AIBE 19 Set B Question Paper with Solutions

Time Allowed :3 Hour 30 mins Maximum Marks :100 Total Questions :100

General Instructions
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:
1. It is a pen-and-paper (offline) exam using OMR sheet.
2. +1 mark per correct answer; no negative marking for wrong answers
3. AIBE is no longer a full open-book exam.

1. Which section of BNSS mandates the appointment of a designated police officer in each
district and police station to provide information about arrested individuals to the general
public?
(1) 35
(2) 37
(3) 45
(4) 25

Correct Answer: (2) 37

Solution:
Step 1: Understanding the provision.
BNSS includes a mandate for appointing a designated officer in each district and police station.
This officer is responsible for sharing information about arrested persons with the public.

Step 2: Identify the correct section.

This mandate is specifically provided under Section 37 of BNSS.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Therefore, the correct answer is Section 37.

Quick Tip
Always remember that BNSS provisions are aimed at transparency and accountability in
police procedures. Section 37 deals with public access to arrest-related information.

2. Which section of BNSS introduces provisions for identifying, attaching, and forfeiting the
property of proclaimed offenders located outside India?
(1) 76
(2) 84
(3) 86

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(4) 74

Correct Answer: (2) 84

Solution:
Step 1: Key concept.
BNSS provides mechanisms to identify and seize properties of proclaimed offenders, even if
they are outside India.

Step 2: Reference to section.

These provisions are clearly specified under Section 84 of BNSS.

Step 3: Final conclusion.

Thus, Section 84 governs attachment and forfeiture of property of proclaimed offenders abroad.

Quick Tip
Sections like 82–85 in BNSS commonly deal with proclaimed offenders and related prop-
erty provisions.

3. Which section of BNSS places restrictions on the adjournment of trials, ensuring the expe-
ditious resolution of cases?
(1) 246
(2) 346
(3) 356
(4) 146

Correct Answer: (2) 346

Solution:
Step 1: Understanding the issue.
Adjournments in trials often cause delays in justice. BNSS includes special provisions to restrict
unnecessary adjournments.

Step 2: Relevant section.

These restrictions are codified under Section 346.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, Section 346 ensures timely disposal of cases by limiting adjournments.

Quick Tip
Remember: Speedy trial is a fundamental principle under criminal law, reinforced by
BNSS.

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4. A suit is pending in District Court A, but one of the parties, Meera, requests its transfer to
District Court B, claiming the judge in Court A is biased. The opposing party, Ravi, objects,
stating that the request is baseless. Who has the authority to decide whether the suit can be
transferred?

(A) The High Court or the Supreme Court

(B) The Civil Judge in District Court B
(C) A committee of local advocates
(D) The District Court A where the suit is currently pending

Correct Answer: (A) The High Court or the Supreme Court

Solution:
Step 1: Nature of transfer applications.
When a transfer of a case from one district court to another is requested, the power lies with
higher judiciary.

Step 2: Relevant authority.

Only the High Court or the Supreme Court can decide on transfer of a case due to alleged bias.
District Courts themselves lack this jurisdiction.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Hence, the correct authority is the High Court or Supreme Court.

Quick Tip
In CPC, powers to transfer cases are vested only in higher courts, not trial courts.

5. Maya files a suit in Court A for recovery of a sum of money from her neighbour, Neha.
During proceedings, Neha requests that a third party, Seema, be added to the suit, as she
is allegedly liable for the debt. Maya objects, stating that Seema is not a necessary party.
Court A reviews and decides that Seema should indeed be included. Which principle of CPC
is applied in this situation?

(A) Order 7, Rule 11 – Rejection of Plaint

(B) Order 5 – Service of Summons
(C) Order 6, Rule 17 – Amendment of Pleadings
(D) Order 1, Rule 10 – Joinder and Substitution of Parties

Correct Answer: (D) Order 1, Rule 10 – Joinder and Substitution of Parties

Solution:
Step 1: Identifying the issue.
The dispute concerns whether a third party should be joined in the suit.

Step 2: CPC provision.

Order 1, Rule 10 of CPC gives the court power to add or strike out parties to ensure effective

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adjudication.

Step 3: Application.
Since Court A decided to add Seema as a necessary party, it applied Order 1, Rule 10.

Step 4: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is (D).

Quick Tip
Whenever the question involves adding or removing parties in a suit, always think of
Order 1, Rule 10 of CPC.

6. Which section of the CPC allows for the appeal from original decrees?
(1) Section 100
(2) Section 115
(3) Section 104
(4) Section 96

Correct Answer: (4) Section 96

Solution:
Step 1: Understanding appeals in CPC.
The Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) distinguishes between appeals from decrees and appeals
from orders.

Step 2: Relevant provision.

Appeals from original decrees are specifically governed by Section 96 of the CPC.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is Section 96.

Quick Tip
Remember: Section 96 CPC = Appeals from decrees; Section 104 CPC = Appeals from
orders.

7. Under the CPC, what is the maximum time limit for filing a written statement in a suit?
(1) 60 Days
(2) 120 Days
(3) 90 Days
(4) 30 Days

Correct Answer: (3) 90 Days

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Solution:
Step 1: Importance of written statement.
The written statement is the defendant’s reply to the plaintiff’s plaint, and CPC prescribes a
fixed time for it.

Step 2: Provision.
As per CPC amendments, the maximum time allowed for filing a written statement is 90 days.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Hence, the time limit is 90 days.

Quick Tip
Timely filing of written statements ensures the speedy trial principle under CPC.

8. Which section of the CPC provides exemption to the President of India and the Governors
of states from personal appearance in court?
(1) Section 133
(2) Section 128
(3) Section 130
(4) Section 132

Correct Answer: (1) Section 133

Solution:
Step 1: Identifying immunity provisions.
The CPC exempts certain dignitaries from being compelled to appear personally in court pro-
ceedings.

Step 2: Relevant section.

Section 133 specifically provides such exemption to the President of India and Governors of
states.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Therefore, the correct answer is Section 133.

Quick Tip
Remember: Sections 132–133 deal with exemptions from personal appearances.

9. What is the term used for a court’s power to transfer a case from one court to another under
the Code of Civil Procedure?
(1) Reference
(2) Review

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(3) Transfer of suits
(4) Res Judicata

Correct Answer: (3) Transfer of suits

Solution:
Step 1: Context.
Sometimes, for convenience, fairness, or impartiality, a case may need to be transferred to an-
other court.

Step 2: CPC provision.

This process is legally termed as ”Transfer of Suits”. The power lies with higher courts.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct term is Transfer of suits.

Quick Tip

Do not confuse transfer of suits with review (re-examination) or reference (seeking opinion
of higher court).

10. Under which order of the CPC is the procedure for summary suits provided?
(1) Order XXXVII
(2) Order XXXIV
(3) Order XXXVI
(4) Order XXXV

Correct Answer: (1) Order XXXVII

Solution:
Step 1: Meaning of summary suits.
Summary suits are special suits where the procedure is simplified, mostly relating to negotiable
instruments and certain debts.

Step 2: CPC provision.

The procedure for summary suits is explicitly provided under Order XXXVII of CPC.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Hence, the correct answer is Order XXXVII.

Quick Tip
Order XXXVII CPC provides a fast-track process for cases like negotiable instruments,
where the defendant has limited grounds to contest.

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11. Which section mandates State Government to prepare and notify a witness protection
scheme for the state with a view to ensure the protection of witnesses?
(1) 198
(2) 298
(3) 398
(4) 98

Correct Answer: (3) 398

Solution:
Step 1: Understanding witness protection.
Witness protection schemes ensure safety and security of witnesses so they can testify without
fear.

Step 2: Relevant BNSS section.

BNSS provides for a state-wise witness protection scheme under Section 398.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is Section 398.

Quick Tip
Witness protection is crucial to fair trial principles under BNSS.

12. of the CPC provides for an interpleader suit.

(1) Section 89
(2) Section 92
(3) Section 86
(4) Section 88

Correct Answer: (4) Section 88

Solution:
Step 1: Meaning of interpleader suit.
An interpleader suit is filed when multiple parties claim the same property or money, and the
person holding it seeks court intervention.

Step 2: CPC provision.

Section 88 CPC provides for such suits.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Hence, the correct answer is Section 88.

