery, not raw data files from on-premises
servers into Cloud Storage.
 D. Transfer Appliance: This is a physical hardware appliance that
you fill with data on-premises and then ship to a Google Cloud upload
facility. While great for extremely large data sets (petabytes) or
locations with poor network connectivity, it does not meet the
requirement for a process that is automated and managed over an
existing Dedicated Interconnect connection.

Q169.

Q170.
Q171.

The benefit of using an Application Programming Interface (API) to

allow a mobile app to make reservations with a hotel's legacy system is
that they do not have to rewrite the legacy system.

The correct option is D.

💡 Explanation
An API acts as a middleman or connector.

 It allows the new mobile application to interact with and

retrieve/update data in the existing legacy system.
 The legacy system's core logic and database remain intact, saving
the massive effort and risk of rewriting the entire system.
 The API exposes only the necessary functionality (like making a
reservation) in a modern, standardized way that the mobile app can
easily consume.
Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

 A. They do not have to develop the end-user application: This is

incorrect; the entire point is to develop a new mobile app (the end-
user application) that uses the API.
 B. They can deprecate their legacy systems: This is incorrect; the
API is being used to leverage the legacy system, not replace
(deprecate) it immediately.
 C. They can transform their systems to be cloud-native: While
API-led modernization can be a step toward cloud-native
transformation, the direct, immediate, and primary benefit for this
specific scenario of connecting a new app to an existing system is
avoiding the rewrite of the system itself. Cloud-native
transformation is a separate, larger effort.

Q172.

Cloud-native vs modernizing on-premises — why B is

correct

 Correct answer — B: Developers can launch new features in an

agile way.

 Cloud-native design (microservices, CI/CD, managed platform services)

enables rapid, frequent, and low-risk deployments, feature toggles,
and iterative personalization tied to user preferences across seasons.
  Why A is wrong: Cloud providers do not supply your application
source code; they provide infrastructure, managed services, and
developer tooling, not your application logic.
 Why C is wrong: Migrating on-premises architecture without updates
rarely achieves cloud benefits; modernization typically requires re-
architecting to be scalable, resilient, and cloud-optimized.
 Why D is wrong: Cloud-native often shifts spending from capital
expenditure to operational expenditure and improves cost flexibility,
but it does not accelerate capex planning as a primary benefit.

Q173.

The correct answer is D. By programmatically connecting the inventory

system to their website, the company can ensure real-time updates on stock
availability, preventing customers from seeing and attempting to purchase
out-of-stock items.

In summary, the primary benefit of using an API in this scenario is to create

an automated, reliable data flow (programmatically connecting) between the
inventory data source and the customer-facing website.

Q174.
The correct answer is D. By emphasizing shared ownership of business
outcomes, increasing communication between the web developers and
operations personnel can reduce issues caused by silos. This approach
fosters collaboration and aligns the teams toward common goals, breaking
down barriers created by separate systems and responsibilities.

Q175.

The correct answer is C. Real-time business transaction accuracy at scale.

Storing customer reservation data in the cloud allows a large hotel chain to
process transactions accurately and efficiently, even as the volume of data
grows.

Q176.

Answer

A. Accept and learn from the bug because failure is normal.

Failures are inevitable in complex systems; follow a blameless postmortem

to identify root causes, fix the bug, and improve processes and telemetry to
reduce recurrence.
Q177.

Correct answer

B. Increasing compute capacity is time-consuming and costly.

Organizations struggle to scale on-premises infrastructure because adding

physical servers, storage, networking, and the associated procurement,
provisioning, and maintenance takes significant time and capital
expenditure. Option A is not the primary barrier to scaling compute capacity;
compliance can constrain placement but does not make basic scaling
inherently difficult. Option C is incorrect because serverless functions are not
the typical limiting factor for on-prem setups. Option D may be true for some
enterprises, but complexity of multi-cloud is a separate challenge and not
the main reason on-premises scaling itself is hard.

Q178.

D. Hybrid cloud

 Hybrid cloud lets the organization keep sensitive or high-volume data

on-premises while moving selected datasets to BigQuery for analytics.
  It provides flexibility to integrate on-prem systems with cloud
analytics, optimize cost, and maintain data residency and security
controls.

Q179.

Q180.

The correct answer is A. Integrates with business intelligence and

analytics platforms.

☁️Cloud SQL and Business Insights

Cloud SQL is a fully managed relational database service (like MySQL,
PostgreSQL, or SQL Server) offered by Google Cloud. Its primary role in
creating business insights is providing a reliable, high-performance, and
scalable database to store business data.

The most direct way Cloud SQL helps generate insights is by integrating
with specialized Business Intelligence (BI) and analytics platforms
(like Looker, Tableau, Google Sheets, or other ETL/data warehousing tools).

 Cloud SQL stores the structured data (e.g., sales records,

customer data, inventory).
 BI/analytics platforms connect to Cloud SQL to query, visualize,
and analyze this data, which leads to business insights.

Why other options are less accurate:

 B. Generates predictions using machine learning models: While

the data in Cloud SQL can be used to train ML models, Cloud SQL itself
is a database and doesn't intrinsically run the ML prediction
models. That's typically done by services like Vertex AI.
 C. Generates real-time charts and intelligent analytics: Cloud
SQL is the data source, not the visualization tool. The charts and
analytics are generated by the connected BI/analytics platforms.
 D. Transforms business data from unstructured to structured:
While data must be structured to be stored in a relational database like
Cloud SQL, the transformation itself (ETL/ELT processes) is typically
done by separate data integration tools before or during the
loading into Cloud SQL, or by the analytics platform. Cloud SQL's role is
storage, not the core transformation process.

Q181.

The correct answer is B. To ingest and analyze structured and

unstructured data at scale, in real time.

Here's a breakdown of why:

☁️Cloud Data Warehouse Benefits
The scenario describes a virtual customer support agent generating vast
amounts of text and speech data.

 Vast amounts of data (Scale): This volume requires a solution that

can scale its storage and processing power dynamically, which is a
core benefit of a cloud environment.
 Text and Speech Data (Unstructured Data): Text (transcripts,
chat logs) and speech (audio files, though likely analyzed via
transcribed text) are primarily unstructured data. Traditional data
warehouses were designed for structured data (rows and columns).
Modern cloud data warehouses (or cloud data platforms) are built to
ingest and analyze both structured (e.g., customer metadata) and
unstructured data efficiently.
 Customer Support (Real-Time Insight): For customer support,
timely insights are critical for immediate action (e.g., flagging issues or
escalating problems), necessitating real-time analysis capabilities.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect

 A. To natively visualize both types of data using a dashboard in

real time: Visualization is a function of Business Intelligence (BI)
tools, which connect to the data warehouse. The data warehouse's
primary job is storage and analysis, not native visualization.
 C. To secure data transmission between cloud and on-premises
environments: Security is handled by network protocols, VPNs,
and encryption, not the data warehouse itself. While the data
warehouse is secure, this is a general networking/security function, not
the reason for its use in this specific analysis scenario.
 D. To transform data from structured to unstructured: This is
incorrect. Data transformation, in general, is about converting data
from one format to another (often unstructured or raw data into a
structured or modeled format) to make it easier for analysis. Cloud
data warehouses aid this process, but they don't primarily convert
structured data to unstructured. The core need here is to analyze the
existing unstructured data.

Q182.
Q183.

Q184.

Cloud data management solution

Correct answer: B. Data lake

A data lake stores structured, semi-structured, and unstructured data in
their raw, native formats in a single repository, enabling schema-on-read and
flexible downstream processing. Databases and data warehouses require
predefined schemas or transform data before storage, while "data field" is
not a relevant solution in this context.

Q185.

The correct answer is C. To run different versions of the app for different
users. App Engine allows organizations to deploy and test new features by
running multiple versions of an application, enabling them to validate
features with specific user groups.

Q186.

Q187.
Based on the content, the organization should encourage patients to choose
option B: Wear Internet of Things (IoT) devices that upload their health data
in real time. This method ensures efficient and automatic data collection
without requiring manual intervention.

Q188.

Q189.
Recommended product

B. Cloud Spanner

Cloud Spanner provides global consistency with strongly consistent,

distributed relational transactions and scales horizontally to handle
essentially unlimited data and throughput, making it the correct choice for
globally distributed banking transactions.

Q190.

Q191.
A global organization benefits most from using Cloud Spanner because of its
ability to provide a globally consistent, transactional database by replicating
data across regions in real time.

Global Consistency and Availability: Real-time replication ensures that

all users, regardless of their location, are working with the same, most up-to-
date data. This is crucial for global applications like e-commerce or financial
services that require strong consistency and high availability across
continents.

Low Latency: By placing data closer to users in different regions, replication

helps to minimize latency for read and write operations, improving the user
experience worldwide.

Disaster Recovery: Regional replication provides inherent resilience and

disaster recovery capabilities. If one region fails, the application can failover
to another region where the data is already replicated.

Q192.
The cybersecurity threat described is D.Phishing.

🎣 Phishing Explained
Phishing is a type of social engineering attack where an attacker
impersonates a trustworthy entity (in this case, the internet service
provider) in an electronic communication, such as an email, to trick a victim
into giving up sensitive information, like bank account numbers,
passwords, or credit card details.

Why Not the Others?

 A. Ransomware: Malicious software that encrypts a victim's files,

holding them for ransom until a fee is paid. This is a form of malware,
not a deception to steal credentials.
 B. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS): A cyberattack where
multiple compromised computer systems flood a target's server with
traffic, causing a service outage. It doesn't involve tricking a user into
giving up their credentials.
 C. Spamming: Sending irrelevant or unsolicited messages over
the internet, typically to a large number of users, often for advertising.
While phishing emails can be a type of spam, the specific act of
deception to steal information is what defines it as phishing.

Q193.
Correct answer: A. Increase top-down visibility and foster a culture
of blamelessness.

Top-down sponsorship and visible leadership drive transformational change,

while blameless practices encourage experimentation, rapid learning, and
cross-functional collaboration—key traits of a transformational cloud journey.

Q194.

 Correct answer: C — Data is encrypted by default. Google Cloud

automatically encrypts customer data at rest and in transit using
strong encryption algorithms.
 Why the other options are incorrect:
 A: Security Command Center is a security management and threat
detection service, not the mechanism that encrypts stored data.
  B: Cloud Data Loss Prevention inspects and classifies sensitive data
and can help de-identify it, but it does not provide the default
encryption layer for stored data.
 D: Applying tags does not trigger encryption; encryption is applied
automatically regardless of tagging.

Q195.

✅D. Combine the datasets and make predictions using machine

learning

Combining multiple marketing datasets into a unified dataset enables richer

features and correlations; machine learning models can then learn patterns
across those features to produce more accurate user acquisition forecasts.

❌C. Separate the datasets and make predictions using machine

learning: Separating the datasets prevents the ML model from learning the
cross-channel correlations and combined impact of different marketing
activities. The power of multi-dataset analysis comes from treating them as a
single, richer feature set.

Q196.
The correct Google Cloud tool for an organization that wants to collect
metrics and metadata from their cloud applications and put them into
dashboards is Cloud Monitoring.

☁️Explanation
 Cloud Monitoring (formerly Stackdriver Monitoring) is the primary
tool within Google Cloud's operations suite for collecting and
visualizing metrics, uptime checks, and metadata. It provides
dashboards for visualizing performance data and setting up alerting
rules.
 Cloud Trace is used for collecting and analyzing latency data from
applications to understand performance bottlenecks.
 Cloud Logging is used for storing, searching, analyzing, and
monitoring log data (not metrics and general metadata).
 Cloud Debugger is used to inspect the state of a running application
in real-time without stopping or slowing it down, primarily for
troubleshooting code issues.

Since the goal is to collect metrics and display them in dashboards, Cloud
Monitoring is the appropriate choice.

Q197.
Data access policy responsibility

 Correct answer: C — Their organization's IT team.

 Why: Defining data access policies involves setting who in the
organization can view, modify, or share specific Google Cloud
resources, mapping business roles to permissions, and enforcing
internal compliance and governance requirements. That responsibility
lies with the organization's IT, security, or governance team.
 Why not the others:
o Cloud Identity provides identity and access management tools
but does not itself define an organization's policies.
o Google Cloud Customer Care supports platform issues and
troubleshooting, not internal policy definition.
o End users do not set organization-wide access policies.
Q198.
Correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D

Their on-premises applications take months to update and deploy, which

drives a business decision to modernize in the cloud to achieve faster release
cadence, continuous deployment, and shorter time-to-market.

Why the other choices are incorrect

 A Their on-premises applications only autoscale to meet demand —

Autoscaling to meet demand is a positive operational capability and
would not prompt modernization for that reason.
 B They want to change from a pay-as-you-go model to a capital
expenditure model — Cloud modernization typically moves
organizations from capital expenditure to pay-as-you-go, not the
reverse.
 C Their source code changes erroneously without developer interaction
— Erroneous source-code changes indicate process or security issues,
not a primary business driver for cloud modernization; this would be
addressed by CI/CD controls, code review, and governance rather than
cloud migration alone.

Q199.
Based on the information provided, the correct answer is A. Vision API. The
Vision API is a Google Cloud service designed for categorizing and analyzing
images using pre-trained machine learning models.

Q200.

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. To connect third-party systems to ensure up-to-

date information.
  APIs enable real-time, secure integration between the loyalty program
and partner systems so points, transactions, and availability stay
synchronized across stores.
 A is incorrect because disaster recovery and bulk data migration use
backup and replication tools, not primary-purpose APIs.
 B is incomplete because analytics dashboards typically consume
aggregated data from APIs or data pipelines, but the core need with
partners is connectivity and current data.
 C is a possible use of APIs for recommendation delivery, but the
primary reason in a multi-partner loyalty scenario is keeping third-
party systems connected and up to date.
Q201.

Correct answer

D. An application programming interface (API)

Why an API is the right choice

 Seamless sharing: APIs provide a standardized, programmatic way

for the travel agency to expose content to partners so partners can
automatically fetch, filter, and display posts or assets.
 Control and security: APIs enable authentication, authorization, rate
limits, and scoped access so the agency controls what partners can
see and do.
  Real-time and automation: APIs support push (webhooks) or pull
models for near real-time updates and easy integration into partners’
systems.
 Scalability and interoperability: APIs work across languages,
platforms, and architectures, making them suitable for many partner
environments.

Why the other options are not suitable

 A. A NoSQL database — A storage layer, not a sharing interface;

exposing a database directly to partners is insecure and impractical.
 B. Anthos Config Management — A Kubernetes configuration and
policy tool for managing clusters, not a content-sharing solution.
 C. The App Engine standard environment — A hosting/runtime
platform that could serve an API, but it is not the mechanism for
sharing content itself; the API is the appropriate abstraction.

Q202.

Q203.
The correct Google Cloud solution the organization should use is B. Bare
Metal Solution.

☁️Rationale
 Bare Metal Solution is specifically designed for organizations that
need to migrate specialized, complex, and highly-regulated
workloads (like Oracle databases, SAP, or specific industry
applications) to the cloud.
 It provides dedicated, high-performance, non-hypervised servers,
which allows organizations to maintain their existing complex
licensing and architecture without modification. This is crucial for
applications with strict licensing tied to physical cores or those that
cannot tolerate virtualization overhead.
 Compute Engine (A) offers virtual machines (VMs) and would require
the workloads to run on a Google-managed hypervisor, which might
conflict with complex licensing or architecture.
 Cloud Run (C) is a managed container platform, suitable for modern,
stateless microservices, not for specialized workloads with complex,
legacy licensing and architecture.
 Cloud Functions (D) is a serverless function-as-a-service platform,
best for event-driven, short-lived functions, and is completely
unsuitable for migrating specialized, licensed, and complex workloads.

Q204.
Answer

D. They could view data history to see transactions.

The cloud-based mobile payment system would record transaction logs and
timestamps centrally, letting the organization review transaction history to
reconcile sales with cash collections and detect discrepancies.

❌B. They could reduce their error budget overspend: While cloud
systems can improve efficiency, "error budget overspend" is a term often
related to Site Reliability Engineering (SRE) and software uptime, not directly
to cash discrepancies in vending operations.

Q205.

❌ Why the Other Options are Less Suitable

 A. Site reliability engineering (SRE): SRE is a discipline focused on
ensuring the reliability and uptime of systems, not a tool for inter-
system data transfer.
  C. A customized machine learning model: Machine learning is
used for prediction, classification, or optimization (e.g., predicting
delivery times), not for the direct, real-time transfer of structured data
like menus and orders.
 D. A multi-regional database: A database stores data. While data
needs to be stored, a database alone doesn't provide the
communication layer needed for the food delivery service and the
separate partner restaurants to exchange the data with each other's
systems. An API is needed to facilitate the access and update of this
data across different systems.

