Test Pattern

(1001CJA102122044) )1001CJA102122044)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Main)
FULL TEST
(Academic Session : 2022 - 2023) 23-01-2023
JEE(Main+Advanced) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE (SCORE-I)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 300
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point
Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified
space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

3. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions.
4. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each subject and each subject having Two sections.
(i) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
First 5 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and
Side–2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile
phone any electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
10. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number : in figures
: in words
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

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PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. A spherical planet of radius R has a uniform
This section contains 20 questions. Each question density ρ and does not rotate. If the planet is
has 4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice made up of some liquid, the pressure at point r
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For from the center is :-
each question, marks will be awarded as follows: 4πρ 2 G 4πρG 2 2
(A) 2 2
(R − r ) (B) (R − r )
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. 3 3
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. 2πρ 2 G ρG
(C) 2 2
(R − r ) (D) (R 2 − r 2)
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. 3 2

1. A jet of gas consists of molecules of mass m, 4. A particle of mass m is thrown upward with
velocity v and there is retarding air resistance
speed v and number density n all moving co-linearly. proportional to the square of the velocity with
This jet hits a wall at an angle θ to the normal. The proportionality constant k. If the particle attains
a maximum height after time t, and g is the
pressure exerted on the wall by the jet assuming gravitational acceleration, what is the velocity?
elastic collision will be :- −
−−−
g−−
km −−

(A) √ tan(√ t)
(A) p = 2mnv2 cos2 θ g km

(B) p = 2mnv2 cosθ −−−−

−
−−
g
−

(B) √ gkm tan(√ t)

−−−−
km
(C) p = √(3/2)mnv cos2 θ −−
−
gm
−−−
kg
(C) √ tan(√ . t)
(D) p = mnv2 k m
−−−− −−−−
2. A girl measures the period of a simple pendulum (D) √ gkm tan(√gkm t)

inside a stationary lift and finds it to be T seconds. 5. A small loop of wire of area A = 0.01 m2 ,
N = 40 turns and resistance R = 20 Ω is initially
If the lift accelerates upward with an acceleration kept in a uniform magnetic field B in such a
g way that the field is normal to the loop. When it
, then the time period will be :-
4 is pulled out of the magnetic field, a total charge
(A) T of Q = 2 × l0–5 C flows through the coil. The
magnitude of magnetic field B is :-
T
(B) (A) 1 × 10–3 T
4
2T (B) 4 × 10–3 T
(C) –
√ 5 (C) zero
–
(D) 2T √5 (D) unobtainable, as the data is insufficient
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6. Two point charges + q1 and + q2 are fixed with 8. A uniform and constant magnetic field B coming
out of the plane of the paper exists in a rectangular
a finite distance d between them. It is desired to region as shown in the figure. A conducting rod
put a third charge q3 in between these two PQ is rotated about O with a uniform angular
charges on the line joining them so that the speed ω in the plane of the paper. The emf EPQ
induced between P and Q is best represented by
charge q3 is in equilibrium. This is :- the graph :-
(A) possible only if q3 is positive.
(B) possible only if q3 is negative.
(C) possible irrespective of the sign of q3.
(D) not possible at all.
7. Two electric dipoles P1 and P2 are placed at
(0,0,0) and (1,0,0) respectively with both of
(A)
them pointing in the +z direction. Without
changing the orientations of the dipoles P2 is
moved to (0,2,0). The ratio of the electrostatic
potential energy of the dipoles after moving to
(B)
that before moving is :-
1
(A)
16
1
(B)
2
(C)
1
(C)
4
1
(D)
8

(D)

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9. An oscillating voltage V(t) = V0cosωt is applied 11. A segment of a circular wire of radius R, extending
from θ = 0 to π/2 , carries a constant linear charge
across a parallel plate capacitor having a plate
density λ. The electric field at origin O is :-
separation d. The displacement current density
through the capacitor is :-