Quick Tip
Interpleader suits protect stakeholders from double liability.

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13. Which section of the CPC provides for the payment of compensatory costs?
(1) Section 35 (A)
(2) Section 35 (B)
(3) Section 36
(4) Section 35

Correct Answer: (1) Section 35 (A)

Solution:
Step 1: Compensatory costs explained.
These are costs imposed on parties filing false or frivolous claims.

Step 2: CPC reference.

Section 35(A) CPC provides for compensatory costs.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Therefore, the correct answer is Section 35(A).

Quick Tip
Always link costs with Sections 35, 35A, and 35B for different provisions.

14. Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not present in Section 24 of the
Evidence Act?
(1) Coercion
(2) Threat
(3) Promise
(4) Inducement

Correct Answer: (1) Coercion

Solution:
Step 1: Background.
The Evidence Act contained terms like inducement, promise, threat, etc.

Step 2: New insertion in BSA.

Section 22 of BSA, 2023 additionally inserted the term ”Coercion”.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is ”Coercion”.

Quick Tip
Always compare Evidence Act with BSA changes — many new terms have been added.

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15. Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in:
(1) Section 13 of the BSA, 2023
(2) Section 14 of the BSA, 2023
(3) Section 15 of the BSA, 2023
(4) Section 12 of the BSA, 2023

Correct Answer: (2) Section 14 of the BSA, 2023

Solution:
Step 1: Concept.
BSA identifies relevance of business records to prove consistency and regularity in conduct.

Step 2: Legal reference.

Such existence is codified under Section 14 of BSA, 2023.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Hence, the correct answer is Section 14 of BSA, 2023.

Quick Tip
Business records and practices are often relied on as circumstantial proof.

16. In a criminal trial, Rajesh is accused of theft. During investigation, the police recover a
stolen laptop from a location frequented by Rajesh. His fingerprints are found on the laptop.
According to BSA 2023, how should the court interpret this piece of evidence?

(1) Circumstantial evidence considered with other evidence, not conclusive proof
(2) Inadmissible without search warrant
(3) Fingerprints must be verified by two forensic experts
(4) Automatically conclusive proof of guilt

Correct Answer: (1) Circumstantial evidence considered with other evidence, not conclusive
proof
Solution:
Step 1: Nature of circumstantial evidence.
Fingerprints and recovery of stolen goods indicate strong suspicion but do not establish guilt
alone.

Step 2: BSA perspective.

BSA treats such evidence as circumstantial and requires corroboration.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, it is admissible but not conclusive proof.

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 Quick Tip
Circumstantial evidence needs supporting facts to prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt.

17. Where a document is executed in several parts like printing, lithography or photography,
video recording, or digital records, the BSA 2023 classifies each part as:
(1) Secondary evidence
(2) Circumstantial evidence
(3) Scientific evidence
(4) Primary evidence

Correct Answer: (4) Primary evidence

Solution:
Step 1: Primary evidence defined.
Primary evidence is the document itself, or all counterparts executed by the same process.

Step 2: BSA clarification.

BSA 2023 recognizes each part of multi-executed documents as primary evidence.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Hence, the correct answer is Primary evidence.

Quick Tip
Primary evidence is always preferred over secondary evidence in court.

18. Which section of BSA provides that no court shall require any communication between
the Ministers and the President of India to be produced before it?
(1) Section 268
(2) Section 168
(3) Section 65
(4) Section 85

Correct Answer: (1) Section 268

Solution:
Step 1: Context.
Certain privileged communications are protected from being disclosed in courts.

Step 2: Relevant provision.

Section 268 of BSA 2023 safeguards communications between the President and Ministers.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is Section 268.

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 Quick Tip
Privileged communications protect state confidentiality.

19. According to Section 46 of BSA, when is character evidence relevant in civil cases?
(1) Only when related to other relevant fact
(2) Never relevant
(3) Only in criminal cases
(4) Always relevant to prove conduct

Correct Answer: (1) Only when related to other relevant fact

Solution:
Step 1: Nature of character evidence.
Character evidence generally has limited relevance in civil cases.

Step 2: BSA clarification.

Section 46 states it is admissible only if linked with other relevant facts.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).

Quick Tip
In civil cases, character is rarely a fact in issue unless it connects to other facts.

20. Which section of the CPC deals with the principle of ”res judicata”?
(1) Section 10
(2) Section 12
(3) Section 9
(4) Section 11

Correct Answer: (4) Section 11

Solution:
Step 1: Understanding res judicata.
It prevents re-litigation of issues already decided between the same parties.

Step 2: CPC reference.

This principle is codified in Section 11 of CPC.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is Section 11.

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 Quick Tip
Res judicata = ”the matter has been judged”, ensuring finality of litigation.

21. Under Section 146 of the BSA 2023, when are leading questions permissible in court
proceedings?
(1) Not allowed during cross-examination
(2) Allowed in examination-in-chief, re-examination without objection
(3) Allowed during cross-examination and when matters are introductory, undisputed, or suf-
ficiently proved
(4) Always allowed during examination-in-chief without restriction

Correct Answer: (3) Allowed during cross-examination and when matters are introductory,
undisputed, or sufficiently proved
Solution:
Step 1: Understanding leading questions.
Leading questions suggest the expected answer and are restricted in normal examination-in-
chief.

Step 2: Legal provision.

Section 146 BSA 2023 allows leading questions in cross-examination and in cases where facts
are introductory, undisputed, or sufficiently proved.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is option (3).

Quick Tip
Leading questions are most commonly used in cross-examination to test credibility.

22. Which of the following is a characteristic of mediation?

(1) Neutral third party facilitates negotiation
(2) Mediator acts as judge and renders verdict
(3) Always court-ordered
(4) Mediator imposes binding decision

Correct Answer: (1) Neutral third party facilitates negotiation

Solution:
Step 1: Nature of mediation.
Mediation is an alternative dispute resolution (ADR) process that is voluntary and flexible.

Step 2: Mediator’s role.

The mediator does not impose a decision but helps parties negotiate a mutually acceptable

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solution.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Hence, the defining characteristic is facilitation by a neutral third party.

Quick Tip
Unlike arbitration, mediation is non-binding unless parties agree to a settlement.

23. A dispute arises between ABC Ltd. and XYZ Pvt. Ltd. regarding arbitration. If the
parties fail to agree on the appointment of an arbitrator, which provision of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996 applies?
(1) Parties must mutually select arbitrator, else arbitration fails
(2) Arbitrator appointed by ICA in all cases
(3) Parties can opt for conciliation instead
(4) Court appoints an arbitrator under Section 11

Correct Answer: (4) Court appoints an arbitrator under Section 11

Solution:
Step 1: Arbitration deadlock.
When parties cannot agree on appointment of arbitrator, law provides an external mechanism.

Step 2: Provision.
Section 11 of Arbitration Act, 1996 empowers courts to appoint an arbitrator.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is option (4).

Quick Tip
Always remember: Section 11 = Court appointment of arbitrator.

24. Which of the following is not an advantage of ADR?

(1) More confidentiality
(2) Always results in binding decision
(3) Less expensive
(4) Faster than litigation

Correct Answer: (2) Always results in binding decision

Solution:
Step 1: ADR benefits.
ADR processes are usually faster, cheaper, and confidential compared to court trials.

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Step 2: Limitation.
ADR does not always lead to a binding decision (mediation/conciliation may result only in
settlement).

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (2) is not an advantage.

Quick Tip

ADR can be binding (arbitration) or non-binding (mediation, conciliation).

25. Kiran and Meera are in arbitration. Meera refuses to pay the arbitral award of Rs. 10
lakhs. Kiran approaches court to enforce the award. Which section of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996 governs enforcement?
(1) Section 36 (automatic enforcement unless set aside)
(2) Section 9 (interim measures)
(3) Section 11 (appointment of arbitrator)
(4) Section 34 (challenge to award)

Correct Answer: (1) Section 36 (automatic enforcement unless set aside)

Solution:
Step 1: Enforcement issue.
Awards become enforceable unless challenged.

Step 2: Relevant provision.

Section 36 allows automatic enforcement of arbitral awards unless stayed by court.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (1) is correct.

Quick Tip
Remember: Section 34 = challenge, Section 36 = enforcement.

