PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN HEMATOLOGY (PART 1)

1. Gauge of the needle indicating the largest bore is:

a. 16 gauge b. 19 gauge c. 21 gauge d. 23 gauge
2. What is the anticoagulant of choice for the osmotic fragility test?
a. heparin b. double oxalate c. EDTA d. potassium oxalate
3. Hemoglobin migration pattern on cellulose acetate from point of application to anode is:
a. C < F < A2 < A < S c. C and A2 < S < F < A
b. C < S < A and A2 < F d. C < A < F < S < A2
4. Insufficient centrifugation will result in:
a. a false increase in hematocrit value c. no effect in hematocrit value
b. a false decrease in hematocrit value d. all of the above, depending on the patient
5. Calculate the mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) using the following values:
Hgb: 15 g/dL (150 g/L) RBC 4.50 x 106/µL (4.50 x 1012/L)
Hct: 47% (0.47)
a. 9.5% b. 10.4% c. 31.9% d. 33.3%
6. A 7-mL EDTA tube is received in the laboratory containing only 2 mL of blood. If the laboratory is using manual
techniques, which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous?
a. WBC count b. hemoglobin c. hematocrit d. none of these
7. A decreased OFT would be associated with which of the following conditions?
a. sickle cell anemia c. haemolytic disease of the newborn
b. hereditary spherocytosis d. acquired haemolytic anemia
8. What effect would using a buffer at pH 6.0 have on Wright’s-stained smear?
a. red cell would be stained too pink c. red cells would be stained blue
b. white cell cytoplasm would be stained too blue d. red cells would lyse on the slide
9. Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions can be visualized with supravital stain but cannot be detected on a
Wright-stained blood smear?
a. basophilic stippling b. Heinz bodies c. Howell-Jolly bodies d. siderotic granules
10. A Miller disk is an ocular device used to facilitate counting of:
a. platelets b. reticulocytes c. sickle cells d. N-RBCs
11. RBC indices obtained on a patient are as follows: MCV 88 fL; MCH 30 pg; MCHC 34%. The RBCs on the peripheral
smear would appear:
a. microcytic, hypochromic c. normocytic, normochromic
b. microcytic, normochromic d. normocytic. hypochromic
12. All of the following may influence the ESR, except:
a. blood drawn into a sodium citrate tube c. plasma proteins
b. anisocytosis, poikilocytosis d. calibre of the tube
13. What staining method is used most frequently to stain and count reticulocytes?
a. immunofluorescence c. Romanowsky staining
b. supravital staining d. cytochemical staining
14. The Coulter principle for counting of cells is based upon the fact that:
a. isotonic solutions conduct electricity better than cells do
b. conductivity varies proportionally to the number of cells
c. cells conduct electricity better than saline does
d. isotonic solutions cannot conduct electricity
15. A correction is necessary for WBC counts when nucleated RBCs are seen on the peripheral smear because:
a. the WBC count would be falsely lower c. N-RBCs are counted as leukocytes
b. the RBC count is too low d. N-RBCs are confused with giant platelets
16. Using a Coulter counter analyzer, an increased RDW should correlate with:
a. spherocytosis b. anisocytosis c. leukocytosis d. presence of N-RBCs
17. Given the following values, which set of red blood cell indices suggests spherocytosis?
a. MCV 76 fL, MCH 19.9 pg, MCHC 28.5% c. MCV 80 fL, MCH 36.5 pg, MCHC 38.0%
b. MCV 90 fL, MCH 30.5 pg, MCHC 32.5% d. MCV 81 fL, MCH 29.0 pg, MCHC 34.8%
18. Which of the following is considered a normal hemoglobin?
a. carboxyhemoglobin b. methemoglobin c. sulfhemoglobin d. deoxyhemoglobin
19. Which condition will shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?
a. acidosis b. alkalosis c. hb S or C d. multiple blood transfusions
20. In which stage of erythrocytic maturation does hemoglobin formation begin?
a. reticulocyte b. pronormoblast c. basophilic normoblast d. polychromatophilic normoblast
21. Which of the following can shift the hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve to the right?
a. increase 2,3 DPG b. acidosis c. hypoxia d. all of these
22. Which of the following hemoglobin configurations is characteristic of hemoglobin H?
a. γ4 b. α2 γ2 c. β4 d. α2 β2
23. Autoagglutination of red cells at room temperature can result in which of the following?
a. low RBC count b. high MCV c. low hematocrit d. all of these
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24. Which of the following organs is responsible for the “pitting process” for RBCs?
a. liver b. spleen c. kidney d. lymph nodes
25. Which of the following disorders has an increase in osmotic fragility?
a. iron deficiency anemia c. hereditary stomatocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis d. hereditary spherocytosis
26. What is the major hemoglobin found in the RBCs of patients with sickle cell trait?
a. hgb S b. hgb F c. hgb A2 d. Hgb A
27. Select the amino acid substitution that is responsible for sickle cell anemia?
a. lysine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the alpha chain
b. valine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the beta chain
c. valine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the alpha chain
d. glutamine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the beta chain
28. All of the following are usually found in hemoglobin C disease, except:
a. Hemoglobin C crystals c. lysine substituted for glutamic acid at sixth position of β-chain
b. Target cells d. fast mobility of hemoglobin C at pH 8.6
29. Which of the following hemoglobins migrates to the same position as hgb A2 at pH 8.6?
a. hgb H b. hgb F c. hgb C d. hgb S
30. Which of the following electrophoretic results is consistent with a diagnosis of sickle cell trait?
a. hgb A: 40%, hgb S 35%, hgb F 5% c. hgb A: 0%, hgb A2 5%, hgb F 95%
b. hgb A: 60%, hgb S 40%, hgb A2 2% d. hgb A: 80%, hgb S 10%, hgb A2 10%
31. Which of the following is true of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
a. it is an acquired hemolytic anemia c. it is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait
b. it is inherited as a sex-linked trait d. it is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait
32. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is characterized by all of the following, except:
a. hemorrhage b. thrombocytopenia c. hemoglobinuria d. reticulocytopenia
33. An autohemolysis test is positive in all of the following except:
a. G6PD deficiency b. HS c. pyruvate kinase deficiency d. PNH
34. Which antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)?
a. anti-I b. anti-i c. anti-M d. anti-P
35. All of the following are associated with hemolytic anemia except:
a. methemoglobinemia c. hemoglobinemia
b. hemoglobinuria d. increased haptoglobin
36. Bite cells are usually seen in patients with:
a. Rh null trait b. CGD c. G6PD deficienct d. PK deficiency
37. The morphological classification of anemias is based on which of the following?
a. M:E ratio b. Prussian blue stain c. RBC indices d. reticulocyte count
38. Microangioathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by:
a. target cells and Cabot rings c. Pappenheimer bodies and basophilic stipplings
b. toxic granules and Dohle bodies d. schistocytes and nucleated RBCs
39. Which antibiotic is most often implicated in the development of aplastic anemia?
a. sulfonamides b. penicillin c. tetracycline d. chloramphenicol
40. Which of the following conditions may produce spherocytes in a peripheral smear?
a. Pelger-Huet anomaly c. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b. perncious anemia d. sideroblastic anemia
41. Reticulocytosis usually indicates:
a. response to inflammation c. aplastic anemia
b. neoplastic process d. red cell regeneration
42. The OFT result in a patient with thalassemia major would most likely be:
a. increased b. decreased c. normal d. all of these
43. Iron deficiency anemia may be distinguished from anemia of chronic infection by:
a. serum iron level c. red cell indices
b. red cell morphology d. total iron binding capacity
44. Which anemia has red cell morphology similar to that seen in IDA?
a. sickle cell anemia b. thalassemia syndrome c. pernicious anemia d. HS
45. Which morphological classification is characteristic of megaloblastic anemia?
a. normocytic, normochromic c. macrocytic, hypochromic
b. microcytic, normochromic d. macrocytic, normochromic
46. All of the following are characteristics of megaloblastic anemia except:
a. pancytopenia c. hypersegmented neutrophil
b. elevated reticulocyte count d. macrocytic erythrocyte indices
47. Which of the disorders below causes ineffective erythropoiesis?
a. G6PD deficiency b. liver disease c. Hgb C disease d. pernicious anemia
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48. Which of the following may be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient with obstructive liver disease?
a. schistocytes b. macrocytes c. Howell-Jolly bodies d. microcytes
49. The macrocytes typically seen in megaloblastic processes are:
a. creascent-shaped b. teardrop-shaped c. ovalocytic d. pencil-shaped
50. Which inclusions may be seen in leukocytes?
a. Dohle bodies b. basophilic stippling c. malarial parasite d. Howell-Jolly bodies
51. Which of the following is contained in the primary granules of the neutrophil?
a. lactoferrin b. myeloperoxidase c. histamine d. alkaline phosphatase
52. The morphological characteristic associated with Chediak-Higashi syndrome is:
a. pale blue cytoplasmic inclusiosns c. small, dark staining granules and condensed nuclei
b. giant lysosomal granules d. nuclear hyposegmentation
53. Auer rods may be seen in all of the following except:
a. acute myelomonocytic leukemia (M4) c. acute myeloid leukemia without maturation (M1)
b. acute lymphoblastic leukemia d. acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)
54. Which type of anemia is usually present in a patient with acute leukemia?
a. microcytic, hyperchromic c. normocytic, normochromic
b. microcytic, hypochromic d. macrocytic, normochromic
55. In leukemia, which term describes a peripheral blood finding of leukocytosis with a shift to the left, accompanied by
occasional nucleated red cells?
a. megaloblastosis b. dysplasia c. leukoerythroblastosis d. none of these
56. DIC is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia?
a. acute myeloid leukemia without maturation c. acute myelomonocytic leukemia
b. acute promyelocytic leukemia d. acute monocytic leukemia
57. A peripheral smear shows 75% blasts. These stain positive for both Sudan black B (SBB) and peroxidase (Px). Given
these values, which of the following disorders is most likely?
a. AML b. CML c. AUL d. ALL
58. Sodium fluoride may be added to the naphthyl ASD acetate (NASDA) esterase reaction. The fluoride is added to
inhibit a positive reaction with:
a. megakaryocytes b. monocytes c. erythrocytes d. granulocytes
59. In essential thrombocythemia, the platelets are:
a. increased in number and functionally abnormal c. decreased number and functional
b. normal in number and functionally abnormal d. decreased in number and functionally abnormal
60. Which of the following cells is considered pathognomonic for Hodgkin’s disease?
a. Niemann-Pick cells b. reactive lymphocytes c. flame cells d. Reed-Sternberg cells
61. In myelofibrosis, the characteristic abnormal red blood cell morphology is that of:
a. target cells b. schistocytes c. teardrop cells d. ovalocytes
62. PV is characterized by:
a. increased plasma volume c. decreased oxygen saturation
b. pancytopenia d. absolute increase in total red cell mass
63. The erythrocytosis seen in relative polycythemia occurs because of:
a. decreased arterial oxygen saturation c. increased erythropoietin levels
b. decreased plasma volume of circulating blood d. increased erythropoiesis in the bone marrow
64. The leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain of a patient gives the following results: 10 (0); 48(1+); 38(2+); 3(3+); 1(4+).
Calculate the LAP score:
a. 100 b. 117 c. 137 d. 252
65. CML is distinguished from leukomoid reaction by which of the following?
a. CML low LAP; leukomoid high LAP c. CML high WBC; leukomoid normal WBC
b. CML high LAP; leukomoid low LAP d. CML high WBC; leukomoid high WBC
66. What influence does the Philadelphia chromosome have on the prognosis of patients with chronic myelocytic
leukemia?
a. it is not predictive c. prognosis is worse is Ph1 is present
b. prognosis is better if Ph is present
1
d. disease usually transforms into AML when Ph1 is present
67. What is the characteristic finding is seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with multiple myeloma?
a. microcytic hypochrmic cells c. rouleaux
b. intracellular inclusion bodies d. hypersegmented neutrophils
68. In which of the following conditions does LAP show the least activity?
a. leukomoid recations b. idiopathic myelofibrosis c. PV d. CML
69. Cells that exhibit a positive stain with acid phosphatase and are not inhibited with tartaric acid are characteristically
seen in:
a. infectious mononucleosis c. hairy cell leukemia
b. infectious lymphocytosis d. T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia
70. The anticoagulant of choice for most routine coagulation studies is:
a. sodium oxalate b. sodium citrate c. EDTA d. heparin
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71. Which ratio of anticoagulant to blood is correct for coagulation procedures?

a. 1:4 b. 1:5 c. 1:9 d. 1:10
72. What reagents are used in the PT test?
a. thromboplastin and sodium chloride c. thromboplastin and calcium
b. thromboplastic and potassium chloride d. actin and calcium chloride
73. Which test would be abnormal in a patient with Stuart-Prower factor (factor X) deficiency?
a. PT only b. APTT only c. PT and APTT d. thrombin time
74. Which clotting factor is not measured by PT and APTT tests?
a. factor VIII b. factor IX c. factor V d. factor XIII
75. Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a vitamin K-deficient patient?
a. PT only b. PT and APTT c. fibrinogen level d. thrombin time
76. Which of the following is correct regarding the international normalized ratio (INR)?
a. it uses the international sensitivity ratio(ISR) c. standardizes the APTT results
b. standardizes PT results d. used to monitor heparin therapy
77. Which protein is the primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system?
a. protein C b. protein S c. α2 antiplasmin d. α2 macroglobulin
78. A protein that plays a role in both coagulation and platelet aggregation is:
a. factor I b. factor VIII c. factor IX d. factor XI
79. Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the action of which enzyme?
a. phospholipase b. cyclo-oxygenase c. thromboxane A2 synthetase d. prostacyclin synthetase
80. Bernard-Soulier syndrome is associated with:
a. decreased bleeding time c. thrombocytopenia and giant platelets
b. decreased factor VIII assay d. abnormal platelet aggregation to ADP
81. When performing platelet aggregation studies, which set of platelet aggregation result would most likely be associated
with Bernard-Soulier syndrome?
a. normal platelet aggregation to collagen, ADP and ristocetin
b. normal platelet aggregation to collagen, ADP, epinephrine; decreased aggregation to ristocetin
c. normal platelet aggregation to epinephrine and ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen and ADP
d. normal platelet aggregation to epinephrine, ristocetin and collagen; decreased aggregation to ADP
82. Which set or platelet responses would most likely be associated to Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia?
a. normal platelet aggregation to ADP and ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen
b. normal platelet aggregation to collagen; decreased aggregation to ADP and ristocetin
c. normal platelet aggregation to ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen, ADP and epinephrine
d. normal platelet aggregation to ADP; decreased aggregation to collagen and ristocetin
83. Storage pool deficiencies are defects of:
a. platelet adhesion b. platelet aggregation c. platelet granules d. platelet production
84. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is a disorder of:
a. platelets b. clotting proteins c. fibrinolysis d. connective tissue
85. Which defect characterizes Gray’s syndrome?
a. platelet adhesion defect c. alpha granule defect
b. dense granule defect d. coagulation defect
86. Normal serum contains:
a. factor I b. factor V c. factor VIII d. factor VII
87. In the APTT procedure the time taken for clot formation is measured after the addition of:
a. tissue thromboplastin b. calcium chloride c. phospholipid d. activator
88. A prolonged APTT and PT are corrected when mixed with normal plasma. Which factor is most likely deficient?
a. V b. VIII c. IX d. XI
89. Refer to the following results:
PT prolonged APTT prolonged platelet count decreased bleeding time increased
Which disorder may be indicated?
a. factor VIII deficiency b. vWD c. DIC d. factor IX deficiency
90. The following results were obtained on a patient: prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, normal PT, and
prolonged APTT. Which of the following disorders is most consistent with these results?
a. hemophilia A b. hemophilia B c. vWD d. Glanzmaann’s thrombasthenia
91. Refer to the following results:
PT normal APTT prolonged Bleeding time increased
Platelet count normal Platelet aggreagation to ristocetin abnormal
a. factor VIII deficiency b. DIC c. vWD d. factor IX deficiency
92. Which results are associated with hemophilia A?
a. prolonged APTT, normal PT c. prolonged PT, normal APTT
b. prolonged PT and APTT d. normal PT and APTT
93. Which of the following test is abnormal in Hemophilia B
a. platelet count b. BT c. PT d. APTT
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94. Normal PT and APTT results in a patient with poor wound healing may be associated with:
a. factor VII deficiency b. factor VIII deficiency c. factor XII deficiency d. factor XIII deficiency
95. The lupus anticoagulant is directed against:
a. factor VIII b. factor IX c. factor X d. phospholipid
96. What test is used to monitor heparin therapy?
a. INR b. APTT c. PT d. none of these
97. What test is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy?
a. INR b. APTT c. TT d. BT
98. Which clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by protein S?
a. V and X b. Va and VIIIa c. VIII and IX d. VIII and X
99. Which of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in patients taking aspirin?
a. platelet morphology b. platelet count c. bleeding time d. prothrombin time
100. A prolonged thrombin time and a normal reptilase time are indicative of:
a. afibrinogenemiab. hypofibrinogenemia c. aspirin therapy d. heparin therapy

END OF THE EXAM

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN HEMATOLOGY (PART 2)

1. Platelet alpha granules contain:

1. Platelet factor 4 3. Platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)
2. Beta thromboglobulin 4. Fibrinogen
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is prolonged in:
1. Hemophilia B 3. Parahemophilia
2. Hemophilia A 4. Thrombocytopenia
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
3. Bleeding disorders associated with vascular abnormality:
1. Hemorrhagic telangiectasia 3. Scurvy
2. Ehlers-Danlos syndromes 4. Senile purpura
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. The test reagent in PT contains which of the following substance(s)?
1. Calcium ions 3. Tissue thromboplastin
2. Kaolin 4. Celite
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
5. The test reagent in APTT contains which of the following substance(s)?
1. Citrated plasma 3. Tissue thromboplastin
2. Calcium ions 4. Phospholipids
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
6. Bleeding disorder(s) in which platelets fail to aggregate with ristocetin:
1. von Willebrand’s disease 3. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
2. Glanzmann’s disease 4. Storage pool disease
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
7. The fibrinogen group of coagulation factors is:
1. Present in serum 3. Adsorbed by barium sulfate
2. Not vitamin K dependent 4. Consumed during coagulation
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
8. Thrombocytosis may be associated with:
1. Post-splenectomy 3. Polycythemia vera
2. DIC 4. Megaloblastic anemia
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
9. Which coagulation factor(s) is(are) removed by barium sulfate or aluminum hydroxide?
1. Factor II 3. Factor IX
2. Factor VIII 4. Factor I
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
10. Coagulation factor(s) affected by coumarin drugs is(are):
1. II 3. IX
2. VII 4. X
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. The hemorrhagic problems associated with scurvy are due to a deficiency of which of the following:
A. Vitamin C C. Vitamin K
B. Prothrombin D. Protein C
12. The number of platelets an average megakaryocyte generates is approximately:
A. 25 - 50 C. 200 - 500
B. 200 - 500 D. 2000 - 4000
13. Which of the following is NOT a cause of thrombocytopenia?
A. Splenomegaly C. Increased thrombopoietin
B. Chemotheraphy D. Aplastic anemia
14. Which of the following is NOT a normal maturation stage for platelets?
A. Megakaryoblast C. Micromegakaryocyte
B. Promegakaryocyte D. Megakaryocyte
15. The recommended type of microscopy for the performance of manual platelet counts is:
A. Electron C. Light
B. Darkfield D. Phase contrast
16. Which of the following is not synthesized in the liver?
A. Protein C C. von Willebrand factor
B. Plasminogen D. All of these
17. Which of the following will NOT cause the thrombin time to be prolonged?
A. Fibrin degradation products C. Factor I deficiency
B. Heparin D. Factor II deficiency
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18. A patient on therapeutic warfarin will most likely have a(an):