λ
ε 0 ωV0 cos ωt (A) x
(− ^ − ^ ) y
(A) 4πε 0 R
d
λ 1 1
(B)
ε 0 μ 0 ωV0 cos ωt (B) 4πε 0 R
(−
– x^ − – y^)
√ 2 √ 2
d
λ 1 1
ε 0 μ 0 ωV0 cos ωt (C) (− x^ − y^)
(C) − 4πε 0 R 2 2
d
(D) 0
ε 0 ωV0 sin ωt
(D) −
d 12. A particle of mass m carrying charge q is
10. The magnetic field associated with the electric moving in a circle in a magnetic field B.
field vector E⃗ = E 0 sin(kz − ωt)^j of an EM According to Bohr’s model, the energy of the
particle in the nth level is :-
wave is given by :-
1 hqB hqB
(A) ( ) (B) n( )
E0 n 2 πm πm
(A) B⃗ = − sin(kz − ωt)^i
c
hqB hqB
E0
(C) n( ) (D) n( )
2πm 4πm
(B) B⃗ = sin(kz − ωt)^i
c
13. The electric field of a light wave is given by
E0 π
(C) B⃗ = sin(kz − ωt)^j E ⃗ = E 0 [^i sin(ωt − kz) + ^j sin(ωt − kz − )] .
c 4