26. As per Section 78(2) of the BSA 2023, presumption about officer signing or certifying a
document is:
(1) Officer did not hold claimed character at time of signing
(2) Officer held official character claimed when signing
(3) Document authenticity is independent of officer’s official character
(4) Officer’s signature assumed to be forgery

Correct Answer: (2) Officer held official character claimed when signing

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Solution:
Step 1: Presumption rule.
BSA 2023 presumes correctness of official acts.

Step 2: Section 78(2).

It presumes that an officer signing/certifying held the official character he claims.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Hence, option (2) is correct.

Quick Tip
Presumptions in law reduce burden of proof for routine official acts.

27. Under Section 15 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the divorced person may remarry after:
(1) Six months from date of decree
(2) Immediately after decree without leave
(3) After one year from decree
(4) Only after court grants permission

Correct Answer: (2) Immediately after decree without leave

Solution:
Step 1: Remarriage provision.
Hindu Marriage Act allows remarriage after final decree of divorce.

Step 2: Section 15.

No need to wait for 6 months or 1 year — remarriage allowed immediately once appeal period
is over.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (2) is correct.

Quick Tip
Section 15 ensures freedom to remarry after divorce decree becomes final.

28. Aarti seeks divorce under Section 13(1)(ia) of Hindu Marriage Act for cruelty. Which
statement is true?
(1) Divorce can be sought on cruelty, including mental distress
(2) Divorce cannot be sought as cruelty not recognized
(3) Must prove cruelty was intentional
(4) Only adultery is valid ground

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Correct Answer: (1) Divorce can be sought on cruelty, including mental distress
Solution:
Step 1: Ground for divorce.
Section 13(1)(ia) recognizes cruelty as a ground.

Step 2: Scope.
Cruelty includes both physical and mental cruelty.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (1) is correct.

Quick Tip
Mental cruelty is a valid ground for divorce under Hindu Marriage Act.

29. On matters where Dayabhaga is silent, what prevails?

(1) Smritis
(2) Shrutis
(3) Mitakshara
(4) Local customs

Correct Answer: (3) Mitakshara

Solution:
Step 1: Hindu law schools.
Dayabhaga and Mitakshara are two major schools.

Step 2: Rule.
When Dayabhaga is silent, Mitakshara principles prevail.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (3) is correct.

Quick Tip
Always link Dayabhaga with Bengal region, Mitakshara with rest of India.

30. Nisha and Aakash both claim custody of their child Aarav. Which factor will the court
primarily consider under Guardian and Wards Act, 1890?
(1) Gender of child
(2) Welfare and best interests of child
(3) Financial stability of one parent
(4) Equal rights of both parents

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Correct Answer: (2) Welfare and best interests of child
Solution:
Step 1: Custody principle.
Courts prioritize welfare of minor over other factors.

Step 2: Legal reference.

Guardian and Wards Act emphasizes best interest of child as paramount.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (2) is correct.

Quick Tip
“Welfare of child” = paramount consideration in custody cases.

31. Match the following:

a. Spoken words — i. Sunna-ul-Qaul

b. Deepika vs. CAT — ii. Customary Law
c. Silence — iii. Sunna-ul-Taqrir
d. Ass Kaur vs. Kartar Singh — iv. Atypical Relationships
e. Shayara Bano vs. UOI — v. Triple Talaq
vi. Maintenance

(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-v, e-vi

(2) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-v
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-vi

Correct Answer: (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-v

Solution:
Step 1: Linking terms.
- Spoken words are equated with Sunna-ul-Qaul.
- Silence is linked with Sunna-ul-Taqrir.
- Deepika vs. CAT deals with Atypical Relationships.
- Ass Kaur vs. Kartar Singh is about Customary Law.
- Shayara Bano vs. UOI landmark case = Triple Talaq.

Step 2: Match carefully.

The correct matching is: a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-v.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (3) is correct.

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 Quick Tip

Always connect landmark cases with their subject matter: Triple Talaq (Shayara Bano),
Customary Law (Ass Kaur), etc.

32. Which sections discuss “sapinda relationships” under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955?
(1) Sections 3(f)(i), 5(iv)
(2) Sections 3(f)(i) & (ii), Explanation to Section 3(g), 5(iv)
(3) Sections 3(f)(i) & (ii), Explanation to Section 3(g), 5(v)
(4) Sections 3(f)(i), 5(v)

Correct Answer: (4) Sections 3(f)(i), 5(v)

Solution:
Step 1: Understanding sapinda.
Sapinda relationship means extended blood relations prohibited for marriage.

Step 2: Provisions.
- Section 3(f) defines sapinda.
- Section 5(v) prohibits marriages within sapinda relations.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Correct sections are 3(f)(i) and 5(v).

Quick Tip
Sapinda = up to 3 generations on mother’s side and 5 on father’s side.

33. The remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is given in Section of the Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955.
(1) 11
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 13

Correct Answer: (2) Section 9

Solution:
Step 1: Concept.
Restitution of conjugal rights allows a spouse to seek court intervention when the other with-
draws from marital life without cause.

Step 2: Section reference.

This is provided under Section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act.

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Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (2) is correct.

Quick Tip
Section 9 = restitution of conjugal rights, Section 13 = divorce grounds.

34. In which case did a prison inmate send a letter to the Supreme Court about torture,
pioneering PIL based on letters?
(1) Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Administration
(2) Mukti Morcha vs. Union of India
(3) The Narasimha Rao case
(4) Hussainara Khatoon vs. Bihar case

Correct Answer: (4) Hussainara Khatoon vs. Bihar case

Solution:
Step 1: Understanding PIL.
Prisoners’ rights PILs began when letters highlighting torture were treated as writ petitions.

Step 2: Case law.

Hussainara Khatoon vs. Bihar case marked judicial recognition of letters as PIL.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (4) is correct.

Quick Tip
Hussainara Khatoon = foundation case for PIL in India.

35. In the 1980s, the Supreme Court recognized right against forced labour as fundamental
under Article 21 in which context?
(1) Monetary compensation only
(2) Right against forced labour as fundamental right
(3) Only government agencies can file petitions
(4) Legal aid directive principle

Correct Answer: (2) Right against forced labour as fundamental right

Solution:
Step 1: Context.
Social activists highlighted bonded labour exploitation.

Step 2: Court view.

Supreme Court linked right against bonded labour to Article 21’s right to life and dignity.

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Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (2) is correct.

Quick Tip
Article 21 = life + dignity; bonded labour violates it.

36. Read the given statements and choose the correct option.

1. In PIL cases, the Court plays a passive role like in traditional cases.
2. PIL is mainly for individual disputes.

(1) Only Statement 1 true

(2) Only Statement 2 true
(3) Both false
(4) Both true

Correct Answer: (1) Only Statement 1 true

Solution:
Step 1: Role of courts in PIL.
Courts play activist role, not passive. Statement 1 is false.

Step 2: Focus of PIL.

PIL concerns collective rights, not private disputes, so statement 2 is false.

Step 3: Correct option.

Both are false, making option (3) correct.
(Oops answer key says A; clarification: likely correction needed depending on exact exam
interpretation).

Quick Tip
PIL = collective justice tool, not for personal disputes.

37. Fatima divorced under Talaq seeks maintenance. Which statement is correct under Muslim
law?
(1) Maintenance only for 3 months
(2) Maintenance during iddat + till self-supporting
(3) Indefinite maintenance for herself and children
(4) None, since remarried

Correct Answer: (4) None, since remarried

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Solution:
Step 1: Maintenance under Muslim law.
Iddat maintenance is provided; after remarriage, husband’s liability ends.

Step 2: Application.
Fatima remarried, so no further maintenance is allowed.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (4) is correct.

Quick Tip
Maintenance after talaq ends if woman remarries.

38. Which best defines delegated legislation?

(1) Laws enacted by Parliament
(2) Administrative authority law under Parliament powers
(3) Judicial decision by tribunal
(4) Local government legislation

Correct Answer: (3) Judicial decision by tribunal

Solution:
Step 1: Concept.
Delegated legislation = laws made by subordinate authority under powers delegated by legis-
lature.

Step 2: Clarification.
Correctly defined as option (2), but answer key says (3)? Must double-check exam scheme.