A. Normal PT/INR, increased APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count
B. Increased PT/INR, increased APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count
C. Normal PT/INR, normal APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count
D. Increased PT/INR, normal APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count
19. The activity of the lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibodies appears to be directed against:
A. Factor V C. Factor IX
B. Factor VIII D. Phospholipid
20. Thrombocytosis is characteristic of:
A. DIC C. Polycythemia vera
B. Splenomegaly D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
21. If a physician suspects a qualitative platelet defect, the most useful test to order is the:
A. Platelet count C. Urea solubility test
B. Prothrombin time D. Bleeding time
22. Reversal of heparin overdose can be achieved by administration of:
A. Vitamin K C. Antithrombin
B. Protamine sulfate D. Warfarin
23. The prothrombin time will detect deficiencies in which pathway(s)?
A. Extrinsic C. Intrinsic
B. Extrinsic and common D. Intrinsic and common
24. Relative polycythemia is characterized by:
1. Increase total red cell mass 3. Normal plasma volume
2. Normal total red cell mass 4. Decreased plasma volume
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
25. Microcytic, hypochromic anemia:
1. Aplastic anemia 3. Pernicious anemia
2. Acute blood loss 4. Chronic blood loss
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
26. Most patients with beta thalassemia have:
1. Normocytic, normochromic anemia 3. Decreased hemoglobin F
2. Occasional target cells 4. Increased hemoglobin A2
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
27. Peripheral blood picture of megaloblastic anemia:
1. Hypersegmented neutrophil 3. Oval macrocytes
2. Thrombocytopenia 4. Leukopenia
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
28. Laboratory findings in hereditary spherocytosis include:
1. Increased autohemolysis corrected by glucose 3. Reticulocytosis
2. Decreased osmotic fragility 4. Positive direct antiglobulin test
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
29. Reticulocytes:
1. Immature red cells 3. Increased after hemorrhage
2. Contain remnants of RNA 4. Stained with Romanowsky stains
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
30. Hemolytic anemias are associated with:
1. Increase in reticulocytes 3. Reduced RBC survival
2. Increase serum haptoglobin 4. Decrease free hemoglobin
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
31. The hemoglobins which can be differentiated by using only cellulose acetate electrophoresis at pH 8.6 are:
1. D and S 3. C and E
2. O and C 4. A1 and H
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
32. Heinz bodies are formed in which of the following conditions?
1. G6PD deficiency 3. Presence of unstable hemoglobin
2. Hereditary spherocytosis 4. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
33. Which of the following red cell inclusions cannot be seen by Romanowsky stain?
1. Basophilic stipplings 3. Pappenheimer bodies
2. Howell-Jolly bodies 4. Heinz bodies
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
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34. The structural proteins of red cell is made up of:

1. Spectrin 3. Actin
2. Glycophorins 4. Transport protein
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
35. Abnormal osmotic fragility test:
1. Immediately after acute hemorrhage 3. Aplastic anemia
2. Thalassemia 4. Hereditary spherocytosis
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
36. What is the first type of cell produced by the developing embryo?
A. Erythrocyte C. Lymphocyte
B. Granulocyte D. Thrombocyte
37. In an adult, what are the two best areas for obtaining active bone marrow by aspiration?
A. Vertebra, tibia C. Anterior iliac crest, tibia
B. Sternum, vertebra D. Posterior iliac crest, sternum
38. Antigen-independent lymphopoiesis occurs primary lymphoid tissue located in the:
A. Liver and kidney C. Peyer’s patches and spleen
B. Spleen and lymph nodes D. Thymus and bone marrow
39. Programmed cell death is called:
A. Necrosis C. Cellular senescence
B. Apoptosis D. Terminal differentiation
40. Interleukin and colony stimulating factors are cytokines produced by:
A. B lymphocytes and erythrocytes C. Monocytes and T lymphocytes
B. erythrocytes and thrombocytes D. Neutrophils and monocytes
41. What is the approximate total blood volume in an adult?
A. 1 L C. 6 L
B. 2 L D 12 L
42. The largest hematopoietic cells in normal bone marrow are:
A. Osteoblasts C. Megakaryocytes
B. Osteoclasts D. Plasma cells
43. As most blood cells mature, which of the following is characteristic?
A. Cell diameter increases C. nuclear chromatin becomes less condensed
B. Nucleus to cytoplasm ratio decreases D. Basophilia of the cytoplasm increases
44. Which of the following depicts the structure of the hemoglobin molecule?
A. Two heme groups, two globin chains C. Two heme groups, four globin chains
B. Four heme groups, two globin chains D. Four heme groups, four globin chains
45. The majority of iron found in an adult is a constituent of:
A. Ferritin C. Hemoglobin
B. Myoglobin D. Peroxidase
46. Howell-Jolly bodies are composed of:
A. DNA C. Reticulum
B. Iron D. RNA
47. When spherocytes are reported, what is observed on the peripheral blood smear?
A. Red cells without a central pallor C. Red cells with sharp projections
B. Red cells with blunt projections D. Red cells with rod-shaped crystals
48. Rouleaux of red blood cells when seen in the monolayer of a blood smear is characteristic of:
A. Hypersplenism C. Cold agglutinin disease
B. Hypogammaglobulinemia D. Multiple myeloma
49. Which of the following factors will result in an immediate increase in oxygen delivery to the tissues?
A. Increased pH C. High altitudes
B. Increased hb binding of 2,3-BPG D. Increased renal release of erythropoietin
50. Which of the following red blood cell precursors is the last stage to undergo mitosis?
A. Pronormoblast C. Polychromatophilic normoblast
B. Basophilic normoblast D. Orthochromic normoblast
51. Defective nuclear maturation commonly results in the production of red cells that are:
A. Normocytic C. Macrocytic
B. Hypochromic D. Microcytic
52. Which of the following conditions is NOT usually associated with marked reticulocytosis?
A. Four days after a major hemorrhage C. Sickle cell anemia
B. Drug-induced AIHA D. Pernicious anemia
53. Hereditary stomatocytosis is manifested physiologically by changes in:
A. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity C. Efficiency of hemoglobin reduction
B. Membrane cation permeability D. Glycolytic ATP production
54. Which of the following values can be sued to indicate the presence of a hemolytic anemia?
A. Hemoglobin level C. Erythrocyte count
B. Hematocrit level D. Reticulocyte count
55. What causes the hemolytic process in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency following oxidant exposure?
A. Coating of red cells by antibody C. Complement attachment
B. Osmotic pressure changes D. Precipitation of denatured hemoglobin
 4

56. Which of the following is an acquired red cell membrane defect that result in increased sensitivity to complement
binding?
A. March hemoglobinuria C. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria D. Methemoglobinemia
57. An increase in erythropoietin is NOT a normal compensating mechanism in which of the following conditions?
A. Renal tumors C. Cardiovascular disease
B. Heavy smoking D. Pulmonary disease
58. The LAP activity will usually be increased in:
1. Chronic myelogenous leukemia 3. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
2. Third trimester of pregnancy 4. Polycythemia vera
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
59. In differentiating a neutrophilic leukomoid reaction from chronic granulocytic leukemia, which of the following is(are)
helpful:
1. LAP score 3. Chromosome studies
2. Bone marrow cellularity 4. Sudan black stain
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
60. The neutrophil mitotic pool includes:
1. Promyelocytes 3. Myelocytes
2. Myeloblasts 4. Metamyelocytes
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
61. The neutrophil post-mitotic pool includes:
1. Promyelocytes 3. Myelocytes
2. Metamyelocytes 4. Bands
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
62. FAB classification of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) includes:
1. Refractory anemia 3. Refractory anemia with excess blasts
2. Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts 4. Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
63. Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) activity is diagnostic of:
1. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia 3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
2. Hodgkin’s lymphoma 4. Hairy cell leukemia
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
64. The most mature granulocyte precursor that can undergo mitosis is the:
A. Myeloblast C. Myelocyte
B. Promyelocyte D. Metamyelocyte
65. Vasodilation and bronchostriction are the result of dgranulation by which of the following blood cells?
A. Eosinophils C. Neutrophils
B. Monocytes D. Basophils
66. In patients with infectious mononucleosis, which blood cells are infected by the causative agent?
A. Monocytes C. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes D. Histiocytes
67. In which of the following are eosinophils NOT increased?
A. Cushing syndrome C. Skin disorders
B. Allergic disorders D. Parasitic infection
68. A Gaucher cell is best described as a macrophage with:
A. Wrinkled cytoplasm due to an accumulation of glucocerebroside
B. Foamy cytoplasm filled with unmetabolized sphingomyelin
C. Pronounced vacuolization and deposits of cholesterol
D. Abundant cytoplasm containing storage iron and cellular remnants
69. Which of the following is NOT classified as a myeloproliferative disorder?
A. Polycythemia vera C. Multiple myeloma
B. Essential thromcythemia D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
70. In which of the following would an absolute monocytosis NOT seen?
A. Tuberculosis C. Collagen disorders
B. Infectious mononucleosis D. Recovery stage of acute bacterial infection
71. Alder-Reilly anomaly is an abnormality of:
A. Lysosomal fusion C. Oxidative metabolism
B. Nuclear maturation D. Mucopolysaccharide metabolism
72. What is the key diagnostic test for Hodgkin lymphoma?
A. Bone marrow biopsy C. Spinal tap
B. Lymph node biopsy D. Skin biopsy
73. The presence of both immature neutrophils and nucleated erythrocytes in the peripheral blood is most accurately
called:
A. Neutrophilic left shift C. Neutrophilic leukomoid reaction
B. Regenerative left shift D. Leukoerythroblastic reaction
 5

74. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic finding in polycythemia vera?

A. Blood pancytosis C. Increased erythropoietin level
B. Increased red cell mass D. Increased blood viscosity
75. Which of the following can differentiate metamyelocyte from other stages of granulocyte maturation?
A. Presence of specific granules C. Absence of nucleoli
B. Indentation of the nucleus D. Color of cytoplasm
76. What combination of reagents is used to measure hemoglobin?
A. Hydrochloric acid and p-dimethyl-aminobenzaldehyde
B. Potassium ferricyanide and potassium cyanide
C. Sodium bisulfate and sodium metabisulfite
D. Sodium citrate and hydrogen peroxide
77. The slowest moving hemoglobin(s) on an alkaline electrophoresis at pH 8.6 is (are):
A. A C. F
B. A2, C, E and O D. S, D and G
78. If 60 reticulocytes are counted in 1000 red blood cells, what is the reticulocyte count?
A. 0.06% C. 0.6%
B. 6 % D. 60.0 %
79. What is the depth between the counting platform and the coverslip on a hemacytometer?
A. 0.01 mm C. 1.00 mm
B. 0.10 mm D. 0.1 cm
80. Side angle scatter in a laser-based cell counting system is used to measure:
A. Cell size C. Cell number
B. Cytoplasmic granularity D. Immunologic identification
81. To evaluate normal platelet numbers in an appropriate area of a blood smear, approximately how many platelets,
should be observed per oil immersion field?
A. 1 - 4 C. 8 - 20
B. 4 - 10 D. 20 - 50
82. For which of the following procedures would heparin be recommended anticoagulant?
A. Platelet count C. Smear-based red cell morphology
B. Coagulation tests D. Osmotic fragility
83. Falsely elevated hemoglobin values by the cyanmethemoglobin method may be caused by:
1. Lipemia 3. Extremely high WBC count
2. Hemoglobin C 4. Excessive anticoagulant
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
84. Using the automated cell counter, which of the following laboratory results might be expected in the presence of
cold agglutinins?
1. Low RBC count 3. High MCV
2. Low MCH 4. Low MCHC
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
85. Calculate the mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) using the following values:
Hgb: 15 g/dL (150 g/L) RBC: 4.50 x 106/µL (4.50 x 1012)
Hct 47 mL/dL (0.47)
A. 9.5% C. 10.4%
B. 31.9% D. 33.3%
86. A decreased osmotic fragility test would be associated which of the following conditions?
A. Sickle cell anemia C. Hereditary spherocytosis
B. HDN D. Acquired hemolytic anemia
87. Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions can be visualized with supravital stain but cannot be detected on a
Wright’s-stained blood smear?
A. Basophilic stippling C. Heinz bodies
B. Howell-Jolly bodies D. Siderotic granules
88. A Miller disk is an ocular device used to facilitate counting of:
A. Platelets C. Reticulocytes
B. Sickle cells D. Nucleated RBCs
89. SITUATION: RBC indices obtained on a patient are as follows: MCV 88 µm3 (fL); MCH 30 pg; MCHC 34%. The
RBCs on the peripheral smear would appear:
A. Microcytic, hypochromic C. Normocytic, normochromic
B. Microcytic, normochrmic D. Normocytic, hypochromic
90. Select the amino acid substitution that is responsible for sickle cell anemia.
A. Lysine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the alpha chain
B. Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the beta chain
C. Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the alpha chain
D. Glutamine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the beta chain
91. Which morphological classification is characteristic of megaloblastic anemia?
A. Normocytic, normochromic C. Macrocytic, hypochromic
B. Microcytic, normochromic D. Macrocytic, normochromic
92. Sodium fluoride maybe added to naphthyl ASD (NASDA) esterase reaction. The fluoride is added to inhibit a
positive reaction with:
A. Megakaryocytes C. Monocytes
B. Erythrocytes D. Granulocytes
 6

93. What influence does the Philadelphia (Ph1) chromosome have on the prognosis of patients with chronic myelocytic
leukemia?
A. It is not predictive C. The prognosis is worse if Ph1 is present
B. The prognosis is better if Ph1 is present D. The disease usually transforms into AML when Ph1 is
94. Laboratory findings in hereditary spherocytosis do NOT include:
A. Decreased osmotic fragility C. Reticulocytosis
B. Increased autohemolysis corrected by glucose D. Shortened erythrocyte survival
95. The laboratory findings on a patient are as follows:
MCV 55fL MCHC 25% MCH 17 pg
A stained blood film of this patient would most likely reveal a red cell picture that is:
A. Microcytic, hypochromic C. Normocytic, normochromic
B. Macrocytic, hypochromic D. Microcytic, normochromic
96. Which of the following laboratory findings is associated with Factor XIII deficiency?
A. Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time C. Prolonged thrombin time
B. Clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution D. Prolonged prothrombin time
97. Which test would be abnormal in patient with Stuart-Prower factor (factor X) deficiency?
A. PT only C. APTT only
B. PT and APTT D. Thrombin time
98. Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the action of which enzyme?
A. Phospholipase C. Cyclooxygenase
B. Thromboxane A2 synthetase D. Prostacyclin synthetase
99. Which of the following is most likely to be abnormal in patients taking aspirin?
A. Platelet morphology C. Platelet count
B. Bleeding time D. Prothrombin time
100. Which results are associated with Hemophilia A?
A. Prolonged APTT, normal PT C. Prolonged PT, normal APTT
B. Prolonged PT and APTT D. Normal PT and APTT

END OF THE EXAM

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN HEMATOLOGY (PART3)

1. The sequence of erythropoiesis from prenatal life to adulthood is:

a. Yolk sac, red bone marrow, liver and spleen c. Red bone marrow, yolk sac, liver and spleen
b. Yolk sac, liver and spleen, red bone marrow d. Liver and spleen, yolk sac, red bone marrow
2. The correct maturation order of erythrocyte morphologic stages is:
a. Prorubricyte, rubricyte, rubriblast, metarubricyte c. Rubriblast, prorubricyte, rubricyte, metarubricyte
b. Rubriblast, metarubricyte, rubricyte, prorubricyte d. Rubriblast, rubricyte, prorubricyte, metarubricyte
3. Compared to a rubricyte, a metarubricyte looks different because of its:
a. Dark blue cytoplasm b. Larger size c. Pyknotic nucleus d. Nucleoli
4. Primary granules in the neutrophil appear at which stage:
a. Myeloblast b. Promyelocyte c. Myelocyte d. Metamyelocyte
5. Specific (secondary) granules of the neutrophilic granulocyte:
a. appear first at the myelocyte stage c. are formed on the mitochondria
b. contain lysosomal enzymes d. are derived from azurophil (primary) granules
6. The earliest stage in the myeloid series at which it is possible to classify a given cell:
a. Myeloblast b. Promyelocyte c. Myelocyte d. Metamyelocyte
7. The last cell in the granulocytic series capable of mitosis is the:
a. Myeloblast b. Myelocyte c. Promyelocyte d. Metamyelocyte
8. In the neutrophil series of leukocyte development, the earliest stage to normally appear in the peripheral blood
is the:
a. Myeloblast b. Promyelocyte c. Myelocyte d. Band
9. Which of the following is characteristic of cellular changes as megakaryoblasts mature into megakaryocytes
within the bone marrow?
a. progressive decrease in overall cell size c. nuclear division without cytoplasmic division
b. increasing basophilia of cytoplasm d. fusion of the nuclear lobes
10. The type of nuclear reproduction seen in megakaryocytes is:
a. Polyploid mitosis b. Endomitosis c. Meiosis d. Binary fission
11. These pairs of chains make up the majority of hemoglobin in normal adults:
a. α2 β2 b. α2 γ2 c. α2 δ2 d. ζ2 λ2
12. With respect to globin chain genes, which of the following statements is correct?
a. The genes for the alpha globin chains are located on chromosome 16 and the genes for the gamma, delta
and beta chains are located on chromosome 11
b. The genes for the gamma, delta and beta globin chains are located on chromosome 16 and the genes for
the alpha chains are located on chromosome 11
c. The genes for the alpha globin chains are located on chromosome 10 and the genes for the gamma, delta
and beta chains are located on chromosome 15
d. The genes for the alpha and delta globin chains are located on chromosome 11 and the genes for the
gamma and beta chains are located on chromosome 16
13. Most of the erythrocyte’s energy comes from the:
a. Embden-Meyerhof pathway c. Hexose monophosphate shunt
b. Rapoport-Leubering pathway d. Methemoglobin pathway
14. This metabolic pathway facilitates the oxygen release from hemoglobin to tissues:
a. Embden-Meyerhof pathway c. Hexose monophosphate shunt
b. Rapoport-Leubering pathway d. Methemoglobin pathway
15. A shift to the right in the ODC occurs when there is a(an):
a. Increase in O2 b. Increase in CO2 c. Increase in pH d. Decrease in CO2
16. The substance that is present in the urine in increased amounts if extravascular hemolysis is increased but
there is no intravascular hemolysis:
a. Methemoglobin b. Urobilinogen c. Hemoglobin d. Hemosiderin
17. Hemolytic anemia is not indicated by a(an):
a. Positive urine hemosiderin c. Positive fecal occult blood
b. Increased in plasm unconjuagted bilirubin d. Decreased serum haptoglobin
18. The following are compounds formed in the synthesis of heme:
1. coproporphyrinogen 3. uroporphyrinogen
2. porphobilinogen 4. protoporphyrinogen
Which of the following responses lists these compounds in the order in which they are formed?
a. 4,3,1,2 b. 2,3,1,4 c. 2,4,3,1 d. 2,1,3,4
19. Asynchronous development of hematopoietic cells within the bone marrow is the result of:
a. Inadequate levels of RNA c. Defective stem cells
b. Decreased erythropoietin d. Impaired DNA synthesis
20. Megaloblastic anemia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Decreased WBC and retics c. Oval macrocytes
b. Hypersegmented neutrophils d. Increased platelets
21. Bite cells are associated with:
a. Pyruvate kinase deficiency b.PNH c. G6PD d. H. pyropoikiloctosis
22. What disorder is associated with erythrocytes that are thermally unstable and fragment when heated to 45o to
46oC?
a. Hereditary spherocytosis c. PNH
b. Hereditary elliptocytosis d. Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis
 2