(D) E0 The polarization state of the wave is :-

B⃗ = sin(kz − ωt)k^
c
(A) Linear (B) Circular
(C) Elliptical (D) None of these
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14. In a standard YDSE setup, two source S1 and S2 of 16. A travelling pulse is given by
intensity I1 and I2 are placed in front of a screen 2abxt − a 2 x 2 − b2 t 2
f (x, t) = A exp( )
(figure). The pattern of intensity distribution seen c2
in the central portion is given by graph. In this case where A, a, b and c are positive constants of
which of the following statements is true ? appropriate dimensions. The speed of the pulse is :-
b 2b cb b
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a a a 2a
17. At room temperature, the speed of sound in air is
340 m/sec. An organ pipe with both ends open
has a length L = 29 cm. An extra hole is created at
the position L/2. The lowest frequency of sound
produced is :-
(A) 293 Hz (B) 586 Hz
(C) 1172 Hz (D) 2344 Hz
(A) S1 and S2 must have the same intensities. 18. Consider a convex lens of focal length f. A point
(B) S1 and S2 have a constant phase difference. object moves towards the lens along its axis
between 2f and f. If the speed of the object is
(C) S1 and S2 must have the equal phase.
V0, then its image would move with speed VI.
(D) S1 and S2 must have the same wavelength. Which of the following is CORRECT?
15. The instantaneous position x(t) of a small block (A) VI = V0 ; the image moves away from the lens.
performing one-dimensional damped oscillations
x(t) = Ae–γt cos(ωt + α). Here ω is the angular (B) VI = V0 ; the image moves towards the lens.
frequency, γ the damping coefficient, A the initial (C) VI > V0 ; the image moves away from the lens.
amplitude and α the initial phase. If
(D) VI < V0 ; the image moves away from the lens.
dx ∣
x| t 0 = 0 and ∣ = v, the value of A and α
=
dt ∣t 0
=
19. The circuit shown below uses only NAND
(with n = 0,1,2,........) are gates. The final output at C is :-
v (2n + 1)
(A) A= ,α = π
2ω 2
v
(B) A= , α = nπ
ω
v 2n + 1) π
(
(C) A= , α=
ω 2 (A) A AND B (B) A OR B
2v (2n + 1) π
(D) A= , α= (C) A XOR B (D) A NOR B
ω 2
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20. An ideal gas engine is run according to the cycle SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
shown in the S-T diagram below, where the This section contains 10 questions Candidates have
process from D to A is known to be isochoric to attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
(i.e. maintaining V = constant). The corresponding questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
cycle in the P-V diagram will most closely questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
resemble :- For each question, enter the correct integer value (In
case of non-integer value, the answer should be
rounded off to the nearest Integer).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according
to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
1. The power radiated by sun is 3.8 × 1026 W and
its radius is 7 × 105 km. The magnitude of the
(A) W
Poynting vector in
( ) at the surface of
cm 2
the sun is.... :-
2. In an experiment on charging of an initially
uncharged capacitor, an RC circuit is made
(B) with the resistance R = 10kΩ and the capacitor
C = 1000μF along with a voltage source of 6V.
The magnitude of the displacement current
through the capacitor (in μA), 5 seconds after
the charging has started, is : (√e = 1.65)
(C) 3. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency
5 × 1014 Hz and amplitude 103 V/m travelling
in a homogeneous dielectric medium of
dielectric constant 1.69 is incident normally at
the interface with a second dielectric medium
(D) of dielectric constant 2.25 . The ratio of the
amplitude of the transmitted wave to that of the
incident wave is :- (to the nearest integer)
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4. An anti-reflection film coating of thickness 8. Consider a simple pendulum in three dimensional
space. It consists of a string of length ℓ = 20 cm
0.1μm is to be deposited on a glass plate for and bob of mass m = 15kg attached to it as shown
normal incidence of light of wavelength 0.5 μm . in the figure below. The acceleration due to
gravity is downwards as shown in the figure with
The minimum refractive index of the film is μ , a magnitude g = 10 ms–2. The pendulum is pulled
find the value of 100μ. in the x-z plane to a position where the string
π
makes an angle θ = with the z -axis. It is then
3
5. A single slit of width 0.20 mm is illuminated
given an angular velocity Ω radians per second
with light of wavelength 500 nm. The observing about the z-axis. What should be the value of Ω in
screen is placed 80 cm from the slit. The width radians per second so that the angle the string
makes with the z -axis does not change with time?
of the central bright fringe (in mm) will be :-
6. The 7th bright fringe in the Young’s double slit
experiment using a light of wavelength 550 nm
shifts to the central maxima after covering the two
slits with two sheets of different refractive indices
n1, and n2 but having same thickness 6 μm.
The value of 100 |n 1 − n 2 | is ___.
(Round off to nearest integer) 9. A thin uniform steel chain is 10m long with a
linear mass density of 2kg m–1. The chain hangs
7. An object of 2 cm height is placed at a distance vertically with one end attached to a horizontal
of 30 cm in front of a concave mirror with axle, having a negligibly small radius compared
radius of curvature 40 cm. The height of the to its length. What is the work done (in N-m) to
slowly wind up the chain on to the axle? The
image is_____cm. acceleration due to gravity is g = 9.81 ms–2.
10. A heat engine is operated between two bodies
that are kept at constant pressure. The constant
pressure heat capacity Cp of the reservoirs is
independent of temperature. Initially the
reservoirs are at temperature 300K and 402K. If,
after some time, they come to a common final
temperature Tf, the process remaining adiabatic,
what is the value of Tf (in Kelvin)?
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PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. Based on following information at 25°C
This section contains 20 questions. Each question
has 4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For
each question, marks will be awarded as follows: and ΔH°combustion of glucose = –2805 kJ/mole
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. Calculate ΔH°r for fermentation of glucose as
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. shown below.
1. For a given reaction having equilibrium constant C6H12O6(s) → 2CO2(g) + 2C2H5OH(l)
'Keq' a graph of log (Keq) vs 1 is linear and has (A) –1438 kJ/mole (B) –142 kJ/mole
T
a positive slope. Which statements about this (C) –564 kJ/mole (D) –71 kJ/mole
reaction must be correct ? 4. Percentage degree of dimerisation and trimerisation
(I) ΔrH° < 0 (II) ΔrS° > 0 of a solute in a solvent are 20% and 30%
(A) I only (B) II only respectively. What is the elevation in boiling point
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II of the solution that contains 0.2 mole of this solute
2. Methyl iodide reacts irreversibly with azide ion per 1000g of the given solvent considering
following the rate law : dimerisation and trimerisation of solute takes place
Rate = k[CH3I][N3– ] simultaneously ?
C H 3 I (aq) + N 3 (aq) → C H 3 N 3 (aq) + I
− −
aq)
(
[Given for solvent : Kb = 5 K - kg mol–1]
The reaction is carried out with an initial
concentration of CH3I equal to 0.02 M. Select (A) 0.7°C (B) 0.14°C (C) 5°C (D) 0.35°C
the correct statement. 5. Which of the following is incorrect statement ?
(A) The reaction can not take place in single step. (A) Hardy schulze rule is related to coagulation.
(B) The reaction rate is significantly smaller if (B) Higher the gold number, less is the protective
excess I– is added to the solution. power of lyophilic sols.
(C) The time taken by this reaction to decrease (C) When negatively charged colloids like
[CH3I] from 0.02 M to 0.01 M is independent
As2S3 sol is added to positively charged
of [N 3 ] as long as [N 3 ] >> [C H 3 I ].
− −