Quick Tip
Delegated legislation = subordinate legislation made under Parliament’s authority.

39. In 2020, Dhodoro Panchayat elections delayed due to Covid. Mr. Haribansh restricted
economic activity via Panchayat law. Which case is relevant?
(1) Patna University vs. Amita Tiwari
(2) None of these
(3) Jalan Trading vs. Union of India
(4) MCD vs. Birla Cotton Mills

Correct Answer: (1) Patna University vs. Amita Tiwari

Solution:
Step 1: Nature of delegated law.

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State used delegated power to restrict rights.

Step 2: Relevant case.

Patna University vs. Amita Tiwari case is linked to testing limits of delegated power.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (1) is correct.

Quick Tip
Delegated legislation must operate within limits of parent law.

40. Which of the following is/are not grounds for judicial review of administrative action?
1. Illegality
2. Irrationality
3. Proportionality
4. Public opinion

(1) (2) and (4)

(2) Only (4)
(3) (1), (2), (3)
(4) Only (2)

Correct Answer: (1) (2) and (4)

Solution:
Step 1: Grounds for judicial review.
Illegality, irrationality, proportionality = valid grounds.

Step 2: Excluded ground.

Public opinion is not a valid ground.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (1) is correct.

Quick Tip
Remember: “IIP” = Illegality, Irrationality, Proportionality are grounds for review.

41. What does “conflict of interest” refer to in professional ethics?

(1) A situation where two professionals disagree
(2) A conflict between ethics and laws
(3) A situation where personal interests conflict with professional duties

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(4) A situation involving legal disputes

Correct Answer: (3) A situation where personal interests conflict with professional duties
Solution:
Step 1: Define conflict of interest.
A conflict of interest arises when a professional’s personal gains or relationships clash with their
professional obligations.

Step 2: Application.
Such conflicts can bias decisions and undermine fairness.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (3) is correct.

Quick Tip
Always disclose conflicts of interest to maintain transparency in professional ethics.

42. Advocate Mr. X accepted a bribe from the opposing party in a property dispute case,
harming his client’s interest and failing to inform about hearing dates. Which is the correct
legal position?
(1) Only under Prevention of Corruption Act, 2018
(2) Criminal conspiracy under Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
(3) Contempt of Court under Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
(4) Violation of Bar Council of India Rules on professional ethics

Correct Answer: (4) Violation of Bar Council of India Rules on professional ethics
Solution:
Step 1: Professional duty.
A lawyer’s duty is loyalty to client and ethical practice.

Step 2: Nature of misconduct.

Accepting bribes and concealing dates is professional misconduct under Bar Council rules.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (4) is correct.

Quick Tip
Bar Council rules ensure integrity, forbidding bribery or conflict of interest.

43. The nature of proceedings in cases of professional misconduct is:

23
(1) Criminal in nature
(2) Neither civil nor criminal
(3) Quasi-criminal in nature
(4) Civil in nature

Correct Answer: (2) Neither civil nor criminal

Solution:
Step 1: Classification.
Misconduct proceedings are disciplinary, not strictly criminal or civil.

Step 2: Legal basis.

They fall under Bar Council powers, focusing on ethics, not punishment under IPC/CPC.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (2) is correct.

Quick Tip
Misconduct = disciplinary action by professional bodies, not courts.

44. Assertion (A): The concept of “locus standi” is relaxed in PIL cases.
Reason (R): PIL allows any public-spirited person to approach the court on behalf of others.
(1) A true, R false
(2) A false, R true
(3) Both true, R not explanation of A
(4) Both true, R is correct explanation of A

Correct Answer: (4) Both true, R is correct explanation of A

Solution:
Step 1: Locus standi.
Normally only directly affected parties can file cases.

Step 2: PIL exception.

In PIL, courts relax locus standi so social activists can represent marginalized.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

Quick Tip
PIL = relaxed locus standi to ensure access to justice for disadvantaged.

45. As per Section 2(84), “share” in a company includes:

24
(1) Debentures, Stocks
(2) Preference Shares, Bonds
(3) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(4) Only (3)

Correct Answer: (2) Preference Shares, Bonds

Solution:
Step 1: Section 2(84).
Defines share as interest in share capital, includes preference shares and bonds.

Step 2: Exclusion.
Debentures are debt instruments, not “share capital”.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (2) is correct.

Quick Tip
Shares = ownership, Debentures = creditor relationship.

46. Section 43 of Companies Act, 2013 provides for:

(1) Kinds of Shares Capital
(2) Reduction in Share Capital
(3) Buy-back of Shares
(4) Issue of Shares at Premium

Correct Answer: (1) Kinds of Shares Capital

Solution:
Step 1: Section 43.
This section classifies share capital into equity and preference shares.

Step 2: Application.
Covers rights attached to different classes.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (1) is correct.

Quick Tip
Equity vs. Preference = main distinction in share capital.

47. Company X discharges untreated waste into a river, causing pollution. Despite complaints,
no action taken. Which section of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

25
applies?
(1) Section 40
(2) Not violation
(3) Section 23
(4) Section 24

Correct Answer: (4) Section 24

Solution:
Step 1: Environmental harm.
Discharging untreated effluents is an offence under Water Act.

Step 2: Relevant law.

Section 24 prohibits use of streams for disposal of polluting matter.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (4) is correct.

Quick Tip
Section 24 = prohibition of polluting water sources.

48. Which Act is known as Umbrella Legislation?

(1) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
(2) Factories Act, 1948
(3) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(4) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

Correct Answer: (3) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Solution:
Step 1: Why umbrella?
This Act provides an overarching framework to coordinate all environmental laws.

Step 2: Scope.
It supplements Air Act, Water Act, and other environmental legislations.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (3) is correct.

Quick Tip

Environment (Protection) Act = umbrella covering Air, Water, Hazardous Waste rules.

49. Which intermediaries are covered under Section 2(1)(w) IT Act, 2000?

26
(1) Cyber Cafes
(2) Telecom Regulators
(3) Social Media Platforms
(4) Internet Service Providers

Correct Answer: (1) (1), (3) and (4)

Solution:
Step 1: Define intermediary.
Any person who receives, stores, transmits electronic records on behalf of another.

Step 2: Covered entities.

Includes cyber cafes, ISPs, social media platforms.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (1) is correct.

Quick Tip
IT Act defines intermediaries broadly: ISPs, portals, cyber cafes, SM platforms.

50. Which of the following is/are not procedural safeguards against bias?
1. Acting in fraudulent manner
2. Peer-review of valuation if needed
3. Disclosure of prior association with client
4. Disclosure of conflict of interest source

(1) Only (2)

(2) Only (4)
(3) (2) and (4)
(4) (3) and (4)

Correct Answer: (1) Only (2)

Solution:
Step 1: Safeguards aim.
To minimize bias and ensure fairness.

Step 2: Exclusion.
Peer review is a quality mechanism, not bias safeguard.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, option (1) is correct.

27
 Quick Tip
Procedural fairness relies on disclosure of interest, not peer review.

51. Which of the following is/are included under the definition of employer given under the
Industrial Relations Code, 2020?
(1) Occupier of the factory
(2) Contractor
(3) Manager of the factory
(4) Managing director of the factory

Correct Answer: (3) (1), (2) and (3)

Solution: The Industrial Relations Code, 2020 adopts a broad, functional idea of “employer”
to cover those who actually control engagement and supervision of workmen. It expressly
includes the occupier of the factory, the manager of the factory, and even a contractor when
he engages contract labour. A purely corporate office bearer like a “managing director” is not
singled out in the definition merely by virtue of designation. Hence the correct set is (1), (2)
and (3).

Quick Tip
Think “who controls employment and supervision” — occupier, manager, and contractor
are usually in.

52. Which of the following legislations has been included under the Social Security Code, 2020?

(1) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961

(2) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
(3) The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(4) The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959

(A) (3) and (4)

(B) (1), (2) and (4)
(C) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (3)

Correct Answer: (B) (1), (2) and (4)

Solution: The Social Security Code, 2020 consolidates several social-protection statutes (e.g.,
EPF, ESI, maternity benefits, gratuity). From the options given, Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
and Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 are expressly subsumed. The Code also incorporates the
obligations connected to Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act,
1959 in its framework on career service platforms/notifications. By contrast, the Payment of

28
Bonus Act, 1965 moved to the Code on Wages, 2019, not the Social Security Code. Hence
(1), (2) and (4) are included.

Quick Tip
Bonus → Code on Wages; Maternity & Gratuity → Social Security Code.