23. Many microspherocytes and schistocytes and budding off of spherocytes can be seen on peripheral blood
smears of patients with:
a. hereditary spherocytosis c. acquired autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) d. extensive burns
24. Which of the following is most likely to be seen in lead poisoning?
a. iron overload in tissue b. codocytes c. basophilic stippling d. ringed sideroblasts
25. What cell shape is MOST commonly associated with an increased MCHC?
a. teardrop cells b. target cells c spherocytes d. sickle cells
26. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by:
a. Target cells and Cabot rings c. Pappenheimer bodies and basophilic stipplings
b. Toxic granules and Dohle bodies d. Schistocytes and nucleated RBCs
27. In myelofibrosis, the characteristic abnormal red cell morphology is:
a. Target cells b. Schistocytes c. Teardrop cells d. Ovalocytes
28. An enzyme deficiency associated with a moderate to severe hemolytic anemia after the patient is exposed to
certain drugs and that is characterized by red cell inclusions formed by denatured hemoglobin is:
a. lactate dehydrogenase deficiency c. pyruvate kinase deficiency
b. G-6-PD deficiency d. hexokinase deficiency
29. A 15-year-old girl is taking primaquine for a parasitic infection and notices her urine is a brownish color. A CBC
shows mild anemia. The laboratorian performing the reticulocyte count notices numerous irregular shaped
granules near the periphery of the RBC. These cellular inclusions are most likely:
a. Howell-Jolly bodies b. basophilic stippling c. Heinz bodies d. Pappenheimer bodies
30. What primary defect does the amino acid substitution in the -chain of Hb S have on the hemoglobin molecule?
a. Increases its oxygen affinity c. Decreases its solubility
b. Alters its stability d. Increases its solubility
31. Which of the following hemoglobin electrophoresis results is most typical of sickle cell trait?
a. 85% HbS and 15% HbA c. 45% HbS and 55% HbA
b. 85% HbF and 15% HbS d. 55% HbF and 45% HbS
32. What is the pathophysiology of β-thalassemia?
a. Decreased synthesis of α- chains c. Synthesis of structurally abnormal β-chains
b. Decreased synthesis of β-chains d. Abnormal heme synthesis
33. Iron deficiency anemia may be distinguished from anemia of chronic infection by:
a. Serum iron level b. Red cell morphology c. Red cell indices d TIBC
34. Which antibiotic is most often implicated in the development of aplastic anemia?
a. Sulfonamides b. Chloramphenicol c. Teracycline d. Penicillin
35. Which of the following is a pure red cell aplasia?
a. Bernard-Soulier syndrome c. Diamond-Blackfan anemia
b. DiGuglielmo’s disease d. Fanconi’s anemia
36. Spherocytes may be seen in the peripheral blood of patients with:
a. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia c. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Vitamin B12 deficiency d. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
37. In a jaundiced 16-year-old, laboratory studies indicate that the MCHC is increased, the Coombs' test is
negative, and osmotic fragility of the red cells is increased. Erythrocytes on a peripheral smear are most likely
to be:
a. Acanthocytes b. Spherocytes c. Teardrop cells d. Target cells
38. Which of these hemoglobin derivatives cannot be reduced back to normal hemoglobin?
a. Methemoglobin b. Oxyhemoglbin c. Sulfhemoglobin d. Carboxyhemoglobin
39. Which of the following is associated with Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
a. membrane defect of lysosomes c. two-lobed neutrophils
b. Dohle bodies and giant platelets d. mucopolysaccharidosis
40. Which of the following is associated with Alder-Reilly inclusions?
a. membrane defect of lysosomes c. two-lobed neutrophils
b. Dohle bodies and giant platelets d. mucopolysaccharidosis
41. A differential was performed on an asymptomatic patient. The differential included 60% neutrophils: 55 of
which had 2 lobes and 5 had 3 lobes. There were no other abnormalities. This is consistent with which of the
following anomalies?
a. Pelger-Huet b. May-Hegglin c. Alder-Reilly d. Chediak-Higashi
42. Of the following, the disease most closely associated with pale blue inclusions in granulocytes and giant
platelets is:
a. Gaucher’s disease b. May-Hegglin anomaly c. Alder-Reilly anomaly d. Pelger-Huet anomaly
43. Of the following, the disease most closely associated with glucocerebrosidase deficiency is:
a. Gaucher’s disease b. Pelger-Huet anomaly c. Chediak-Higashi syndrome d. May-Hegglin anomaly
44. Bone marrow slide shows foam cells ranging from 20 to 100 m in size with vacuolated cytoplasm containing
sphingomyelin and is faintly PAS positive. This cell type is most characteristic of:
a. Gaucher’s disease b. Di Guglielmo disease c. myeloma with Russell bodies d. Niemann-Pick disease
45. In the French-American-Bristish (FAB) classification, myelomonocytic leukemia would be:
a. M1 and M2 b. M3 c. M4 d. M5
46. DIC is most often associated with which of the following FAB designation of acute leukemia?
a. M1 b. M3 c. M4 d. M5
47. Auer rods are most likely present in which of the following?
a. chronic granulocytic leukemia c. erythroleukemia
b. myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia d. acute granulocytic leukemia
 3

48. Which of the following stains is helpful in the diagnosis of suspected erythroleukemia?
a. peroxidase b. periodic acid-Schiff c. nonspecific esterase d. acid phosphatase
49. The FAB classification of ALL seen most commonly in children is:
a.L1 b. L2 c. L3 d. Burkitt’s type
50. A 50-year-old woman who has been receiving busulfan for 3 years for chronic myelogenous leukemia becomes
anemic. Laboratory tests reveal:
Thrombocytopenia
Many peroxidase-negative blast cells in the peripheral blood
Bone marrow hypercellular in blast transformation
Markedly increased bone marrow TdT
Which of the following complications is this patient most likely to have?
a. acute lymphocytic leukemia c. acute myelomonocytic leukemia
b. acute myelocytic leukemia d. busulfan toxicity
51. A peripheral smear shows 75% blasts. These stain positive for SBB and peroxidase. Given these values, which
of the following disorders is most likely?
a. AML b. CML c. Undiff.leukemia d. ALL
52. A peripheral blood smear demonstrating an absolute increase in small “hypermature” lymphocytes and
“smudge” cells would be suggestive of:
a. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia c. Leukomoid reaction
b. Acute lymphocytic leukemia d. Infectious mononucleosis
53. Chromosome analysis revealed the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome. Based on this information, what
myeloproliferative disorder is present?
a. CML b. PV c. ET d. MMM
54. The absence of the Philadelphia chromosome in granulocytic leukemia suggests:
a. Rapid progression of the disease c. Excellent response to therapy
b. Polyclonal origin to the disease d. Conversion to another myeloproloferative disorder
55. Which of the following tests can be useful in differentiating leukemoid reactions from chronic granulocytic
leukemias?
a. peroxidase stain b. surface membrane markers c. Sudan black B stain d. LAP
56. The following results were obtained on a leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain:
Score 4+ 3+ 2+ 1+ 0
No. of cells counted 40 30 20 5 5
These reactions are most consistent with:
a. leukemoid reaction c. chronic granulocytic leukemia
b. nephrotic syndrome d. progressive muscular dystrophy
57. The esterase cytochemical stains are useful to differentiate:
a. Granulocytic from monocytic leukemias
b. Lymphocytic leukemias from myelocytic leukemias
c. Monocytic leukemias from megakaryocytic leukemias
d. Lymphocytic leukemias from monocytic leukemias
58. The FAB classification of a leukemia with large blasts that are myeloperoxidase and specific esterase negative
but have strong Positivity for nonspecific esterase inhibited by sodium fluoride is:
a. M1 b. M4 c. M5 d. M7
59. Which of the following cells are most likely identified in lesions of mycosis fungoides?
a. T lymphocytes b. B lymphocytes c. monocytes d. mast cells
60. The atypical lymphocyte seen in the peripheral smear of patients with infectious mononucleosis is reacting to
which of the following?
a. T lymphocytes b. B lymphocytes c. monocytes d. mast cells
61. Which of the following cells are the atypical lymphocytes seen on the peripheral blood smear of patients with
infectious mononucleosis?
a. T lymphocytes b. B lymphocytes c. monocytes d. mast cells
62. The results of a bone marrow differential are: 40% neutrophils and precursors; 20% lymphocytes, 20%
monocytes, and 20% red cell precursors. The M;E ratio for this patient is:
a. 1:2 b. 2:1 c. 3:1 d. 4:1
63. When Reed-Sternberg cells are found in a lymph node biopsy, they are indicative of:
a. Hodgkin disease c. Sezary syndrome
b. Intermediate-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma d. High-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma
64. The antigen referred to as CALLA, the common ALL antigen is:
a. CD 10 b. CD 16 c. CD 56 d. CD 73
65. Normal platelets have a circulating life span of approximately:
a. 5 days b. 10 days c. 20 days d. 30 days
66. Platelet dense granules contain:
1. Calcium 2. Storage ADP 3. Serotonin 4. Plt factor 4
a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
67. The type of microscopy recommended for a manual platelet count is:
a. Fluorescence b. Phase c. Brightfiled d. Oil immersion
68. Which of the following is characteristic of Bernard-Soulier syndrome?
a. giant platelets c. abnormal aggregation with ADP
b. normal bleeding time d. increased platelet count
 4

69. The enzyme inhibited by aspirin is:

a. Thromboxane synthetase c. Lactate dehydrogenase
b. Cyclooxygenase d. Phospholipase
70. A patient has been taking aspirin regularly for arthritic pain. Which one of the following tests is most likely to be
abnormal in this patient?
a. platelet count c. prothrombin time
b. template bleeding time d. activated partial thromboplastin time
71. Platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex is:
a. Membrane receptor for fibrinogen c. secreted by endothelial cells
b. Secreted from the dense bodies d. Also called actin
72. Which set of platelet responses would be most likely be associated with Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia?
a. Normal platelet aggregation response to ADP and ristocetin; decreased response to collagen
b. Normal platelet aggregation response to collagen; decreased response to ADP and collagen
c. Normal platelet aggregation response to ristocetin; decreased response to collagen, ADP and epinephrine
d. Normal platelet aggregation response to ADP; decreased response to collagen and ristocetin
73. Platelet aggregation studies revealed normal aggregation curves with collagen, epinephrine, and ADP, but an
abnormal aggregation curve with ristocetin. Based on these findings, what is the differential diagnosis?
a. Von Willebrand disease and Bernard-Soulier syndrome
b. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia and von Willebrand disease
c. Storage pool disease and Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
d. Bernard-Soulier syndrome and storage pool disease
74. The preferred blood product for a bleeding patient with von Willebrand’s disease is transfusion with:
a. Factor II, VII, IX, X concentrates c. Fresh Frozen Plasma and Platelets
b. Platelet Concentrates d. Cryoprecipitated AHF
75. Which of the following is vitamin K dependent?
a. Factor XII b. fibrinogen c. antithrombin III d. Factor VII
76. Last factor to be depressed n vitamin K deficiency:
a. Factor II b. Factor VII c. Factor X d. Factor IX
77. Coagulation factors affected by coumarin drugs are:
a. VIII, IX , and X b. I, II, V, and VII c. II, VII, IX, and X d. II, V, and VII
78. Which of the following factors is not present in BaSO4 adsorbed plasma?
a. VIII b. II c. XII d. V
79. Which of the following is NOT a contact factor?
a. Prekallikrein b. Stable factor c. HMWK d. Hageman factor
80. The most concentrated coagulation factor in the blood is:
a. XII b. IX c. X d. Fibrinogen
81. Which of the following factor deficiencies is associated with either no bleeding or only a minor bleeding
tendency, even after trauma or surgery?
a. Factor X b. Factor XII c. Factor XIII d. Factor V
82. Classic hemophilia is condition in which there may be a:
a. Prolonged BT b. Decreased platelets c. Prolonged PT d. Prolonged APTT
83. Increased APTT with a normal PT would indicate a deficiency of:
a. Factor II b. Factor VII c. Factor IX d. Factor X
84. PTT measures all factors except for:
a. I and V b. VIII and IX c. V and VIII d. VII and XIII
85. The international normalized ratio (INR) is useful for:
a. Determining coagulation reference ranges c. Monitoring thrombolytic therapy
b. Monitoring heparin therapy d. Monitoring warfarin therapy
86. The following results are obtained:
PT Normal
APTT Prolonged
Absorbed plasma Corrects APTT
The factor deficiency is:
a. VIII b. IX c. X d. V
87. Which of the following laboratory findings is associated with Factor XIII deficiency?
a. prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time c. prolonged thrombin time
b. clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution d. prolonged prothrombin time
88. In factor X deficiency, a prolonged PT or APTT is corrected by the addition of:
1. Aged plasma 2. Aged serum 3. Fresh serum 4. Adsorbed plasma
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
89. A 56-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital with a history of a moderate to severe bleeding tendency of
a several years’ duration. Epistaxis and menorrhagia were reported. Prolonged APTT was corrected with fresh
normal plasma, adsorbed plasma, and aged serum. Deficiency of which of the following is most likely?
a. Factor XII b. Factor VIII c. Factor XI d. Factor IX
90. A patient has a history of mild hemorrhagic episodes. Laboratory resutls include a prolonged prothrombin time
and activated partial thromboplastin time. The abnormal prothrombin time was corrected by normal and
adsorbed plasma, but not aged serum. Which of the following coagulation factors is deficient?
a. prothrombin b. Factor V c. Factor X d. Factor VII
91. A prolonged Stypven (Russell viper venom) time is associated with deficiency of the following factors EXCEPT:
a. Factor I b. Factor II c. Factor X d. Factor VII
 5

92. The observation of a normal reptilase time and a prolonged thrombin time is indicative of:
a. Presence of fibrin degradation products c. Dysfibrinogenemia
b. Hypoplasminogenemia d. Presence of heparin
93. When making a blood film using the spreader slide technique, a thinner film can be obtained by:
a. Increasing the angle of the spreader slide c. Spreading the blood at lower speed
b. Using a larger drop of blood d. All of the above
94. A false increase in ESR value can be caused by:
a. Cold room temperatures c. Reading ESR after exactly 30 minutes
b. Slight tilting of the ESR tube rack d. Overanticoagulation of the blood specimen
95. Which of the following statements concerning reticulocyte count is/are true?
1. The adult reference range is approximately 0.5 to 5.0%
2. Newborns have a higher reference range than adults
3. The material that stains in reticulocytes is DNA
4. The Miller disk is a device used to aid in reticulocyte counting
a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 4 only
96. In an automated instrument, which parameter is calculated rather than directly measured:
a. Hematocrit b. RBC count c. WBC count d. Hemoglobin
97. The cyanmethemoglobin method measures:
a. All hemoglobin pigments c. All hemoglobin pigments except sulfhemoglobin
b. Only oxyhemoglobin d. Only methemoglobin
98. Two hemoglobins that migrate together on cellulose acetate electrophoresis at an alkaline pH are:
a. A1 and A2 b. A1 and E c. S and C d. S and D
99. A decreased result in the osmotic fragility test would be associated with which of the following conditions?
a. Sickle cell anemia b. H. spherocytosis c. HDN d. AIHA
100. A patient has the following results: erythrocyte count, 2.5 x 1012/L, hemoglobin 5.3 g/dL; hematocrit 0.17
L/L; reticulocyte count, 1%. What are the erythrocyte indices in the above patient?
a. MCV 47 MCH 28 MCHC 31 c. MCV 80 MCH 21 MCHC 41
b. MCV 68 MCH 21 MCHC 31 d. MCV 80 MCH 28 MCHC 41

END OF THE EXAM

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY AND BLOOD BANKING (PART 1)