Fe(OH)3 sol in suitable amounts then both

(D) If the initial concentrations of N 3 and CH3I
−

the sols are coagulated simulataneously

are equal, then it takes half as long as for
[CH3I] to decrease from 0.02 M to 0.01 M as it (D) Metal sols of gold, silver etc cannot be
does for it to decrease from 0.01 M to 0.005 M. prepared by Bredig's are method.
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6. Select the correct statement 10. The colourless, paramagnetic gas having bond
(A) As a result of schottky defect, density of order more than 2 is :
crystal increases. (A) CO (B) NO (C) CO2 (D) ClO2
(B) Stoichiometric defect decreases the electrical 11. The correct IUPAC name of co-ordination
conductance of the crystal. compound [Fe(CN)(CNCH2C6H5)5]Cl is :
(C) Order of magnetic strength of substance :
(A) Pentakis(benzylcyanide)cyanidoiron(II)
Ferromagnetic > Ferrimagnetic >
chloride
Antiferromagnetic
(D) If coordination number of X2+ in XY ionic (B) Cyanidopentakis(phenylisocyanide)iron(II)
compound is 4 then coordination number chloride
of Y2– may be 6 if crystal is perfect (C) Pentakis(benzylisocyanide)cyanidoiron(II)
7. In Bohr's atomic model for unielectronic species chloride
T1,2 : T2,z = 9 : 32, where Tn,z represents time (D) Pentakis(benzylisocyanido)cyanoiron(III)
period of revolution of electron in nth orbit of chloride
single electron atom/ion with atomic number Z. 12. Select the incorrect comparison(s) of properties
Atomic number of given atom/ion is : indicated in options :
(A) 9 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 4 MnO 42
(A) −
> MnO 4 −
: (Stability in acidic medium)
8. 'p' is an alkali metal which reacts with N2 to
form its nitride. The correct order of basic (B) Co > Mn :
strength of hydroxides of alkali metals is :
(A) 'p'OH < KOH (B) 'p'OH > NaOH (C) C r 2 O 72 −
> V O2 +
: (oxidising power)
(C) 'p'OH < LiOH (D) 'p'OH > CsOH (D) Na2Cr2O7 > K2Cr2O7 : (solubility in water)
9. NaBH4 + I2 → polyatomic gas(A) + gas(C) + .... 13. The concentration of fluoride, lead, nitrate and
(A) On heating with ammonia gives discrete sulphate in a water sample is found to be 0.5 ppm,
molecule (B) along with evolution of colourless 30 ppb, 70 ppm and 400 ppm respectively. The
gas (C). water is unsuitable for drinking due to high
(A), (B) and (C) are respectively : concentration of :
(A) H2, B3N3H6, B2H6 (A) Fluoride
(B) B2H6, (BN)x, H2 (B) Lead
(C) B2H6, B3N3H6, H2 (C) Nitrate
(D) B2H6, [BH2(NH3)2]+[BH4]–, H2 (D) Sulphate
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14. Choose the correct statement among given : 16. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(A) conc. HNO3 oxidises I2 into periodic acid. about given compound ?

