0% found this document useful (0 votes)
39 views5 pages

Cycle 2-A

The document is a Cycle Test paper for Grade 10 students at Ashirwad’s International CBSE School, comprising 38 compulsory questions across four sections: History, Geography, Political Science, and Economics. Each section is worth 20 marks and includes various types of questions such as MCQs, short answers, and case-based questions. The test has specific instructions regarding answer lengths and internal choices for some questions.

Uploaded by

snegamanju
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
39 views5 pages

Cycle 2-A

The document is a Cycle Test paper for Grade 10 students at Ashirwad’s International CBSE School, comprising 38 compulsory questions across four sections: History, Geography, Political Science, and Economics. Each section is worth 20 marks and includes various types of questions such as MCQs, short answers, and case-based questions. The test has specific instructions regarding answer lengths and internal choices for some questions.

Uploaded by

snegamanju
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Ashirwad’s International CBSE School

Roll No: _______________ Cycle Test -2 (2025-26) Time: 3hrs


Name: ________________ Grade: 10 Total Marks: 80

General Instructions:

 There are 38 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
 The question paper has four sections – A-History, B-Geography, C-Political Science and D- Economics
 Each section is of 20 marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LA and CBQ.
 Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 40 words.
 Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60
words.
 Long Answer Type Questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed
120 words.
 There are Case Based Questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to
each question should not exceed 100 words.
 The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts –Q-9 in Section A-History (2marks) and Q-19 in
Section B-Geography (3marks)
 There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.

SECTION A – HISTORY
1. Which one of the following was the main reason behind the start of the Non-Cooperation Movement in
1920? 1m
a. To surrender the titles vested by British.
b. To oppose the arrival of Prince of Wales.
c. To fulfill the demand for swaraj.
d. To boycott the civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils.
2. Assertion: Culture played an important in created the idea of the nation. 1m
Reason: Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors who supplied raw materials and gave
them order for finished textiles but drastically reduced their payments.
a. Assertion is false but Reason is true.
b. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
c. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3. Certain events are given below. Choose the appropriate chronological order: 1m
i. Coming of Simon Commission.
ii. Demand for Purna Swaraj in Lahore session of INC.
iii. Government of India Act, 1919.
iv. Champaran Satyagraha.
a. i-ii-iv-iii b. iii-ii-iv-i c. iv-iii-i-ii d. ii-iii-i-iv
4. Match the column I with column II and select the correct answer: 1m

Column I Column II
i. Bourbon Empire a. The empire ruled by the Turkish Muslims
ii. Habsburg b. Prussian empire that included large parts of Western and Northern
Empire Germany and Poland.
iii. Ottoman Empire c. The empire that considered of France.
iv. Hohenzollern d. The empire that considered of Austria-Hungary including the
Empire Alpine region.
a. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b c. i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
b. i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c d. i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c
5. (A) What was Poona Pact? When and where it was signed? 2m
OR
(B) ‘Gandhi said that the fight for swaraj is a fight for the liberty of speech, liberty of the press and
freedom of association’. Explain what Gandhi means. 2m
6. (A) How did Silk Route link the world? 3m
OR
(B) ‘Sometimes the new crops could make the difference between life and death’. Explain. 3m
7. (A) Briefly explain about the strange case of Britain Unification. 5m
OR
(B) ‘History and fiction, folklore and songs, popular prints and symbols, all played a part in the making
of nationalism’. Examine the statement. 5m
8. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: [1+1+2]
Mahatma Gandhi’s letter was, in a way, an ultimatum. If the demands were not fulfilled by 11 March,
the letter stated, the Congress would launch a civil disobedience campaign. Irwin was unwilling to
negotiate. So, Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted
volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal
town to Dandi. The volunteers walked for 24days, about 10 miles a day. Thousands came to hear
Mahatma Gandhi wherever he stopped and he told them what he meant by swaraj and urged them to
peacefully defy the British. On 6 April, he reached Dandi and ceremonially violated the law by
manufacturing salt by boiling seawater.
i. What did Gandhiji’s letter to Lord Irwin state? 1m
ii. Why did Gandhiji march to Dandi? 1m
iii. “Gandhiji chose to defy salt tax in the civil disobedience movement”. Substantiate the
above statement by providing apt reasons. 2m
9. Two places, A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them with
the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
a. The place where the session of the Indian National Congress was held in September 1920. 1m
b. The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke Salt Law. 1m