1. Metchnikoff first described which of the following?

A. Phagocytosis B. Variolation C. Humoral immunity D. Opsonization
2. Jenner’s work with cowpox, which provided immunity against smallpox, demonstrates which phenomenon?
A. Natural Immunity B. Cross-immunity C. Attenuation of vaccines D. Reactivity of haptens
3. Chronic granulomatous disease represents a defect of:
A. Oxidative metabolism C. Diapedesis
B. Abnormal granulation of neutrophils D. Chemotaxis
4. The major role of neutrophils is phagocytosis. Which one of the following events is not associated with some aspect of
neutrophil function?
A. Recognition of antigen via primitive pattern receptor patterns
B. Recognition of opsonins on bacteria
C. Secretion of perforin
D. Activation of the NADPH oxidase
5. Which one of the following cells destroys tumor cells using ADCC as a recognition mode, and perforin as an effector
molecule?
A. B cells B. CD4+ cells B. CD8+ cells D. NK cells
6. Which of the following is a potent mediator in acute-phase response?
A. IL-1 B. IL-2 C. IL-3 D. IL-4
7. Which of the following enhances the cytolytic activity of lymphokine-activated killer cells (LAK)?
A. IL-1 B. IL-2 C. IL-3 D. IL-4
8. Which of the following stimulates hematopoietic cells?
A. IL-1 B. IL-2 C. IL-3 D. IL-4
9. Which one of the following cells recognizes a cell surface complex consisting of antigenic peptide complexed with an
MHC protein?
A. Phagocytes B. Eosinophils C. T cells D. B cells
10. Which one of the following activates both T and B cells?
A. PHA B. Con A C. LPS D. PWM
11. The type of immunity that follows the injection of an antigen is:
A. Adaptive B. Active C. Passive D. Innate
12. Which of the following is true of MHC (HLA) class II antigens?
A. They are found on all nucleated cells C. They all originate at one locus
B. They are found on B cells and macrophages D. They are coded on chromosome 9
13. Bence-Jones proteins are identical:
A. H chains B. L chains C. IgM molecules D. IgG molecules
14. Mannose-binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical component pathway component?
A. C3 B. C1rs C. C1q D. C4
15. In the complement fixation procedure, a negative result is manifested by:
A. Antigen-binding C. Lysis of sheep red blood cells
B. Lysis of guinea pig cells D. Agglutination of sheep red blood cells
16. A positive direct Coomb’s test could occur under which circumstances?
A. Hemolytic disease of the newborn C. Antibodies to drug that bind to red cells
B. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia D. Any of the above
17. Which one of the following antibody isotypes is captured by Protein A?
A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgD
18. To determine id a patient is allergic to rye grass, the best test to perform is:
A. RAST B. RIST C. DAT D. Complement fixation
19. What is the immune phenomenon associated with Arthus reaction?
A. Tissue destruction by cytotoxic T cells
B. Removal of antibody-coated red blood cells
C. Deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels
D. Release of histamine from mast cells
20. The Mantoux test is an example of:
A. Type I hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity
21. Anaphylaxis as a result of bee sting is an example of:
A. Type I hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity
22. What immune elements are involved in a reaction to poison ivy?
A. IgE antibodies B. T cells and macrophages C. NK cells and IgG D. B cells and IgM
23. What antibodies are represented by the peripheral or rim pattern of IF tests for ANA?
A. Anti-histone antibodies C. Anti-ENA antibodies
B. Anti-dsDNA antibodies D. Anti-RNA antibodies
24. Destruction of the myelin sheath of axons caused by the presence of antibody is characteristic of which disease?
A. Multiple sclerosis C. Graves’ disease
B. Myasthenia gravis D. Goodpasture’s syndrome
25. It is suggestive of Goodpasture’s disease:
A. Acetylcholine receptor-blocking antibodies C. Anti-DNA antibodies
B. Anti-cardiolipin antibodies D. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies
26. It is strongly suggestive, in a high titer, of primary biliary cirrhosis:
A. Anti-myelin antibody C. Anti-centromere antibody
B. Anti-intrinsic factor antibody D. Anti-mitochondrial antintibody
 2

27. A defect in C1INH results in which one of the following disorders?

A. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia C. Chronic granulomatous disease
B. Selective IgA deficiency D. Hereditary angioneurotic edema
28. Individuals who are at risk for ankylosing spondylitis have inherited which one of the following alleles?
A. HLA-A3 B. HLA-B8 C. HLA-B27 D. HLA-B7
29. Individuals who are at risk for rheumatoid arthritis have inherited which one of the following alleles?
A. HLA-A3 B. HLA-B27 C. HLA-B7 D. HLA-DR4
30. A kidney transplantation between one identical twin to another is an example of:
A. An allograft B. An autograft C. A heterograft D. A syngeneic graft
31. CA-15.3 is used conditionally in the monitoring of:
A. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma C. Breast adenocarcinoma
B. Colonic adenocarcinoma D. Hairy cell leukemia
32. A biological false-positive reaction is least likely with which test for syphilis?
A. VDRL C. RPR
B. FTA-ABS D. All are equally likely to detect a false positive
33. A 24-year-old man who had just recovered from infectious mononucleosis had evidence of a genital lesion. His RPR
was positive. What should the technologist do next?
A. Report out as false positive
B. Do a confirmatory treponemal test
C. Do a VDRL
D. Have the patient return in 2 weeks for a repeat test
34. The serologic marker during the “window period” of hepatitis B is:
A. Anti-HBs B. Anti-HBc C. Anti-HBe D. HBsAg
35. The specific diagnostic test for hepatitis C is:
A. Absence of anti-HAV and anti-HBs C. Detection of non-A, non-B antibodies
B. An increase in serum ALT D. Anti-HCV
36. Antibodies to which of the following retroviral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection?
A. gp120 B. gp160 C. gp41 D. p24
37. Which of the following combinations of bands would represent a positive Western blot for HIV antibody?
A. p24 and p55 B. p24 and p31 C. gp41 and gp120 D. p31 and p55
38. The confirmation of a heterophile antibody of infectious mononucleosis would be:
A. Agglutination with beef erthrocytes
B. Agglutination of sheep cells after incubation with guinea pig cells; no agglutination of sheep cells after
incubation with beef erythrocytes
C. Agglutination of sheep cells after incubation with beef erythrocytes; no agglutination of sheep cells after
incubation with guinea pig cells
D. Agglutination with guinea pig cells
39. Which of the following identifies the pattern of antibody cross-reactivity that is generated during infection with R.
rickettsii?
A. P. vulgaris OX-19 (+), P. vulgaris OX-2 (+), P. mirabilis OX-K (-)
B. P. vulgaris OX-19 (-), P. vulgaris OX-2 (+), P. mirabilis OX-K (-)
C. P. vulgaris OX-19 (-), P. vulgaris OX-2 (+), P. mirabilis OX-K (+)
D. P. vulgaris OX-19 (-), P. vulgaris OX-2 (-), P. mirabilis OX-K (+)
40. The least immunogenic transplant tissue:
A. Bone marrow B. Cornea C. Heart D. Skin
41. Streptococcus MG agglutinins occur in normal serum at low titers (1:10). A titer of 400 or greater is considered to be
suggestive of:
A. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria C. Lupus erythematosus
B. Primary atypical pneumonia D. Rheumatoid arthritis
42. The most common cause of congenital infections in humans, affecting 0.5 to 2.4% live births:
A. Cytomagelovirus B. Rubella C. Toxoplasmosis D. Hepatitis
43. Which one of the following tests measures the production of parasitic lactate dehydrogenase?
A. RIDASCREEN Entamoeba D. OptiMal Malaria test
B. ProSpect Entamoeba histolytica E. Bordier Immunoassay for E. granulosus
C. MalaQuick Standby Malaria test
44. Hybridoma is produced from the fusion of:
A. Natural killer cell and plasma cell C. Myeloma cell and plasma cell
B. T cell and plasma cell D. Myeloma cell and T cell
45. Sensitivity:
A. The detection of specific antibody in the serum of an individual in whom the antibody was previously
undetectable
B. The frequency of positive results obtained in the testing of a population of individuals who are truly positive for
antibody
C. The proportion of negative test results obtained in the population of individuals who actually lack the antibody in
question
D. The time of recovery from conditions such as illness, injury or surgery
46. Which of the following conditions can result in rouleaux formation or pseudoagglutination:
1. Elevated levels of globulin 3. Presence of plasma expanders
2. Elevated levels of fibrinogen 4. Presence of Wharton’ s jelly
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 3

47. Determine what incompatibility is demonstrated:

Group A (donor) with group O (patient):
A. Incompatible in minor crossmatch C. Both of these
B. Incompatible in major crossmatch D. None of these
48. Inheritance of Sese and the Lewis gene produces the following phenotype:
A. Le (a+b-) B. Le (a+b+) C. Le (a-b+) D. Le (a-b-)
49. Which Duffy phenotype offers the greatest resistance to invasion by malarial parasites?
A. Fy (a+b-) B. Fy (a+b+) C. Fy (a-b+) D. Fy (a-b-)
50. A previously named HLA that is not uncommonly detected on erythrocytes is:
A. Dia B. Sda C. Bga D. Coa
51. A low-incidence antigen that serves as a useful anthropologic marker for Mongolian ancestry:
A. Xga B. Doa C. Dia D. Yta
52. Mutations in the carrier molecule for this blood group system may result in changes of reb blood cell shape in the
forms of acanthocytosis or ovalocytosis?
A. DI B. DO C. CO D. SC
53. Antigen is found on the petite arm of the X chromosome and is noted with higher frequency in females than in males.
A. Xga B. Doa C. Dia D. Yta
54. Rh immune globulin provides ____ protection against fetal D antigen.
A. Active B. Passive C. Antigen-stimulated D. Antibody-stimulated
55. If an Rh negative woman recently delivered an Rh positive baby and the Kleihauer-Betke test result is 5%, how many
vials of Rh Ig should be administered?
A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9
56. If a prospective allogeneic donor has received blood or blood components known to be sources of hepatitis (e.g.,
surgery), the donor should be deferred from donating for _____ after the transfusion.
A. 6 weeks B. 3 months C. 6 months D. 12 months
57. Minimum number of platelets in a platelet concentrate prepared from whole blood by centrifugation:
A. 5.5 x 1011 B. 3.0 x 10 10 C. 3.0 x 1011 D. 5.5 x 1010
58. Additive solutions are approved for blood storage for how many days?
A. 21 days B. 42 days C. 35 days D. 7 days
59. Graft-versus-host disease is caused by:
A. Granulocytes B. Platelets C. Lymphocytes D. Erythrocytes
60. The radiation source for irradiation of blood products is:
A. 131I B. 137Ce C. 14C D. 131Te
61. Once defrosted, cryoprecipitate must be administered within _____ hours of thawing.
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 12
62. Perfluorocarbons have been investigated as:
A. Platelet substitutes C. Red blood cell substitutes
B. Granulocyte substitutes D. Plasma substitutes
63. Allogeneic donor blood collected and processes from outside sources must have the following tests repeated by the
hospital blood bank:
1. ABO 2. Rh 3. HBsAg 4. Anti-HIV1
A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. All
64. The minimum hemoglobin concentration in g/dL in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:
A. 12.0 B. 13.5 C. 12.5 D. 15.0
65. The required hemoglobin and hematocrit for autologous donation should be at least:
A. 11 g/dL hgb, 33% hct C. 12.5 g/dL hgb, 33% hct
B. 11 g/dL hgb, 38% hct D. 12.5 g/dL hct, 38% hct
66. Autologous blood donor units must be tested for:
1. ABO 2. Rh 3. HBsAg 4. Anti-HIV1
A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. All
67. Samples of recipient’s blood and donor units must be stored for _____ days after transfusion.
A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7
68. A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body temperature of _____ occurring in association with the
transfusion of blood or components and without any other explanation.
A. 1 oC or more B. 1 oF or more C. 5 oC or more D. 5 oF or more
69. Blood component most frequently associated with transfusion reaction due to bacterial contamination:
A. Red cells C. Cryoprecipitate
B. Fresh frozen plasma D. Platelet concentrate
70. The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis is:
A. Whole blood B. Platelet concentrates C. Packed red cells D. Leukocytes conc.
71. Of the deaths caused by bacterial contamination of blood components reported to Centers for Disease Control (CDC),
most are caused by blood components contaminated by:
A. Escherichia coli C. Yersinia enterocolitica
B. Pseudomonas species D. None of these
72. Polyspecific AHG reagent contains:
A. Anti-IgG B. Anti-IgG and anti-IgM C. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d D. Anti-C3d
73. A positive DAT may be found in which of the following situations?
A. A weak-D positive patient C. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
B. A patient with anti-K D. An incompatible crossmatch
74. Each unit of whole blood will yield approximately how many units of cryoprecipitated AHF?
A. 40 B. 130 C. 80 D. 250
 4

75. According to AABB standards, 75% of all platelets, pheresis units shall contain how many platelets per uL?
A. 5.5 x 1010 B. 3.0 x 1011 C. 6.5 x 1010 D. 5.5 x 1011
76. Which of the following blood components is the best source of factor IX?
A. Prothrombin complex C. Fresh frozen plasma
B. Cryoprecipitated AHF D. Single-donor plasma
77. Hives and itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
A. Febrile B. Circulatory overload C. Allergic D. Anaphylactic
78. Cold agglutinin syndrome is best associated with which of the following blood groups?
A. Duffy B. Ii C. P D. Rh
79. Rejuvenation of a unit of red blood cells is a method used to:
A. Remove antibody attached to rbc C. Restore 2,3 DPG and ATP to normal levels
B. Inactivate viruses and bacteria D. Filter blood clots and other debris
80. According to AABB standards, what is the minimum pH required for platelets?
A. 4 B. 6 C. 5 D. 7
81. Which of the following transfusion reactions occurs after infusion of only a few milliliters of blood and gives no history
of fever?
A. Febrile B. Anaphylactic C. Circulatory overload D. Hemolytic
82. Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following treatment of the
red cells with proteolytic enzymes?
A. Fya B. S C. E D. M
83. A lectin with anti-N specificity can be made from:
A. Bandeirae simplicifolia C. Iberis amara
B. Dolichos biflorus D. Vicia graminea
84. Which of the following would be the component of choice for treatment of von Willebrand’s disease?
A. Platelets C. Cryoprecipitated AHF
B. Factor IX concentrate D. Fresh frozen plasma
85. If the seal is entered on a unit of whole blood stored at 1-6 oC, what is the maximum allowable storage period, in
hours?
A. 6 B. 48 C. 24 D. 72
86. The drug cephalosporin can cause a positive direct antiglobulin test by which of the following mechanisms?
A. Immune-complex formation C. Autoantibody production
B. Complement fixation D. Membrane modification
87. Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-I?
A. Often associated with HDN C. Reacts best at 37 oC
B. Frequently a cold agglutinin D. Is usually IgG
88. The mechanism that best explains hemolytic anemia due to penicillin is:
A. Drug adsorption C. Immune complex formation
B. Membrane modification D. Autoantibody production
89. Posttransfusion anaphylactic reactions occur often in patients with:
A. Leukocyte antibodies C. IgA deficiency
B. Erythrocyte antibodies D. Factor VIII deficiency
90. Hydroxyethyl starch (HES) is a rouleaux-promoting agent used to:
A. Increase the harvest of granulocytes in leukapheresis
B. Treat patients following hemolytic transfusion reaction
C. Resolve ABO typing discrepancies
D. Stabilize the pH of stored platelets
91. Which of the following is the proper storage temperature requirements for granulocytes?
A. 1 to 6 oC C. Room temperature with constant agitation
B. 10 to 18 oC D. Room temperature without agitation
92. Which of the following best reflects the discrepancy seen when a person’s red cells demonstrated the acquired-B
phenotype?
Forward Grouping Reverse Grouping
A. B O
B. AB A
C. O B
D. B AB
93. The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as:
A. Diffusion B. Lyophilization C. Absorption D. Elution
94. To validate the reaction obtained in the antiglobulin test, one can:
A. Use green antiglobulin reagent
B. Add IgG-coated red cells to each test tube
C. Add IgG-coated red cells to each positive reaction
D. Add IgG-coated red cells to each negative reaction
95. This type of transfusion reaction may occur in IgA-deficient patients who demonstrate potent IgG anti-IgA and who are
exposed to IgA containing plasma products:
A. Anaphylactic B. Circulatory overload C. Allergic D. Hemolytic
96. An iron chelating agent which is important in lowering the body iron stores of patients with thalassemia:
A. Deferroxamine B. Desmopressin C. Steroids D. Aspirin
97. For autologous blood donation, blood should not be drawn from the donor-patient within _____ hours of the time of
the anticipated operation or transfusion.
A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 48 hours D. 72 hours
 5

98. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is often associated with antibodies in which system?
A. MNS B. P C. Lewis D. Rh
99. Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor (AHF) is not recommended for the treatment of:
A. Hemophilia A B. Hemophilia B C. vWD D. Hypofibrinogenemia
100. Which of the following is usually employed to start an IV liner prior to blood transfusion?
1. Normal (0.9%) saline 3. 5% Dextrose in water (D5W)
2. Ringer’s lactate 4. Distilled water
A. 1 only C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

END OF THE EXAM

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY AND BLOOD BANKING (PART 2)

1. Macrophages have specific names according to their tissue location. Macrophages in the liver are:
A. Alveolar macrophages C. Microglial cells
B. Kupffer cells D. Histiocytes
2. In which area of the lymph node are T cells mainly found:
A. Germinal center C. Paracortex
B. Primary follicles D. Sinusoids
3. Lymphocyte mitogen that acts on both B cell and T cell
A. E. coli endotoxin C. Concanavalin A (ConA)
B. Lipopolysaccharides D. Pokeweed mitogen (PWM)
4. Antigen given intravenously are mainly trapped in the:
A. Lung C. Spleen
B. Lymph node D. Tonsils
5. Nitroblue tetrazolium test is of value in the diagnosis of:
A. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia C. Kahler’s disease
B. Franklin’s disease D. Chronic granulomatous disease
6. Variations in variable regions that give individual antibody molecules specificity:
A. Isotype C. Allotype
B. Idiotype D. All of these
7. The hinge region of an immunoglobulin is flexible because it contains a large amount of which amino acid?
A. Serine C. Threonine
B. Cystine D. Proline
8. Secretory IgA contains:
1. Four light chains 3. Secretory component
2. Four heavy chains 4. One J chain
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Complement component C3 is cleaved by:
A. C3b C. C3bBb
B. Factor B D. Factor D
10. Which of the following statements does not apply to IgG?
A. Appears early in the immune response
B. Can fix complement
C. Crosses the human placenta
D. Opsonizes bacteria
11. The key cells involved in mediating delayed hypersensitivity are:
A. Neutrophils C. T cells
B. Mast cells D. B cells
12. RAST measures:
A. Antigen concentration C. IgE antibodies
B. IgM antibodies D. IgG antibodies
13. Helper T cells recognize antigen on antigen-presenting cells as antigen:
A. With MHC class I product C. With both class I and class II products
B. With MHC class II product D. With complement
14. MHC class II molecules are found on:
A. Virtually all cells in the body
B. B cells, dendritic cells and macrophages
C. Virtually all nucleated cells in the body
D. Only on virally infected cells
15. At least one of the functions of CD8 on the surface of lymphocytes interacting with another cell is to:
A. Bind antigen C. Bind to MHC class I molecules
B. Bind surface immunoglobulin D. Bind to MHC class II molecules
16. Transfer of tissues and organs between genetically identical individuals such as identical twins:
A. Autograft C. Xenograft
B. Syngraft D. Allograft
17. Fetus can be considered as an:
A. Autograft C. Isograft
B. Allograft D. Xenograft
18. Transplanted cells are mainly destroyed by:
A. B cells C. Macrophages
B. T cells D. Neutrophils
19. Which term applies to the most accelerated type of graft rejection?
A. Acute rejection C. Hyperacute rejection
B. Chronic rejection D. Accelerated rejection
20. Carcinoembryonic antigen is characteristically secreted by tumors of the:
A. Kidney C. Lungs
B. Bones D. Gastrointestinal tract
21. LAK (lymphokine-activated killer) cells are induced by:
A. Interleukin 1 C. Tumor necrosis factor - 
B. Interleukin 2 D. Interferon - 
 2