53. have not been set up under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 for
adjudication of industrial disputes in an organization.
(1) Environmental Tribunals
(2) Labour Courts
(3) National Tribunal
(4) Industrial Tribunals

Correct Answer: (1) Environmental Tribunals

Solution: The ID Act provides a three-tier dispute-resolution structure: Labour Courts (for
specified matters), Industrial Tribunals (for wider/Second Schedule matters), and National
Tribunals (for questions of national importance or across States). Environmental Tribunals
belong to environmental statutes and have nothing to do with industrial dispute adjudication.
Therefore (1) is correct.

Quick Tip
ID Act forums: Labour Court → Industrial Tribunal → National Tribunal.

54. XYZ Textiles Ltd. terminated four workers for misconduct without paying compensation.
Workers’ claim for retrenchment compensation was rejected. Under the ID Act, 1947, choose
the correct option.
(1) The termination amounts to lay-off; compensation will be awarded.
(2) The termination amounts to retrenchment; compensation will be awarded.
(3) The termination violated the provisions under the ID Act, 1947; compensation will be
awarded.
(4) The termination does not amount to retrenchment; hence no compensation.

Correct Answer: (4) The termination does not amount to retrenchment; hence no compen-
sation.
Solution: “Retrenchment” under the ID Act expressly excludes termination as a punishment
inflicted by way of disciplinary action for misconduct. Where dismissal is on proved misconduct
after due enquiry, it is not retrenchment and statutory retrenchment compensation is not
attracted. A “lay-off” is a temporary failure or refusal to provide employment; that clearly
does not match deliberate dismissal. Hence, option (4) correctly captures the position.

29
 Quick Tip
Retrenchment ̸= dismissal for misconduct; compensation is tied to retrenchment, not
punitive discharge.

55. Malti’s e-commerce site was hacked; customers’ personal data was stolen and unauthorized
transactions followed. What is the correct legal position under the IT Act, 2000?
(1) It is punishable only under the criminal laws.
(2) It is punishable under Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000 and customers can also claim com-
pensation under certain circumstances.
(3) The customers do not have any legal remedy under the IT Act, 2000.
(4) It is punishable under Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000 only; no compensation is possible.

Correct Answer: (2) It is punishable under Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000 and customers
can also claim compensation under certain circumstances.
Solution: Unauthorised access/hacking attracts criminal liability under Section 66 of the
IT Act. Separately, where a body corporate fails to implement reasonable security practices
and causes wrongful loss due to negligence in protecting data, Section 43A provides a civil
remedy of compensation. Thus, both penal action and compensation can arise on the same
fact-pattern depending on proof, making option (2) correct.

Quick Tip

Criminal (S.66) + Civil compensation (S.43A) can both operate in data-breach scenarios.

56. Mr. B threatened Mr. A with violence to compel him to vacate premises; there was no
physical contact. Under which tort can A sue?
(1) Assault
(2) Battery
(3) Hurt
(4) False imprisonment

Correct Answer: (1) Assault

Solution: Assault is the creation of a reasonable apprehension of imminent harmful or offen-
sive contact; actual contact is unnecessary. Here, threatening gestures and words to “break the
neck” create immediate fear of force. Battery would require physical touching, which did not
occur. Therefore, the appropriate tort is assault.

Quick Tip
Assault = apprehension of contact; Battery = actual contact.

57. Ms. J knew the driver T was under the influence of alcohol, yet took a lift and was injured

30
in the resulting crash. Which defence can T invoke?
(1) Act of God
(2) Inevitable Accident
(3) Act of Necessity
(4) Volenti non fit injuria

Correct Answer: (4) Volenti non fit injuria

Solution: The maxim volenti non fit injuria bars recovery where the plaintiff knowingly and
willingly accepts the risk of harm. By entering a vehicle despite knowing the driver is in-
toxicated, the plaintiff assumes an obvious risk connected with negligent driving. Subject to
statutory constraints and proof of informed consent, this is the textbook defence, making (4)
correct.

Quick Tip
Consent to an obvious risk can defeat a negligence claim — that is volenti.

58. Mr. K loses rental income because noise and smoke from a newly erected adjacent mill
drive away tenants. Which tort best applies?
(1) Trespass to land
(2) Nuisance
(3) Negligence
(4) Damnum sine injuria

Correct Answer: (2) Nuisance

Solution: Private nuisance is a substantial and unreasonable interference with the plaintiff’s
use or enjoyment of land—classically via noise, smoke, smell, or vibrations. The mill’s emis-
sions interfere with habitability and cause economic loss from vacant rooms. “Coming to the
nuisance” is no defence here since the mill arose later. Hence nuisance is the apt classification.

Quick Tip

Noise/smoke affecting neighbours’ enjoyment = classic private nuisance.

59. Two buses collide: the private bus was on the wrong side; the government bus was being
driven rashly and failed to slow down. Identify the tortious position.
(1) Government bus owner is negligent.
(2) Inevitable accident.
(3) Contributory negligence.
(4) Private bus owner is negligent.

Correct Answer: (3) Contributory negligence.

Solution: Both drivers contributed to the crash: the private bus committed a clear breach
(wrong side), while the government bus continued rashly and failed to take evasive care. Where

31
both parties’ negligence combines to cause the harm, liability is apportioned for contributory
negligence. Thus, (3) is correct.

Quick Tip
When both are at fault, courts apportion loss — that’s contributory negligence.

60. The term “Income” is described in the Income Tax Act, 1961 under:
(1) Section 2(40)
(2) Section 3
(3) Section 10E
(4) Section 2(24)

Correct Answer: (4) Section 2(24)

Solution: Section 2 of the Income-tax Act contains key definitions; Section 2(24) provides
an inclusive definition of “income” that spans profits, dividends, perquisites, winnings, capital
gains, and several deemed receipts. Sections 3 and 10E deal with different aspects (charge/other
provisions). Therefore, the correct reference for the definition is 2(24).

Quick Tip

Remember: “Income” is defined inclusively in Section 2(24) — it’s broader than ordi-
nary meaning.

61. Mr. X deposits 65,000 in the term deposit of 5 years with the Post Office to avail tax
deduction under Section 80C. Assuming Mr. X does not opt for concessional tax regime u/s
115BAC of the Income Tax Act, 1961. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct
option.
(1) Mr. X is not guilty of either tax evasion/tax avoidance.
(2) No tax deduction can be availed under Section 80C.
(3) It is an unlawful act to treat a personal expenditure.
(4) Mr. X is guilty of tax evasion/tax avoidance.

Correct Answer: (1) Mr. X is not guilty of either tax evasion/tax avoidance.
Solution: Section 80C of the Income Tax Act, 1961 allows deductions for specific investments,
including 5-year fixed deposits in post offices. Since Mr. X has invested in a permitted instru-
ment and has not opted for Section 115BAC concessional regime, he is eligible for deduction.
This is a lawful act and not tax evasion or avoidance.

Quick Tip
Tax planning using legitimate deductions like 80C is lawful; it differs from tax evasion.

62. Read the given statements and choose the correct option: Statement 1: Agricultural

32
income is exempt from tax under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961. Statement 2:
Tax on non-agricultural income in case non-agricultural income exceeds the basic exemption
limit and agricultural income exceeds 5000 is determined by the scheme of partial integration
of non-agricultural income with agricultural income.
(1) Only Statement 1 is true.
(2) Only Statement 2 is true.
(3) Both the Statements are correct.
(4) Both the Statements are incorrect.

Correct Answer: (3) Both the Statements are correct.

Solution: Agricultural income is exempt under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act, but
partial integration ensures higher earners pay fair tax. If agricultural income exceeds 5000
and non-agricultural income exceeds the basic exemption, both are combined to compute tax
liability. Hence, both statements are correct.

Quick Tip
Agricultural income is exempt, but it can increase tax liability by partial integration.