Q206.

Q207.
Q208.

Q209.

Question and correct choice

The correct answer is C. Unexpected downtime could risk the loss of

customers.
Why C is correct

 SLAs for availability (99.99%) protect business continuity; failing them

usually means actual downtime occurred, and downtime directly
affects end users and customers.
 Customer trust, revenue, and contractual penalties can follow service
interruptions, so loss of customers is a realistic and primary business
impact.

Why the other options are incorrect or less appropriate

 A. The organization risks using up their error budget.

Error budgets describe allowable downtime under an SRE model and are
more of an internal operational metric; the question asks for the
organization-level impact, not an operational bookkeeping consequence.
 B. Renegotiation of the SLA to put less emphasis on uptime
could be necessary.
Renegotiation is a possible long-term outcome but not an immediate impact
of the provider failing the SLA; it also would typically be driven by business
strategy rather than a direct consequence.
 D. All data stored in their database could be unexpectedly lost.
Availability failures do not necessarily imply data loss; data loss is a separate
risk (integrity/backups) and is not the typical or guaranteed outcome of
missing an availability SLA.

Quick takeaway

SLA breaches for availability most directly threaten customer experience and
retention, making option C the best answer.

Q210.
Q211.

Q212.
To calculate the downtime for a service level objective (SLO) of 99.999%
(five nines), we start with the total minutes in a year. A year has 365 days,
and each day has 24 hours, with each hour having 60 minutes. So:

[ 365 \times 24 \times 60 = 525,600 \text{ minutes per year} ]

The SLO of 99.999% means the service is available 99.999% of the time,
leaving 0.001% for downtime. The downtime in minutes is:

[ 525,600 \times 0.00001 = 5.256 \text{ minutes per year} ]

Rounding to the nearest option, this is approximately 5 minutes.

So, the correct answer is A. 5 minutes.

Q213.

Q214.
The provided image asks: "What does Cloud Debugger help an
organization do?" with a selected answer.

The correct function of Cloud Debugger (part of Google Cloud's operations

suite, formerly Stackdriver) is to inspect the state of a running
application in real time without stopping or slowing it down.

Based on the options:

 A. Implement code updates in real time without affecting the

service level objective (SLO). (This is related to CI/CD and
deployment, not specifically debugging.)
 B. Inspect source code in real time without affecting user
downtime. (This accurately describes a core function of Cloud
Debugger, as it allows inspection of live code without interrupting the
application or users.)
 C. Manage code and accelerate application development. (This
is too broad; it describes the goal of many developer tools, not the
specific function of a debugger.)
 D. Analyze live source code during user downtime. (Cloud
Debugger's main benefit is that it doesn't require downtime; it works
on live, production applications.)

The most accurate answer is B. Inspect source code in real time

without affecting user downtime.
 Cloud Debugger Function
Cloud Debugger allows developers to inspect the call stack and local
variables of a live, running application in production without stopping the
process. It captures a snapshot of the application's state at any code line
without affecting its performance or causing user-facing downtime.

Q215.

Q216.

The organization should use Compute Engine (C) as it provides full control
over virtual machine infrastructure while supporting a custom home-grown
application with autoscaling and automatic updates.
Why the other options are not correct

 Cloud Run: Serverless containers with minimal infrastructure control;

autoscaling is native but you cannot manage VMs or the underlying
OS.
 App Engine: Platform-as-a-service with limited control over runtime
and OS; designed for rapid app deployment, not full VM-level
customization.
 Cloud Build: CI/CD service for building and packaging artifacts; not a
runtime or VM infrastructure product.

Q217.

The correct application modernization approach for an organization that

wants to build an entirely new infrastructure and applications in the
cloud is:

C. Invent in greenfield.

☁️Explanation of Modernization Approaches

The situation describes creating something completely new without relying
on existing systems, which is the definition of a greenfield project.

 Greenfield (Invent): This approach means building the application

and its infrastructure from scratch, specifically designed to take full
advantage of cloud-native technologies and services. Since there are
no existing constraints (a "green field"), the organization can select
the most modern and efficient architecture, which is the most suitable
strategy for building an entirely new cloud presence.
 Brownfield (Invent): This refers to building new applications within
the context of an existing IT environment, where legacy constraints or
 existing systems must be considered and integrated. This is not
suitable when the goal is to build an entirely new infrastructure.
 Move the application to the cloud, and then change it (Lift and
Shift/Replatform, then Refactor): This and option B apply to
existing applications that are being migrated or modernized. Since
the organization is building entirely new applications, these options
are irrelevant.

Q218.

Why this is correct

Creating a culture of continuous peer-to-peer learning with official training

materials transforms how skills spread across the organization by making
learning social, ongoing, and practical. Peer learning builds knowledge
retention through teaching, enables rapid sharing of contextual solutions,
scales skill development without relying solely on external trainers, and
aligns informal learning with official curricula to maintain standards.

Why the other choices are not transformational

 A prioritizes training current employees over hiring, which can help but
misses cultural and structural changes needed to sustain continuous
upskilling.
 B relies on granting privileged access to external partners and
contractors, which creates short-term capability but increases risk and
does not develop internal, lasting expertise.
  C encourages self-motivated isolated learning, which can produce
uneven results and prevents the knowledge amplification and
collaboration that drive transformational change.

Q219.

The quickest and most efficient way to customize access to resources for
several departments working on a project is:

A. By mapping IAM roles to job functions for each department

💡 Rationale
 IAM Roles are central to managing access efficiently in cloud
environments. They define a set of permissions that can be granted to
an identity (like a user, group, or service).
 Mapping roles to job functions/departments means you create a
role (e.g., "Project-Finance-Reader-Role," "Project-Dev-Editor-Role")
with the specific permissions required by that department for the
project.
 Instead of managing permissions for every single employee (B & C),
you only manage the roles. New employees in a department
automatically inherit the required access when they are assigned the
department's role. If the access needs change, you only update the
role, not hundreds of individual user policies.
 B (Assigning primitive roles): Primitive roles (like Owner, Editor,
Viewer) are too broad and violate the principle of least privilege,
making them inefficient for fine-grained departmental access.
 C (Applying least-privilege to roles for each employee): While
applying least privilege is the goal, doing it for each employee is
cumbersome and inefficient. The efficient way to implement least
 privilege at scale is by applying it to the roles and then assigning
those roles to groups or individuals.
 D (Creating a single shared service account): This would give
every department the same level of access, completely defeating the
purpose of customizing access for each department, and it also poses
a major security risk.

Therefore, defining department-specific roles is the most efficient and

quickest scalable method to grant customized access.

Q220.

Cloud cost-control: best choice and why

Answer: B. Share cost views with the departments to establish more

accountability.

Why B is correct

 Visibility drives behavior: when departments can see their own cloud
spend they are likelier to make cost-conscious decisions and avoid
waste.
 Accountability enables ownership of optimization actions such as
rightsizing, turning off unused resources, and choosing lower-cost
options.
  Shared cost views support chargeback/showback models and
encourage collaboration between finance, engineering, and ops to
reduce costs.

Why the other options are not correct

 A. Streamline the hardware procurement process to reduce costs.

o Irrelevant for cloud spend because cloud shifts costs from
hardware procurement to service consumption; procurement
optimization won’t directly reduce cloud usage or run costs.
 C. Change the cost model from operational expenditure to capital
expenditure.
o Cloud providers typically bill as OPEX; reclassifying accounting
categories doesn’t reduce the actual consumption or recurring
charges.
 D. Ensure that all cloud resources are tagged with a single tag.
o Tagging is good for tracking, but a single tag for all resources is
useless. Effective tagging requires meaningful, consistent tags
(owner, environment, project) so costs can be attributed and
controlled.

Q221.

Correct answer: B. Collecting predefined and custom metrics from

applications and infrastructure.

Option A (Observing cloud expenditure in real time to ensure that budgets

are not exceeded) focuses on cost management, which is a specific aspect of
cloud operations but not the comprehensive definition of monitoring. Option
C (Tracking user activities to guarantee compliance with privacy regulations)
and Option D (Tracing user location to document regional access and
utilization) involve tracking user-related data, which is more about
compliance and usage analysis rather than the core concept of monitoring,
which centers on collecting and analyzing performance metrics from
applications and infrastructure.

Q222.

Q223.

Q224.
Correct answer and explanation

Answer: C. By auditing platform privacy practices against industry

standards.

 Google Cloud secures data at rest through encryption, access controls,

and regular privacy and compliance audits that map controls to
industry standards and regulations.
 Option A is incorrect because aggregating training data by industry
does not address encryption, access control, or platform-level privacy
controls for customer data at rest.
 Option B is incorrect because automatically locking files with
“suspicious code” is an active detection/response action, not a general
mechanism for protecting stored data at rest.
 Option D is incorrect because providing privacy reviews for critical
applications is a helpful service but is not the core platform-level
guarantee that ensures stored customer data remains secure and
private.

Key point: platform audits and compliance mappings validate that

encryption, key management, access controls, and operational practices
protect customer data when it is stored.

Q225.
Answer explanation

 Correct — C. Cloud platforms provide a broad set of managed

services, on-demand compute and storage, and tooling (CI/CD,
analytics, AI/ML, managed databases, autoscaling) that let developers
innovate faster and optimize resource usage.
 Why A is wrong. No provider guarantees 100% availability. Cloud
improves reliability but cannot promise perfect uptime.
 Why B is wrong. Serverless is a cloud capability that reduces
operational burden; avoiding it is not a benefit and does not address
developers’ frustration with on-prem limits.
 Why D is wrong. Optimizing maintenance for on-premises
infrastructure does not leverage cloud benefits; migrating to cloud or
using cloud services offloads many maintenance tasks.

Q226.
Q227.

Q228.

Cloud migration effect on finances

Correct answer: B. A shift toward OpEx

Why this is correct

Moving from traditional on-premises infrastructure to cloud services typically

changes spending from capital expenditures to operational expenditures.
Instead of large upfront purchases of servers and networking gear recorded
as CapEx, organizations pay ongoing usage-based fees for compute, storage,
and managed services recorded as OpEx.

Why the other options are incorrect

 A. No change to existing responsibilities — Responsibilities

usually change: teams shift from hardware procurement and
maintenance to managing cloud costs, architecture, and service
integrations.
 C. A shift toward using structured data — Cloud adoption does not
inherently force structured data; cloud supports both structured and
unstructured data.
 D. Increased hardware maintenance — Cloud reduces on-premises
hardware maintenance because the provider manages physical
infrastructure.

Q229.

Q230.
The policy that helps Google Cloud keep customer data private is B. Google
does not use customer data for advertising purposes.

🔒 Privacy in Google Cloud

This policy directly addresses data privacy by ensuring that customer data
remains confidential and is not exploited for Google's commercial
interests, such as ad targeting.

 Option A relates to service reliability and uptime, not data privacy.

 Option C is not a standard security or privacy procedure; data is
generally secured and kept online with multiple layers of protection.
 Option D is incorrect; Google Cloud generally allows customers
control over their own encryption keys (e.g., Customer-Managed
Encryption Keys - CMEK).

Q231.
SRE Rule of Thumb:

Error budget exhausted? → Freeze changes, focus on reliability.

Error budget remaining? → Can innovate — but only if SLO is met.

Here, SLO is NOT met → Prioritize stability, regardless of remaining

budget.

Final Answer: C

Q232.

Q233.
❌ Why the Other Options are Incorrect

 A. A serverless compute function struggles to scale: This is

incorrect because the problem explicitly states the organization has an
on-premises infrastructure. Serverless computing is a cloud-based
model that is inherently designed to scale automatically, so it's
irrelevant to this scenario.
 B. The application contains unclean data: Unclean data can cause
logical errors, incorrect outputs, or performance degradation, but it's
less likely to cause repeated application failure specifically and
reliably during a brief period of peak usage compared to insufficient
server capacity.
 D. The application is only configurable on-premises: This
describes a deployment limitation but doesn't explain why the failure
occurs during peak usage. The failure is a performance/capacity issue,
not a configuration issue.

Q234.

The best definition of artificial intelligence (AI) among the options provided is
D. Any system capable of a task that normally requires human
cognition.

🤖 Why Option D is the Best Definition

Artificial Intelligence is fundamentally about creating machines that can
simulate human intelligence to perform tasks.
  Human Cognition Tasks: These tasks include learning, reasoning,
problem-solving, perception, and language understanding—all things
we associate with being "smart." AI systems, like those used for image
recognition, natural language processing, or complex decision-making,
are designed to perform these tasks.
 Broadest Scope: This definition is the most comprehensive as it
captures the goal of AI: to replicate or mimic cognitive functions
typically reserved for humans.

❌ Why Other Options are Less Accurate

 A. Any system that ingests data in real time: This describes many
modern data processing systems or stream analytics, not
exclusively AI. A simple dashboard could do this without any
"intelligence."
 B. Any system that automatically structures data: This is a
function of data management, database systems, or ETL
(Extract, Transform, Load) processes. While AI can be used for
sophisticated data structuring, this definition is too narrow and applies
to non-AI technology as well.
 C. Any system capable of a task that requires smart analytics
to generate predictions: This is a good definition for Machine
Learning (ML), which is a subset of AI. Not all AI involves prediction
(e.g., a simple expert system might use logic to solve problems without
generating statistical predictions). The focus on "predictions" makes it
too specific to cover the full scope of AI.

Q235.
Q236.

Q237.
Q238.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Scanned documents are typically image files (e.g., PDFs or JPGs) that are not
searchable by default. To extract and search for key information (like names,
dates, etc.), the organization needs to:

1. Convert the scanned images into digital, searchable text — this

is done via OCR (Optical Character Recognition).
 2. Search and extract specific entities (names, dates, etc.) from the
resulting text.

Many cloud providers (e.g., Google Cloud Vision, Amazon Textract, Microsoft
Azure Computer Vision) offer APIs that:

 Perform OCR to create digital (text) versions of scanned documents.

 Allow searching and locating key information (entity extraction,
keyword search).

Thus, APIs enable creating digital versions of the documents and

locating key information — exactly what option C describes.

Why not the others?

 A: Replacing documents with a survey doesn't help search existing

scanned files.
 B: Real-time ingestion and encrypting unmatched words are unrelated
to the core need (OCR + search).
 D: Scanned documents are already unstructured; the goal is to make
them structured/searchable, not the opposite.

Final Answer: C

Q239.

Q240.
Q241.

Q242.

The correct answer is B. Provide multiple layers of network security

using a zero-trust model.
Explanation:

 Tactical cloud adoption typically involves point solutions, siloed

security controls, and perimeter-based defenses (e.g., firewalls, VPNs)
with implicit trust inside the network.
 Transformational cloud adoption shifts toward a zero-trust
architecture, which assumes no implicit trust—verifying every user,
device, and request regardless of location. This includes:
o Micro-segmentation
o Least-privilege access
o Continuous validation
o Multi-layered security (identity, network, endpoint, workload)

Why the other options are incorrect:

 A. Provide staff identities using only Google Cloud

authentication

→ Too narrow; relying on a single identity provider contradicts zero-trust and

transformational resilience.

 C. Emphasize strong perimeter security and trust in their

private network

→ This is a tactical approach, not transformational. Perimeter security is

outdated in cloud-native, hybrid environments.

 D. Emphasize three main Identity Access Management roles:

owner, editor, and viewer

→ While role-based access control (RBAC) is important, it’s a basic IAM

practice, not a transformative security strategy.

Bottom line: Moving to a transformational approach requires adopting

zero-trust with defense-in-depth—making B the best choice.

Q243.
Based on the image provided, the correct answer is C. Refund for service
interruption.

Explanation

 What is an SLA? A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a formal

contract between a service provider (like a cloud provider) and a
customer. It defines specific, measurable standards the provider must
meet, such as uptime percentage (e.g., 99.9% availability), response
times, and performance.
 Why C is Correct: When a provider fails to meet these promised
standards (an "SLA breach"), the contract almost always specifies a
remedy for the customer. The most common remedy is a partial
refund or, more frequently, a service credit applied to the customer's
future bills. This compensates the customer for the service degradation
or interruption they experienced.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

 A. Increase in subscription fees: This is illogical. A provider cannot

penalize a customer for its own failure to deliver a service.
 B. Cloud service shutdown: This is an extreme operational failure,
not a planned contractual consequence of an SLA breach. An SLA
breach (e.g., dipping from 99.99% uptime to 99.8% uptime) is a
performance issue, not a total shutdown.
  D. Error budget expansion: An "error budget" is an internal concept
used by providers (especially in Site Reliability Engineering) to
measure how much "unreliability" is acceptable before they breach the
SLA. An SLA breach consumes or exceeds the error budget; it doesn't
expand it for the customer. This is not a customer-facing remedy.