22. A hybridoma is a cell formed by fusion of a:

A. Plasma cell with a plasma cell of another species
B. T cell with a myeloma cell
C. Plasma cell with a myeloma cell
D. T cell with a B cell
23. The prozone phenomenon can:
1. Result from excessive antibody concentration
2. Result in false positive reaction
3. Result in false negative reaction
4. Be overcome by serially diluting the antibody containing serum
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
24. Reverse passive agglutination:
1. Antigen is attached to carrier particle
2. Antibody is attached to carrier particle
3. Agglutination occurs if patient antibody is present
4. Agglutination occurs if patient antigen is present
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
25. ANA pattern associated with SLE in the active stage of the disease:
A. Diffused or homogenous pattern C. Peripheral pattern
B. Nucleolar pattern D. Speckled pattern
26. Jenner’s work with cowpox, which provided immunity against smallpox, demonstrates which phenomenon?
A. Natural Immunity B. Cross-immunity C. Attenuation of vaccines D. Reactivity of haptens
27. In searching for a cure for TB, Koch was first to observe which phenomenon?
A. Bacterial aggln. B. Precipitation C. Phagocytosis D. Delayed hypersensitivity
28. Chronic granulomatous disease represents a defect of:
A. Oxidative metabolism C. Diapedesis
B. Abnormal granulation of neutrophils D. Chemotaxis
29. Which one of the following cells destroys tumor cells using ADCC as a recognition mode, and perforin as an
effector molecule?
A. B cells B. CD4+ cells B. CD8+ cells D. NK cells
30. Measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except:
A. Monitoring drug therapy with anti-inflammatory agents
B. Tracking the normal progress of surgery
C. Diagnosis of specific bacterial infection
D. Determining the active phases of rheumatoid arthritis
31. Which one of the following cells recognizes a cell surface complex consisting of antigenic peptide complexed
with an MHC protein?
A. Phagocytes B. Eosinophils C. T cells D. B cells
32. In the complement fixation procedure, a negative result is manifested by:
A. Antigen-binding C. Lysis of sheep red blood cells
B. Lysis of guinea pig cells D. Agglutination of sheep red blood cells
33. The Mantoux test is an example of:
A. Type I hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity
34. Anaphylaxis as a result of bee sting is an example of:
A. Type I hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity
35. What immune elements are involved in a reaction to poison ivy?
A. IgE antibodies B. T cells and macrophages C. NK cells and IgG D. B cells and IgM
36. Rheumatoid factor is directed against which of the following molecules?
A. Whole IgM molecules C. Fab region of the IgG molecule
B. Fc portion of the IgG molecule D. Fc portion of the IgM molecule
37. Destruction of the myelin sheath of axons caused by the presence of antibody is characteristic of which
disease?
A. Multiple sclerosis C. Graves’ disease
B. Myasthenia gravis D. Goodpasture’s syndrome
38. It is suggestive of Goodpasture’s disease:
A. Acetylcholine receptor-blocking antibodies C. Anti-DNA antibodies
B. Anti-cardiolipin antibodies D. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies
39. It is strongly suggestive, in a high titer, of primary biliary cirrhosis:
A. Anti-myelin antibody C. Anti-centromere antibody
B. Anti-intrinsic factor antibody D. Anti-mitochondrial antintibody
40. A defect in C1INH results in which one of the following disorders?
A. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia C. Chronic granulomatous disease
B. Selective IgA deficiency D. Hereditary angioneurotic edema
41. Individuals who are at risk for ankylosing spondylitis have inherited which one of the following alleles?
A. HLA-A3 B. HLA-B8 C. HLA-B27 D. HLA-B7
42. Individuals who are at risk for rheumatoid arthritis have inherited which one of the following alleles?
A. HLA-A3 B. HLA-B27 C. HLA-B7 D. HLA-DR4
43. A kidney transplantation between one identical twin to another is an example of:
A. An allograft B. An autograft C. A heterograft D. A syngeneic graft
 3

44. CA-15.3 is used conditionally in the monitoring of:

A. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma C. Breast adenocarcinoma
B. Colonic adenocarcinoma D. Hairy cell leukemia
45. In infected blood, Treponema pallidum does not appear to survive at 4oC for more than:
A. 1 day B. 2 days C. 3 days D. 4 days
46. The serologic marker during the “window period” of hepatitis B is:
A. Anti-HBs B. Anti-HBc C. Anti-HBe D. HBsAg
47. Antibodies to which of the following retroviral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection?
A. gp120 B. gp160 C. gp41 D. p24
48. Which of the following combinations of bands would represent a positive Western blot for HIV antibody?
A. p24 and p55 B. p24 and p31 C. gp41 and gp120 D. p31 and p55
49. Which of the following identifies the pattern of antibody cross-reactivity that is generated during infection with R.
rickettsii?
A. P. vulgaris OX-19 (+), P. vulgaris OX-2 (+), P. mirabilis OX-K (-)
B. P. vulgaris OX-19 (-), P. vulgaris OX-2 (+), P. mirabilis OX-K (-)
C. P. vulgaris OX-19 (-), P. vulgaris OX-2 (+), P. mirabilis OX-K (+)
D. P. vulgaris OX-19 (-), P. vulgaris OX-2 (-), P. mirabilis OX-K (+)
50. The least immunogenic transplant tissue:
A. Bone marrow B. Cornea C. Heart D. Skin
51. According to AABB standards, 75% of all platelets, pheresis units shall contain how many platelets per uL?
A. 5.5 x 1010 C. 3.0 x 1011
B. 6.5 x 1010 D. 5.5 x 1011
52. Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of platelets from whole blood?
A. Light spin followed by a hard spin C. Two light spins
B. Light spin flowed by two hard spins D. Hard spin followed by a light spin
53. The purpose of low-dose irradiation of blood components is to:
A. Prevent post transfusion purpura C. Sterilize components
B. Prevent GVHD D. Prevent noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
54. The most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency is:
A. Fresh frozen plasma C. Fresh whole blood
B. Platelets D. Cryoprecipitated AHF
55. Which of the following blood components is the best source of factor IX?
A. Platelets C. Fresh frozen plasma
B. Cryoprecipitated AHF D. Prothrombin complex
56. Hives and itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
A. Febrile C. Circulatory overload
B. Allergic D. Anaphylactic
57. Cold agglutinin syndrome is best associated with which of the following blood groups?
A. Duffy C. Ii
B. P D. Rh
58. Cryoprecipitated AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at –18 oC or below, has a shelf-life of:
A. 42 days C. 12 months
B. 6 months D. 36 months
59. A blood component used in treatment of hemophilia A?
A. Factor VIII concentrate C. Platelets
B. Fresh frozen plasma D. Whole blood
60. According to AABB standards, platelets prepared from whole blood shall have at least:
A. 5.5 x 1010 platelets per unit in at least 75% of the units tested
B. 6.5 x 1010 platelets per unit in 75% of the units tested
C. 7.5 x 1010 platelets per unit in 100% of the units tested
D. 8.5 x 1010 platelets per unit in 95% of the units tested
61. Which of the following transfusion reactions occurs after infusion of only a few milliliters of blood and gives no
history of fever?
A. Febrile C. Anaphylactic
B. Circulatory overload D. Hemolytic
62. According to AABB standards, fresh frozen plasma must be infused within what period of time following
thawing?
A. 24 hours C. 48 hours
B. 36 hours D. 72 hours
63. The most frequent transfusion-associated disease complication of blood transfusion is:
A. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis
B. Syphilis D. AIDS
64. Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following treatment of
the red cells with proteolytic enzymes?
A. Fya C. S
B. E D. M
65. Which of the following would be the component of choice for treatment of von Willebrand’s disease?
A. Platelets C. Cryoprecipitated AHF
B. Factor IX concentrate D. Fresh frozen plasma
 4

66. If the seal is entered on a unit of whole blood stored at 1-6 oC, what is the maximum allowable storage period,
in hours?
A. 6 C. 48
B. 24 D. 72
67. Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin A?
A. M, N C. S, s
B. Lea, Leb D. P, P1, Pk
68. Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-I?
A. Often associated with HDN C. Reacts best at 37 oC
B. Frequently a cold agglutinin D. Is usually IgG
69. Which of the following tests is most commonly used to demonstrate antibodies that have become attached to a
patient’s red cells in vivo?
A. Direct antiglobulin C. Indirect antiglobulin
B. Complement fixation D. Immunofluorescence
70. A previously named HLA that is not uncommonly detected on erythrocytes is:
A. Dia B. Sda C. Bga D. Coa
71. A low-incidence antigen that serves as a useful anthropologic marker for Mongolian ancestry:
A. Xga B. Doa C. Dia D. Yta
72. Antigen is found on the petite arm of the X chromosome and is noted with higher frequency in females than in
males.
A. Xga B. Doa C. Dia D. Yta
73. Antibodies formerly classified as HTLAs:
A. Anti-Coa/Cob B. Anti-Ch/Rg C. Anti-CROM D. Anti-Dia/Dib
74. The minimum hemoglobin concentration in g/dL in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:
A. 12.0 C. 13.5
B. 12.5 D. 15.0
75. To qualify as a donor for autologous transfusion, a patient’s hemoglobin should be at least:
A. 8 g/dL C. 13 g/dL
B. 11 g/dL D. 15 g/dL
76. Hydroxyethyl starch (HES) is a rouleaux-promoting agent used to:
A. Increase the harvest of granulocytes in leukapheresis
B. Treat patients following hemolytic transfusion reaction
C. Resolve ABO typing discrepancies
D. Stabilize the pH of stored platelets
77. Leukocyte-poor red blood cells would most likely be indicated for patients with a history of:
A. Febrile transfusion reaction C. Hemophilia A
B. Iron deficiency anemia D. Von Willebrand’s disease
78. Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen?
A. Jka C. Fya
B. E D. k
79. Glycophorin B is associated with the antigenic activity of:
A. MN C. Wra Wrb
B. Ss D. Lua Lub
80. Which of the following is the proper storage temperature requirement for granulocytes?
A. 1 to 6 oC C. Room temperature with constant agitation
B. 10 to 18 oC D. Room temperature without agitation
81. Which of the following best reflects the discrepancy seen when a person’s red cells demonstrated the acquired-
B phenotype?
Forward Grouping Reverse Grouping
A. B O
B. AB A
C. O B
D. B AB
82. Blood group with the greatest amount of H substance:
A. A C. O
B. B D. AB
83. The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as:
A. Diffusion C. Lyophilization
B. Absorption D. Elution
84. Following compatibility testing, the patient’s blood sample and the donor red cells must be retained for:
A. 7 days after crossmatching C. 10 days after crossmatching
B. 7 days after transfusion D. 10 days after transfusion
85. Hemolytic transfusion reactions result in all the following laboratory finding except:
A. Hemoglobinuria C. Hemoglobinemia
B. Haptoglobinemia D. Bilirubinemia
86. The required tests that must be performed by the hospital blood bank before issuing autologous units of blood
for transfusion include:
A. Recipient antibody screening C. HBsAg on the patient
B. ABO and Rh on the unit D. Antibody to HIV1 on the unit
 5

87. An iron chelating agent which is important in lowering the body iron stores of patients with thalassemia:
A. Deferroxamine C. Desmopressin
B. Steroids D. Aspirin
88. Rh antibodies are primarily of which immunoglobulin class?
A. IgM B. IgG C. IgA D. IgE
89. Testing for weakened expression of the D antigen is done by:
A. Enzyme techniques, in conjunction with an IgM anti-D
B. Performance of an IAT using an IgG anti-D
C. Increasing the time for the incubation of the saline phase
D. Don't need to do it in a blood bank
90. The immunogenicity of the common Rh antigens may be described from greatest to least:
A. D>C>E>c>e C. c>D>C>E>e
B. D>c>E>e>C D. D>c>E>C>e
91. Cold autoagglutinins often occur in:
A. Acute inflammatory reactions C. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Lupus erythematosus D. Primary atypical pneumonia
92. The autoagglutinin formed in Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection:
A. Anti-P B. Anti-H C. Anti-I D. Anti-i
93. In an emergency transfusion where typing and cross-matching cannot be done, it is the SAFEST to give:
A. “O” red cells C. “AB” plasma
B. “O” whole blood D. “O” plasma
94. Individuals who do not have the Rh(D) factor are classified as:
A. Rh null B. Du C. Rh (-) D. Rh (+)
95. Which of the following phenotypes show natural resistance against P. vivax infection?
A. Fy (a+b+) B. Fy (a-b-) C. Fy (a+b-) D. Fy (a-b+)
96. What substance ca n neutralize anti-Lea?
A. Urine B. Saliva C. Human milkD. Hydatid cyst fluid
97. Storage condition for frozen red cells:
A. –18oC for 1 year C. 20-24oC for 3-5 years
B. 1-6oC for 24 hours D. -65oC for 10 years
98. The major crossmatch involves testing:
A. Donor’s serum vs patient’s cells C. Patient’s serum vs patient’s cells
B. Patient’s serum vs donor’s cells D. Donor’s serum vs donor’s cells
99. Type A recipient is crossmatched with type O blood, what incompatibility is expected?
A. Major crossmatch C. Both of these
B. Minor crossmatch D. Neither of these
100. Specimen needed in the investigation of hemolytic transfusion reaction, EXCEPT:
A. New blood sample from recipient C. Patient’s urine
B. New blood sample from donor D. Remaining blood in the unit

END OF THE EXAM

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY AND BLOOD BANKING (PART3)

1. Macrophages have specific names according to their tissue location. Macrophages in the liver are:
A. Alveolar macrophages C. Microglial cells
B. Kupffer cells D. Histiocytes
2. In which area of the lymph node are T cells mainly found:
A. Germinal center C. Paracortex
B. Primary follicles D. Sinusoids
3. Lymphocyte mitogen that acts on both B cell and T cell
A. E. coli endotoxin C. Concanavalin A (ConA)
B. Lipopolysaccharides D. Pokeweed mitogen (PWM)
4. Antigen given intravenously are mainly trapped in the:
A. Lung C. Spleen
B. Lymph node D. Tonsils
5. Nitroblue tetrazolium test is of value in the diagnosis of:
A. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia C. Kahler’s disease
B. Franklin’s disease D. Chronic granulomatous disease
6. Variations in variable regions that give individual antibody molecules specificity:
A. Isotype C. Allotype
B. Idiotype D. All of these
7. The hinge region of an immunoglobulin is flexible because it contains a large amount of which amino acid?
A. Serine C. Threonine
B. Cystine D. Proline
8. Secretory IgA contains:
1. Four light chains 3. Secretory component
2. Four heavy chains 4. One J chain
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Complement component C3 is cleaved by:
A. C3b C. C3bBb
B. Factor B D. Factor D
10. Which of the following statements does not apply to IgG?
A. Appears early in the immune response
B. Can fix complement
C. Crosses the human placenta
D. Opsonizes bacteria
11. The key cells involved in mediating delayed hypersensitivity are:
A. Neutrophils C. T cells
B. Mast cells D. B cells
12. RAST measures:
A. Antigen concentration C. IgE antibodies
B. IgM antibodies D. IgG antibodies
13. Helper T cells recognize antigen on antigen-presenting cells as antigen:
A. With MHC class I product C. With both class I and class II products
B. With MHC class II product D. With complement
14. MHC class II molecules are found on:
A. Virtually all cells in the body
B. B cells, dendritic cells and macrophages
C. Virtually all nucleated cells in the body
D. Only on virally infected cells
15. At least one of the functions of CD8 on the surface of lymphocytes interacting with another cell is to:
A. Bind antigen C. Bind to MHC class I molecules
B. Bind surface immunoglobulin D. Bind to MHC class II molecules
16. Transfer of tissues and organs between genetically identical individuals such as identical twins:
A. Autograft C. Xenograft
B. Syngraft D. Allograft
17. Fetus can be considered as an:
A. Autograft C. Isograft
B. Allograft D. Xenograft
18. Transplanted cells are mainly destroyed by:
A. B cells C. Macrophages
B. T cells D. Neutrophils
19. Which term applies to the most accelerated type of graft rejection?
A. Acute rejection C. Hyperacute rejection
B. Chronic rejection D. Accelerated rejection
20. Carcinoembryonic antigen is characteristically secreted by tumors of the:
A. Kidney C. Lungs
B. Bones D. Gastrointestinal tract
21. LAK (lymphokine-activated killer) cells are induced by:
A. Interleukin 1 C. Tumor necrosis factor - 
B. Interleukin 2 D. Interferon - 
 2

22. A hybridoma is a cell formed by fusion of a:

A. Plasma cell with a plasma cell of another species
B. T cell with a myeloma cell
C. Plasma cell with a myeloma cell
D. T cell with a B cell
23. The prozone phenomenon can:
1. Result from excessive antibody concentration
2. Result in false positive reaction
3. Result in false negative reaction
4. Be overcome by serially diluting the antibody containing serum
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
24. Reverse passive agglutination:
1. Antigen is attached to carrier particle
2. Antibody is attached to carrier particle
3. Agglutination occurs if patient antibody is present
4. Agglutination occurs if patient antigen is present
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
25. ANA pattern associated with SLE in the active stage of the disease:
A. Diffused or homogenous pattern C. Peripheral pattern
B. Nucleolar pattern D. Speckled pattern
26. Jenner’s work with cowpox, which provided immunity against smallpox, demonstrates which phenomenon?
A. Natural Immunity B. Cross-immunity C. Attenuation of vaccines D. Reactivity of haptens
27. In searching for a cure for TB, Koch was first to observe which phenomenon?
A. Bacterial aggln. B. Precipitation C. Phagocytosis D. Delayed hypersensitivity
28. Chronic granulomatous disease represents a defect of:
A. Oxidative metabolism C. Diapedesis
B. Abnormal granulation of neutrophils D. Chemotaxis
29. Which one of the following cells destroys tumor cells using ADCC as a recognition mode, and perforin as an
effector molecule?
A. B cells B. CD4+ cells B. CD8+ cells D. NK cells
30. Measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except:
A. Monitoring drug therapy with anti-inflammatory agents
B. Tracking the normal progress of surgery
C. Diagnosis of specific bacterial infection
D. Determining the active phases of rheumatoid arthritis
31. Which one of the following cells recognizes a cell surface complex consisting of antigenic peptide complexed
with an MHC protein?
A. Phagocytes B. Eosinophils C. T cells D. B cells
32. In the complement fixation procedure, a negative result is manifested by:
A. Antigen-binding C. Lysis of sheep red blood cells
B. Lysis of guinea pig cells D. Agglutination of sheep red blood cells
33. The Mantoux test is an example of:
A. Type I hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity
34. Anaphylaxis as a result of bee sting is an example of:
A. Type I hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity
35. What immune elements are involved in a reaction to poison ivy?
A. IgE antibodies B. T cells and macrophages C. NK cells and IgG D. B cells and IgM
36. Rheumatoid factor is directed against which of the following molecules?
A. Whole IgM molecules C. Fab region of the IgG molecule
B. Fc portion of the IgG molecule D. Fc portion of the IgM molecule
37. Destruction of the myelin sheath of axons caused by the presence of antibody is characteristic of which
disease?
A. Multiple sclerosis C. Graves’ disease
B. Myasthenia gravis D. Goodpasture’s syndrome
38. It is suggestive of Goodpasture’s disease:
A. Acetylcholine receptor-blocking antibodies C. Anti-DNA antibodies
B. Anti-cardiolipin antibodies D. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies
39. It is strongly suggestive, in a high titer, of primary biliary cirrhosis:
A. Anti-myelin antibody C. Anti-centromere antibody
B. Anti-intrinsic factor antibody D. Anti-mitochondrial antintibody
40. A defect in C1INH results in which one of the following disorders?
A. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia C. Chronic granulomatous disease
B. Selective IgA deficiency D. Hereditary angioneurotic edema
41. Individuals who are at risk for ankylosing spondylitis have inherited which one of the following alleles?
A. HLA-A3 B. HLA-B8 C. HLA-B27 D. HLA-B7
42. Individuals who are at risk for rheumatoid arthritis have inherited which one of the following alleles?
A. HLA-A3 B. HLA-B27 C. HLA-B7 D. HLA-DR4
43. A kidney transplantation between one identical twin to another is an example of:
A. An allograft B. An autograft C. A heterograft D. A syngeneic graft
 3