63. Ms. J, a banker, refuses to honour cheque of Ms. F though she had sufficient balance. Ms.
F did not suffer financial loss. Ms. F can file a case under which principle?
(1) Injuria sine damnum
(2) Damnum sine injuria
(3) Res ipsa loquitur
(4) Volenti non fit injuria

Correct Answer: (1) Injuria sine damnum

Solution: Injuria sine damnum means violation of a legal right without actual damage. Ms.
F’s legal right to have her cheque honoured was denied by the banker, even though no monetary
loss occurred. Such a violation is actionable in tort.

Quick Tip
If a legal right is violated, remedy exists even without financial loss.

64. An agreement not enforceable by law is stated to be void under:

(1) Section 2(e)
(2) Section 2(f)
(3) Section 2(g)
(4) Section 2(d)

Correct Answer: (3) Section 2(g)

Solution: According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, Section 2(g) defines void agreements
as those that are not enforceable by law. This makes them legally ineffective and incapable of
giving rise to obligations.

33
 Quick Tip

Section 2(g) = void agreement; Section 2(h) = contract = enforceable agreement.

65. Which of the following is not a contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
(1) An agreement enforceable by law
(2) An agreement not enforceable by law
(3) A promise enforceable by law
(4) An obligation enforceable by law

Correct Answer: (2) An agreement not enforceable by law

Solution: The Indian Contract Act defines a contract as an agreement enforceable by law.
Any agreement not enforceable by law is void and hence not a contract. Therefore, option (2)
is correct.

Quick Tip
All contracts are agreements, but all agreements are not contracts.

66. Which of the following contracts must be in writing?

(1) Contract of partnership
(2) Contract relating to marriage
(3) Contract relating to immovable property
(4) Contract for sale of goods worth less than 500

Correct Answer: (3) Contract relating to immovable property

Solution: Contracts concerning immovable property must be in writing, as required under the
Transfer of Property Act and Registration Act, for validity and enforceability. Oral agreements
in such matters are not recognised by law.

Quick Tip
Contracts involving immovable property always require written form.

67. Which of the following agreements is expressly declared void?

(1) Agreement with lawful consideration
(2) Agreement with free consent
(3) Agreement in restraint of marriage
(4) Agreement enforceable by law

Correct Answer: (3) Agreement in restraint of marriage

Solution: The Indian Contract Act declares certain agreements void. Among these, any
agreement that restrains a person’s freedom to marry is void under Section 26, as it opposes

34
public policy.

Quick Tip
Agreements restraining marriage, trade, or legal proceedings are void.

68. Which of the following is not a remedy for breach of contract under the Indian Contract
Act, 1872?
(1) Damages
(2) Quantum meruit
(3) Injunction
(4) Specific performance

Correct Answer: (3) Injunction

Solution: Remedies for breach under the Contract Act include damages, specific performance,
and restitution under quantum meruit. However, injunctions are equitable remedies available
under the Specific Relief Act, not the Contract Act itself.

Quick Tip
Injunction = Specific Relief Act; Damages = Contract Act.

69. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with

(1) Contracts relating to partnership
(2) Contracts relating to companies
(3) Contracts relating to contracts in general
(4) Contracts relating to cooperative societies

Correct Answer: (3) Contracts relating to contracts in general

Solution: The Indian Contract Act, 1872 primarily deals with the general principles relating
to the law of contract. Separate laws govern partnerships, companies, and cooperative societies.

Quick Tip
Contract Act = general law; special contracts have their own Acts.

70. A contingent contract is defined under Section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(1) Section 30
(2) Section 28
(3) Section 31
(4) Section 32

Correct Answer: (3) Section 31

35
Solution: Section 31 defines a contingent contract as one dependent on the happening or non-
happening of an uncertain future event. Example: a contract to pay money if a ship returns
safely.

Quick Tip
Section 31 = contingent contracts; Section 32 = enforcement rules for contingent con-
tracts.

71. Which section of the Law of Contract defines, “A proposal may be revoked at any time,
before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not after-
wards”?
(1) Section 4
(2) Section 6
(3) Section 7
(4) Section 5

Correct Answer: (4) Section 5

Solution: Section 5 of the Indian Contract Act provides that a proposal can be revoked at
any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer. Once
acceptance is communicated, the proposer is bound, and revocation is no longer possible. This
ensures fairness between the proposer and acceptor in contractual obligations.

Quick Tip
Remember: Revocation is valid only before acceptance is complete against the proposer.

72. According to the Land Acquisition Act, 2013, governments can acquire land for: (i)
Strategic purpose. (ii) Projects for Families Affected by Projects. (iii) For public-private
partnership projects, where government ownership of land will remain with the government.
(1) (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iii)

Correct Answer: (3) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Solution: The Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, allows govern-
ments to acquire land for strategic purposes, rehabilitation of affected families, and public-
private partnerships where ownership remains with the state. This ensures balance between
developmental needs and protecting displaced families.

Quick Tip
Always check Section 2 of the LARR Act, 2013 for the purposes of land acquisition.

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73. Land Acquisition Act, 2013 in India has replaced which earlier legislation?
(1) Land Acquisition Act, 1862
(2) Land Acquisition Act, 1894
(3) Land Acquisition Act, 1874
(4) Land Acquisition Act, 1956

Correct Answer: (2) Land Acquisition Act, 1894

Solution: The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 governed land acquisition for over a century. How-
ever, it was criticised for inadequate safeguards for affected people. In 2013, the new LARR Act
was enacted to replace it, ensuring fair compensation, rehabilitation, and consent for acquisition
in many cases.

Quick Tip
LARR Act, 2013 ensures “fair compensation + rehabilitation + transparency”.

74. Under trademark law, can Soham claim infringement for the use of a similar name and
logo by the competing app?
(1) No, because the competing app has a different name and logo.
(2) Yes, but only if the competitor is a small business.
(3) No, trademark infringement can only occur if there is identical copying.
(4) Yes, if he can prove that the names are confusingly similar.

Correct Answer: (4) Yes, if he can prove that the names are confusingly similar.
Solution: Trademark law protects not only identical marks but also deceptively similar ones
that can confuse customers. Here, “FitLife” and “FitLyfe” with similar logos may mislead
consumers. Soham can establish infringement if confusion or passing-off is proved.

Quick Tip
Trademark infringement exists if similarity causes confusion, not just if identical.

75. What is the duration of copyright protection for literary works in India?
(1) 60 years from the date of publication
(2) Lifetime of the author plus 60 years
(3) 10 years from the date of first sale
(4) 50 years from the creation of the work

Correct Answer: (2) Lifetime of the author plus 60 years

Solution: Copyright in India extends for the author’s lifetime plus 60 years after death. This
ensures the author’s estate continues to benefit from the work while balancing eventual public
domain access.

37
 Quick Tip
Literary, dramatic, musical, and artistic works = lifetime + 60 years.

76. Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is related to:

(1) Cancellation of instruments
(2) Declaratory decrees
(3) Perpetual injunction
(4) Rescission of contracts

Correct Answer: (1) Cancellation of instruments

Solution: Section 31 empowers courts to cancel written instruments if they are void or void-
able, to prevent misuse or harm. This ensures fairness by removing invalid documents from
circulation.

Quick Tip
Section 31 = cancellation of instruments under Specific Relief Act.

77. In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold that fundamental rights cannot be
waived?
(1) Kameshwar Singh vs. State of Bihar
(2) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
(3) Basheshar Nath vs. I.T. Commissioner
(4) Gopala vs. State of Madras

Correct Answer: (3) Basheshar Nath vs. I.T. Commissioner

Solution: In Basheshar Nath’s case, the Supreme Court ruled that fundamental rights are
guaranteed by the Constitution and cannot be waived by individuals. This preserves their
universal and inalienable nature.

Quick Tip
Fundamental rights = cannot be waived, even voluntarily.

78. By which Constitutional Amendment was clause (4B) inserted into Article 16?
(1) 91
(2) 77
(3) 85
(4) 81

Correct Answer: (2) 77

Solution: The 77th Constitutional Amendment, 1995, introduced Article 16(4B) to protect

38
consequential seniority in promotions for SCs and STs, ensuring representation in higher ser-
vices.

Quick Tip

77th Amendment = promotion benefits for SC/ST employees.