Q244.

Q245.

Q246.
Based on the image provided, the correct answer is C. Contact Center AI.

🤖 Why this is the correct choice:

 Contact Center AI (CCAI): This is a specific Google Cloud solution

designed precisely for the scenario described. It helps customer
service departments increase operational efficiency by using AI-
powered virtual agents (built on Dialogflow) to handle common
customer inquiries 24/7. It also maintains personalized dialog by
understanding natural language and providing conversational, context-
aware responses. Furthermore, it can assist human agents with real-
time information, improving their efficiency and personalization.

🚫 Why the other options are incorrect:

 A. Recommendations AI: This service is used to provide

personalized product or content recommendations (like on an e-
commerce or media site), not to manage customer service
conversations.
 B. Cloud Identity: This is an identity and access management (IAM)
service used to manage user accounts and security policies. It has no
role in customer-facing dialog.
 D. Text-to-Speech: This service converts written text into natural-
sounding speech. While Contact Center AI might use this technology as
part of its voice interactions, it is not the complete solution for
managing and optimizing a customer service department.

Q247.
Q248.

Based on the image provided, the correct answer is D. App Engine.

Here's a breakdown of why:

🎯 Why App Engine is Correct

 No Infrastructure Management: App Engine is a fully managed,

serverless Platform as a Service (PaaS). This means developers can
just deploy their code, and Google Cloud handles all the underlying
infrastructure, including servers, patching, and maintenance. This
directly matches the "without having to manage application
infrastructure" requirement.
 Autoscaling: App Engine is designed to automatically scale your
application in response to traffic. It can scale down to zero instances
 when there's no traffic (saving costs) and scale up instantly to handle
large, sudden spikes.

❌ Why the Other Options are Incorrect

 A. Anthos: This is a platform for managing and modernizing

applications (often using Kubernetes) across different environments
(like on-premises data centers and other clouds). It's more about
managing infrastructure, not abstracting it away completely.
 B. Apigee: This is an API management platform. It's used to design,
secure, and analyze APIs, not to host the actual web application.
 C. AutoML: This is a suite of machine learning products used to
train and deploy custom ML models. It's unrelated to hosting web
applications.

Q249.

250.
Q251.

Based on the requirements in the image, the correct option is C.

💡 Rationale
This question describes a classic high-volume, real-time (streaming) data
analytics problem, which is common for large-scale IoT platforms. The
pipeline needs to ingest, process, and store/analyze data very quickly.

Here is the breakdown of the correct pipeline (Option C):

1. Ingestion: Cloud Pub/Sub

a. What it is: A fully managed, scalable messaging and event
ingestion service.
b. Why it's used here: It's designed to handle millions of events
per second from globally distributed devices ("million
 customers," "many home devices"). It acts as a durable, scalable
buffer between the IoT devices and the processing system.
2. Processing: Cloud Dataflow
a. What it is: A fully managed stream (and batch) data processing
service based on Apache Beam.
b. Why it's used here: The key requirement is to "respond very
quickly in near real time." Dataflow excels at performing complex
transformations, aggregations, and anomaly detection on
unbounded, "live" data streams as they arrive.
3. Storage & Analysis: BigQuery
a. What it is: A serverless, highly scalable data warehouse.
b. Why it's used here: After Dataflow processes the data (e.g.,
identifies a potential burglary event), it can stream the results
directly into BigQuery. BigQuery can handle massive amounts of
data and allows for powerful, near-real-time SQL queries to
analyze security trends, feed dashboards, or trigger alerts.

This Pub/Sub -> Dataflow -> BigQuery architecture is the standard, most
scalable pattern for real-time streaming analytics on Google Cloud.

⛔ Why Other Options Are Less Suitable

 A. ...Data Studio: Data Studio (now Looker Studio) is a visualization

tool, not a data storage system or sink. It would be used to read data
from BigQuery to create dashboards, but it's not the final step of the
data pipeline itself.
 B. ...Cloud Functions, ...Looker: Cloud Functions is not designed for
high-throughput, persistent stream ingestion (that's Pub/Sub's job),
and Looker is a BI/visualization tool, not a data sink.
 D. ...Cloud Functions, ...Cloud Dataproc:
o Cloud Functions: Again, not the right tool for mass ingestion.
o Cloud Dataproc: This is a managed Hadoop/Spark service.
While Spark Streaming can be used, Dataflow is Google Cloud's
more modern, fully-managed, and auto-scaling service
specifically for this kind of streaming use case.

Q252.
The scenario describes an organization running an application on a virtual
machine (VM). Every time they need to edit specific features, they must
bring the system offline to update the application. This causes downtime,
which is undesirable.

The goal is to find a more appropriate solution that allows updates

(especially to specific features) without taking the entire system offline.

Analyzing the options:

 A. GPUs

 GPUs are for accelerating compute-intensive tasks (e.g., graphics, ML).

They do not help with updating applications without downtime.
 → Incorrect

 B. Containers

Containers (e.g., Docker) package an application with its dependencies. They

enable:

o Modular updates: Update only specific containers

(microservices/features).
o Zero-downtime deployments: Use blue-green deployments,
rolling updates, or canary releases.
o Run multiple versions side-by-side.
→ Correct — Containers allow feature-specific updates without bringing the
whole system offline.

 C. Hypervisors

Hypervisors manage virtual machines. The app is already on a VM.

Switching hypervisors doesn’t solve the update/downtime issue.
→ Incorrect

 D. Solid State Disk

SSDs improve I/O performance but do not address application update

strategies or downtime.

→ Incorrect

Final Answer:

B. Containers

Q253.

The most sensible and easiest way to configure committed use for long-term
VM usage across multiple projects, especially when they can project their
usage, is to enable committed use with discount sharing.

Therefore, the correct option is A.

Why Discount Sharing Works Best

 Ease of Configuration: Instead of setting up and managing individual
commitments for every project, you configure the commitment at the
billing account level, which all the projects share. This is much
simpler than managing per-project commitments (Option C or D) or
trying to manage daily changes (Option B).
  Maximum Flexibility and Cost Savings: With discount sharing, the
committed use discount is applied to any eligible usage across all
linked projects under the same billing account.
o If one project uses less than its estimated share of the
commitment on a given day, another project that uses more can
benefit from the leftover committed capacity, ensuring
maximum utilization of the commitment and minimizing
waste.
 Centralized Management: The commitment is purchased once at
the organizational or billing level, making it easier to track and adjust
over time.

Analysis of Other Options

 B. Review the usage of resources by each project on a daily

basis... This is impractical and overly complex. Committed Use
Discounts (CUDs) are based on one-year or three-year commitments,
not daily usage, and require a long-term contract.
 C. Take a report of each project's use in the last year. Enable
committed use on a per-project basis... This is more complex
than necessary. While a feasible approach, managing individual
commitments for every project increases administrative overhead and
can lead to underutilization of the commitment if one project's usage
drops while another's increases. Discount sharing (Option A) solves this
issue by pooling the commitment.
 D. Share a Google Sheet and request each project team to
send in their estimate. Enable committed use accordingly on a
per-project basis. This involves manual overhead for data
collection and still suffers from the fragmentation and potential
underutilization issues of a per-project commitment (like Option C).

In summary, Option A, enabling committed use with discount

sharing, is the easiest and most cost-effective way to manage long-
term usage across multiple projects in an organization.

Q254.
Q255.

The best recommendation for a global insurance company using Google

Cloud Platform (GCP) that needs a scalable, cost-effective solution for
encrypted desktop streaming to allow employees to work from home and
access corporate resources is B. Google Cloud Virtual Desktop.

Explanation of the Best Choice 💻

 Google Cloud Virtual Desktop (GCVD) is specifically designed for

providing Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) solutions in the
cloud. It offers a fully managed service that allows organizations to
deliver secure, encrypted desktop streaming to remote
employees.
  Scalability and Cost-Effectiveness: Being a GCP service, GCVD is
inherently scalable, allowing the insurance company to easily adjust
resources based on the number of remote employees. This pay-as-you-
go model is typically more cost-effective than managing a complex
on-premises VDI solution.
 Integration: It integrates seamlessly with other GCP services and the
existing infrastructure the company is already using, as stated in the
prompt.
 Encrypted Access: GCVD ensures the desktop streaming and access
to corporate resources are encrypted and secure, which is critical for
an insurance company dealing with sensitive data.

Why the Other Options are Less Suitable 🤔

 A. Google Workspace: This is a suite of productivity tools (like Gmail,

Docs, Drive, Meet) and is not designed to provide a full, encrypted,
streamable virtual desktop environment for accessing all corporate
resources.
 C. Create an encrypted connection to the office network: While
a necessary component of remote work security (e.g., a VPN), this
option describes a general mechanism, not the scalable, cost-
effective desktop streaming solution requested. It doesn't offer a
VDI solution like GCVD.
 D. Enable Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) to connect to remote
desktops: RDP is a standard protocol, but simply enabling it is not a
complete, scalable, cost-effective cloud-managed VDI solution.
Managing RDP directly across a global workforce without a VDI service
like GCVD is generally less secure, less scalable, and more
operationally complex than using a dedicated platform.

Q256.
Q257.

The question asks: Which of the following NIST Cloud characteristics

uses the business model of shared resources in a cloud
environment?
Options:

A. Elasticity

B. Availability

C. Broad Network Access

D. Multi-Tenancy

Answer: D. Multi-Tenancy

Explanation:

According to the NIST definition of cloud computing, multi-tenancy is

the characteristic that directly reflects the business model of shared
resources.

In a multi-tenant architecture:

 Multiple customers (tenants) share the same physical

infrastructure and resources (e.g., servers, databases, application
instances).
 Each tenant's data and configurations are logically isolated and
kept secure and private.
 This sharing enables cost efficiency, which is a core economic
advantage of cloud computing.

While other characteristics like elasticity (rapid scaling), availability, and

broad network access are essential to cloud computing, only multi-
tenancy specifically embodies the shared resource pooling model that
underpins the cloud's cost-sharing business approach.

Thus, Multi-Tenancy (D) is the correct answer.

Q258.
The suitable option on Google Cloud for an application requiring customer
registration, login, multi-factor authentication (MFA), credential reset, quick
deployment, and minimal overhead, especially for a small startup, is D.
Cloud Identity Platform.

🎯 Why Cloud Identity Platform is the Right

Choice
Cloud Identity Platform (also known as Firebase Authentication when
integrated with the broader Firebase suite) is a fully managed service
designed to add identity management to your applications.

 Customer-Facing: It is specifically built for customer identity and

access management (CIAM), perfectly fitting the need for customer
registration and login.
 Security Features: It natively supports multi-factor
authentication (MFA) and credential reset, fulfilling the security
requirements.
 Speed and Overhead: As a fully managed service, it allows a small
startup to implement a complete identity solution quickly with
minimum overhead (no need to manage servers, databases, or
complex security infrastructure).

❌ Why the Other Options are Less Suitable

 A. Since identity and credentials should be secure and private,
do not trust other service providers.
 o This is a general, non-technical philosophy that runs counter to
using a cloud platform like Google Cloud for services like identity
management. Building and maintaining a custom identity
solution is slow, expensive, and introduces maximum overhead,
which is the opposite of the startup's goal.
 B. Cloud Identity
o Cloud Identity is primarily an Identity and Access
Management (IAM) service focused on workforce users
(employees, partners) within an organization. It's used for
managing corporate access to Google Cloud, Google Workspace,
and other SaaS applications, not for customer registration and
login in a public-facing application.
 C. Google Workspace
o Google Workspace is a collection of collaboration and
productivity tools (Gmail, Docs, Drive, Calendar, etc.). It has
nothing to do with building a public-facing application's identity
system.

Q259.

Q260.
The correct answer is:

✅ B. It is better to have redundancy; use one or many of the Google

Cloud datacenters as a backup location.

Explanation:

For disaster recovery and protection against ransomware attacks:

 Redundancy is essential (data must exist in multiple independent

locations).
 Cloud-based backup (like Google Cloud) provides geographical
separation, scalability, and security features such as versioning
and immutable storage — which help recover clean data after an
attack.
 Option A (another private data center nearby) gives redundancy but
not enough geographical separation; nearby centers could both be
affected by the same disaster.
 Options C and D are risky because one data center (even with
encryption or local backups) still represents a single point of failure.

So, B is the best recommendation for disaster recovery preparedness.

Q261.
Q262.

The question asks for the most appropriate database for a multinational
retail company handling millions of transactions at point-of-sale (POS)
systems worldwide, requiring capture, storage, and analysis, with expected
growth into more geographies.
Options:

 A. Cloud Datastore
 B. Cloud Storage
 C. Cloud Spanner
 D. Cloud SQL

Correct Answer: C. Cloud Spanner

Why Cloud Spanner?

Cloud Spanner is the best fit because:

1. Global Scale & Horizontal Scalability

a. Handles millions of transactions across multiple
geographies with unlimited scale.
b. True horizontal scaling — add nodes seamlessly as data and
traffic grow.
2. Strong Consistency
a. Uses TrueTime and synchronous replication to guarantee
strong consistency across global regions — critical for
financial/retail transactions (no stale reads, accurate inventory,
correct order processing).
3. High Availability
a. Offers 99.999% uptime SLA via multi-region configurations.
b. Automatic failover and data replication across continents.
4. Relational + SQL Support
a. Fully relational database with standard SQL.
b. Supports complex queries, joins, and analytics — essential for
analyzing transaction data.
5. Fully Managed
a. No ops overhead — Google manages sharding, replication, and
scaling.
Why Not the Others?

Optio
Why Not Suitable
n

A.
NoSQL document store. Lacks strong consistency (eventual by
Cloud
default), limited SQL/query capability. Not ideal for transactional
Datas
integrity or analytics.
tore

B.
Cloud Object storage (like S3). Not a database. Cannot run queries or
Stora ensure transactional consistency. Only for files/blobs.
ge

D. Managed MySQL/PostgreSQL. Vertically scalable only. Cannot

Cloud scale horizontally beyond instance limits. Not suitable for global,
SQL high-volume transactional systems.

Final Answer: C. Cloud Spanner

Q263.

Q264.
Modernizing applications (Option B) unlocks the full value of cloud—enabling
rapid iteration, scalability, and cost efficiency—leading to faster innovation
and higher ROI, while better serving users through improved performance
and features.

Q265.

Option Why It's Wrong

A. Data Manages metadata discovery and governance, not actual
Catalog data migration. It doesn’t move or replicate data.
 B. Cloud Dataflow is for ETL/batch/stream processing, not database
Dataflow migration. Setting up sources/sinks manually is complex,
+ Cloud error-prone, and high-effort — opposite of the goal.
SQL
D. Bare Bare Metal is for running workloads on dedicated
Metal hardware in GCP, not for migrating databases. Copying
Solution DBs manually is high-effort and risky, defeating the
modernization goal.

Q266.

Answer

C. General Availability and D. Deprecated, but ensure that the SLA

support period is still valid

General Availability releases are SLA-backed; deprecated services can be

acceptable only if they remain within an active SLA/support period.

Accepta
Option Has SLA?
ble?
Not
A. Alpha, Beta ❌ No — experimental phases, no SLA acceptabl
e
Not
B. Early Access, Preview ❌ No — pre-release, no SLA acceptabl
e
Accepta
C. General Availability (GA) ✅ Yes — production-ready, backed by SLA
ble
D. Deprecated, but SLA support ✅ Yes — if support period is active, SLA Accepta
period still valid still applies ble
Q267.

The correct answer is D. Product ratings score.

Here's a breakdown of why:

 Structured Data: This type of data is highly organized and formatted

in a way that makes it easily searchable and analyzable, typically
fitting neatly into rows and columns in a database. Product ratings
scores (e.g., a number from 1 to 5) are a perfect example of this, as
they are quantitative and uniform.
 Unstructured Data: This data lacks a predefined model or
organization.
o A. Product photographs are considered unstructured because
they are binary image files.
o B. Product reviews and C. Product descriptions consist of
free-form text, which does not have a consistent format and is
difficult to analyze without advanced natural language
processing techniques.

Q268.
B. Use AutoML Image — upload the open-source car images and let
AutoML train a model.

Why: AutoML Vision gives a fast, low-effort path to a working image classifier
(good for a 48-hour hackathon & POC), handles
augmentation/hyperparameter tuning and deployment for you.