44. CA-15.3 is used conditionally in the monitoring of:

A. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma C. Breast adenocarcinoma
B. Colonic adenocarcinoma D. Hairy cell leukemia
45. In infected blood, Treponema pallidum does not appear to survive at 4oC for more than:
A. 1 day B. 2 days C. 3 days D. 4 days
46. The serologic marker during the “window period” of hepatitis B is:
A. Anti-HBs B. Anti-HBc C. Anti-HBe D. HBsAg
47. Antibodies to which of the following retroviral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection?
A. gp120 B. gp160 C. gp41 D. p24
48. Which of the following combinations of bands would represent a positive Western blot for HIV antibody?
A. p24 and p55 B. p24 and p31 C. gp41 and gp120 D. p31 and p55
49. Which of the following identifies the pattern of antibody cross-reactivity that is generated during infection with R.
rickettsii?
A. P. vulgaris OX-19 (+), P. vulgaris OX-2 (+), P. mirabilis OX-K (-)
B. P. vulgaris OX-19 (-), P. vulgaris OX-2 (+), P. mirabilis OX-K (-)
C. P. vulgaris OX-19 (-), P. vulgaris OX-2 (+), P. mirabilis OX-K (+)
D. P. vulgaris OX-19 (-), P. vulgaris OX-2 (-), P. mirabilis OX-K (+)
50. The least immunogenic transplant tissue:
A. Bone marrow B. Cornea C. Heart D. Skin

BLOOD BANKING

51. According to AABB standards, 75% of all platelets, pheresis units shall contain how many platelets per uL?
A. 5.5 x 1010 C. 3.0 x 1011
B. 6.5 x 1010 D. 5.5 x 1011
52. Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of platelets from whole blood?
A. Light spin followed by a hard spin C. Two light spins
B. Light spin flowed by two hard spins D. Hard spin followed by a light spin
53. The purpose of low-dose irradiation of blood components is to:
A. Prevent post transfusion purpura C. Sterilize components
B. Prevent GVHD D. Prevent noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
54. The most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency is:
A. Fresh frozen plasma C. Fresh whole blood
B. Platelets D. Cryoprecipitated AHF
55. Which of the following blood components is the best source of factor IX?
A. Platelets C. Fresh frozen plasma
B. Cryoprecipitated AHF D. Prothrombin complex
56. Hives and itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
A. Febrile C. Circulatory overload
B. Allergic D. Anaphylactic
57. Cold agglutinin syndrome is best associated with which of the following blood groups?
A. Duffy C. Ii
B. P D. Rh
58. Cryoprecipitated AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at –18 oC or below, has a shelf-life of:
A. 42 days C. 12 months
B. 6 months D. 36 months
59. A blood component used in treatment of hemophilia A?
A. Factor VIII concentrate C. Platelets
B. Fresh frozen plasma D. Whole blood
60. According to AABB standards, platelets prepared from whole blood shall have at least:
A. 5.5 x 1010 platelets per unit in at least 75% of the units tested
B. 6.5 x 1010 platelets per unit in 75% of the units tested
C. 7.5 x 1010 platelets per unit in 100% of the units tested
D. 8.5 x 1010 platelets per unit in 95% of the units tested
61. Which of the following transfusion reactions occurs after infusion of only a few milliliters of blood and gives no
history of fever?
A. Febrile C. Anaphylactic
B. Circulatory overload D. Hemolytic
62. According to AABB standards, fresh frozen plasma must be infused within what period of time following
thawing?
A. 24 hours C. 48 hours
B. 36 hours D. 72 hours
63. The most frequent transfusion-associated disease complication of blood transfusion is:
A. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis
B. Syphilis D. AIDS
64. Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following treatment of
the red cells with proteolytic enzymes?
A. Fya C. S
B. E D. M
 4

65. Which of the following would be the component of choice for treatment of von Willebrand’s disease?
A. Platelets C. Cryoprecipitated AHF
B. Factor IX concentrate D. Fresh frozen plasma
66. If the seal is entered on a unit of whole blood stored at 1-6 oC, what is the maximum allowable storage period,
in hours?
A. 6 C. 48
B. 24 D. 72
67. Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin A?
A. M, N C. S, s
B. Lea, Leb D. P, P1, Pk
68. Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-I?
A. Often associated with HDN C. Reacts best at 37 oC
B. Frequently a cold agglutinin D. Is usually IgG
69. Which of the following tests is most commonly used to demonstrate antibodies that have become attached to a
patient’s red cells in vivo?
A. Direct antiglobulin C. Indirect antiglobulin
B. Complement fixation D. Immunofluorescence
70. A previously named HLA that is not uncommonly detected on erythrocytes is:
A. Dia B. Sda C. Bga D. Coa
71. A low-incidence antigen that serves as a useful anthropologic marker for Mongolian ancestry:
A. Xga B. Doa C. Dia D. Yta
72. Antigen is found on the petite arm of the X chromosome and is noted with higher frequency in females than in
males.
A. Xga B. Doa C. Dia D. Yta
73. Antibodies formerly classified as HTLAs:
A. Anti-Coa/Cob B. Anti-Ch/Rg C. Anti-CROM D. Anti-Dia/Dib
74. The minimum hemoglobin concentration in g/dL in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:
A. 12.0 C. 13.5
B. 12.5 D. 15.0
75. To qualify as a donor for autologous transfusion, a patient’s hemoglobin should be at least:
A. 8 g/dL C. 13 g/dL
B. 11 g/dL D. 15 g/dL
76. Hydroxyethyl starch (HES) is a rouleaux-promoting agent used to:
A. Increase the harvest of granulocytes in leukapheresis
B. Treat patients following hemolytic transfusion reaction
C. Resolve ABO typing discrepancies
D. Stabilize the pH of stored platelets
77. Leukocyte-poor red blood cells would most likely be indicated for patients with a history of:
A. Febrile transfusion reaction C. Hemophilia A
B. Iron deficiency anemia D. Von Willebrand’s disease
78. Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen?
A. Jka C. Fya
B. E D. k
79. Glycophorin B is associated with the antigenic activity of:
A. MN C. Wra Wrb
B. Ss D. Lua Lub
80. Which of the following is the proper storage temperature requirement for granulocytes?
A. 1 to 6 oC C. Room temperature with constant agitation
B. 10 to 18 oC D. Room temperature without agitation
81. Which of the following best reflects the discrepancy seen when a person’s red cells demonstrated the acquired-
B phenotype?
Forward Grouping Reverse Grouping
A. B O
B. AB A
C. O B
D. B AB
82. Blood group with the greatest amount of H substance:
A. A C. O
B. B D. AB
83. The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as:
A. Diffusion C. Lyophilization
B. Absorption D. Elution
84. Following compatibility testing, the patient’s blood sample and the donor red cells must be retained for:
A. 7 days after crossmatching C. 10 days after crossmatching
B. 7 days after transfusion D. 10 days after transfusion
85. Hemolytic transfusion reactions result in all the following laboratory finding except:
A. Hemoglobinuria C. Hemoglobinemia
B. Haptoglobinemia D. Bilirubinemia
 5

86. The required tests that must be performed by the hospital blood bank before issuing autologous units of blood
for transfusion include:
A. Recipient antibody screening C. HBsAg on the patient
B. ABO and Rh on the unit D. Antibody to HIV1 on the unit
87. An iron chelating agent which is important in lowering the body iron stores of patients with thalassemia:
A. Deferroxamine C. Desmopressin
B. Steroids D. Aspirin
88. Rh antibodies are primarily of which immunoglobulin class?
A. IgM B. IgG C. IgA D. IgE
89. Testing for weakened expression of the D antigen is done by:
A. Enzyme techniques, in conjunction with an IgM anti-D
B. Performance of an IAT using an IgG anti-D
C. Increasing the time for the incubation of the saline phase
D. Don't need to do it in a blood bank
90. The immunogenicity of the common Rh antigens may be described from greatest to least:
A. D>C>E>c>e C. c>D>C>E>e
B. D>c>E>e>C D. D>c>E>C>e
91. Cold autoagglutinins often occur in:
A. Acute inflammatory reactions C. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Lupus erythematosus D. Primary atypical pneumonia
92. The autoagglutinin formed in Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection:
A. Anti-P B. Anti-H C. Anti-I D. Anti-i
93. In an emergency transfusion where typing and cross-matching cannot be done, it is the SAFEST to give:
A. “O” red cells C. “AB” plasma
B. “O” whole blood D. “O” plasma
94. Individuals who do not have the Rh(D) factor are classified as:
A. Rh null B. Du C. Rh (-) D. Rh (+)
95. Which of the following phenotypes show natural resistance against P. vivax infection?
A. Fy (a+b+) B. Fy (a-b-) C. Fy (a+b-) D. Fy (a-b+)
96. What substance ca n neutralize anti-Lea?
A. Urine B. Saliva C. Human milkD. Hydatid cyst fluid
97. Storage condition for frozen red cells:
A. –18oC for 1 year C. 20-24oC for 3-5 years
B. 1-6oC for 24 hours D. -65oC for 10 years
98. The major crossmatch involves testing:
A. Donor’s serum vs patient’s cells C. Patient’s serum vs patient’s cells
B. Patient’s serum vs donor’s cellsD. Donor’s serum vs donor’s cells
99. Type A recipient is crossmatched with type O blood, what incompatibility is expected?
A. Major crossmatch C. Both of these
B. Minor crossmatch D. Neither of these
100. Specimen needed in the investigation of hemolytic transfusion reaction, EXCEPT:
A. New blood sample from recipient C. Patient’s urine
B. New blood sample from donor D. Remaining blood in the unit

END OF THE EXAM

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN HISTOPATHOLOGY AND MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS (PART 1)