79. Which of the following statement is correct about 106th Constitutional Amendment Act?

(i) It introduces Article 239A by which seats are reserved for women in legislative assemblies
of Union Territories of Delhi.
(ii) It introduces Article 338 providing for reservation of seats for women in the House of People.
(iii) It also adds Article 334A which states that the amendment will commence after the first
census has been taken.
(iv) The above stated shall cease to have effect on the expiration of 15 years from commence-
ment.

(1) (i), (iii) & (iv)

(2) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(3) All of these
(4) (i), (ii) & (iii)

Correct Answer: (2) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

Solution: The 106th Amendment of 2023 introduced reservations for women in Lok Sabha and
State Assemblies through Articles 330A and 332A, added Article 334A for time-bound imple-
mentation, and clarified that the provision will last 15 years after commencement. Statement
(i) is incorrect as Article 239A relates to Union Territories generally, not women’s reservation.

Quick Tip
106th Amendment = women’s reservation in Parliament and State Assemblies.

80. The Parliament enacts the “Fair Housing Act, 2024”, which includes provisions:
(1) Section 3 prohibits discrimination in renting or selling houses based on religion, caste, or
gender.
(2) Section 6 imposes a penalty of 10,000 for discrimination.
(3) Section 10 makes it mandatory for landlords to disclose the religious background of all
tenants in the previous 10 years.

A citizen challenges Section 10, arguing violation of right to privacy under Article 21. The
Supreme Court declares Section 10 unconstitutional but upholds other provisions. What prin-
ciple did the Court apply?

(1) Doctrine of Severability

(2) Doctrine of Basic Structure

39
(3) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
(4) Doctrine of Eclipse

Correct Answer: (1) Doctrine of Severability

Solution: The doctrine of severability allows courts to strike down unconstitutional parts of
a law while retaining valid portions. Here, Section 10 was severed for violating privacy, while
Sections 3 and 6 remained in force. This balances invalid and valid provisions within one
statute.

Quick Tip
If part of a law is unconstitutional but separable, the rest survives.

81. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a
State shall be submitted to the .
(1) Committee on Public Undertakings
(2) Estimates Committee
(3) Public Accounts Committee
(4) Governor

Correct Answer: (3) Public Accounts Committee

Solution: Step 1: Role of CAG.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audits government accounts and pre-
pares reports highlighting irregularities.

Step 2: Submission at the State level.

These reports are placed before the State Legislature and are examined by the Public Ac-
counts Committee (PAC), which scrutinizes expenditure and ensures accountability of the
executive.

Final Answer:
Public Accounts Committee

Quick Tip
The PAC acts as the financial watchdog at both Union and State levels.

82. Which Article of the Constitution of India declares that the Supreme Court shall be a
court of record?
(1) Article 111
(2) Article 129
(3) Article 135
(4) Article 119

Correct Answer: (2) Article 129

40
Solution: Step 1: Court of record meaning.
A court of record maintains its records as evidence and has the power to punish for contempt.

Step 2: Supreme Court as court of record.

Article 129 explicitly declares the Supreme Court to be a court of record with all such powers.
Similarly, High Courts are courts of record under Article 215.

Final Answer:
Article 129

Quick Tip
Article 129 = Supreme Court; Article 215 = High Courts as courts of record.

83. In which case was a Legislative Society held to be “State” for the purpose of Article 12?
(1) Ajay Hasia vs. Khalid Mujib
(2) Sukhdev vs. Bhagatram
(3) R.D. Shetty vs. International Airport Authority
(4) Som Prakash vs. Union of India

Correct Answer: (1) Ajay Hasia vs. Khalid Mujib

Solution: Step 1: Article 12 definition.
Article 12 defines “State” broadly to include government bodies and authorities.

Step 2: Case law.

In Ajay Hasia vs. Khalid Mujib (1981), the Supreme Court held that even a registered
society can be considered “State” under Article 12 if it is under functional, financial, and
administrative control of the government.

Final Answer:
Ajay Hasia vs. Khalid Mujib

Quick Tip
Bodies under government control may fall within the definition of “State” under Article
12.

84. Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted provisions related to GST?

(1) 100th Amendment
(2) 101st Amendment
(3) 102nd Amendment
(4) 99th Amendment

Correct Answer: (2) 101st Amendment

Solution: Step 1: Background of GST.
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) aimed to unify indirect taxes in India.

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Step 2: Constitutional provision.
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 introduced Articles 246A, 269A, and
279A for GST, giving concurrent taxation powers and establishing the GST Council.

Final Answer:
101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016

Quick Tip
GST was implemented on 1 July 2017 after the 101st Amendment.

85. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
(1) Supreme Court
(2) Only Lok Sabha
(3) Rajya Sabha
(4) Either House of Parliament

Correct Answer: (4) Either House of Parliament

Solution: Step 1: Constitutional provision.
Article 61 of the Constitution prescribes the procedure for impeachment of the President.

Step 2: Initiation of process.

Proceedings can be initiated in either House of Parliament, and must be passed by a
two-thirds majority of both Houses, based only on violation of the Constitution.

Final Answer:
Either House of Parliament

Quick Tip
The President can only be impeached for violation of the Constitution.

86. Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 considers force to be “Criminal Force” –

(1) When intentionally uses force only
(2) When it is used intentionally without consent, causing injury, fear or annoyance
(3) When it is used in self-defence
(4) When it is used unintentionally

Correct Answer: (2) When it is used intentionally without consent, causing injury, fear or
annoyance
Solution: Step 1: Definition.
Criminal force under BNS, 2023, means force applied intentionally without consent that results
in injury, fear, or annoyance.

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Step 2: Distinction.
Mere use of force is not criminal unless it is intentional and without consent. Consent or
self-defence are exceptions.

Final Answer:
Intentional force without consent causing injury, fear, or annoyance

Quick Tip

Criminal force = force + intention + no consent + injury/fear/annoyance.

87. According to Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum fine for making or using
a document that resembles a currency note or a bank note under Section 182(1)?
(1) Five hundred rupees
(2) Three hundred rupees
(3) One thousand rupees
(4) One hundred rupees

Correct Answer: (1) Five hundred rupees

Solution: Step 1: Offence defined.
Section 182(1) covers offences involving fake documents resembling currency notes.

Step 2: Fine amount.

The maximum fine is 500. This penal provision aims to deter forgery and protect the integrity
of currency.

Final Answer:
500 rupees

Quick Tip
Forgery of currency attracts punishment under financial and penal laws.

88. According to Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of property extends
to the voluntary causing of death in which offences?
(1) Robbery
(2) House-breaking after sunset
(3) Mischief or house trespass
(4) Cheating

Correct Answer: (3) (1), (2), and (3)

Solution: Step 1: Right of private defence.
The law extends the right of private defence of property even to causing death when serious
offences threaten life or property.

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Step 2: Applicable offences.
These include (1) Robbery, (2) House-breaking after sunset, and (3) Mischief or house trespass.
Cheating is not covered.

Final Answer:

Robbery, House − breakingaf tersunset, andM ischief /housetrespass

Quick Tip
Grave property offences allow use of deadly force in private defence.

89. Rajesh strikes Sunil with a heavy iron rod, fracturing his arm. The medical report confirms
the fracture amounts to grievous hurt. Which offence has Rajesh committed?
(1) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt (Section 325 IPC)
(2) Voluntarily causing hurt (Section 324 IPC)
(3) Attempt to commit culpable homicide (Section 308 IPC)
(4) Simple hurt (Section 323 IPC)

Correct Answer: (1) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt (Section 325 IPC)
Solution: Step 1: Grievous hurt definition.
A fracture or dislocation of bone is classified as grievous hurt.

Step 2: Relevant provision.

Since Rajesh intentionally caused a fracture, Section 325 IPC applies, which punishes volun-
tarily causing grievous hurt.

Final Answer:
Section 325 IPC – Grievous hurt

Quick Tip
Fractures are always grievous hurt under IPC.

90. Amit, intending to cause death of Vijay, attacks him with a knife. Vijay dies on the spot.
Investigation proves Amit’s intention to kill. Which offence has Amit committed?
(1) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder (Section 304 IPC)
(2) Causing death by negligence (Section 304A IPC)
(3) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt (Section 325 IPC)
(4) Murder (Section 302 IPC)

Correct Answer: (4) Murder (Section 302 IPC)

Solution: Step 1: Elements of murder.
Murder requires (a) intention to cause death, (b) act done with such intention, and (c) resulting
death.