Notes: Option C (TensorFlow) is viable if you have ML expertise and need full
control, A is just infra, and D (Cloud Vision logo detection) only finds logos
(won’t reliably identify all car brands from photos).

Q269.
The correct answer is A. NoSQL database like Firestore.

Explanation:

1. NoSQL databases are best suited for this use case.

a. The scenario involves onboarding a number of users with
widely varying details (i.e., unstructured or semi-
structured data).
b. NoSQL databases (especially document-oriented ones like
Firestore) excel in flexibility of schema, allowing you to store
user profiles with different fields without predefined rigid
structures.
2. Cloud Firestore is a NoSQL document database that lets you:
a. Easily store, sync, and query data for mobile and web apps at
global scale.
b. Handle real-time synchronization, which is ideal during user
onboarding.
c. Scale horizontally as the number of users grows.

Why not the others?

 B. OLAP database like BigQuery

→ Designed for analytics and large-scale data warehousing, not real-

time user onboarding or transactional writes.
  C. SQL database like MySQL or PostgreSQL

→ Require fixed schemas. If user details vary widely, you'd need complex
table designs (e.g., EAV models), leading to inefficiency and complexity.

 D. OLTP database like Cloud Spanner

→ While powerful and scalable, Spanner is a relational (SQL) database

optimized for consistent transactional workloads. It’s overkill and less
flexible than NoSQL for highly variable user data.

Best choice: Firestore (NoSQL) — flexible, scalable, real-time, and

schema-less.

Q270.

The correct answer is: ✅ C. Flex Slots

Explanation:

You’re running a short but high-capacity analytics workload that you’ve

executed multiple times recently.

Here’s why each option fits or doesn’t fit:

 A. Free 1 TB/month — Only useful for small or infrequent workloads.

Not suitable for high-capacity queries.
 B. On-demand pricing — Best for occasional queries. Not cost-
efficient when running frequent or large jobs.
  ✅ C. Flex Slots — Ideal for short-term, high-performance workloads.
You can purchase slots for as little as 60 seconds, making it cost-
effective for bursty workloads.
 D. Flat-rate reservations — Best for steady, long-running workloads
where you need dedicated resources continuously.

👉 Summary:

Because your workload is short, frequent, and high capacity, Flex Slots
offer the best combination of performance and cost efficiency.

Q271.

The correct Google Cloud product for an organization to search for and share
plug-and-play AI components to build ML services into their project is B. AI
Hub.

🤖 What is AI Hub?
AI Hub is a platform for your organization to share and discover reusable
AI components, including models, pipelines, and notebooks, making it
easier to build and deploy ML solutions. It acts as a central repository for
both internal and external (public) resources.

 A. Document AI is for processing and analyzing documents.

 C. Cloud Talent Solution (now called Google Cloud Talent Solution)
is a job search and recruiting tool.
 D. Recommendations AI is a service for building personalized
recommendation systems for e-commerce.

Q272.
The best option to adopt for centrally managing access to multiple internal
applications for both employees and external vendors/contractors is D.

Best Option: IDaaS 🔑

The most recommended and modern approach for this scenario is:

D. Use an IDaaS (Identity as a Service) product that can centrally

manage authentication and authorization for the applications.

Why IDaaS is the Best Choice

 Centralized Management: An IDaaS solution (like Okta, Azure AD,

OneLogin, etc.) allows you to manage all user identities (employees,
vendors, contractors) and their access permissions from one central
console. This greatly simplifies administration and oversight.
 Single Sign-On (SSO): IDaaS often facilitates SSO, meaning users
authenticate once and gain access to all authorized applications
without needing to enter credentials multiple times. This improves user
experience and security.
 Enhanced Security: It provides advanced security features like
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA), adaptive authentication, and
consistent enforcement of security policies across all applications,
which is critical when including external users like vendors.
  Streamlined Onboarding/Offboarding: It makes it much easier and
more secure to provision and de-provision (grant and revoke) access
for employees and, crucially, for temporary external users like
contractors and vendors.

Why Other Options are Not Ideal

 A. Keep the credentials separate for each application... This is

inconvenient for users (password fatigue) and leads to poor security
practices (e.g., users reusing simple passwords or writing them
down). While it limits the blast radius for one application, the overall
risk is higher due to weak credential management.
 B. Use an external identity provider that is famous and popular
like Facebook or Twitter... It's generally a security risk to rely on
personal social media accounts for access to internal corporate
applications. These accounts don't offer the necessary control over
security policies, auditing, or user lifecycle management required for a
business environment.
 C. Allow all users, especially contractors and vendors, to bring
their own identities, like those at gmail.com. While some modern
Zero Trust architectures utilize this concept, simply allowing any
personal email as the primary identity for internal apps is risky. It
lacks the security control, governance, and auditing capabilities
provided by a dedicated IDaaS solution, especially for internal
corporate systems.

Q273.
Q274.

Option Analysis
A. None Incorrect — a change is needed to reach transformational
of these maturity.
B.
Deploy
changes Reactive, firefighting approach → Strategic level behavior.
when Not scalable or proactive.
problems
arise
Correct. Transformational maturity requires automation,
C. Deploy
CI/CD pipelines, infrastructure as code (IaC), and
changes
programmatic scaling. Changes are deployed consistently,
program
repeatably, and at scale — without human intervention per
matically
instance.
D.
Manual reviews introduce bottlenecks and human error →
Review
contradicts scalability and velocity needed in transformational
changes
stage.
manually

Q275.
The correct answer is D. All of the Above.

All three statements accurately describe features of Google Cloud Bare Metal
Solutions (BMS):

 A. The network, which Google Cloud manages includes a low-

latency Cloud Inter-connect connection into the customer Bare
Metal Solution environment.
o BMS environments are connected to Google Cloud via a
managed, high-performance connection, typically a Partner
Interconnect (a type of Cloud Interconnect) connection, with
low latency (often less than two milliseconds).
 B. Bare Metal Solution also includes the provisioning and
maintenance of the custom, sole-tenancy hardware with local
SAN, and smart hands support.
o Google Cloud provides and manages the core infrastructure,
including provisioning and maintenance of the custom, sole-
tenancy (dedicated) servers, local SAN (Storage Area Network),
and "smart hands" support for physical actions like reboots or
hardware replacement.
 C. Bare Metal Solution uses a bring-your-own-license (BYOL)
model.
o Customers are responsible for their own software, applications,
operating systems, hypervisors, and most importantly, the
necessary licensing, meaning the environment operates under
a Bring-Your-Own-License (BYOL) model.

Q276.
Q277.

Correct Answer: C. None of the Above.

Explanation:

1. Option A: "Preemptible VMs don't have fixed pricing."

2. → Incorrect.
3. Preemptible VMs do have fixed pricing — they are offered at a
significantly lower fixed rate (typically 60–80% cheaper) than on-
 demand VMs. The price is predictable and fixed per hour, though the
instance can be preempted.

4. Option D: "You can not use Preemptible VMs at fault-tolerant

workloads..."

→ Incorrect (misleading phrasing).

Actually, Preemptible VMs are ideal for fault-tolerant and stateless

workloads, including:

a. Big data & analytics (e.g., Hadoop, Spark)

b. CI/CD pipelines
c. Batch processing
d. Rendering/transcoding
e. Testing
f. High-performance computing (when using checkpointing)

These workloads are designed to handle interruptions via checkpointing,

queuing, or retry logic.

So the statement is wrong — you can (and should) use preemptible VMs for
such fault-tolerant workloads.

5. Option B: Both A & B

→ Invalid because A is false.

Final Verdict:

 A is false
 D is false (due to incorrect logic and poor phrasing)
 Therefore, C. None of the Above is correct.

Q278.
Q279.

Based on the scenario described, the correct Google Cloud solution is D.

Anthos.

☁️Why Anthos is the Right Choice

The organization is looking for a solution that allows them to build an
application once and run it both on-premises and in their public
cloud as part of a hybrid cloud architecture.

 Anthos is specifically designed for this purpose. It is a modern

application management platform that provides a consistent set of
tools and services for managing applications across diverse
environments, including:
 o Google Cloud
o On-premises data centers
o Other public clouds (multi-cloud)
 It is built on Kubernetes, which enables containerization—the key
technology for building applications that are portable and can run
consistently across different environments ("build once, run
anywhere").

❌ Why the Other Options are Less Suitable

O
pt
Description Why it's Not the Best Fit
io
n

A.
Cl
A serverless
ou It's a fully managed, event-driven compute
execution
d platform that primarily runs on Google Cloud
environment for
Fu and is not designed to provide a consistent
building and
nc control plane for running applications both on-
connecting cloud
ti premises and in the cloud.
services.
on
s

It's a Platform as a Service (PaaS) that primarily

B. A fully managed
runs on Google Cloud. While there are options
A platform for
like App Engine flexible environment that use
pp building and
containers, it doesn't provide the integrated
En hosting web
hybrid and multi-cloud management
gi applications and
capabilities needed for the on-premises
ne mobile backends.
requirement.

C. Infrastructure as This provides virtual servers in the public

Co a Service (IaaS) cloud but does not offer the management and
m that allows consistency layer to seamlessly run and
pu running virtual manage the same application both on-premises
te machines (VMs) and in the cloud. It would require significant
En on Google's manual effort to duplicate and manage the
 gi
infrastructure. environments.
ne
In short, Anthos is the Google Cloud solution designed specifically to
enable the "build once, run anywhere" capability across hybrid and
multi-cloud environments.

Q280.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Anthos is Google Cloud's platform that provides all the described capabilities:

 A: It offers enterprise-grade Kubernetes-based container orchestration

and management.
 B: It supports modern security practices (like policy enforcement and
zero-trust) across hybrid and multi-cloud environments.
 C: It includes a fully managed service mesh (based on Istio) with built-
in observability and visibility.

Thus, all statements are true, making D. All of the Above the correct
answer.

Q281.
The best answer is C. Yes, the Pricing Calculator can be used to
estimate the cost of resources.

💰 Clarity on Google Cloud Costs

Why the Pricing Calculator is the Key
The Chief Financial Officer (CFO) is looking for clarity and predictability on
costs, similar to the fixed contract payments they currently have with
vendors.

 Google Cloud's Pricing Calculator is the official tool designed

specifically to address this need. It allows users to:
o Select the specific Google Cloud resources (Compute Engine
VMs, storage, networking, etc.).
o Configure the usage parameters (number of instances, storage
size, network traffic, region, commitment terms).
o Generate a detailed, itemized estimate of the expected monthly
cost.

This functionality directly provides the clear view of numbers required for
resource budgeting and planning that the CFO is seeking.

Why Other Options Are Not the Best Fit

 A. Do a trial run of typical workloads...: While a trial can provide

an accurate number for that specific run, it's reactive and not a
scalable planning tool. The CFO needs an estimate before
committing to a migration to determine the budget, not after.
  B. Yes, the Cloud Native Computing Foundation publishes
yearly numbers...: The CNCF focuses on open-source cloud-native
technologies, not vendor-specific pricing. Their data would be general
and high-level, not suitable for the detailed, accurate budgeting a
CFO requires for a Google Cloud migration.
 D. Yes, Google provides a typical cost of application workloads
by region and industry...: Google does provide case studies and
general guidance, but this is usually too generic for a specific
company's workload. The Pricing Calculator offers a tailored
estimate based on the company's actual planned resource usage,
which is far more precise for budgeting.

The Pricing Calculator is the standard and most reliable way to get budget
clarity on Google Cloud.

Q282.

The correct answer is B. Give them Storage Object Viewer access to

the buckets in those eight projects.

Explanation (Google Cloud Platform context):

 Storage Object Viewer is a predefined IAM role that grants read-

only access to objects in Cloud Storage buckets
(storage.objects.get, storage.objects.list). This is ideal for
auditors who only need to review data without modifying or deleting
it.
  Owner (Option A) gives full control, including the ability to delete data
or change permissions — excessive and risky for auditors.
 Granting access to all buckets/projects (Options C & D) violates the
principle of least privilege, especially since the audit is scoped to
eight specific projects.
 Editor role (Option D) also includes write permissions — unnecessary
and insecure.

Thus, B provides secure, scoped, read-only access exactly as required

for an audit.

Q283.

Q284.

Q285.
❌Dataproc: (Google Cloud Dataproc) is a managed service for running
Apache Spark, Hadoop, and other big data frameworks. While it can handle
both batch and streaming, Dataflow is the native, unified, and serverless
solution specifically highlighting the ability to use a single model for both.

Q286.

Q287.
The correct condition is A. VM interface does not have an external IP
address assigned.

Here is the explanation:

💡 Private Google Access Requirements

Private Google Access is a feature that allows VM instances that only
have internal IP addresses (no external IP addresses) to connect to
the external IP addresses of Google APIs and services (like Cloud Storage,
BigQuery, etc.).

For a VM interface to send packets to the external IP addresses of Google

APIs and services using Private Google Access, two key conditions must be
met:

1. The VM interface does not have an external IP address

assigned. (This is the primary scenario Private Google Access is
designed for, as VMs with external IP addresses can access these
services over the public internet without the need for this feature).
2. The VM interface is connected to a subnet where Private
Google Access is enabled.

Option B states that Private Google Access is disabled, which is the

opposite of the required condition. Since A is a necessary condition and B
makes the feature unusable, the correct choice based on the options
provided is A.

Q288.
Q289.

Question 289

Correct answer: D. Developers want to test ideas and experiment

with more ease.

Cloud modernization is typically driven by a need for faster provisioning,

scalability, and flexibility so developers can iterate, prototype, and
experiment quickly rather than being constrained by rigid on-premises
infrastructure.

Q290.
Q291.

The correct answer is ✅ B. Store the information in Secret Manager and

give IAM read permissions as required.

Explanation:

 Google Secret Manager is the recommended GCP service for

managing sensitive data like API keys, passwords, and tokens.
 It provides:
o Centralized secret storage
o Fine-grained IAM control for access management
o Audit logging via Cloud Audit Logs
 o Automatic versioning and rotation

Why not the others:

 A. GitHub repository: ❌ Not secure — API keys should never be

stored in version control.
 C. Kubernetes Secrets: ⚠️Suitable only if used within a GKE cluster;
not ideal for cross-application sharing across multiple teams.
 D. Cloud Storage (encrypted): ⚠️Secure but less convenient and
harder to manage access/rotation compared to Secret Manager.

So the best and most secure option for managing shared API keys in GCP
is Secret Manager (Option B).

Q292.

Q293.
Based on the scenario presented in the image, the best option to consider is
B. Use VPC Peering to share resources privately between your two
organizations.

Here's a breakdown of why this is the correct choice and why the other
options are less suitable:

 B. Use VPC Peering: This is the ideal solution for this use case. VPC
Network Peering enables you to connect two separate Virtual Private
Cloud (VPC) networks so that resources in each network can
communicate with each other using private, internal IP addresses. This
is secure and efficient, as the traffic stays within Google's network and
does not traverse the public internet. It is specifically designed for
scenarios where different organizations or projects need to establish
private connectivity.
 A. Use Private Service Access: This service is used to connect your
VPC to Google-managed services (like Cloud SQL or Memorystore) or
third-party services, not to connect to another customer's VPC
network.
 C. Use public IP addresses: Relying on public IP addresses would
expose your services to the public internet, which is less secure than
using a private connection. While traffic between Google Cloud
resources might be optimized over Google's backbone, it's not the
recommended pattern for secure, private inter-organization
collaboration.
 D. Use VPC Shared Networks: A Shared VPC is designed for use
within a single organization. It allows a central host project to share a
network with multiple service projects. This simplifies network
administration for one company but is not the standard way to connect
two separate organizations.
Q294.

The correct answer is B. Your network must have appropriate routes

for the destination IP ranges used by Google APIs and services.

Explanation:

Private Google Access (for Google Cloud Platform) allows VM instances on a

VPC network without public IP addresses to reach Google APIs and
services (e.g., Cloud Storage, BigQuery) over Google's private network
backbone.

 Option A is incorrect: Private Google Access does not automatically

enable any API. APIs must still be enabled in your project via the
Google Cloud Console or gcloud.
 Option B is correct: For Private Google Access to work, your on-
premises or VPC network must have proper routes (usually via Cloud
Router or custom routes) to direct traffic destined for Google's API IP
ranges through the private path.
 Option C is incorrect because A is false.
 Option D is incorrect because B is required.

Thus, the answer is B.

Q295.
The correct answer is: ✅ B. Bigtable

Explanation:

Let’s analyze the requirements:

 High throughput & fast writes: The company is continuously

ingesting massive amounts of sensor data — millions of devices
sending time-series data (like heart rate, temperature, etc.).