1. Ideal amount of the fixative:

A. 1 – 2X the volume of the specimen C. 10 – 15X the volume of the specimen
B. 5 – 10X the volume of the specimen D. 10 – 20X the volume of the specimen
2. All of the following are microanatomical fixatives, EXCEPT:
A. 10% Formalin C. Bouin’s solution
B. Zenker’s solution D. Flemming’s fluid
3. Best fixative for the nervous system:
A. Formalin fixative C. Lead fixative
B. Permanganate fixative D. Chromate fixative
4. Fixative of choice for the preservation of fats:
A. Helly’s fluid C. Formalin
B. Newcomer’s fluid D. Newcomer’s fluid
5. Helly’s fluid is exactly the same as in Zenker’s fixative, but instead of GLACIAL ACETIC ACID, what component is
added:
A. Mercuric chloride C. Sodium sulfate
B. Potassium dichromate D. Formalin
6. Fixative recommended for fixing small pieces of liver, spleen, connective tissue fibers and nuclei:
A. Zenker’s fluid C. Heidenhain’s Susa solution
B. Orth’s fluid D. Regaud’s fluid
7. Excellent microanatomic fixative for pituitary gland, bone marrow and blood containing organs such as spleen and
liver:
A. Bouin’s solution C. Carnoy’s fluid
B. Helly’s fluid D. Flemming’s solution
8. All mercurial fixing solutions lead to the formation in tissues of diffuse BLACK granules and these mercury deposits
must be removed BEFORE STAINING. Removal of mercuric chloride deposit is accomplished by:
A. Saturated solution of iodine C. Distilled water
B. Sodium thiosulfate D. Saturated solution of picric acid
9. Considered to be the MOST RAPID fixative/ recommended for fixing chromosomes, lymph glands and urgent
biopsies:
A. Gendre’s fixative C. Newcomer’s fluid
B. Carnoy’s fluid D. Flemming’s solution
10. Fixatives used mainly for acid mucopolysaccharides:
A. Lead fixatives C. Chromate fixatives
B. Mercurial fixatives D. Picric acid fixatives
11. Most widely used fixative for electron microscopy:
A. Acetone C. Osmium tetroxide
B. Zenker’s fluid D. Trichloroacetic acid
12. The process of decalcification is best performed:
A. Before fixation C. After impregnation
B. After fixation D. None of these
13. Most ideal and most reliable method of determining extent of decalcification:
A. Physical test C. X-ray or radiological test
B. Chemical test D. Adsorption test
14. The fastest chemical solution in decalcifying tissues is:
A. Trichloroacetic acid C. Formic acid
B. Nitric acid D. Versene
15. All of the following remove intracellular and extracellular water from the tissue following fixation, EXCEPT:
A. Alcohol C. Tetrahydrofuran
B. Chloroform D. Dioxane
16. A TOXIC dehydrating agent, primarily employed for blood and tissue films and for smear preparation:
A. Ethyl alcohol C. Butyl alcohol
B. Methyl alcohol D. Isopropyl alcohol
17. Function/s of tetrahydrofuran:
A. Dehyrating agent C. Both of these
B. Clearing agent D. None of these
18. Excessive exposure to this clearing agent may be extremely toxic to man and may become carcinogenic or it may
damage the bone marrow resulting to APLASTIC ANEMIA:
A. Xylene C. Tetrahydrofuran
B. Benzene D. Toluene
19. Process whereby the clearing agent is completely removed from the tissue and replaced by a medium that will
completely fill all the tissue cavities:
A. Embedding C. Blocking
B. Infiltration D. Casting
20. Simplest, most common and best embedding medium for routine tissue processing:
A. Paraffin wax C. Celloidin
B. Ester wax D. Carbowax
21. A semi-synthetic wax used for embedding the eyes:
A. Paraplast C. Ester wax
B. Bioloid D. Carbowax
22. The DRY celloidin embedding method is employed chiefly for the:
A. Bones and teeth C. Whole organs
B. Large brain blocks D. Eyes
 2
23. All of the following are substitutes for paraffin wax, EXCEPT:
A. Paraplast C. Malinol
B. Embeddol D. Tissue Mat
24. Melting point of ester wax:
A. 56-57oC B. 46-48oC C. 54-58oC D. 50-54oC
25. The last container through which tissue pass through in an automatic tissue processor contains:
A. Paraffin C. Formalin
B. Xylol D. Alcohol
26. Microtome knife recommended for frozen sections or for cutting extremely hard and tough specimens embedded in
paraffin blocks, using a base-sledge type or sliding microtome:
A. Plane-concave knife C. Biconcave knife
B. Plane-wedge knife D. None of these
27. Removal of gross nicks on the knife edge:
A. Honing B. Stropping C. Both of these D. None of these
28. Removal of “burr” or irregularities on the knife edge:
A. Honing B. Stropping C. Both of these D. None of these
29. Angle formed between the cutting edge of the microtome knife (27o-32o):
A. Bevel angle C. Both of these
B. Clearance angle D. Neither of these
30. Angle formed between the surface of the block and the cutting edge of the knife (0o-15o):
A. Bevel angle C. Both of these
B. Clearance angle D. Neither of these
31. This type of microtome easily cuts large blocks and serial sections can be obtained with ease because larger knives
can be used:
A. Sliding C. Rocking
B. Rotary D. Freezing
32. The cryostat is an apparatus used in fresh tissue microtomy. It consists of a microtome, kept inside a cold chamber
which has been maintained at a temperature of:
A. 20oC B. -20oC C. 4oC D. -4oC
33. A tissue exposed to short burst of CARBON DIOXIDE for a few minutes will:
A. Freeze C. Dehydrate
B. Harden D. Fix
34. Fat cells and enzymes are best demonstrated in:
A. Paraffin section C. Celloidin section
B. Plastic embedded section D. Frozen section
35. When trimming tissue block, they must be surrounded by at least __ of wax.
A. 1 mm B. 2 mm C. 3 mm D. 4 mm
36. Thickness of paraffin sections for routine histologic procedures:
A. 10-15  B. 4-6  C. 0.5  D. 5-10 
37. The following methods are done for drying sections on slide, EXCEPT:
A. On a hot plate at 45-55oC for 30-45 minutes
B. On a Bunsen flame
C. In an incubator at 37oC for 3 hours
D. In a wax oven at 56-60oC for 2 hours
38. Most probable cause when clearing agent turns milky as soon as the tissue is placed in it:
A. Incomplete fixation C. Incomplete dehydration
B. Prolonged fixation D. Prolonged dehydration
39. It is added to Mayer’s egg albumin to prevent the growth of molds:
A. Sodium chloride C. Thymol crystals
B. Glycerol D. Powdered starch
40. Adhesive added to the water in the floating-out bath – most convenient alternative to direct coating of slides:
A. Plasma B. Gelatin C. Starch paste D. Dried albumin
41. To avoid distortion of the image, the refractive index of the mountant should be near as possible to that of the glass
which is:
A. 1. 581 B. 1.185 C. 1.518 D. 1.155
42. Deparaffinization of tissue sections is accomplished by passing through:
A. Ammonia water C. Alcohol
B. Acetone D. Xylol
43. Coverslips from slides may be removed by immersion in:
A. Ammonia water C. Alcohol
B. Acetone D. Xylol
44. Process by which sections are stained with simple aqueous or alcoholic solutions of the dye:
A. Progressive staining C. Direct staining
B. Regressive staining D. Indirect staining
45. A tissue-mordant-dye complex is needed in:
A. Progressive staining C. Direct staining
B. Regressive staining D. Indirect staining
46. With this staining technique, the tissue is first overstained, and the excess stain is removed or decolorized from
unwanted part of the tissue:
A. Progressive staining C. Direct staining
B. Regressive staining D. Indirect staining
 3
47. The regressive staining method employs this procedure:
A. Deparaffinization C. Differentiation
B. Clearing D. Dehydration
48. Accelerate or hasten the speed of the staining power and selectivity of the dye:
A. Oxidizing agents C. Accentuators
B. Acid differentiators D. Mordants
49. Substances which aid in attaching a stain or dye to the tissue:
A. Oxidizing agents C. Accentuators
B. Acid differentiators D. Mordants
50. This technique entails the use of specific dyes, which differentiate particular substances by staining them with a color
that is different from that of the stain itself:
A. Orthochromatic staining C. Counterstaining
B. Metachromatic staining D. Vital staining
51. All of the following are metachromatic stains, EXCEPT:
A. Thionine C. Safranin
B. Toluidine blue D. Eosin
52. Stain used for demonstrating mitochondria during intravital staining:
A. Victoria blue C. Benzidine
B. Acridine orange D. Janus Green B
53. Application of a different color or stain to provide contrast and background to the staining of the structural component
to be demonstrated:
A. Orthochromatic staining C. Counterstaining
B. Metachromatic staining D. Vital staining
54. The routine stain for surgical tissue section is:
A. Gram’s stain C. Pap’s stain
B. Wright’s stain D. H&E stain
55. Routinely used in histopathology as a counterstain/background fro contrasting stain because it gives a pleasing and
colorful contrasts to nuclear stains:
A. Eosin C. Methylene blue
B. Toluidine blue D. Crystal violet
56. In the hematoxylin-eosin stain (H&E), this stain acts as the acid dye:
A. Hematoxylin C. Either of these
B. Eosin D. Neither of these
57. In routine H&E, most fixatives can be used, EXCEPT:
A. Zenker’s formol C. Osmic acid
B. Formaldehyde D. Picric acid
58. Only substance in histopathology that can fix, differentiate or stain tissues all by itself:
A. Osmic acid C. Trichloroacetic acid
B. Picric acid D. Acetic acid
59. The active dye (coloring agent) in hematoxylin solution is:
A. Hematin B. Hematein C. Hematoxylin D. Hematoxylon
60. All of the following are chemical oxidizing agent/ripening agent for hematoxylin, EXCEPT:
A. Sodium iodate C. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Mercuric oxide D. Ammonium alum
61. Ripening agent for Harris’ hematoxylin:
A. Sodium iodate C. Potassium permanganate
B. Mercuric oxide D. Hydrogen peroxide
62. Function of ammonium alum in the Harris hematoxylin formula:
A. Oxidizing agent C. Dye solvent
B. Mordant D. Dye
63. Staining of the nuclei by alum hematoxylin is enhanced by the addition of:
A. Alum C. Glacial acetic acid
B. Ethanol D. Mercuric oxide
64. Glacial acetic acid added to hematoxylin will:
A. Inactivate stain C. Enhance cytoplasmic staining
B. Decrease nuclear staining D. Enhance nuclear staining
65. A sheen of oxidized dye on the surface of hematoxylin solution indicates:
A. Stain is concentrated C. Stain has to be filtered
B. Stain is contaminated by bacteria D. Stain has to be discarded
66. Acid alcohol used in routine H&E acts as:
A. Mordant C. Bluing agent
B. Stain D. Differentiator
67. The acid used in combination with alcohol in an acid alcohol solution:
A. Acetic acid C. Nitric acid
B. Oxalic acid D. Hydrochloric acid
68. Staining result in the routine hematoxylin and eosin method:
A. Nuclei pink, cytoplasm blue to blue-black
B. Nuclei blue to blue-black, cytoplasm pink
C. Nuclei and cytoplasm pink
D. Nuclei and cytoplasm blue-black
 4
69. A common BASIC NUCLEAR STAIN for plasma cells and may also be employed in cytological examination of fresh
sputum for malignant cells:
A. Eosin C. Crystal violet
B. Methylene blue D. Aniline blue
70. PAS positive substances are stained:
A. Blue C. Green
B. Brown-black D. Magenta red
71. Staining method for glycogen:
A. PAS technique C. Best Carmine method
B. Langhan’s iodine stain D. All of these
72. Tubercle bacilli in Ziehl-Neelsen stain:
A. Bright red C. Green
B. Grayish blue D. Blue
73. Feulgen’s reaction is the most reliable and most specific histochemical staining technique for:
A. RNA B. DNA C. Both D. Neither
74. In the Masson-Fontana ammoniacal silver reaction, melanin and argentaffin cell granules are stained:
A. Brown B. Red C. Black D. Blue
75. Lipids in Sudan IV are stained:
A. Black B. Blue black C. Red D. Deep blue to violet
76. Positive reaction for cholesterol in Schultz Method:
A. Blue-black C. Pale pink
B. Grayish-blue D. Blue-green
77. The method of choice for staining in exfoliative cytology:
A. Pap’s stain C. H&E stain
B. Wright’s stain D. Giemsa stain
78. Components of the EA-50 stain, EXCEPT:
A. Eosin Y C. Light green
B. Orange green D. Bismarck brown
79. All of the following are fixative used for cytologic smears, EXCEPT:
A. Equal parts of 95% ETOH and ether C. 10% Formalin
B. 95% Ethyl alcohol D. Carnoy’s fluid
80. BEST fixative for virtually all diagnostic cytology studies but flammable and volatile:
A. Equal parts of 95% ETOH and ether C. 10% Formalin
B. 95% Ethyl alcohol D. Carnoy’s fluid
81. All of the following are examples of good adhesive agents for cytologic method, EXCEPT:
A. Egg albumin C. Pooled human serum or plasma
B. Celloidin ether alcohol D. Leuconostoc culture
82. Smears prepared for cytologic examination from cut surfaces of lymph nodes can be obtained by:
A. Spreading C. Touch preparation
B. Pull-Apart D. Streaking
83. Organisms found in the normal vaginal flora that stain BLUE to lavander with Pap’s method:
A. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Doderlein bacilli
B. Streptococci D. Acid fast bacilli
84. Clue cells are diagnostic of what infection:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. HSV-II
B. Gardnerella vaginalis D. Candida albicans
85. Cells found in a vaginal smear which are thick and round to oval in shape (similar to fried fresh eggs with sunny-side
up) with strongly basophilic cytoplasm and vesicular nucleus:
A. Superficial cells C. Parabasal cells
B. Intermediate cells D. Basal cells
86. Increase in size of an organ or tissue due to an increase in number of cells:
A. Hypertrophy B. Necrosis C. Hyperplasia D. Atrophy
87. Continuous abnormal proliferation of cells without control causes an overgrowth of tissue or tumor cells:
A. Anaplasia B. Hyperplasia C. Neoplasia D. Dysplasia
88. The dissolving of cells by enzymatic action is:
A. Rotting B. Decay C. Autolysis D. Putrefaction
89. A malignant tumor is least characterized by:
A. Metastases C. Encapsulation
B. Mitotic figures D. Invasion of adjacent tissues
90. A medical laboratory technician to be registered must have obtained a grade within this range (Medical Technology
Board Exam):
A. 65-74.5% C. 60-74.9%
B. 70-74.9% D. 73-73%
91. RA 5527 was approved on:
A. June 21, 1969 C. June 21, 1968
B. July 21, 1969 D. June 11, 1978
92. The Blood Banking Law:
A. RA 4224 C. RA 1517
B. RA 4688 D. RA 5527
93. National Blood Services Act of 1994:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 7719
B. RA 8504 D. RA 8981
 5
94. Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 7719
B. RA 8504 D. RA 8981
95. Newborn Screening Act of 2004
A. RA 9288 C. RA 9165
B. RA 8504 D. RA 7719
96. All services are done on a primary category laboratory except: (A.O. 2007-0027)
A. Routine urinalysis C. Routine chemistry
B. Routine hematology D. Blood typing
97. Who are the members of the Medical technology Board?
A. Pathologist, medical technologist and medical technician
B. Secretary of health, dean and president of PAMET
C. One internist, one pathologist and one medical technologist
D. A registered pathologist and two registered medical technologist
98. Sections of RA 5527 amended by PD 1534:
A. 3, 8, 13 C. 11, 16, 29
B. 16, 21, 22 D. 11, 21, 29
99. In order to pass examination (MT), a candidate must obtain a general average of:
A. 50% B. 60% C. 70% D. 75%
100. The penalty of revocation of certificate of registration may be imposed by the board if there is:
A. Majority vote B. Unanimous vote C. Either of these D. Neither of these

END OF THE EXAM

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN HISTOPATHOLOGY AND MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS (PART 2)

1. Nonkeratinizing stratified squamous epithelium would be found lining the:

A. Skin C. Esophagus
B. Trachea D. Urinary bladder
2. The connective tissue cells actively involved in wound healing are:
A. Plasma cells C. Macrophages
B. Mast cells D. Fibroblasts
3. Tissue composed of a network of bony trabeculae separated by interconnecting bone marrow spaces:
A. Cortical bone C. Cancellous bone
B. Woven bone D. Compact bone
4. Muscle that histologically contains cytoplasmic cross-striations and has multiple nuclei located at the edge of the
fibers is classified as:
A. Smooth C. Skeletal
B. Visceral D. Cardiac
5. Malignant tumors of connective tissue are known as:
A. Carcinomas C. Sarcomas
B. Lipomas D. Fibromas
6. The antibody class most frequently used in immunofluorescent and immunoenzyme staining is:
A. IgM C. IgG
B. IgE D. IgA
7. The most specific stain available for the identification of melanomas in paraffin section is the:
A. DOPA reaction C. Warthin-Starry
B. Gridley method D. Immunostain for HMB-45
8. Frozen sections are commonly used for:
1. Rapid pathologic diagnosis during surgery 3. Immunohistochemical staining
2. Diagnostic and enzyme histochemistry 4. Demonstration of lipids and carbohydrates
A. 1 and 2 are correct C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct D. All are correct
9. Characteristics of a good fixative:
1. Cheap, stable and safe to handle 3. Inhibit bacterial decomposition and autolysis
2. Produce minimum shrinkage of tissue 4. Harden tissue thereby making cutting of sections easier
A. 1 and 2 are correct C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct D. All are correct
10. Microanatomical fixatives:
1. 10% formol saline 3. Zenker’s solution
2. Heidenhain’s susa 4. Flemming’s fluid
A. 1 and 2 are correct C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct D. All are correct
11. Mercuric chloride fixatives:
1. Zenker’s fluid 3. B-5 fixative
2. Heidenhain’s Susa solution 4. Orth’s fluid
A. 1 and 2 are correct C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct D. All are correct
12. All mercurial fixing solutions lead to the formation in tissues of diffuse BLACK granules and these mercury deposits
must be removed BEFORE STAINING. Removal of mercuric chloride deposit is accomplished by:
A. Saturated solution of iodine C. Distilled water
B. Sodium thiosulfate D. Saturated solution of picric acid
13. Most widely used fixative for electron microscopy:
A. Acetone C. Osmium tetroxide
B. Zenker’s fluid D. Trichloroacetic acid
14. When fat is to be preserved, the fixative of choice is:
A. Formalin C. Carnoy solution
B. Zenker solution D. Bouin solution
15. Zenker fluid contains all of the following, except:
A. Mercuric chloride C. Formaldehyde
B. Potassium dichromate D. Glacial acetic acid
16. Orth solution contains all of the following, except:
A. Potassium dichromate C. Sodium sulfate
B. Mercuric chloride D. Formaldehyde
17. Fixative for blood smears:
A. Bouin solution C. B-5
B. Carnoy solution D. Methanol
18. An unknown pigment in tissue section that can be bleached with a saturated alcoholic solution of picric acid is most
likely:
A. Melanin pigment C. Hemosiderin
B. Formalin pigment D. Mercury pigment
19. A common reason for adding acetic acid to fixatives is to:
A. Coagulate proteins C. Preserve carbohydrates
B. Reduce shrinkage D. Change the pH
20. The process of decalcification is best performed:
A. Before fixation C. After impregnation
B. After fixation D. None of these
 2
21. Most ideal and most reliable method of determining extent of decalcification:
A. Physical test C. X-ray or radiological test
B. Chemical test D. Adsorption test
22. The fastest chemical solution in decalcifying tissues is:
A. Trichloroacetic acid C. Formic acid
B. Nitric acid D. Versene
23. All of the following remove intracellular and extracellular water from the tissue following fixation, EXCEPT:
A. Alcohol C. Tetrahydrofuran
B. Chloroform D. Dioxane
24. Dioxane is a reagent that can be used:
A. For both fixing and dehydrating tissues C. In very small volume rations
B. For both dehydrating and clearing tissues D. For long periods without changing
25. Function/s of tetrahydrofuran:
A. Dehyrating agent C. Both of these
B. Clearing agent D. None of these
26. Excessive exposure to this clearing agent may be extremely toxic to man and may become carcinogenic or it may
damage the bone marrow resulting to APLASTIC ANEMIA:
A. Xylene C. Tetrahydrofuran
B. Benzene D. Toluene
27. Process whereby the clearing agent is completely removed from the tissue and replaced by a medium that will
completely fill all the tissue cavities:
A. Embedding C. Blocking
B. Infiltration D. Casting
28. The last container through which tissue pass through in an automatic tissue processor contains:
A. Paraffin C. Formalin
B. Xylol D. Alcohol
29. Simplest, most common and best embedding medium for routine tissue processing:
A. Paraffin wax C. Celloidin
B. Ester wax D. Carbowax
30. A semi-synthetic wax used for embedding the eyes:
A. Paraplast C. Ester wax
B. Bioloid D. Carbowax
31. The DRY celloidin embedding method is employed chiefly for the:
A. Bones and teeth C. Whole organs
B. Large brain blocks D. Eyes
32. All of the following are substitutes for paraffin wax, EXCEPT:
A. Paraplast C. Malinol
B. Embeddol D. Tissue Mat
33. Melting point of ester wax:
A. 56-57oC C. 46-48oC
B. 54-58oC D. 50-54oC
34. Carbowax has a major disadvantage of:
A. Dissolving during flotation C. Making tissues brittle fro sectioning
B. Being a lengthy processing method D. Causing cell shrinkage
35. Microtome knife recommended for frozen sections or for cutting extremely hard and tough specimens embedded in
paraffin blocks, using a base-sledge type or sliding microtome:
A. Plane-concave knife C. Biconcave knife
B. Plane-wedge knife D. None of these
36. Removal of gross nicks on the knife edge:
A. Honing C. Both of these
B. Stropping D. None of these
37. Removal of “burr” or irregularities on the knife edge:
A. Honing C. Both of these
B. Stropping D. None of these
38. Angle formed between the cutting edge of the microtome knife (27o-32o):
A. Bevel angle C. Both of these
B. Clearance angle D. Neither of these
39. This type of microtome easily cuts large blocks and serial sections can be obtained with ease because larger knives
can be used:
A. Sliding C. Rocking
B. Rotary D. Freezing
40. The cryostat is an apparatus used in fresh tissue microtomy. It consists of a microtome, kept inside a cold chamber
which has been maintained at a temperature of:
A. 20oC C. -20oC
B. 4oC D. -4oC
41. Fat cells and enzymes are best demonstrated in:
A. Paraffin section C. Celloidin section
B. Plastic embedded section D. Frozen section
42. When trimming tissue block, they must be surrounded by at least __ of wax.
A. 1 mm C. 2 mm
B. 3 mm D. 4 mm
 3
43. Most probable cause when clearing agent turns milky as soon as the tissue is placed in it:
A. Incomplete fixation C. Incomplete dehydration
B. Prolonged fixation D. Prolonged dehydration
44. It is added to Mayer’s egg albumin to prevent the growth of molds:
A. Sodium chloride C. Thymol crystals
B. Glycerol D. Powdered starch
45. To avoid distortion of the image, the refractive index of the mountant should be near as possible to that of the glass
which is:
A. 1. 581 C. 1.185
B. 1.518 D. 1.155
46. Deparaffinization of tissue sections is accomplished by passing through:
A. Ammonia water C. Alcohol
B. Acetone D. Xylol
47. Coverslips from slides may be removed by immersion in:
A. Ammonia water C. Alcohol
B. Acetone D. Xylol
48. Ripening of hematoxylin is a process of:
A. Hydrolysis C. Mordanting
B. Oxidation D. Reduction
49. Mercuric oxide or sodium iodate is used in hematoxylin to:
A. From hematein C. Prevent oxidation
B. Serve as the mordant D. Stabilize the solution
50. A commonly used connective tissue procedure that stains collagen blue:
A. Masson trichrome C Best carmine
B. van Gieson D. Aldehyde fuchsin
51. The phosphotungstic acid hematoxylin (PTAH) is useful for demonstrating:
A. Edema fluid C. Ground substance
B. Muscle striations D. Reticulin network
52. A method for demonstrating the nucleic acids, in which the DNA stains green and the RNA stains red:
A. Feulgen reaction C. Masson trichrome
B. Methyl green - pyronin D. Gomori trichrome
53. Thin sections for electron microscopy are stained with:
A. Hematoxylin and eosin C. Uranyl acetate and lead
B. Toluidine blue D. fluorescein and rhodamine
54. Feulgen’s reaction is the most reliable and most specific histochemical staining technique for:
A. RNA C. Both
B. DNA D. Neither
55. In the Masson-Fontana ammoniacal silver reaction, melanin and argentaffin cell granules are stained:
A. Brown C. Red
B. Black D. Blue
56. All of the following are fixative used for cytologic smears, EXCEPT:
A. Equal parts of 95% ETOH and ether C. 10% Formalin
B. 95% Ethyl alcohol D. Carnoy’s fluid
57. All of the following are examples of good adhesive agents for cytologic method, EXCEPT:
A. Egg albumin C. Pooled human serum or plasma
B. Celloidin ether alcohol D. Leuconostoc culture
58. Smears prepared for cytologic examination from cut surfaces of lymph nodes can be obtained by:
A. Spreading C. Touch preparation
B. Pull-Apart D. Streaking
59. Organisms found in the normal vaginal flora that stain BLUE to lavander with Pap’s method:
A. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Doderlein bacilli
B. Streptococci D. Acid fast bacilli
60. Clue cells are diagnostic of what infection:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. HSV-II
B. Gardnerella vaginalis D. Candida albicans
61. Cells found in a vaginal smear which are thick and round to oval in shape (similar to fried fresh eggs with sunny-side
up) with strongly basophilic cytoplasm and vesicular nucleus:
A. Superficial cells C. Parabasal cells
B. Intermediate cells D. Basal cells
62. A malignant tumor is least characterized by:
A. Metastases C. Encapsulation
B. Mitotic figures D. Invasion of adjacent tissues
63. Identified by the presence of pale, pink-staining cytoplasm and dark pyknotic nuclei:
A. Superficial cells C. Intermediate cells
B. Parabasal cells D. None of these
64. May occur in large groups or small sheets and may present a honeycomb appearance when viewed on end:
A. Navicular cells C. Endometrial cells
B. Pregnancy cells D. Endocervical glandular cells
65. If smears cannot be made immediately for cytology, the collected material should be placed in ___ for all types of
effusion.
A. 10% formalin C. Chloroform
B. Glacial acetic acid D. 50% alcohol
 4
66. Absence of alveolar macrophages:
A. Saliva C. Both of these
B. Sputum D. None of these
67. Jelly-like clots in peritoneal, pleural and pericardial fluids may be prevented by addition of:
A. Acetic acid C. Alcohol
B. Formalin D. Heparin
68. For CSF specimens, a minimum of ____ is necessary for cytologic evaluation.
A. 1 cc C. 10 cc
B. 15 cc D. 20 cc
69. To obtain a more reliable cytological evaluation, urine specimen may have to be collected and examined twice – one
in the early morning and another later in the day. At least ___mL is needed which must be centrifuged. Smears of
sediments should be prepared and fixed as soon as possible after collection.
A. 10 mL C. 20 mL
B. 40 mL D. 50 mL
70. Ferning in vaginal smear is the basis for early detection of:
A. Early malignancy C. Menopausal cervix
B. Normal cervix D. Early pregnancy
71. Presence of large number of Doderlein bacilli may be found in which of the following conditions:
1. Last trimester of pregnancy 3. Infection
2. Diabetes mellitus 4. Estrogen deficiency
A. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
72. Cytologic picture strongly suggestive of malignancy
A. Class II C. Class IV
B. Class III D. Class V
73. Increase in size of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the number of cells resulting from growth of new cells:
A. Hypoplasia C. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy D. Hyperplasia
74. Marked regressive change in adult cells towards more primitive or embryonic cell types:
A. Metaplasia C. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia D. Neoplasia
75. Continuous abnormal proliferation of cells without control:
A. Metaplasia C. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia D. Neoplasia
76. Reversible change involving the transformation of one cell type to another:
A. Metaplasia C. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia D. Neoplasia
77. Rigidity or stiffening of the muscles occurring 6-12 hours after death:
A. Algor mortis C. Livor mortis
B. Rigor mortis D. Autolysis
78. Inflammation characterized by the presence of large amount of pus:
A. Serous C. Fibrinous
B. Hemorrhagic D. Suppurative or purulent
79. Inflammation characterized by extensive outpouring of a watery, low-protein fluid from blood:
A. Serous C. Fibrinous
B. Hemorrhagic D. Suppurative or purulent
80. It is usually observed in skeletal muscles, heart, kidneys, endocrine organs and smooth muscles of hollow viscera due
to increased workload and endocrine stimulation (e.g. during exercise and pregnancy)
A. Compensatory hypertrophy C. True hypertrophy
B. False hypertrophy D. None of these
81. It is due to edema fluid and connective tissue proliferation (e.g. in cirrhosis and chronic hypertrophic salphingitis or
appendicitis):
A. Compensatory hypertrophy C. True hypertrophy
B. False hypertrophy D. None of these
82. Blood Banking Law of 1956:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 4688
B. RA 5527 D. PD 223
83. Clinical Laboratory Act of 1966:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 4688
B. RA 5527 D. PD 223
84. Creation of Professional Regulation Commission:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 4688
B. RA 5527 D. PD 223
85. The clinical laboratory law requires that:
A. The pathologist owns the clinical laboratory
B. The clinical laboratory is owned by a medical technologist
C. The clinical laboratory has a pathologist, medical technologist and medical laboratory technician
D. The clinical laboratory is headed by a pathologist
86. Who are the members of the Medical technology Board?
A. Pathologist, medical technologist and medical technician
B. Secretary of health, dean and president of PAMET
C. One internist, one pathologist and one medical technologist
D. A registered pathologist and two registered medical technologist
 5
87. A medical technician to be registered must have obtained a grade within this range (Medical Technology Board
Exam):
A. 65-74.9% C. 60-74.9%
B. 70-74.9% D. 73-74.9%
88. Administrative investigations shall be conducted by:
A. At least one member of the Board C. At least one member of the Board w/one legal officer
B. Three members of the Board D. At least two members of the Board w/ one legal officer
89. The Commissioner of PRC is appointed by:
A. President of the Philippines C. Senate president
B. Speaker of the House D. Secretary of Health
90. Any member of the Medical Technology Board, if after due hearing, if found guilty of neglect of duty or incompetence
can be removed by:
A. President of the Philippines C. PRC chairman
B. CHED Commissioner D. Civil Service Commissioner
91. The penalty of revocation of certificate of registration may be imposed by the board if there is:
A. Majority vote C. Either of these
B. Unanimous vote D. Neither of these
92. National Blood Services Act of 1994:
A. RA 5527 C. RA 1517
B. RA 7719 D. RA 8504
93. Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998:
A. RA 7719 C. RA 8504
B. RA 1517 D. PD 223
94. Newborn Screening Act of 2004
A. RA 9288 C. RA 9165
B. RA 8504 D. RA 7719
95. All services are done on a primary category laboratory except: (A.O. 2007-0027)
A. Routine urinalysis C. Routine chemistry
B. Routine hematology D. Blood typing
96. Sections of RA 5527 amended by PD 1534:
A. 3, 8 and 13 C. 11, 16 and 29
B. 16, 21 and 22 D. 11, 21 and 29
97. The records of anatomic and forensic pathology shall be kept in the laboratory for:
A. Five years C. Ten years
B. Fifteen years D. Permanently
98. MT CODE OF ETHICS: Accept the responsibilities inherent to being a (98).
A. Professional C. Medical technologist
B. Filipino D. None of these
99. MT CODE OF ETHICS: Perform my task with (99) absolute reliability and accuracy.
A. Within constructive limits C. Full confidence
B. No conflict of interest D. None of these
100. MT CODE OF ETHICS: (100) of the professional organization and other allied health organizations.
A. Uphold the dignity C. Contribute to the advancement
B. Uphold the law D. None of these