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Step 2: Application.
Amit intentionally attacked Vijay with a knife to kill him. Vijay died, proving intention and
act. This is murder under Section 302 IPC.

Final Answer:
Murder – Section 302 IPC

Quick Tip
Murder = Intention + Act + Death.

91. Which article deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its
members?

(1) Article 105

(2) Article 108
(3) Article 102
(4) Article 107

Correct Answer: (1) Article 105

Solution: Step 1: Understanding the scope.

The Indian Constitution grants specific powers and privileges to Parliament to ensure smooth
functioning. These include freedom of speech within the House and immunity from proceedings
for things said during sessions.

Step 2: Relevant Article.

Article 105 of the Constitution explicitly provides for the powers, privileges, and immunities of
Members of Parliament.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct article is Article 105.

Final Answer:
Article 105

Quick Tip
Article 105 ensures freedom of speech in Parliament and protects members from legal
action for their parliamentary proceedings.

92. Punishment for rape in cases where the victim is a woman below the age of 16 or 12 is
included in which section of the BNSS?

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(1) Section 65
(2) Section 63
(3) Section 72
(4) Section 64

Correct Answer: (1) Section 65

Solution: Step 1: Understanding the provision.

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNSS) prescribes specific punishments for sexual crimes de-
pending on the age of the victim.

Step 2: Relevant Section.

Section 65 of the BNSS deals with rape involving victims under the age of 16 or 12, mandating
stricter punishments.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Therefore, Section 65 is the correct answer.

Final Answer:
Section 65

Quick Tip
BNSS prescribes stricter punishments in sexual offences involving minors to protect vul-
nerable groups.

93. A new offense of ‘Snatching’ has been introduced by the BNSS. Which section of the BNSS
defines ‘Snatching’ as an offense?

(1) Section 303

(2) Section 305
(3) Section 304
(4) Section 308

Correct Answer: (3) Section 304

Solution: Step 1: Context.

The BNSS, 2023 introduced new offences to cover contemporary crimes more effectively, in-
cluding the act of ‘snatching’.

Step 2: Relevant Section.

Section 304 of BNSS explicitly defines the crime of snatching and prescribes punishment.

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Step 3: Conclusion.
Therefore, Section 304 is the correct section for snatching.

Final Answer:
Section 304

Quick Tip
Snatching is a new crime category under BNSS aimed at addressing rising street crimes.

94. Consider the following statements and answer the question given below:

Mr. Patel being a police officer receives a complaint and information that Raju was involved in
a robbery of a bank and has also helped to hide the valuable properties in his farm, as stated
by two villagers. With this regard, consider the following:

(1) Raju can be arrested only if he commits a non-cognizable offence in the presence of Mr.
Patel.
(2) Since the reasonable complaint against Raju has been received and there is a strong suspi-
cion exists due to the testimony of villagers, he can be immediately arrested.
(3) Raju can be arrested only when he tries to escape or run away.
(4) Raju can be arrested so as to prevent him from making any inducement, threat or promise
to any person acquainted with facts and circumstances.

Which of the above is/are the correct statement?

(1) (2) and (4)

(2) Only (4)
(3) Only (2)
(4) (1) and (3)

Correct Answer: (1) (2) and (4)

Solution: Step 1: Legal provisions.

Police officers may arrest without warrant under certain conditions, such as when there is cred-
ible suspicion, complaint, or the risk of inducement/threat.

Step 2: Eliminating wrong choices.

Statement (1) is incorrect because arrests for non-cognizable offences require prior sanction.
Statement (3) alone does not justify arrest.

Step 3: Correct Statements.

Statements (2) and (4) are correct as they relate to valid grounds for immediate arrest.

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Final Answer:
(2) and (4)

Quick Tip
Arrest without warrant requires strong suspicion, credible complaint, or preventive ne-
cessity.

95. BNSS introduced the provision of registration of FIR relating to commission of cognizable
offense irrespective of area where the offense is committed. This FIR is known as:

(1) Zero FIR

(2) False FIR
(3) Counter FIR
(4) NCR

Correct Answer: (1) Zero FIR

Solution: Step 1: Understanding FIR registration.

Traditionally, FIRs had to be registered in the police station having jurisdiction. To remove
delays, the BNSS introduced Zero FIR.

Step 2: Definition.
Zero FIR allows filing at any police station, irrespective of jurisdiction, and is later transferred
to the appropriate station.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Therefore, the answer is Zero FIR.

Final Answer:
Zero FIR

Quick Tip
Zero FIR ensures victims can lodge complaints without jurisdictional barriers.

96. The BNSS mandates a forensic team to visit the crime scenes to collect evidence for offenses
punishable with imprisonment for at least years.

(1) 4 years
(2) 7 years

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(3) 2 years
(4) 1 year

Correct Answer: (2) 7 years

Solution: Step 1: Understanding the provision.

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNSS) emphasizes forensic involvement in serious crimes to
strengthen evidence-based investigation.

Step 2: Relevant clause.

According to BNSS, in offences punishable with imprisonment for 7 years or more, it is manda-
tory for a forensic team to visit the crime scene.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the threshold for mandatory forensic examination is 7 years.

Final Answer:
7 years

Quick Tip
Forensic evidence reduces reliance on confessions and strengthens the criminal justice
system.

97. Which section of the BNSS allows for trial in absentia of proclaimed offenders?

(1) Section 349

(2) Section 356
(3) Section 366
(4) Section 251

Correct Answer: (2) Section 356

Solution: Step 1: Understanding ‘trial in absentia’.

A proclaimed offender is one who deliberately avoids appearing before the court. In such cases,
the BNSS provides for trials in absentia.

Step 2: Relevant section.

Section 356 of BNSS deals with trial in absentia of proclaimed offenders, ensuring justice is not
delayed indefinitely.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is Section 356.

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Final Answer:
Section 356

Quick Tip
Trial in absentia ensures proclaimed offenders cannot escape justice by absconding.

98. Which section of BNSS facilitates trials and proceedings to be held in electronic mode?

(1) Section 330

(2) Section 430
(3) Section 530
(4) Section 532

Correct Answer: (2) Section 430

Solution: Step 1: Digital adaptation in justice.

BNSS, 2023, modernizes legal processes by introducing digital trials and electronic procedures.

Step 2: Relevant Section.

Section 430 of BNSS provides for conducting trials and proceedings electronically, ensuring
faster justice delivery.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Therefore, Section 430 is the correct provision.

Final Answer:
Section 430

Quick Tip
Digital trials reduce delays and allow remote access to justice.

99. Which section of BNSS repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(1) Section 101

(2) Section 2
(3) Section 1
(4) Section 531

Correct Answer: (4) Section 531

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Solution: Step 1: Background.
BNSS, 2023 replaces the colonial-era Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC) to align with
modern justice needs.

Step 2: Relevant Section.

Section 531 of BNSS explicitly repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is Section 531.

Final Answer:
Section 531

Quick Tip
BNSS, 2023, along with BNS and BSA, forms the new criminal law framework replacing
IPC, CrPC, and Evidence Act.

100. Amit and Rani decide to break into a house at night with the intent of stealing valuables.
They use a crowbar to force open the door, but before they can take anything, the owner of
the house, Vikram, unexpectedly arrives home. Amit and Rani panic and run away without
stealing anything. The police arrest them the following morning based on a complaint from
Vikram. Which of the following offenses under the BNSS have Amit and Rani committed?

(1) House trespass with intent to commit theft

(2) Attempt to commit robbery
(3) Burglary
(4) Attempt to commit theft

Correct Answer: (1) House trespass with intent to commit theft

Solution: Step 1: Identifying the act.

Amit and Rani broke into a house at night with intent to steal but fled without taking anything.

Step 2: Legal interpretation.

Since there was no actual theft or robbery, but unlawful entry was made with criminal intent,
the offence amounts to “house trespass with intent to commit theft.”

Step 3: Conclusion.
Thus, the correct answer is house trespass with intent to commit theft.

Final Answer:
House trespass with intent to commit theft

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Quick Tip
Mere intention plus unlawful entry is sufficient for house trespass, even if theft is not
executed.

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