 👉 Bigtable is optimized for high write throughput and low latency —

perfect for this.

 Time-series data: Each data point is tied to time.

👉 Bigtable is designed for time-series workloads (IoT, telemetry, monitoring

data).

 Global scalability: Users are worldwide.

👉 Bigtable can scale horizontally to handle petabytes of data and

thousands of requests per second.

 Near-real-time analytics: Visualization and monitoring dashboards

rely on rapid access.

👉 Bigtable integrates well with Dataflow, BigQuery, and Looker Studio for
near real-time analysis.
Why not the others:

 Cloud SQL: Limited scalability and throughput for massive ingestion

— best for transactional workloads.
 Spanner: Strongly consistent, global SQL database — good for
relational, not time-series data ingestion at this scale.
 Firestore: Scalable, but not optimized for time-series or high-write
throughput workloads.

✅ Best fit: Bigtable

Q296.

Based on the image provided, the correct definition for an "instance" or an

"example" in the context of building a machine learning model is:

B. One row of a dataset containing one or more input columns and

possibly a prediction result.

🧠 Understanding Instance/Example in Machine Learning

In machine learning:

 An instance or example refers to a single, complete data point within

a dataset.
 It is typically represented as a row in a dataset table.
 This row contains the input features (variables used to make a
prediction) and, if it's a part of a labeled dataset (used for training or
 testing), it also includes the correct output or target variable (the
prediction result).

🔍 Why the other options are incorrect:

 A. An input variable is used in making predictions. E.g. number

of rooms in a house price prediction model. This defines a
feature or input column, not an instance/example.
 C. An answer for a prediction task - either the answer
produced by a machine learning system or the right answer
supplied in training data. E.g. image contains a "cat". This
describes the output, label, or target variable, not the entire
instance/example.
 D. The "knobs" that you tweak during successive runs of
training a model. E.g. learning rate. This defines a
hyperparameter.

Would you like another machine learning terminology explained?

Q297.

The correct answer is B. To connect the new application with the

legacy system.

Explanation:

The retail store is using existing check-out hardware (legacy systems)

and purchasing a new virtual customer service application. To integrate
the new application with the existing (legacy) check-out
hardware/system, an API (Application Programming Interface) is
required.

 A is incorrect: Connecting hardware to the public cloud doesn't

necessarily require an API specific to this use case.
 C is incorrect: Disaster recovery is unrelated to creating self-service
kiosks.
 D is incorrect: Remote updates to hardware may use APIs, but that's
not the primary need here.

API is needed to enable communication and data exchange between

the new app and the legacy check-out system.

Thus, B is the right choice.

Q298.

Option Why Not Recommended

Designed for containerizing VMs into GKE/Anthos,
A. Migrate for
not lift-and-shift. Requires re-architecture — too many
Anthos
changes.
B. Lift and App Engine Flex is serverless/PaaS, not IaaS. Not
shift to App suitable for 10,000 arbitrary VMs — requires code
Engine Flex changes and re-platforming.
C. Re-architect
Massive upfront effort, contradicts "minimal
on-prem to
disruption" and "easiest way".
Kubernetes

Q299.
Based on the scenario provided, the correct approach is:

B. Request data labeling service from Google.

Rationale
Here's a breakdown of why this is the best choice and why the others are
less suitable:

 B. Request data labeling service from Google (Correct): The

problem's key constraint is that "You don't have the people or the
capacity to label the images." Using a professional, third-party
labeling service (like Google's Vertex AI Data Labeling, AWS SageMaker
Ground Truth, or others) directly solves this problem. It outsources the
entire operation—including the workforce, the management, and the
quality control—which is the most practical and scalable solution for a
small team facing tens of thousands of images. 1
 A. Look for open-source labeled images: While using pre-trained
models from open-source data (a technique called transfer learning2)
is a standard part of an ML strategy, it doesn't solve the whole
problem. You would still need to fine-tune and, critically, validate the
model on the customer's actual labeled data to ensure it performs
correctly on their specific images. This option doesn't get the
customer's data labeled.
 C. Tell the customer it is their duty: This is unprofessional and
demonstrates poor project leadership. As an IT services company, your
role is to find solutions for the customer, not to assign them tasks they
hired you to handle.
 D. Hire temporary workers: This option directly contradicts the
constraint. Hiring, training, managing, and performing quality control
 on a team of temporary workers requires significant capacity, which
the prompt explicitly states you do not have. A labeling service (Option
B) handles all that management for you.

Q300.

The question describes a reporting application that:

 Runs almost 24 hours every day (i.e., continuously).

 Queues tasks when load is high and processes them when demand is
lower.

Let’s analyze the options:

A. App Engine Standard for Flex — Not a valid option phrasing; App
Engine has Standard and Flexible environments, not “Standard for Flex.”
Flexible could work for long-running apps, but it’s not ideal for continuous
24x7 heavy workloads with queue-based processing.

B. Compute Engine (server-based) — ✅ Best choice.

Because the app runs almost 24/7 and needs full control over resources
(CPU, memory, scheduling, queue management), a persistent Compute
Engine instance (VM) is the most reliable and cost-effective. You can scale
up/down or use managed instance groups for load.

C. Cloud Functions — Not suitable for long-running tasks; it’s event-driven

and has a short execution time limit.

D. Cloud Run — Better for stateless microservices that scale to zero, but
not ideal for a continuously running 24-hour workload.

✅ Correct Answer: B. Use a server-based option – Compute Engine.

Reason: The workload is continuous and long-running, so a VM-based
solution like Compute Engine is the right fit.

Q301.

The correct option is B.

Here's a breakdown of why:

 Standby Instance Purpose: A standby instance in Cloud SQL is

indeed used for high availability (HA). Its core feature is to
automatically take over (replace the primary instance) if the primary
instance fails (a failover occurs). This makes the first part of A, B, and
C accurate.
 Billing/Visibility: The standby instance is part of the HA configuration
and appears in the Google Cloud Console (making C incorrect), but
it is generally not billed as a separate instance—it's part of the
higher cost associated with the HA setup (making the billing part of A
and B accurate).
 Failover Connection Handling: The most crucial feature of Cloud
SQL HA is the automatic transfer of connections from the failed
primary instance to the standby instance during a failover. The
application doesn't need to manually change its connection string; the
IP address remains the same (making A incorrect).

Therefore, option B accurately describes the core features:

B. The standby instance is used in high availability to replace the primary
instance when failover occurs. The standby instance appears in the Google
Cloud Console but does not get billed. When failover occurs, connections to
the primary instance are automatically transferred to the standby instanc1e.

That's correct! The correct option is B.

Here is a detailed explanation of why B is the most accurate description of a

Cloud SQL High Availability (HA) configuration:

🎯 Cloud SQL High Availability (HA) Features

A Cloud SQL instance configured for High Availability (also known as a
regional instance) is composed of a primary instance and a standby
instance located in a different zone within the same region.

 High Availability Role: The standby instance's primary function is to

enable automatic failover in case the primary instance or its zone
fails. This ensures minimal downtime and high availability.
 Console Visibility: The standby instance appears in the Google
Cloud Console as part of the regional instance configuration. You can
see which zone it is in and its status. This makes option C incorrect.
 Billing: While the HA setup results in a higher cost than a single zonal
instance, the standby instance itself is not billed as a separate,
distinct instance (like a regular read replica would be). The cost is
integrated into the pricing for a regional HA instance. This aligns with
the billing statements in options A and B.
 Failover Connection Handling: When a failover occurs, the standby
instance is promoted to become the new primary instance. Critically, it
takes over the same static IP address used by the original primary
instance. This means that applications do not need to change their
connection string or IP address—connections are automatically
routed to the new primary after a brief interruption (typically around
60 seconds). This makes the connection part of option A incorrect.

Comparison of Options

Fea
Option A Option B (Correct) Option C
ture
 HA Used for high Used for high
Used for high
Rol availability and availability and
availability and failover.
e failover. failover.

Gets billed as a
Billi Does not get separate
Does not get billed.
ng billed. instance
(Incorrect).

Does not
Con Appears in the appear in the
Appears in the Console.
sole Console. Console
(Incorrect).

Fail
Requires the Connections are Requires the
ove
application to automatically application to
r
reconnect using transferred reconnect using
Con
a new IP (reestablished) to the a new IP
nec
address standby instance using address
tion
(Incorrect). the same IP address. (Incorrect).
s
Option B is the only statement where all three points about standby instance
visibility, billing, and connection handling during failover are correct.

Q302.

The question asks for a database that supports millions of reads/writes,

zero downtime, key-value (NoSQL) features, and no manual steps for
consistency, data repair, write synchronization, or deletes.
Let's evaluate each option:

 A. Cloud SQL: Relational (SQL) database. Not key-value/NoSQL.

Requires manual management for high availability and consistency at
scale. Eliminated.
 B. Cloud BigTable: Google's fully managed NoSQL wide-column
store, designed for petabyte-scale, millions of ops/sec, key-value
access, automatic scaling, zero downtime, and built-in
consistency/replication/repair. No manual sharding or tuning
needed. Matches all requirements.
 C. Cloud Spanner: Globally distributed relational database with
strong consistency. Not purely key-value/NoSQL (uses SQL). Overkill
and more complex than needed. Eliminated.
 D. Cloud Firestore: Document-based NoSQL, serverless, but not
optimized for millions of sustained writes/sec like BigTable. Has
eventual consistency in some modes and less throughput headroom.
Eliminated.

Correct Answer: B. Cloud BigTable

Q303.

Cloud SQL for MySQL — correct statement

 Answer: B only.
 Why: Cloud SQL supports Private IP via Private Service Connect/Private
IP, and it provides automated/backups and point-in-time recovery, so A
and C are incorrect. Statement B is correct — customer data is
 encrypted in transit on Google’s networks and at rest in database
storage, temporary files, and backups.

Q304.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The primary risk in integrating third-party systems into cloud

infrastructure is security. Unsecured or poorly managed third-party
components can introduce vulnerabilities, enable data breaches, or allow
lateral movement within the cloud environment. Regular security
assessments, access controls, and monitoring are essential mitigations.

Q305.
The question describes a situation where a client reports latency issues in a
service that must respond within a 4-second SLA. You need to identify and fix
the issue quickly.

The options are:

A. Recommend serverless → not relevant to diagnosing latency.

B. Add manual logging → time-consuming and inefficient for quick diagnosis.

C. Check browser differences → unlikely the main cause of backend delay.

D. Use Cloud Trace to collect latency data and track request

propagation → correct, as Cloud Trace helps visualize latency, identify slow
components, and pinpoint performance bottlenecks across distributed
systems.

✅ Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Google Cloud Trace is designed to trace the path of requests through your
application, identify latency sources, and visualize delays in service
interactions. This allows teams to diagnose performance issues quickly —
exactly what’s needed to meet SLA requirements.

Q306.

The correct answer is:

✅ A. Establish a partnership between finance, technology, and

business teams.
Explanation:

To manage cloud costs effectively and increase visibility, organizations

should adopt a FinOps (Cloud Financial Operations) approach.

FinOps emphasizes collaboration between finance, technology

(engineering/IT), and business teams to ensure everyone shares
responsibility for cloud spending, visibility, and optimization.

Let’s analyze the other options:

 B. Appoint a single person... → Not scalable or effective for a large

organization.
 C. Review spending exceeding error budget... → Error budgets
relate to reliability, not cost management.
 D. Increase monitoring of on-premises... → Irrelevant to cloud cost
visibility.

Hence, Option A is the best choice.

Q307.

Given that the application is not providing enough speed and throughput for
a very large number of mathematical calculations involving floating-
point numbers, the single most effective way to dramatically increase
performance is typically the use of parallel hardware acceleration.

Therefore, the best single option is D.

D. Attach GPUs to the virtual machine for number crunching.

GPUs offer a massive advantage in parallel processing of floating-point
arithmetic compared to CPUs, providing the biggest potential leap in
performance for this type of workload.

Q308.

The correct answer is:

✅ C. Integrate the Lending DocAI and Document AI in the processes

workflow of processing loan requests.

Explanation:

 Document AI (DocAI) is Google Cloud’s purpose-built solution for

extracting structured data from unstructured documents such as KYC
forms, bank statements, ID proofs, etc.
 Lending DocAI is a specialized model within Document AI, tailored for
financial services and loan document processing.
 This option allows quick integration, high accuracy, and
scalability, matching the client’s requirement to process KYC and loan
documents efficiently.

Other options:

 A. Cloud Vision API → good for OCR but not optimized for complex
document understanding.
 B. TensorFlow custom model → requires time to train and deploy,
not “as quickly as possible.”
 D. Natural Language API → handles text meaning, not structured
extraction from scanned documents.
Hence, the best and most time-efficient Google Cloud solution is Option C.

Q309.

Q310.

Q311.
The correct answer is: ✅ D. All of the above are correct.

Explanation:

Apigee has two main flavours (deployment models):

1. Apigee (SaaS version) — Fully hosted and managed by Google (as

described in option B).
2. Apigee Hybrid — The management plane runs in Apigee’s cloud,
while the runtime plane is deployed on-premises or in your preferred
cloud (as described in option A).

Since both statements A and B correctly describe the two Apigee flavours,
and C summarizes that there are two flavours — Apigee & Apigee Hybrid —

👉 D (All of the above) is the correct choice.

Q312.

Q313.
Based on the options provided, the two correct statements are:

 B. Not supported for instances that have clustered in more

than one region.
 C. CMEK can only be configured at the cluster level.

Explanation

1. B. Not supported for instances that have clustered in more

than one region. This is correct. A Bigtable instance with clusters in
more than one region is a replicated instance. Google Cloud
documentation explicitly states that Customer-Managed Encryption
Keys (CMEK) are not supported for replicated Bigtable instances.
2. C. CMEK can only be configured at the cluster level. This is
considered correct in this context, although the wording is slightly
imprecise. Technically, CMEK is configured at the instance level when
the instance is created. However, this configuration applies to all
clusters within that instance. The key point is that you cannot apply
CMEK at a more granular level (like a specific table or column family)
nor can you apply different keys to different clusters within the same
instance. The encryption policy is set for the entire data container (the
instance, which holds the clusters), not for individual parts.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

 A. Administrators can not rotate: This is incorrect. Administrators

can rotate the CMEK key using Cloud KMS. When a key is rotated,
Bigtable will automatically use the new key version for all new data
writes.
 D. You can not use the same CMEK key in multiple projects:
This is incorrect. You can use a CMEK key from one project (a
 centralized "key project") to encrypt resources (like a Bigtable
instance) in a different project. This is a common practice and is
managed by granting the correct IAM permissions to the Bigtable
service account.

Q314.

B — Dedicated Interconnect is the technically correct choice.

Short summary:

 Dedicated Interconnect (B) — private, physical connection with

predictable bandwidth and strong isolation from the public internet.
Best match for high-volume, highly sensitive data (exam answer =
B).
 Partner Interconnect (A) — a managed route through a third-party
provider; often faster to order than a dedicated circuit and can be
practical, but Dedicated gives the strongest performance/control in
theory.
 Cloud VPN (C) — secure (encrypted) but runs over the public internet
and is not ideal for sustained 10 Gbps throughput or guaranteed
latency/SLA.
 Public IP on a VM (D) — insecure and not appropriate for sensitive
data.

Practical note (real world): if the 2-month timeline is strict and provisioning a
physical circuit isn't possible, Partner Interconnect (if it can deliver the
needed bandwidth via a provider) or a temporary hybrid (short-term VPN +
bulk transfer appliance/offline transfer) might be chosen. But for the exam,
pick B.

Q315.
The recommended action is B. Setup Cloud Armor and add the
malicious IPs to the deny list.

Rationale for Cloud-Native Environment

You are working with a government web application that serves the entire
country, which strongly implies a cloud-based, load-balanced
architecture for high availability and scale.

 Cloud Armor (WAF): Cloud Armor is a Web Application Firewall

(WAF) service designed to protect web applications, and it is the
standard cloud-native tool for this purpose. It operates at the edge,
integrated with the HTTP(S) Load Balancer, ensuring that malicious
traffic is dropped before it reaches the backend servers, saving
application resources and resolving the reported delays. Adding the
specific malicious IPs to the deny list is the perfect, surgical solution.
 Firewall Rules (Option A): While a generic firewall can block IPs, in a
modern cloud environment, VPC Firewall Rules typically apply to the
backend VM instances or internal networks. They are less effective
for directly blocking web traffic that passes through a global HTTP(S)
Load Balancer, which is where Cloud Armor excels. Therefore, Cloud
Armor is the more appropriate and effective security control for a
public-facing web application.
 In-Country IPs (Option C): Blocking all foreign IPs is too restrictive.
Legitimate citizens may be traveling, using a VPN, or accessing the
service via a mobile provider that routes traffic internationally, leading
to service denial for authorized users.
 Cloud NAT (Option D): Cloud NAT (Network Address Translation) is
used to allow internal, private-IP resources to initiate outbound
 connections to the internet. It has no function in filtering or denying
inbound traffic and is therefore irrelevant to the problem.