(B) on addition of Zn into dil.HNO3,

paramagnetic gas is produced.
(C) Ag reacts with PCl5 to give a compound 'X'
and Y (having phosphorus) ; 'X' is insoluble (A) Given compound can be produced by
in excess. Na2S2O3.
upon treatment with
(D) Se2Cl2 disproportionates into Se and SeCl4.
15. Which of the following statement is KMnO4/H+
INCORRECT ? (B) Given compound can be decarboxylated
(A) Acidic strength of upon heating with sodalime/Δ
(C) When given compound is reduced by LiAlH4
> obtained product has 5 chiral carbons
(D) When given compound is reduced by B2H6
(B) Basic strength of obtained product has 4 chiral carbons
17. Which among the following forms hydrate at
< faster rate ?

(C) Resonance energy of Benzene > Furan

(D) Rate of acid catalysed dehydration of (A)
t-BuOH > Isopropyl alcohol

(B)

(C)

(D)

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18. Consider following reactions : SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have
to attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
Which of the following statement is incorrect ? The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In
(A) Product Y is a gas which can turn lime case of non-integer value, the answer should be
water milky rounded off to the nearest Integer).
(B) Product X can not undergo Hell-Volhard- Answer to each question will be evaluated according
Zelinsky reaction to the following marking scheme:
(C) Given reactions involve decarboxylation Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
(D) Formation of CH3COOH from Y involves Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
nucleophilic addition reaction
1. When the following skeleton equation is balanced
19. Consider given reactions :
with smallest whole number stoichiometric
co-efficients of species involved, what is the sum
of stoichiometric co-efficients of hydroxide ions
The product (R) can be oxidised without affecting and iodide ions,
olefinic double bond using following reagent
(A) KMnO4/H+ (B) PCC 2. Based on the following data we can calculate solubility
(C) PDC (D) Tollens reagent of Fe(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH (aq) solution at T K.
20. During reaction of RCONH2 with Br2 /KOH finally Half reaction E° in volt at T K
RNH2 is obtained as the main product. Which of
the following is not inolved in the reaction ? Fe2+(aq) + 2e– → Fe(s) ; –0.44
Fe(OH)2(s) + 2e– → Fe(s) + 2OH–(aq) ; –0.89
2.303 RT
(A) ( given : = 0.06)
F
(B) R – NHBr If solubility of Fe(OH)2 in 0.1 NaOH(aq) is
(C) R–N=C=O represented in scientific notation as x × 10–y molar
then find y.
(D)
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3. Pure acetone, C3H6O(l) has vapour pressure of 7. How many of the following statement(s) is/are
0.305 atm at 27°C. A sample of 1 mole of acetone
is injected to a container that contains 1 litre argon correct about given reactions ?
gas at 1 atm pressure and 27°C. The volume of the O3 /Zn
−−−− →X
container is then increased to 5 litre while
maintaining the same temperature. Find the final Statements :
total pressure in milli atm in the container after the
expansion. (i) In final product, ring expansion takes place
4. Glucose and Galactose are C-x epimer. Value with respect to initial reactant
of x is ... (ii) Final product Y can undergo tautomerisation
5. Consider following reactions (iii) X to Y formation is an example of aldol
condensation
(iv) X is a dicarbonyl compound
(v) Compound X gives negative Tollen's test but
positive 2,4-DNP test.
(vi) Formation of Y from X involves Cannizzaro
reaction
8. A blue coloured aqueous solution of M+2 ion
[M belongs to 3d-series] liberates H2 gas from
dilute acids. The group number of metal M in
periodic table is-
Degree of unsaturation of organic product (Z) is ..... 9. How many of the following compounds give
6. Consider following compound violet coloured precipitate on treating with
sodium nitroprusside solution ?
Na2S, H2S, BaS, PbS, CuS, HgS, NiS, CoS, ZnS
10. 15.9 g Cu2S on roasting under certain conditions
if x = No. of subsituents on principal chain in
given compound completely consumed to produce most basic
y = Position of locant methylcyclopropyl oxide of copper (X) along with evolution of
group on principal chain acidic gas(Y). What mass of Cu metal (in g) is
& z = Total number of chiral carbons in given produced finally on heating of obtained amount
compound
x+y+z
of compound (X) with 0.05 mole of Cu2S ?
Then ( ) is equal to ..... [At. wt. of Cu = 63.5, S = 32, O = 16]
2
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PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. If the line (5 + 3i)z̄ + (5 − 3i)z + 22 = 0 is
This section contains 20 questions. Each question tangent to the circle |z| = r , then the circle |z| = r
has 4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For lies completely in the region
each question, marks will be awarded as follows: (A) ( 1 − i)z̄ +( 1 + i)z + 4 > 0
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. (B) | z + 5| > |z − 9|
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
(C) ( 1 − i)z̄ +( 1 + i)z + 2 > 0
1. The mirror image of the line
x−1 y+1 z−5 (D) z − 5i| < |z + 9i|
= = = λ in the plane |