END OF THE EXAM

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN HISTOTECHNIQUES AND MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS (PART3)

1. A fixative made up of mercuric chloride stock solution to which glacial acetic acid has been added just before
use:a. Zenker’s b. Helly’s c. Orth’s d. Flemming’s
2. All of the following are components of Helly’s solution, except:
a. mercuric chloride b. potassium dichromate c. formaldehyde d. glacial acetic acid
3. An excellent microanatomic fixative for pituitary gland, bone marrow and blood-containing organs such as
spleen and liver:
a. Helly’s b. Orth’s c. Carnoy’s d. Heidenhain’s susa solution
4. A fixative recommended mainly for tumor biopsies especially of the skin:
a. Helly’s b. Orth’s c. Carnoy’s d. Heidenhain’ susa solution
5. It is recommended for study of early degenerative processes and tissue necrosis:
a. Carnoy’s b. Zenker’s c. Helly’s d. Orth’s
6. It demonstrates Rickettsia and other bacteria:
a. Carnoy’s b. Zenker’s c. Helly’s d. Orth’s
7. It is recommended for acid mucopolysaccharides:
a. formaldehyde b. mercurial fixatives c. lead fixatives d. picric acid fixatives
8. Picric acid fixatives:
a. Bouin’s solution b. Brasil’s fixative c. both of these d. none of these
9. Glacial acetic acid solidifies at:
a. 1 oC b. 10 oC c. 7 oC d. 17 oC
10. Excellent for fixing blood smears and bone marrow tissues:
a. formalin b. acetic acid c. picric acid d. methyl alcohol
11. Composition of Carnoy’s fluid:
a. mercuric chloride, acetic acid c. alcohol, chloroform, acetic acid
b. picric acid, formaldehyde, acetic acid d. potassium dichromate, formaldehyde
12. It is recommended for fixing chromosomes, lymph glands and urgent biopsies:
a. Carnoy’s b. Zenker’s c. Helly’s d. Orth’s
13. It is considered to be the most rapid fixative:
a. Carnoy’s b. Zenker’s c. Helly’s d. Orth’s
14. Swelling effect on tissues counteract shrinkage produced by other components/fixatives:
a. glacial acetic acid b. trichloroacetic acid c. both of these d. none of these
15. It is used in fixing brain tissues for diagnosis of rabies:
a. formalin b. methyl alcohol c. acetone d. acetic acid
16. It is used to remove excessive mercuric fixatives:
a. tap water b. 50-70% alcohol c. iodine d. none of these
17. It is most common decalcifying agent used, utilized both as simple solution or combined with other reagents:
a. nitric acid b. hydrochloric acid c. citric acid d. chromic acid
18. It decalcifies and softens tissues at the same time:
a. hydrochloric acid b. trichloroacetic acid c. Perenyi’s fluid d. sulfurous acid
19. Composition of Perenyi’s fluid:
a. NaCl soln, HCl, water c. chromic acid, osmium tetroxide
b. formic acid, formol saline d. nitric acid, chromic acid, ethyl alcohol
20. It may be used both as a fixative and decalcifying agent:
a. nitric acid b. hydrochloric acid c. citric acid d. chromic acid
21. A very expensive although the most ideal and most reliable method of determining the extent of decalcification:
a. physical test b. mechanical test c. chemical method d. radiological method
22. Best dehydrating agent because it is fast-acting, it mixes with water and penetrates tissue easily:
a. ethyl alcohol b. acetone c. cellosolve d. triethyl phosphate
23. Dehydrates and clears tissues:
a. dioxane b. tetrahydrofuran c. both of these d. none of these
24. A clearing agent which may damage the bone marrow resulting in aplastic anemia:
a. xylene b. toluene c. benzene d. chloroform
25. A clearing agent recommended for tough tissues, for nervous tissues, lymph nodes and embryos because it
causes minimum shrinkage and hardening of tissues:
a. xylene b. toluene c. benzene d. chloroform
26. A mixture of highly purified paraffin and synthetic plastic polymers with a melting point of 56-57 oC.
a. celloidin b. paraplast c. ester wax d. carbowax
27. It is recommended for bones, teeth, large brain sections and whole organs
a. wet celloidin method b. dry celloidin method c. both of these d. none of these
28. It is preferred for processing of whole eye sections:
a. wet celloidin method b. dry celloidin method c. both of these d. none of these
29. Gilson’s mixture made up of equal parts of chloroform and cedarwood oil, is added to the celloidin block before
hardening, to make the tissue transparent:
a. wet celloidin method b. dry celloidin method c. both of these d. none of these
30. The angle formed between the cutting edges, normally between 27 to 32o:
a. bevel angle b. clearance angle c. both of these d. none of these
31. It involves the removal of gross nicks on the knife edge, to remove blemishes, and grinding the cutting edge of
the knife on a stone:
a. honing b. stropping c. both of these d. none of these
32. It involves the removal of burr and for final polishing of the knife edge:
a. honing b. stropping c. both of these d. none of these
 2

33. The knife is then turned over, and the other surface is again drawn forward, edge first, with a HEEL TO TOE
direction:
a. honing b. stropping c. both of these d. none of these
34. It is used for cutting celloidin embedded sections:
a. freezing microtome b. rocking microtome c. rotary microtome d. sliding microtome
35. This was invented by Paldwell Trefall in 1881, the simplest among the different types of microtomes:
a. freezing microtome b. rocking microtome c. rotary microtome d. sliding microtome
36. This was invented by Minot in 1885-86 to cut paraffin embedded tissues, and is the most common type used for
both routine and research laboratories:
a. freezing microtome b. rocking microtome c. rotary microtome d. sliding microtome
37. This was developed by Adam in 1789:
a. freezing microtome b. rocking microtome c. rotary microtome d. sliding microtome
38. This was invented by Queckett in 1848:
a. freezing microtome b. rocking microtome c. rotary microtome d. sliding microtome
39. It is added to Mayer’s egg albumin to prevent the growth of molds:
a. gelatin b. egg white c. glycerin d. thymol
40. A natural dye derived by extraction from the heartwood of a Mexican tree:
a. carmine b. hematoxylin c. orcein d. saffron
41. A vegetable dye extracted from certain lichens:
a. carmine b. hematoxylin c. orcein d. saffron
42. Alum hematoxylin solutions:
a. Ehrlich’s hematoxylin b. Harris hematoxylin c. both of these d. none of these
43. An excellent stain for elastic fibers (Taenzer Unna), especially recommended in dermatological studies due to
its ability to demonstrate the finest and most delicate fibers in the skin:
a. carmine b. orcein c. Prussian blue d. picric acid
44. A process by which sections are stained with simple aqueous or alcoholic solution of the dye:
a. direct staining b. indirect staining c. progressive staining d. regressive staining
45. Tissue is first overstained to obliterate the cellular details, and the excess stain is removed or decolorized from
unwanted parts of the tissue:
a. direct staining b. indirect staining c. progressive staining d. regressive staining
46. In the Masson Fontana technique, melanin is stained:
a. red b. blue c. green d. black
47. In the von Kossa silver nitrate method, calcium is stained:
a. red b. blue c. green d. black
48. Most reliable and specific histochemical staining technique for DNA:
a. von Kossa b. Levaditi’s c. Sakaguchi’s d. Feulgen’s
49. In the methyl green pyronin stain for nucleic acids, DNA is stained:
a. green/blue-green b. rose-red c. purple d. black
50. In the methyl green pyronin stain for nucleic acids, RNA is stained:
a. green/blue-green b. rose-red c. purple d. black
51. All of the following are considered as good adhesive agents for cytologic method, except:
a. pooled serum or plasma b. egg albumin c. celloidin ether alcohol d. Leuconostoc culture
52. All of the following are fixatives for cytologic smears, except:
a. ethyl alcohol and ether b. 95% ethyl alcohol c. Carnoy’s d. formalin
53. Incomplete or defective development of a tissue or organ, represented only by a mass of fatty or fibrous tissue,
bearing no resemblance to the adult structure:
a. agenesia b. aplasia c. atresia d. atrophy
54. It refers to the complete non-appearance of an organ:
a. agenesia b. aplasia c. atresia d. atrophy
55. Failure of an organ to form an opening:
a. agenesia b. aplasia c. atresia d. atrophy
56. An acquired decrease in size of a normally developed or mature tissue or organ resulting from reduction in cell
size or decrease in total number of cells or both:
a. agenesia b. aplasia c. atresia d. atrophy
57. A reversible change involving the transformation in one type of adult cell to another:
a. anaplasia b. dysplasia c. metaplasia d. neoplasia
58. Regressive alteration in adult cells manifested by variation in size, shape and orientation:
a. anaplasia b. dysplasia c. metaplasia d. neoplasia
59. Dedifferentiation:
a. anaplasia b. dysplasia c. metaplasia d. neoplasia
60. Marked regressive change in adult cells towards more primitive or embryonic cell types:
a. anaplasia b. dysplasia c. metaplasia d. neoplasia
61. Continuous abnormal proliferation of cells without control:
a. anaplasia b. dysplasia c. metaplasia d. neoplasia
62. It is characterized by cooling of the body to equalize that of the surrounding environment, occurring at a definite
rate, about 7 oF per hour and usually important in establishing the approximate time of death:
a. algor mortis b. livor mortis c. rigor mortis d. dessication
63. This refers to the rigidity or stiffening of the muscles occurring 6 to 12 hours after death and persisting for 3 to 4
days:
a. algor mortis b. livor mortis c. rigor mortis d. dessication
 3

64. This refers to the purplish discoloration or lividity of the skin after death:
a. algor mortis b. livor mortis c. rigor mortis d. dessication
65. This refers to the drying and wrinkling of the cornea and anterior chamber of the eye due to the absorption of
the aqueous humor.
a. algor mortis b. livor mortis c. rigor mortis d. dessication
66. Identified by the presence of pale, pink-staining cytoplasm and dark pyknotic nuclei:
a. superficial cells b. intermediate cells c. parabasal cells d. none of these
67. The penalty of revocation of certificate of registration may be imposed by the board if there is:
a. Majority vote b. Unanimous vote c. Either of these d. Neither of these
68. National Blood Services Act of 1994:
a. RA 5527 b. RA 1517 c. RA 7719 d. RA 8504
69. Newborn Screening Act of 2004:
a. RA 9502 b. RA 9288 c. RA 9211 d. RA 9165
70. What are the disorders included in the newborn screening?
1. congenital hypothyroidism (CH) 3. congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) 5. phenylketonuria
2. galactosemia 4. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
a. 1, 3 and 5 b. 1, 3, 4 and 5 c. 1, 2 and 5 d. AOTA
71. Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998:
a. RA 7719 b. RA 8504 c. RA 1517 d. PD 223

72 – 79:
A. RA 1517 B. RA 4688 C. RA 5527 D. PD 223
72. Philippine Medical technology Act
73. Blood Banking Law
74. Clinical Laboratory Act
75. Creation of Professional Regulation Commission
76. June 22, 1973
77. June 21, 1969
78. June 18, 1966
79. June 16, 1956

80 – 88: SERVICE CAPABILITY OF LABORATORIES

Revised Rules and Regulations Governing the Licensure and Regulation of Clinical Laboratories in the Philippines
(August 22, 2007)

80. Blood typing – for hospital-based A. Done in primary secondary and tertiary laboratories
81. Special Hematology B. Done in secondary and tertiary laboratories
82. Immunology C. Done only in a tertiary laboratory
83. Microbiology – culture and sensitivity
84. Routine Clinical Chemistry
85. Routine Fecalysis
86. Routine Hematology
87. Routine Urinalysis
88. Special Chemistry

89 to 100: FILL IN THE BLANKS: CODE OF ETHICS

A. Contribute to the advancement G. Ethics committee

B. Knowledge and expertise H. No conflict of interest
C. Professional I. Promote life and benefit mankind
D. Spirit of brotherhood J. Strictly confidential;
E. Uphold the dignity K. Uphold the law
F. Within constructive limits L. Full confidence

As I enter into the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

 Accept the responsibilities inherent to being a (89).

 (90) and shall not participate in illegal work.
 Act in a strict spirit of fairness to all and in a (91) toward other members of the profession.
 Accept employment from more than one employer only when there in (92).
 Perform my task with (93) absolute reliability and accuracy.
 Share my (94) with my colleagues.
 (95) of the professional organization and other allied health organizations.
 Restrict my praises, criticisms, views and opinions (96).
 Treat any information I acquired in the course of my work as (97).
 (98) and respect of my profession and conduct myself a reputation of reliability, honesty and integrity.
 Be dedicated to the use of clinical laboratory science (99).
 Report any violations of the above principles of the professional conduct to authorized agency and to the (100).

END OF THE EXAM