Q316.

Q317.

The correct answer is: ✅ D. Create a Group with the permissions

required to do the test and record their inputs. When users arrive
each week, add them to the group and after the testing period,
remove them from the group.

Explanation:

 The testers are external and change every month, so granting

permanent credentials (as in option A) would be insecure.
 Options B and C are identical and impractical — you can’t permanently
hire testers just to mitigate a temporary access concern.
  Option D follows best security and identity management
practices:
o Grant least privilege access.
o Use temporary access for external users.
o Simplify management through group-based access control —
permissions can be centrally applied and revoked easily.

Hence, Option D ensures both security and operational efficiency.

Q318.

Q319.

Based on the scenario, the best advice for the customer is A.

💡 Recommended Advice: Hybrid Cloud
Strategy
The correct option is:

A. Retain on-premise itself those portions of data and compute

which are under regulation. Take advantage of all the other cloud
capabilities for remaining work-loads.

Why Option A is Best

 Compliance and Regulation: The customer has a strict regulatory

requirement to store certain data only in their current private data
center. Option A directly addresses this by keeping the sensitive,
regulated data and compute on-premise. This ensures immediate
compliance.
 Leveraging Cloud Benefits: Simultaneously, the customer wants to
move to Google Cloud to take advantage of the latest, scalable
technologies. Option A allows them to use the cloud's capabilities for
all their non-regulated workloads and data, realizing the benefits
of scalability, cost efficiency, and modern services.
 Hybrid Cloud: This approach describes a hybrid cloud model, which
is a common and recommended solution for organizations with
stringent data sovereignty or compliance needs. It combines private
infrastructure (for regulated data) with public cloud services (for
everything else).

Why Other Options Are Incorrect

 B. It is too risky to touch anything in such a scenario. It is best

to remain entirely on-premise. This completely ignores the
customer's stated desire to use Google Cloud's scalable technologies.
It's safe but fails to meet their strategic goals.
 C. Regulations are guidelines. As long as the data remains
encrypted, you can move it anywhere. This is fundamentally
incorrect and dangerous advice. Regulations are mandatory legal
requirements, not mere guidelines, and encryption alone does not
satisfy mandates for data location (data sovereignty or residency).
 Violating these regulations can result in severe fines and legal
penalties.
 D. Petition the government for changes... Then, when the
regulations are eased, move to Google Cloud. This is an
impractical, time-consuming, and uncertain solution. The customer
needs a solution now to start leveraging cloud technologies, not a
multi-year lobbying effort that may never succeed.

Option A provides a practical, compliant, and beneficial path forward by

utilizing a Google Cloud hybrid solution.

Would you like to explore what specific Google Cloud services can help
manage a hybrid environment?

Q320.

The correct answer is: ✅ D. All of the above are correct.

Explanation:

Anthos is Google Cloud’s hybrid and multicloud application platform that

provides a consistent environment for managing applications across on-
premises and multiple clouds. Its core components include:

1. Infrastructure, container, and cluster management — via GKE

(Google Kubernetes Engine), GKE On-Prem, and GKE Hub.
2. Secure software supply chain — includes Binary Authorization,
Anthos Service Mesh, and Config Management for policy
enforcement and security.
 3. Multicluster & Configuration management — provided by Anthos
Config Management (ACM) and Fleet management, allowing
consistent configuration and policy across clusters.

Hence, all the options (A, B, and C) are valid core components of Anthos.

Q321.

Q322.

Q323.
The correct answer is:

✅ A. It has dashboards that chart dimensions and metrics to report

on APIs.

Explanation:

Apigee provides API analytics and monitoring dashboards that allow

organizations (like a bank in this scenario) to track API performance,
usage, and success metrics such as response times, errors, and
transaction volumes. This directly helps the bank measure the success of
their modernized ATM network and how effectively it notifies customers
about their transfers.

Other options explained:

 B: Replicating APIs isn’t Apigee’s primary function.

 C: Tracking TCO is a business function, not an Apigee feature.
 D: Apigee manages, secures, and analyzes APIs — it doesn’t directly
connect APIs to the public cloud.

Final Answer: 🟩 A. It has dashboards that chart dimensions and

metrics to report on APIs.

Q324.
The question asks which Google Cloud application would best help extract
information (like country and validity period) from visa stamp images and
store it in a database.

Let’s analyze the options:

A) Cloud Vision API

✅ Best choice.

 It can detect text (OCR), extract printed information like country and
validity dates.
 Ideal for extracting structured data from images without needing
custom model training.
 You can then write code to parse and store it in a database.

B) TensorFlow

❌ Too complex and manual — you’d have to build and train your own OCR
and image recognition model.

C) AutoML

❌ Suitable if you need to classify visa types or countries using custom

models, but here we’re just extracting text.

D) Data Labeling Service

❌ Used to create labeled datasets for ML training, not for extracting data
from existing images.

✅ Correct answer: A. Use Cloud Vision API

Q325.

Google Cloud Bigtable — correct option

Answer: B only.

 A. False. Bigtable is compatible with Hadoop ecosystems via HBase

APIs and connectors.
 B. True. Bigtable is designed to scale from gigabytes to petabytes
with no downtime.
 C. False. Bigtable is commonly used for real-time analytics and high-
throughput IoT/event tracking.
 D. False. Bigtable is a wide-column NoSQL (non-relational) database,
not an enterprise relational DB.

Q326.

The correct answer is: ✅ D. IaaS – Infrastructure as a Service

Explanation:

 Since your teams are already experienced in managing the entire

software delivery and deployment cycle (development,
middleware, runtime, data, and operations), you want maximum
control over the environment.
 IaaS provides the cloud-based infrastructure (servers, storage,
networking) while allowing your team to continue managing:
o Operating systems
o Applications
o Runtime environments
o Deployment pipelines

Other options:

 PaaS (Platform as a Service): Reduces control over the underlying

environment; not ideal since it abstracts away OS and runtime
management.
 SaaS (Software as a Service): Provides ready-to-use applications —
no control over development/deployment.
 IDaaS (Identity as a Service): Focused only on identity
management, unrelated to software delivery.

👉 Therefore, IaaS is the ideal option for continuing the same DevOps-style
approach in the cloud.

Q327.

The correct answer is: ✅ D. All of the above.

Here’s why:

 A. It can scale horizontally to support additional capacity.

 ✔️True. Cloud Spanner is designed for horizontal scalability across

multiple nodes and regions.

 B. It comes with Zero Downtime, No Maintenance windows, and

is proven for large and small workloads.

✔️True. Cloud Spanner supports online schema changes and scaling without
downtime, and is built for both large-scale enterprise and smaller workloads.

 C. You don’t need to shard or replicate data.

✔️True. Cloud Spanner automatically handles data sharding and

synchronous replication for high availability.

Hence, the most complete answer is D. All of the above.

Q328.

The question describes a company that wants to offer paid API services to
its B2B customers—similar to how Google provides APIs like Maps, Vision,
and Translation.

The key phrase here is “offer some paid API services”, which implies:

 API publishing and monetization

 API access control and security
 Usage tracking, analytics, and quota management
 Developer portal for onboarding clients
These are API management capabilities — something that Apigee API
Management provides.

✅ Correct Answer: C. Apigee API Management

Explanation:

Apigee (by Google Cloud) is a comprehensive API management platform

that allows organizations to:

 Create, secure, publish, and monitor APIs.

 Enable monetization and analytics for paid API services.
 Manage traffic, rate limits, and developer access.
 Provide a developer portal for B2B customers.

Other options:

 A) Spring Boot is for backend API development, not for API

management or monetization.
 B) Cloud Functions + Firestore handle backend logic but not API
lifecycle management.
 D) Node.js + Angular are for app development, not for API
gateway/management.

✅ Final Answer: C. Apigee API Management

Q329.

The correct answer is: ✅ A. SLA – Service Level Agreement

Explanation:

 SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a formal contract between a

service provider and a customer that defines the expected level of
service.
 It includes measurable metrics such as uptime, response time, or
resolution time.
 Failure to meet the SLA can result in penalties or fines, which
makes it legally binding.

Other options:

 B. SLC (Service Level Contract) — not a standard industry term.

 C. SLO (Service Level Objective) — a goal or target for a service’s
performance, used internally.
 D. SLI (Service Level Indicator) — a metric used to measure
performance (e.g., latency, error rate).

So the statement clearly describes an SLA.

Q330.

Q331.
The question asks for an automated process to upload new medical
images from on-premises storage to Cloud Storage for archival
purposes.

Let’s analyze the options:

A. Create a Pub/Sub topic and trigger Cloud Storage uploads via Pub/Sub →

❌ Not relevant here — Pub/Sub is event-driven for cloud-based workflows,

not for syncing on-prem data to Cloud Storage.

B. Create a script that uses the gsutil command-line tool to synchronize the
on-premises storage with Cloud Storage and schedule it as a cron job →

✅ Correct answer.

This provides automation (via cron) and synchronization (via gsutil rsync)
between on-prem storage and Cloud Storage. It’s simple, cost-effective, and
ideal for periodic uploads of new files.

C. Upload manually via Cloud Console →

❌ Manual, not automated.

D. Deploy a Dataflow job (“Datastore to Cloud Storage”) →

❌ Datastore is unrelated to on-prem file storage; Dataflow is overkill here.

✅ Correct answer: B

Explanation:
Use gsutil rsync in a cron job to automatically synchronize the on-
premises medical images directory with the Cloud Storage bucket at regular
intervals.

Q332.

The correct answer is:

✅ B. Enable Data Access audit logs for the Cloud Storage API.

Explanation:

You are required to record all requests that read stored data — this
means you need detailed audit logs of data access operations.

In Google Cloud:

 Data Access audit logs record API calls that read or modify user-
provided data.
 For Cloud Storage, enabling Data Access audit logs ensures that
every read (GET, LIST) or write (PUT, DELETE) request to the
bucket is logged.
 These logs are stored in Cloud Logging and can be used for
compliance, auditing, and security reviews.

Other options:

 A. Scan the bucket using the DLP API → Detects sensitive data, but
doesn’t log read requests.
 C. Enable Identity-Aware Proxy → Controls access to web apps, not
Cloud Storage.
  D. Restricting to one Service Account → Limits access, but doesn’t
log who accessed data.

✅ Correct Answer: B. Enable Data Access audit logs for the Cloud
Storage API.

Q333.

Based on your client's requirements, the best choice is D. Anthos that runs
containers as their core workloads 🚀.

Reasoning for the Selection

The client has several key requirements that point directly to Anthos:

1. Multiple Cloud Providers (Multi-Cloud): Anthos is designed to

allow you to run and manage Kubernetes clusters and workloads
across multiple cloud environments (like AWS, Azure, and Google
Cloud itself) as well as on-premises data centers. This directly
addresses the client's desire to avoid vendor lock-in and work with
multiple cloud providers.
2. Using Open Source Container Technologies (Kubernetes):
Anthos is essentially a platform built on the open-source Kubernetes,
which is the leading container orchestration technology. The client's
existing use of open-source container technologies will be fully
supported, and their core workloads will run as containers on
Kubernetes.
3. Migration and On-Premises Integration: Since the client is moving
from an on-premises data center, Anthos provides a unified control
plane for managing both their existing on-premises container
infrastructure and their new public cloud deployments, ensuring a
consistent operational experience.
Why the Other Options are Less Suitable

 A. Cloud Run: While excellent for serverless container workloads,

Cloud Run is primarily a Google Cloud-specific service. It doesn't
inherently offer the multi-cloud capabilities needed to prevent vendor
lock-in across other public clouds.
 B. Kubernetes: Kubernetes is the underlying technology, but it's not
the platform solution itself. Anthos is Google's enterprise-grade
offering that implements and manages Kubernetes in a consistent
way across hybrid and multi-cloud environments, providing the
necessary tooling for the client's scale and multi-vendor requirement.
 C. App Engine Flexible Environment: This is primarily a Google
Cloud PaaS (Platform as a Service) offering. While it supports
containers, it doesn't meet the core requirement for easy operation
and management across multiple public cloud vendors to avoid
lock-in.

Q334.
Q335.

Based on the scenario, the correct advice is B.

Why this is the correct answer:

The CIO's primary concern is the lack of visibility and control that comes
with rapid growth ("moving too fast"). She is specifically worried about
misconfigurations and compliance violations as new resources are set
up by new team members.

 B. Use Security Command Center (SCC) directly addresses this.

SCC is designed to be a "single pane of glass" for security. It provides a
centralized view of all assets, scans for misconfigurations (e.g., a
storage bucket made public) and vulnerabilities, and reports on
 compliance status. This is exactly what the CIO needs to regain
control and visibility.

Why the other options are incorrect:

 A. Use Cloud Identity-Aware Proxy (IAP): IAP is an access control

tool. It secures access to applications based on user identity (a zero-
trust model). While useful for security, it doesn't solve the core
problem of finding misconfigurations or compliance violations across
the entire cloud environment.
 C. Use Cloud Data Loss Prevention (DLP): DLP is used to discover,
classify, and protect sensitive data (like redacting credit card
numbers). It's a tool to prevent the loss of data, but it doesn't find the
infrastructure misconfigurations (like an open firewall port) that the
CIO is worried about.
 D. Use Cloud Armor: This is a Web Application Firewall (WAF) and
DDoS mitigation service. It protects against external attacks like DDoS.
The CIO's concern is about internal mistakes and misconfigurations,
not external attacks.

Q336.

Q337.
Correct answer: B — Use the Managed Instance Group with Compute
Engine.

Why this is the best choice

 Autoscaling without re-architecture: Managed Instance Groups

(MIGs) let you keep your existing VM-based app while automatically
adding or removing instances to match demand.
 Keep the app always running: With health checks and rolling
updates, MIGs maintain availability during scaling and instance
replacement.
 No immediate refactor required: MIGs require minimal application
changes (image, startup scripts, configuration) compared with moving
to containers/Kubernetes or rewriting the app.

Q338.
Q339.

Network egress rule best practice

Answer B is correct.

 Firewalls evaluate rules by priority (smaller number = higher priority).

 Implement a high-priority allow rule for the specific egress ports your
application needs (e.g., TCP 80, 443, or whatever the app requires).
 Leave a lower-priority catch-all deny (block all egress) so any traffic
not explicitly allowed is blocked.
 This minimizes open egress surface while ensuring required flows
work.

Example:
  Priority 1000: Allow egress TCP 443 to required destinations.
 Priority 65534: Deny all egress.

Q340.

Q341.

Answer

A. The reliability and health of their systems.

Measuring system reliability and health aligns directly with DevOps principles
(feedback loops, observability, continuous improvement) and gives
actionable data to improve deployments, availability, and incident response.
Employee satisfaction and risk/reward are useful secondary measures, but
the primary measurable that supports DevOps operations is system
reliability and health.
Q342.

Firebase Console — confirmation

Correct: B. Notification Composer

Notification Composer (in Firebase Cloud Messaging) is the console tool for
creating and sending targeted, behavior- or audience-based notifications to
users. Remote Config changes app behavior and appearance, and A/B
Testing is for measuring variants — they’re related but not the primary
console feature for delivering messages.

Q343.
Q344.

This is a great question about securing a migration to Google Cloud!

The best option to allow the customer's resources within Google Cloud to
access Google services (like APIs) using private IP addresses instead of
public ones, thus improving security, is:

D. Enable Private Google Access so that they can remove public IP

addresses.
🧐 Why Private Google Access is the Right
Answer
 Private Google Access (PGA) is specifically designed for Virtual
Private Cloud (VPC) subnets. When enabled, it allows virtual machine
instances (and other resources) that only have private IP addresses
(no external/public IP) to reach the external IP addresses of Google
APIs and services.
 The traffic remains within the Google network, using private routing,
which enhances security by eliminating the need for a public IP
address or a route through the public internet to reach Google
services.
 This perfectly addresses the customer's goal of improving security by
removing public IP addresses and keeping traffic private when
accessing Google services.