Section B – Geography

10. Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but human beings do not
have appropriate technology to access them are called __________ 1m
a. Potential resources b. Stock c. Developed resources d. Reserves
11. What is the main contribution of the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987? 1m
a. Sustainable development as means for resource conservation.
b. Advocated resource conservation for the first time.
c. Presented Gandhian Philosophy d. All of the above.
12. Which of these is an important mine of copper in India? 1m
a. Jharia b. Ratnagiri c. Ankleshwar d. Khetri
13. Read the given hints carefully and identify the name of the industry. 1m
i. It is fast growing and diversifying.
ii. It comprises both large and small scale manufacturing units.
iii. It has its own largest consumer.
a. Chemical Industry b. Cotton Industry c. Aluminum industry d. IT industry
14. Considering the importance of agriculture in India, which of the following was/were given priority for
improving Indian agriculture 1m
a. Establishment of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
b. Development in the field of the meteorology and weather forecast.
c. Establishing agricultural universities, veterinary services and animal breeding centres.
d. All of the above.
15. Assertion: Multi-Purpose projects help to control floods by regulating water flow. 1m
Reason: Dafrisyere constructed to conserve water
a. Assertion is false but Reason is true.
b. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
c. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
16. What factors have hindered the pace of agricultural development in India? 2m
17. (A) Describe various technological and institutional reforms which led to the Green Revolution. 5m
OR
(B) What is the contribution of manufacturing industries to National Economy? 5m
18. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: [1+1+2]
India is an agricultural country where about two-thirds of the population is engaged in agricultural
activities. Farming in India is classified into various types such as primitive subsistence, intensive
subsistence and commercial farming. While primitive farming is still practiced in tribal areas using
traditional tools, commercial farming includes the use of HYV seeds, fertilizers and irrigation for large-
scale production.
i. Name any one feature of primitive subsistence farming? 1m
ii. Give one example of a crop mainly grown under commercial farming. 1m
iii. Why is commercial farming more productive than subsistence farming? 2m
19. On the map of India, locate and label the following:
a. (i) A seaport located in West Bengal. [1]
OR
(ii) Name the city where Raja Sansi (Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee) International Airport is located.
b. Any two of the following: [2x1=2]
i. Coal mine in Jharkhand.
ii. Singrauli Thermal Power Point.
iii. The tallest dam in India.

SECTION C – POLITICAL SCIENCE


20. Reservation for women in Parliament is a good example of which arrangement? 1m
a. Power shared among different groups.
b. Power shared among different parties.
c. Power shared among different levels of government.
d. Power shared among different organs of government.
21. Assertion: Gender division is a form of hierarchical social division. 1m
Reason: It is seen everywhere, but is rarely recognized.
a. Assertion is false but Reason is true.
b. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
c. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
22. Which one of the following is not a political party? 1m
a. INC b. JDU c. JKN d. AGP
23. ‘Equal treatment of women is a necessary ingredient of a democratic society’. This means that: 1m
a. Most societies across the world are now increasingly women dominated.
b. Women are actually always treated with respect.
c. It is now easier for women to legally wage struggle for their rights.
d. Women are not ill-treated anywhere in the world.
24. What is the reason for tension in Belgium? 2m
25. What is a multi-party system? Why has India adopted a multi-party system? Explain. 2m
26. Explain the Belgian model of power sharing for accommodating diversities. 3m
27. (A) Suggest and explain any five effective measures to reform political parties. 5m
OR
(B) How does democracy produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government? 5m
28. Read the following source and answer the questions that follow: {car cartoon ln-1} [1+1+2]
The cartoon above refers to the problems of running Germany’s grand coalition government, which
includes the country’s two major parties, namely the Christian Democratic Union and Social Democratic
Party. The two parties are rivals to each other. They had to form a coalition government because neither
of them got a clear majority of seats on their own in the 2005 elections. They take divergent positions on
several policy matters but jointly run the government.
i. Which disadvantage of coalition government is the image highlighting? 1m
ii. Why did the rival parties choose to make a coalition despite being rivals? 1m
iii. How does a democratic system, at time, cause such a challenge? 2m

SECTION D – ECONOMICS

29. Study the picture below and identify what it represents 1m

a. Equal distribution of national income in the country.


b. Population density of a country
c. Unequal distribution of national income in the country.
d. All of the above.
30. If BMI is less than 18.5then the person would be considered : 1m
a. Over weight b. Obese c. Under nourished d. Mal nourished
31. Find the incorrect option from the following: 1m
a. For development, people look at a mix of goals.
b. It is true that if women are engaged in paid work, their dignity in the household and society
decreases.
c. However, it is also the case that if there is respect for women there would be more sharing of
housework and a greater acceptance of women working outside.
d. A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a variety of jobs or run a
business.
32. In a village, 200 families are living. 65 families work on their own piece of land, 80 families work on
the field of other farmers, 15 families run their own shops and 40 families work in a nearby factory to
earn their livelihood. What percentage of villagers depends on the secondary sector? 1m
a. 35 b. 40 c. 25 d. 20
33. Assertion: Modern currency is used as a medium of exchange; however, it does not have a use of its
own. 1m
Reason: Modern currency is easy to carry.
Codes:
a. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
b. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
c. Assertion is false but Reason is true.
d. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
34. Grameen Bank of Bangladesh was started in ____ 1m
a. 1960 b. 1970 c. 1980 d. 1990
35. What is globalization and what its impact in the Indian economy? 3m
36. How for is it correct to say that several services which cannot be provided by private sector can be
provided by the public sector? Explain. 3m
37. What is per capita income? Can it be regarded as the sole indicator of economic development of a
country? Give four valid arguments to support your answer. 3m
38. (A) ‘Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s development’. Explain the statements with
examples. 5m
OR
(B) Why is the tertiary sector becoming the most important sector in India? 5m

You might also like