2 3 1
4x + 6y + 2z – 5 = 0 is x2 y2
5. For the ellipse + = 1 , (a > b) with
x−3 2y − 4 2z − 12 a2 b2
(A)
1
=
3
=
1
= μ eccentricity e, if P(ae, b2) is same as foot of
y−2
perpendicular from the point (1, 5) to the line
x−3 z−5
(B) = = = μ 1
2 3 1 x + 4y – 3 = 0, then value of is
e2
x−3 y+5 z−1
(C) = = = μ (A) 221 (B) 222 (C) 223 (D) 224
2 −1 −1

x−3 2y − 1 2z − 8 a b
(D) = = = μ 6. Matrix A=[ is formed using the
2 3 1 ]

2 c a
ex − e − x
+[ cos x]
2. I = ∫ dx where [ · ] numbers of set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. If a, b, c
2 ex + e − x
−
are distinct, then probability that det(A) ≤ 0 is
represents the G.I.F., then value of I is
47 11 13 23
(A) 0 (A) (B) (C) (D)
180 45 30 60
(B) 2(tan 1 eπ 4 − tan 1 e2 )
− / −

7. The number of integral values of 'k' for which

(C) 2(tan − 1 2
e − tan − 1
eπ /2
) 2
(5 − k)x + 2kx + k + 1 ⩾ 0 ∀x ∈ R is m.
m
(D) 2(tan − 1
eπ 2−
/
tan − 1 2)
e Then ∫ x 3 ]dx
[ is, where [·] represent G.I.F.
2 − m
3. For the parabola y = 4x, a line L1 is drawn
perpendicular to its tangent L : y = mx + 2. The (A) 2 (B) –3 (C) 3 (D) –2
y-intercept of line L1 is 4 and it intersects the 8. Let z = a + bi, a, b ∈ I, b ≠ 0, arg z ∈ (–π, π],
parabola at P and Q. The intersection point of L
|z| ⩽ 10 . The probability that |z| is an integer
and tangent at point P is A and that of L and
tangent at point Q is B, then the x-intercept of is
the circle with AB as diameter is 13 17 7 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) zero (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6 148 148 74 74
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 ALLEN
9. If a curve passes through (0, 1 ) and its slope 13. A person standing on the top of a building of
2 height 60√–3 feet observed the top of a tower to lie
3
dy 2xy + x
is = , then the curve passes at an elevation of 45°. That person descended to the
dx x2 + 1
bottom of the building and found that the top of the
through
same tower is now at an angle of elevation of 60°.
e
(A) −−−−
(√ − , e 1 ) The height of the tower (in feet) is
2
e+1
(A) 30 (B) 30(√–3 + 1)
−−−−
(B) (√ − , e 1 )
– –
2 (C) 90(√3 + 1) (D) 150(√3 + 1)
e−1
(C) −−−−
(√ − , e 1 ) 14. Solution set of (sin–1 x – 1)(sin–1 x – 2)(sin–1 x–3) ≥ 0
2
is
4e + 1
(D) (√
−−−−−
− ,2e 1 ) (A) [sin1, sin2] ∪ [sin3, 1]
2
10. The statement ((p ⇒ q) ⇒∼ (p ∨ q)) ∧ q is (B) [sin1, sin2]
equivalent to (C) [sin1, 1]
p ⇒ q) ∧ (p∧ ∼ q) π
(A) ( (D) { }
2
(B) ( p ⇒ q) ∨ (p∧ ∼ q) 15. The area of the region bounded by f(x) = x2 and
(C) ( p ⇔ q) ∧ (p ⇒ q) g(x) = x3, x ∈ [0, 2], is
4 1 2 3
(D) (p ⇔ q) ∧ p (A) (B) (C) (D)
3 6 3 2
d 2x 16. The function f : R → [–1, ∞], f(x) = x + |x| + sin x
11. If y = xx, then at x = e is
dy2 is
−( e + 4) −( 1 + 4e) (A) One-one and onto (B) One-one and into
(A) (B)
8e2e + 1 8e2e+ 1
(C) Many-one onto (D) Many-one into
( 1 + 4e) −( 1 + 4e)
(C) (D) 17. The existence of unique solution of the system of
8e2e +1 8e3e+ 1