❌ Why Other Options Are Incorrect

 A. Use VPC Peering with the Google Cloud organization: VPC
Peering connects two of your own VPC networks (or one of yours and
one from another organization/project you peer with), usually to allow
resources to communicate using private IPs. It does not create a
private link to the global Google services like Cloud Storage or
BigQuery APIs.
 B. Use private addresses only. No additional configuration is
required: This is incorrect. Without Private Google Access, instances
with only private IP addresses cannot reach the public endpoints of
Google services. They must either have a public IP or use a
configuration like Private Google Access or a NAT gateway.
 C. Use Shared VPCs with the Google Cloud organization: Shared
VPCs allow different projects to use a single, common host VPC
network for their resources. Like VPC Peering, this is a networking
construct for your own projects and does not provide private access
to Google's global public services (APIs).

Q345.
Q346.

The correct answer is:

✅ B. Storage and Container Registry.

Explanation:

When you deploy updated Firebase Functions, Google Cloud Functions

internally:

 Builds the new function code using Cloud Build.

 Stores the build artifacts (container images) in Container Registry or
Artifact Registry.
 Deploys new instances of the function based on that image.
 Cleans up older function versions, their instances, and associated
artifacts from Storage and Container Registry.
So, the sentence completes as:

“When you update the function in Firebase by deploying updated code,

instances for older versions are cleaned up along with build artifacts in
Storage and Container Registry and replaced by new instances.”

Q347.

Answer(s): D

✅ Explanation:

Firebase Hosting is a production-grade web content hosting platform

that supports all three types:

1. Static Content:

2. It’s primarily designed for hosting static files like HTML, CSS,
JavaScript, and media assets — perfect for SPAs and PWAs.

3. Dynamic Content:

Using Cloud Functions or Cloud Run with Firebase Hosting rewrites, you
can serve dynamic content and API responses.
 4. Microservices:

Firebase Hosting can route requests to Cloud Functions or Cloud Run

services, allowing you to implement microservice architectures.

Hence, option D (All of the Above) is correct.

Q348.

Based on the scenario, the correct answer is B. Retain the data in use in
a single region bucket with standard storage.

Here’s a breakdown of why this is the best choice:

🎯 Why this is the best choice

1. Storage Class: Standard Storage

a. The data is described as "common source data" that different
teams are using to build "many versions of ML models." This
implies frequent and active access as the models are trained,
tested, and iterated upon.
b. Standard Storage is the "hot" storage class, designed for high-
frequency access with the lowest latency, making it perfect for
active ML training datasets.
2. Location: Single Region
a. Machine learning training is a compute-intensive task. For the
best performance (lowest latency and highest throughput), you
should co-locate your compute resources (like Vertex AI or
Compute Engine) and your storage bucket in the same
region.
 b. The question doesn't state that the teams are in different
geographic regions, only that they are different teams. The most
common and cost-effective setup is to run all training jobs in a
single, powerful region. A single-region bucket supports this
perfectly.

🤔 Why the other options are less ideal

 A. Retain the data in use in a single region bucket with

nearline storage...
o Nearline storage is for "cold" data accessed less than once a
month (like backups or archives). Using it for active ML training
would result in poor performance and high data retrieval costs.
 C. Retain the data in use in a multi-region bucket.
o A multi-region bucket is designed for serving data to users
across a large geographic area (like a continent) or for providing
high geo-redundancy. This is more expensive and unnecessary
for an ML training pipeline that is likely running compute in a
single location.
 D. Retain the data in use in a dual-region bucket.
o A dual-region bucket provides high availability and
performance across two specific regions. Like the multi-region
option, this adds cost and complexity that isn't required by the
scenario. The primary need here is performance for compute,
which a single-region bucket handles best.

Would you like to know more about how to choose the right storage location
for different use cases?

Q349.
The correct answer is ✅ C. Crashlytics

Explanation:

Firebase Crashlytics is a real-time crash reporting tool that helps

developers:

 Track crashes and non-fatal errors in their applications

 Prioritize issues based on impact and frequency
 Fix stability problems that degrade the user experience

It provides detailed stack traces, user session data, and contextual logs that
make it easier to identify and resolve issues efficiently.

Other options explained:

 A. Performance → Monitors app performance metrics like startup

time and network latency, not stability issues.
 B. App Distribution → Used for distributing pre-release app builds to
testers.
 D. Test Lab → Runs automated tests on real devices in the cloud to
identify bugs before release.

👉 Hence, Crashlytics is the Firebase quality tool that specifically helps

developers track, prioritize, and fix stability issues.

Q350.
The correct answer is:

✅ D. Ask the partner to create a Service Account in their project, and

grant their Service Account access to the BigQuery dataset in your
project.

Explanation:

 The partner company runs its own applications in their own Google
Cloud project.
 They need to access your BigQuery dataset hosted in your project.

So, the most secure and standard cross-project access pattern is:

1. The partner creates a Service Account in their project.

2. You (the dataset owner) grant that Service Account access to your
BigQuery dataset by assigning an IAM role such as:
a. roles/bigquery.dataViewer or
b. roles/bigquery.user (depending on the required access level).

This ensures:

 The partner manages their own credentials and security.

 You retain control over access to your data.
 It aligns with Google Cloud’s best practices for cross-project data
sharing.
Summary:

 You don’t create service accounts for external partners.

 You grant dataset-level access to the partner’s service account.

Hence, option D is correct.

Q351.

Q352.

Q353.
In-App Messaging capabilities

Correct answer: C. Increasing conversion for user-to-user sharing

Why: In-app messaging is designed to target users based on behavior,

deliver customized flexible alerts, and send relevant messages to specific
audiences, but driving user-to-user sharing or viral referral conversion is
typically not a core capability of in-app messaging itself—that relies more on
referral/viral features and product mechanics.

Q354.

Q355.
Q356.

The correct answer is: ✅ B. Deployment Manager

💡 Explanation

When you want a dynamic and automated way to provision VMs in

Google Compute Engine (GCE), and you have configuration details
stored in a dedicated configuration file, Google Cloud Deployment
Manager is the recommended practice.

Here's why:

 Deployment Manager is an Infrastructure as Code (IaC) service in

Google Cloud.
 It allows you to define resources (like VMs, networks, firewalls,
etc.) declaratively in YAML, Jinja2, or Python templates.
  This configuration file can specify exact VM specs, and the tool
dynamically provisions or updates them as defined.
 It aligns perfectly with Google’s recommended best practices for
infrastructure automation and repeatability.

❌ Why not the others?

 A. Managed Instance Group: Used for scaling and managing a

group of identical VMs, not for defining or provisioning via config
files.
 C. Cloud Composer: Orchestrates workflows (Airflow), not
infrastructure provisioning.
 D. Unmanaged Instance Group: Manually managed; does not
support dynamic provisioning or config-based management.

✅ Final Answer: B. Deployment Manager

Q357.

A. Migrate to a Bare Metal server.

Google Cloud's Bare Metal Solution is designed for initial lift-and-shift

migrations of Oracle databases, providing dedicated hardware that's certified
for Oracle workloads and compatible with existing licenses. This lets you
move data and applications to Google Cloud with minimal changes upfront,
while planning a later shift to cloud-native options like Cloud SQL for
PostgreSQL or AlloyDB.
  Why not B? Cloud SQL doesn't support Oracle; it's for MySQL,
PostgreSQL, and SQL Server.
 Why not C? Oracle Database@Google Cloud exists as a hosted option
on GCP infrastructure, and leaving data on-premises doesn't move it
initially.
 Why not D? Oracle databases are stateful and better suited for
Kubernetes (like GKE) than Cloud Run, which is for stateless, serverless
apps.

Q358.

Option Analysis
A. Multi-Regional ✅ Correct – Designed for DR, geo-redundant, follows Google’s best
Storage practice.
B. Coldline ❌ Optimized for infrequently accessed data, not ideal for DR (higher
Storage retrieval latency/cost).
C. Nearline
❌ For monthly access, not DR-critical (slower retrieval).
Storage
D. Regional ❌ Single-region only → fails during regional outage → violates DR
Storage goals.

Q359.
Q360.

Q361.
Answer

B. Bots are creating accounts and then using them. Use Google
Cloud's Web App and API Protection (WAAP).

Why

 The pattern (many accounts created rapidly from a few IPs, immediate
logins, broad exploration, high load) strongly indicates automated bot
activity rather than coordinated manual users.
 WAAP provides protections against automated threats at the edge
(rate limiting, bot detection, IP reputation, challenge/verification flows)
which directly address this behavior.

Recommended immediate actions

 Enable WAAP protections (bot mitigation, rate limits, challenge

pages) for the application.
 Turn on CAPTCHA or progressive challenge on registration and
suspicious logins.
 Add rate limiting and IP-based throttling for account creation and
login endpoints.
 Block or challenge suspicious IPs and ASN ranges while
investigating.
 Instrument telemetry: increase logging for UA, IP, X-Forwarded-For,
timestamps, request patterns and feed into SIEM or alerting.
 Enable account anti-abuse controls: email/phone verification,
device fingerprinting, login anomaly detection, and temporary account
quarantine.
 Deploy application WAF rules to block automated
scanning/exploration patterns.
 Plan longer-term: integrate fraud scoring, reputation services, and
automated account churn detection to proactively flag abusive
accounts.
Why the other options are incorrect

 A (human hired attackers + Cloud Asset Inventory): inventory checks

won't help detect or stop automated account creation or runtime
abuse.
 C and D (using Identity-Aware Proxy): IAP restricts access to known
identities (Google accounts or enterprise users) and is not suitable for
a public consumer-facing app where genuine users must self-register;
it also does not provide bot mitigation features. Automated tests could
be a possibility but the rapid registration/login pattern across IPs points
to bots, and IAP would block legitimate public users.
Q362.

Q363.
Q364.

Q365.
The correct answer is D. All of the above.

To submit a bare metal solution order to Bare Metal Solutions (BMS) for a
secure, high-performance connection with a low-latency network fabric in
Google Cloud, you need to provide the following network information:

 A. IP Ranges for client IP address communication between your

Google Cloud and Bare Metal Solution environments.
 B. Google Cloud Project ID associated with your BMS environment.
 C. Total number of VLANs required in your Bare Metal Solution
environment.

All three pieces of information are required to properly configure the network
interconnection and ensure secure, low-latency connectivity.

Thus, D. All of the above is the complete and correct requirement.

Q366.
Q367.
Q368.

The correct answer is: ✅ D. All of the above

Explanation:

When submitting a Bare Metal Solution order, you must provide detailed
network configuration information so that Google Cloud can provision
the environment correctly and ensure connectivity between your Bare Metal
and Google Cloud environments.

The required network information includes:

 1. IP Ranges – Client IP address ranges used for communication between
your Google Cloud and Bare Metal Solution environments.
2. Google Cloud Project ID – The project ID associated with your Bare
Metal Solution environment.
3. Total Number of VLANs – VLAN details for separating network traffic
and ensuring secure connectivity.

Hence, all the above are required — option D is correct.

Q369.

Q370.

The correct answer is ✅ D. All of the above.

Here’s why each option is true for Preemptible Instances in Google Cloud
Compute Engine:
A. ✅ No SLA:

Preemptible VMs are not covered by the Compute Engine SLA, since
Google can terminate them at any time (usually within 24 hours).

B. ✅ Free Tier credits don’t apply:

Google Cloud Free Tier credits cannot be used for preemptible

instances. They apply only to standard VM instances.

C. ✅ No live migration or auto-restart:

Preemptible VMs cannot be live-migrated to a regular instance and don’t

automatically restart after preemption or maintenance.

Hence, all statements (A, B, and C) are correct, making

➡️D. All of the above the correct answer.

Q371.

The correct answer is:

✅ A. False

Explanation:

In Google Cloud Platform (GCP), you can expand (increase) the IP

range of a subnet in a custom VPC without affecting existing resources.

 When you expand a subnet’s range, existing VM instances retain

their original IP addresses.
 The expansion only adds new IP addresses to the subnet’s available
pool.
  No disruption or reallocation occurs for currently assigned addresses.

Hence, the statement “the IP addresses of virtual machines already on that

subnet might be affected” is False.

Q372.

The correct answer shown in the image is ✅ A —

"Machine learning examples include chatbots and automated virtual

assistants to automate routine customer service tasks and speed up
issue resolution."

💡 Explanation:

 Option A is correct because chatbots and virtual assistants are real-

world examples of machine learning applications. They use Natural
Language Processing (NLP) and predictive models to understand
user intent, respond appropriately, and continuously improve from
interactions.
 Option B is incorrect because while ML helps in building and
improving models, it still requires human oversight — it doesn’t
fully automate statistical modeling.
  Option C is incorrect because RPA (Robotic Process Automation)
can be integrated with ML to make processes more intelligent (this is
often called Intelligent Automation).
 Option D is false because Option A is indeed correct.

✅ Final Answer: A

Q373.

Q374.

The correct answers are ✅ A. Cloud Run and ✅ B. Cloud App Engine
Standard.
Explanation:

 Cloud Run
o Ideal for serverless, containerized applications.
o You pay only when the application is running, making it
very cost-effective for infrequent usage (e.g., once a week or
month).
o Automatically scales to zero when not in use.
 App Engine Standard
o Also a serverless platform.
o Automatically scales down to zero instances when idle.
o You are only charged for the resources used during active
requests.

Why not the others:

 ❌ Compute Engine – Always-on VMs, not cost-effective for occasional

workloads.
 ❌ Kubernetes Engine (GKE) – Designed for container orchestration
at scale; requires cluster management and incurs baseline costs even
when idle.

✅ Final Answer: A (Cloud Run) and B (App Engine Standard)

Q375.
The correct answer shown in the image is C. Google Cloud Storage &
Preemptible VMs, and that’s indeed the most appropriate choice.

✅ Explanation:

For a company capturing terabytes of satellite image data daily, the

requirements are:

 Massive scalable storage for large image datasets.

 High-performance compute for periodic or batch image processing.
 Cost efficiency, since processing workloads are likely non-continuous
(can be re-run if interrupted).

💡 Why Option C is Best:

 Google Cloud Storage (GCS):

o Ideal for storing large, unstructured data (like satellite imagery).
o Scales automatically to petabytes.
o Offers various storage classes for cost optimization (Standard,
Nearline, Coldline, etc.).
 Preemptible VMs:
o Short-lived, low-cost Compute Engine instances (up to 80%
cheaper than regular VMs).
o Perfect for batch or fault-tolerant workloads (like image
processing jobs).
o If a VM is stopped, the job can simply restart on another
instance.

❌ Other Options:

 A. Bare Metal Solutions + GCS:

Overkill and expensive. Bare Metal is for specialized workloads (e.g., Oracle
databases), not scalable image processing.

 B. GCS + Compute Engine:

Works fine but more expensive than Preemptible VMs for large-scale daily
batch processing.

 D. None of the Above:

Incorrect — because option C fits perfectly.

✅ Final Answer: C — Google Cloud Storage & Preemptible VMs

Q376.

Q377.

The correct answer is ✅ D. All of the above.

Explanation:

When creating a boot persistent disk from a snapshot in Google Cloud:

A. ✔️True.
 You cannot apply a snapshot to an existing persistent disk; snapshots
can only be used when creating a new disk. Also, you cannot apply a
snapshot from another project unless shared properly (via IAM
permissions).

B. ✔️True.

You can only apply snapshot data at creation time, not afterward.

C. ✔️True.

Once you create a snapshot of a boot persistent disk, you can use that
snapshot to create new persistent disks—including new boot disks.

✅ Therefore, the correct answer is D. All of the above.

Q378.

Q379.
The correct answer is:

✅ C. Cloud Storage with the multi-region option of European Union

Explanation:

 The question specifies:

o The data must not leave the European Union (EU) →
storage location must stay within the EU.
o The users are spread all over the EU, and access
performance matters.

Option Analysis

A. Cloud Storage with a single region that is known to be within the

European U

 ❌ Keeps data in one region only (e.g., europe-west1), so less

availability and redundancy.
 Doesn’t optimize performance for users across the EU.

B. Cloud Filestore connected to VMs in the EU

 ❌ Cloud Filestore is a regional file system for VMs, not suitable for
global web access.
 Not optimized for web browser access.
C. Cloud Storage with the multi-region option of European U

 ✅ Best option.
 The multi-region “EU” stores data redundantly across multiple
EU regions, ensuring:
o Data stays within the EU (complies with data residency rules).
o High availability and performance for users across the EU.

D. Cloud Storage with the dual-region option of European U

 ⚠️Possible, but it limits data to only two specific regions — less

performance flexibility across all EU users compared to multi-region.

✅ Final Answer: C. Cloud Storage with the multi-region option of

European Union

Q380.