If n is a positive integer and ω ≠ 1 is a cube equations,

12.
root of unity, then the number of distinct x + y + z = β,
5x – y + αz = 10,
2x + 3y – z = 6
possible values of are depends on
(A) α only (B) β only
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6 (C) α and β both (D) neither α nor β
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 ALLEN
18. The vector P⃗ is perpendicular to the vectors 2. Let m be the smallest positive integer such that
A⃗ = ^i + 2^j + 3k^ and B⃗ = − ^ + 2i 4^j + k^ and the coefficient of x2 in the expansion of
satisfies the condition P .⃗ (^i − 2^j + k^) = −6, (1 + x)2 + (1 + x)3 + ....... + (1 + x)49 + (1 + mx)50
is (3n + 1) 51C3 for some positive integer n. Then
then (P .⃗ ^i + P .⃗ k)⃗ is equal to-
the value of n is
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) –1 (D) 9 1 1
–
sin 2x b
3. The value of (( log2 9)2 ) log2 log2 9
( )
7
× (√ )
log4 7

19. If lim( + a+ ) = 0 then 3a + b is

x→0 x3 x2 is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 4. The number of points at which the function
2x
e √x
−−
20. If the equation = k has exactly one
x
solution, then k is-
2
(A) √ e (B) 2√e (C) 3√e (D) is non-differentiable, are
√e

SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) 5. Number of positive integral solutions of

This section contains 10 questions Candidates have a + b + c + 3d = 15 are 'k' and non-negative
to attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted integral solutions are 'm', then the greatest prime
questions will be evaluated. divisor of (m – k + 1) is
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In 6. πx x
Number of solutions of ∣∣sin ∣
=
case of non-integer value, the answer should be 2 ∣
k
rounded off to the nearest Integer). if k ∈ [1, 8], k ∈ I , x ∈ (0, 8]
Answer to each question will be evaluated according 7.
to the following marking scheme: Exact value of tan200°(cot10° – tan10°) is
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered. 8. 1 + 2 + 3+. . . . +k
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered. Let Sk = .
k
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered. If S 12 + S 22 +. . . . +S 10
2 = 5
A , then A is equal
2 12
1. (1 − tan x) dx
∫ to
4
sin x(2sec2 x − 1) + cos2 x(2 − sin 2 x)
∣
–
8 f (x) ∣
9. Number of real solutions of
1 ⎛
√ +
⎞
=
−−
ln∣
∣
–
∣
∣
+ C (where C is f(x) = x5 + 3x3 + tan–1x + ex = 0 is
2√10 ∣
⎝√ 8 − f (x) ⎠
∣

constant integeration) then number of integral 10. The number of integer values of p for which the
values in the range of f(x) are, where f(x) is a equation sin–1x + tan–1x = 2p + 1 has a solution
bounded function. is
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