The correct answer is ✅ D. All of the above.

Explanation:

Let’s look at each option:

A. Kubernetes uses Docker to deploy, manage, and scale

containerized applications.

✔️True — Docker is one of the most common container runtimes used by

Kubernetes (though Kubernetes can also use others like containerd or CRI-
O).
B. Difference between Docker and Kubernetes relates to the role
each plays in containerizing and running your applications.

✔️True — Docker is primarily a containerization platform, while

Kubernetes is a container orchestration system.

C. Kubernetes can be used with or without Docker.

✔️True — Since Kubernetes v1.20, Docker support was deprecated in favor

of containerd and CRI-O, meaning it can work without Docker.

Hence,

✅ D. All of the above is correct.

Q381.

The correct answer is ✅ A. False

Explanation:

In Google Cloud IAM, permissions are unioned (additive) across all

applicable policies.

That means:

 If you are granted Owner permissions at the project level, you retain
those permissions for all resources within that project.
 Even if someone applies a more restrictive policy (e.g., “Viewer”
role) on an individual resource, it does not override your higher-level
permissions.
 GCP IAM does not support “deny” rules (unless using IAM Deny
Policies, which are separate and explicitly configured).
So your access cannot be restricted to only view permission if you already
have Owner rights at the project level.

Hence, the statement is False. ✅

Q382.

Q383.

The correct answer is ✅ D. All of the Above.

Explanation:

Each service listed is correctly matched to its real-world use case:

 A. Cloud Storage → Used for unstructured data like images, videos,

large media files, and backups.
  B. Cloud Bigtable → Ideal for large-scale analytical and
operational workloads, such as AdTech, financial time-series,
and IoT data (massive datasets with low latency).
 C. Cloud SQL → Best suited for relational data such as user
credentials, customer orders, and transactions (structured data
with ACID compliance).

Hence, all statements are accurate → D. All of the Above.

Q384.

Q385.

The correct answer is: ✅ B. We can deploy a Pub/Sub to ingest data

which will grow to absorb demand and pass it on to other stages.
💡 Explanation:

The key issue here is scalability during data surges (millions of users
connecting simultaneously). Google Cloud Pub/Sub is a fully managed,
auto-scaling, asynchronous messaging service that can handle
massive spikes in data ingestion without manual provisioning.

 Why not Compute Engine or Kubernetes?

 Options A, C, and D all rely on pre-allocating capacity, which defeats

the purpose of cloud elasticity and is inefficient for unpredictable
surges. You’d either overpay for idle capacity or risk
underprovisioning.

 Why Pub/Sub works best:

o It automatically scales with traffic volume.
o Acts as a buffer between incoming data (user events, logs,
gameplay stats, etc.) and downstream systems (databases,
analytics, etc.).
o Ensures no data loss even during extreme load.
o Ideal for real-time data streaming in gaming environments.

✅ Final Answer: B. We can deploy a Pub/Sub to ingest data which will

grow to absorb demand and pass it on to other stages.

Q386.

Q387.
Q388.

Q389.

The correct answer is ✅ C. Rightsizing Recommendations

Explanation:

Google Cloud Compute Engine includes a feature called Rightsizing

Recommendations, which analyzes the historical CPU and memory usage
of your virtual machine (VM) instances. It then provides recommendations
to:

 Downsize underutilized instances to save costs, or

 Upsize overutilized instances to improve performance.

This capability helps optimize resource utilization and reduce

unnecessary expenses in your cloud environment.

Q390.

Correct Answer: B. Enable Services and APIs

Explanation:

In Google Cloud Platform (GCP), every service and resource is tied to a

project. A GCP project serves as a container and organizational unit that
provides the following key functions:

 Enables services and APIs (e.g., Compute Engine, Cloud Storage,

BigQuery APIs)
 Manages billing
 Controls access via IAM (Identity and Access Management)
 Provides a scope for resource quotas and monitoring

While projects are involved in managing containers (via Kubernetes Engine)

and DNS (via Cloud DNS), the primary and universal function of a GCP
project across all services is to enable and organize access to services
and their APIs.

Thus, B is the most accurate and comprehensive answer.

Q391.

The correct three answers are:

✅ A. Classification

✅ B. De-identification

✅ D. Inspection

💡 Explanation:

Cloud Data Loss Prevention (DLP) helps protect sensitive data by

offering these main capabilities:

1. Inspection – Scans data to detect and identify sensitive information

(like PII, credit card numbers, etc.).
2. Classification – Categorizes detected data based on type or
sensitivity.
3. De-identification – Masks, tokenizes, or otherwise transforms
sensitive data to protect privacy.
Incorrect options:

 C. De-classification – Not a DLP feature.

 E. Reinspection – Not a defined function in Cloud DLP.

Final Answer: 🟩 A, B, and D

Q392.

Q393.
Q394.

Q395.
The correct answer is ✅ B. SaaS (Software as a Service)

Explanation:

If you want to provide CRM (Customer Relationship Management)

services through the cloud, you’re offering a ready-to-use application that
users can access over the internet — no infrastructure or platform
management needed.

Example: Salesforce, HubSpot, or Zoho CRM are SaaS-based CRM solutions.

Here’s how the models differ:

 CaaS (Container as a Service): Used for managing containers and

orchestrating workloads.
 SaaS (Software as a Service): Delivers complete applications over
the internet.
 PaaS (Platform as a Service): Provides tools and platforms for
application development.
 IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): Provides virtualized
infrastructure resources.

👉 So, SaaS is the correct model for providing CRM services.

Q396.
Q397.

Data transfer time calculation

 Given: 100 TB of data, link = 100 Mbps (megabits per second).

 Convert units: 100 Mbps = 0.1 Gbps = 0.0125 GB/s.
 Use 1 TB = 1,000 GB for a simple estimate: time (s) = 100,000 GB /
0.0125 GB/s = 8,000,000 s.
 Convert to days: (\frac{8{,}000{,}000\ \text{seconds}}{86{,}400\ \
text{seconds/day}} \approx 92.6\ \text{days}).

Using binary TB (1 TB = 1024 GB) gives ≈95 days. Both round to about 100
days.

Answer: C. About 100 days.

Q398.

Q399.

Correct answer and explanation

Answer: B — Cloud Security Scanner (Web Security Scanner).

Web Security Scanner (Cloud Security Scanner) scans App Engine, GKE, and
Compute Engine web apps for OWASP-class vulnerabilities by crawling public
URLs, exercising inputs and event handlers, and reporting issues such as
XSS, mixed content, and outdated libraries. It supports App Engine standard
and flexible environments and public endpoints not behind a firewall.

Q400.

GCP compliance resources

The three correct answers are A. Compliance Reports Manager, C.

Compliance Offerings, and D. GDPR Home Page.

 Compliance Reports Manager — central place to download audit

and compliance reports.
 Compliance Offerings — lists compliance frameworks and
certifications GCP meets.
 GDPR Home Page — resources and guidance specific to GDPR
compliance on GCP.

Q401.
Cloud Deployment Model

Answer: B. Community

Explanation: A community cloud is shared by several organizations with

common concerns (e.g., regulatory compliance, mission, or security needs)
such as non-profits, hospitals, or enterprises that collaborate and share
infrastructure and policies. Hybrid combines two or more models; private
serves a single organization; public is open to general public users.

Q402.

Q403.
The question describes a customer migrating their on-premises data
analytics solution to Google Cloud, where the main issue is disk I/O
performance bottlenecks.

Let’s analyze the options:

A. BigQuery – It’s a managed analytics service, not a direct disk

performance enhancement. Migrating to BigQuery would require
rearchitecting the application — not a straightforward performance tweak.

❌ Not suitable for improving existing disk I/O performance.

B. Cloud Storage – It’s object storage, great for scalability and central
access but not for high-throughput analytics that require frequent read/write
operations.

❌ Not optimized for high IOPS workloads.

C. Local SSDs with the VMs – Local SSDs provide very high IOPS and
low latency because they are physically attached to the VM host.
However, they are ephemeral (data is lost if the VM stops). Since the
workload is fault-tolerant, this limitation isn’t a problem.

✅ Best option for performance improvement.

D. Persistent Disk – Reliable and durable, but not as fast as local SSDs for
intensive read/write workloads.
❌ Not the highest-performing option.

✅ Correct Answer: C. Use local SSDs with the VMs

Explanation:

Local SSDs deliver superior throughput and low latency, ideal for I/O-
intensive analytics workloads. Since the application is fault-tolerant, data
loss from VM shutdowns isn’t an issue — making Local SSDs the most
effective choice to boost performance.

Q404.

✅ Correct Answers: C, D, E
Explanation:

1. Committed-Use Discounts (CUDs) — You commit to using a certain

amount of vCPU and memory for 1 or 3 years in exchange for
discounted pricing.
2. Sustained-Use Discounts (SUDs) — Automatically applied when
VMs run for a large portion of the billing month, reducing costs the
longer they run.
3. Preemptible VMs (E) — Short-lived, cost-effective VMs (up to 80%
cheaper) that can be preempted by Google Cloud at any time.

❌ Incorrect options:

 A. Military Discounts: Google Cloud does not provide this category

of discount.
 B. Spot Instances: This term applies to AWS; GCP uses Preemptible
VMs instead.

Hence, C, D, and E are the correct answers.

Q405.

Q406.
Q407.

Question 407 — validation and explanation

Yes — the given answer B Improve and Move is correct.

 Why B fits: the organization has already paid for the on-premises
datacenter lease for another year, so they have time to
refactor/replatform workloads into containers on-premises, test and
 improve them, then migrate to GKE when ready. This approach
minimizes rush, lets them containerize and harden services gradually,
and reduces migration risk.
 Why the other options are wrong
o A Jump and Ramp: implies an immediate lift into cloud followed
by gradual optimization; not ideal when you already have paid
capacity and can iterate locally.
o C Rip and Replace: implies discarding existing systems and
rebuilding in cloud immediately; expensive and risky given the
paid lease and a year of runway.
o D Left and Shift: (usually called Lift and Shift) moves VMs
unchanged to cloud; this contradicts the stated goal of running
containers on GKE and misses the opportunity to modernize
while on existing infrastructure.

Q408.

The correct answer is: ✅ D. Cloud SQL

Explanation:

 The customer is currently using Microsoft SQL Server for SAP.

 They’re migrating to Google Cloud, but SAP’s new version won’t
use SQL Server — meaning this database will be temporary.
 The IT team is focusing on SAP migration, so database
management should be minimized.
 Therefore, they need a managed service for SQL Server, requiring
minimal administration.
Cloud SQL supports SQL Server as a managed database service in Google
Cloud — it handles backups, patching, and maintenance automatically,
reducing management overhead.

Other options (incorrect):

 A. Spanner: Not compatible with Microsoft SQL Server; requires

application rewrite.
 B. Bare Metal: Too much management overhead (hardware, OS, SQL
installation).
 C. BigQuery: Analytical database, not for transactional SAP
workloads.

✅ Final Answer: D. Cloud SQL

Q409.

Q410.
Cloud vendor lock-in and the correct choice

Correct answer: A. Open standards

 Why open standards mitigate lock-in

 Open standards ensure portability and interoperability by using widely

supported formats, protocols, and APIs. That makes it easier to move
workloads or data between providers or run them on-premises without
needing proprietary vendor-specific features.

 Why the other options are less effective

o B. Database services — Managed databases can increase lock-
in if they use proprietary features or formats specific to a vendor.
o C. Service level agreements — SLAs define reliability and
performance guarantees but do not reduce technical
dependency on a vendor’s proprietary technologies.
o D. Scalable infrastructure — Scalability addresses
performance needs but does not prevent dependence on
provider-specific implementations.

Q411.
Q412.

The correct answer is:

None of the given options are correct — the correct Google Cloud
product should be Firestore.

Let’s analyze the choices provided:

 A. BigQuery – ❌ Analytical data warehouse, not NoSQL, not for

web/mobile app backends.
 B. Cloud Storage – ❌ Object storage, not a database.
 C. Cloud Spanner – ❌ Relational (SQL) database, not NoSQL.
 D. restore – ❌ Not a valid Google Cloud service.

✅ Correct Service: Firestore (in Datastore mode)

 It’s a flexible, scalable NoSQL database.

 Provides real-time synchronization.
 Has strong SDK support for web and mobile apps (Android, iOS,
and web).

Final Answer:

➡️Google Cloud Firestore

Q413.

Q414.

Based on the scenario, the correct Google Cloud service for an organization
that wants to spend more time developing rather than managing
clusters while using Kubernetes is GKE Autopilot.

The best choice is C. GKE Autopilot.

Service Comparison for Kubernetes on

Google Cloud
Here's why GKE Autopilot is the ideal choice and how the other options
compare:

 C. GKE Autopilot (Correct) ✅

o Focus: Fully managed Kubernetes clusters.
 o Benefit: Google manages the cluster's infrastructure (control
plane, nodes, scaling, patching, security configuration). You only
pay for the resources your running applications actually
consume. This significantly reduces cluster management
overhead, allowing teams to focus entirely on application
development.
 A. GKE Standard
o Focus: Standard Kubernetes clusters.
o Benefit: Provides flexibility and control over node
configurations.
o Drawback: The organization is responsible for managing the
nodes (scaling, upgrading, patching the node operating
systems), which is the exact overhead the question wants to
minimize.
 B. Cloud Run
o Focus: Serverless compute platform for containers.
o Benefit: Offers an even higher level of abstraction and a fully
serverless experience.
o Drawback: While it removes cluster management, it's a
different runtime environment than full Kubernetes, which
the organization is stated to be using. Cloud Run is ideal for
stateless containers but might not suit all application
requirements currently running on or developed for traditional
Kubernetes.
 D. Compute Engine
o Focus: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS).
o Benefit: Provides maximum control over virtual machines.
o Drawback: The organization would have to manually install,
configure, and manage the entire Kubernetes stack on the
VMs, which is the most intensive cluster management option and
directly contradicts the goal.

GKE Autopilot is specifically designed for organizations that want the power
and portability of Kubernetes without the operational burden of managing
the underlying node infrastructure.

Q415.
✅ Correct Answer: C. Compliance Reports Manager

Explanation:

Compliance Reports Manager (CRM) in Google Cloud is part of the

Assured Workloads suite and provides access to:

 Google Cloud compliance certifications (like ISO 27001, SOC 2, PCI

DSS, etc.)
 Third-party audit reports and compliance documentation
 Tools to download compliance artifacts for your organization’s
assessments or audits

The other options:

 A. Network Intelligence Center → For network performance,

topology, and monitoring—not compliance.
 B. Security Command Center → Centralized security visibility and
threat management—not for compliance documentation.
 D. Cloud Monitoring → Monitors metrics, logs, and uptime—not
compliance-related.

So, Compliance Reports Manager is the correct tool to verify certifications

and access compliance documentation.

Q416.
❌ Why the Other Options are Incorrect

 A. Customer data may not be transferred out of Google Cloud:

This is false. Customers own their data and have the right to transfer it
out.
 B. Outgoing data transfer must be enabled in the Google Cloud
console: While certain services might have specific configurations for
exports, there is no single, global "outgoing data transfer must be
enabled" setting that prevents all data movement unless configured.
The customer's ability to transfer data is the default, inherent right.
 C. A technical support ticket must be raised with the correct
department: This is false and would hinder a customer's control over
their own data. Data transfers are typically self-service operations
using available tools (like Cloud Storage transfer, or database
export/backup features).

Q417.

Q418.
Q419.

Q420.

The correct answer is: ✅ C. GKE Enterprise

Explanation:

 GKE Enterprise (formerly Anthos) provides a consistent and

centralized management platform for Kubernetes clusters across
multiple cloud environments — including Google Cloud, on-
premises data centers, and other public clouds (AWS, Azure, etc.).
  It allows unified policy, configuration, and security management for
hybrid and multi-cloud Kubernetes deployments.

Incorrect options:

 A. Cloud Run → Used for running stateless containers; not for

managing multi-cloud Kubernetes clusters.
 B. Compute Engine → Provides VMs, not Kubernetes management.
 D. Cloud Functions → For event-driven serverless apps, not cluster
management.

✅ Answer: C. GKE Enterprise

Q421.

Q422.

Q423.
Answer

C. Updates can be pushed out more quickly to repair bugs

Explanation

Moving legacy apps to the cloud enables CI/CD pipelines, automated testing,
and fast deployment mechanisms so fixes and feature changes reach users
much faster. This directly satisfies user expectations for rapid updates and
responsive improvements. Options A and B are not accurate explanations for
meeting user demand, and D is about personalization rather than speeding
change delivery.