BIOLOGY (044)

CLASS – XII (2025-26)

Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3

hours

General Instructions:

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5
questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks
each; Section– D has 2 questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E
has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. Answer all 33 questions. However,
internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student
has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be
drawn.

Section – A
Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is
correct. Select and write the correct choice as well as the answer to these
questions.

1. The presence of an additional copy of the chromosome number 21

(trisomy of 21) cause which genetic disorder ?

A. Down syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome
D. Thalassemia

2. Which layer nourishes the developing pollen grains ?

 A. Tapetum
B. Pollen sacs
C. Endothecium
D. Epidermis

3. Select the incorrect statement among the following.

A. S strain —–—> inject into mice –––––> Mice die
B. R strain —–—> inject into mice –––––> Mice live
C. S strain + R strain ——> inject into mice –––––> Mice live
(heat) (live)
D. S strain (heat killed) ––––> inject into mice –––> Mice live
4. Out of following pairs, which genetic codes also known as stop terminator
codons.

A. UAA, GAU, UGA

B. UAA, UAG, UGA
C. AAU, UAG, GUA
D. UAA, UAG, AGU

5. A transitional unit in mRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by

A. Untranslated region (UTR)
B. Universal codon (UUU)
C. Initiator codon (AUG)
D. Stop codon (UAA)

6. In the history of Biology, the Human Genome Project led to the

development of: A. Biotechnology

B. Biomonitoring
C. Bioinformatics
D. Biosystematics
7. Which of the following conclusions can be true regarding aneuploidy?
I) It is the presence of an extra chromosome in a diploid cell.
II) An aneuploid cell differs from other cells only in size.
III) It can be less number of chromosomes in a diploid cell.
IV) Aneuploidy always affects female individuals.

A. I only
B. Both I and III
C. Both II and III
D. I, III and IV
8. Select the incorrectly matched pairs
A. Purines – Nitrogenous bases cytosine, thymine and uracil.
B. Recombinant DNA – DNA formed by joining the DNA segments from
two different sources.
C. rRNA – RNA found in ribosomes.
D. ATP – The energy-carrying compound in the cell.
9. A molecule that acts as a genetic material must fulfil the following traits,
except

A. It should be structurally and chemically unstable

B. It should have the ability to generate its replica
C. It should facilitate slow changes necessary for evolution.
D. It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian characters.
10. If Escherichia coli grown in 15N medium for several generation and
after that is allowed to grow in 14N medium for one generation. Which of
the following would be correct with regard to the first generation bacteria
in 14N medium?

(a) Both strands of DNA would have different density and do not
resemble parent DNA.

(b) Both strands of DNA would have different density but resemble parent
DNA.

(c) Both strands of DNA would have same density and resemble parent
DNA.

( d ) Both strands of DNA would have Ansame density but do not

resemble parent DNA.

11. What type of sex determination system is found in honeybees?

 A. XY system
B. ZW system
C. XO system
D. Haplodiploidy
12. Elephantiasis is caused by _______.
A. Filarial worms
B. Flatworms
C. Tapeworms
D. None of the above
[Link]. 13 to 16 consists of assertion with there reasons. In the
following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a
statement of reason.

Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.

(c)If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

13. Assertion: An organ transplant patient if not provided with cyclosporin

A may reject the transplanted organ.

Reason: Cyclosporin A inhibits activation of T-cells and interferes with

destruction of non-self cells.

14. Assertion : From day 10 to 17 of the mentrual cycle is called fertile

period.

Reason : As chances of fertilisation are very high during this period.

15. Assertion : The total genes and their alleles in a populations are called
gene pool.

Reason : The gene pool remains a constant in a population.

16. Assertion : Exine of a pollen grain is made up of sporopollenin which is
resistant to high temperature, strong acid or alkali as well as enzymatic
degradation.

Reason : Sporopollenin is absent in the region of germ pores.

Section – B (2 each)
17. Attempt either option A or B.
A. Arrange the following terms in the correct developmental sequence -
Pollen grains, sporogenous tissue, microscope tetrade, pollen mother
cell, male gametes

OR

B. Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self pollination in flowers.

18. Attempt either option A or B.

A. Highlight the salient features of genetic code.

OR
B. Highlight the goals of HGP.
19. Define and design a test cross.
20. Haemophilia is a sex linked recessive disorder of humans. The
pedigree chart given below shows the inheritance of Haemophilia in one
family. Study the pattern of inheritance and answer the questions given.

(a) Give all the possible genotypes of the members 4, 5 and 6 in the
pedigree chart.
(b) A blood test shows that the individual 14 is a carrier of gaemophilia.
The member numbered 15 has recently married the member numbered 14.
What is the probability that their first child will be a haemophilic male ?
Show with the help of Punnett square. 21. Attempt either option A or B

A. I) Name the factors for RNA polymerase enzymes which recognize

the start and termination signals on DNA for the transcription
process in Bacteria.

II) Mention the dual function of AUG.

OR
B. Differentiate between :

I) integument and testa

II) Spermatids and spermatozoa

Section – C (3
each)
22. Suggest a suitable contraceptive device for the following cases with
Justification.

(i) Mohini does not want to take the risk of conception and
sexually Transmitted infections (STIs).
(ii) Lalita has two children and does not want any more children.
(iii) Geeta wants a contraceptive that she can take till she wants
to avoid conception and can resume back to her fertile life
without the intervention of the doctor. Also, it should have a
lower failure rate.

23. Given below is a figure showing transport of ovum, fertilisation and

passage of growing embryo through fallopian tube in a human female.
Answer the questions that follow:

(i) What will be the ploidy of cells shown in (a) and (c) stage in
the figure given below?
 (ii) What will happen if component L as shown in the figure (g)
given below does not attach properly to the endometrium?
(iii) In a pregnant mother (case X), during early pregnancy, the
fertilised egg splits into two embryos at stage C shown in the
figure given below, resulting in the formation of twins. Will the
genome of cells of these two embryos exhibit variation?
Justify your answer.

24. A) Name the functions of the following: (1+2 = 3)

a) Fimbriae
b)Endometrium
B) Differentiate between sex determination in honey bee and Drosophila.

25. Explain why sexual reproduction in angiosperms is said to take place

through double fertilization and triple fusion. Also draw a labelled
diagram of embryo sac to explain the phenomena.

26. With a neat diagram explain the 7 – celled, 8 - nucleate nature of the
female gametophyte.

27. a) What is point mutation ? Give one example (1 + 2 = 3)

b) when a cross in made between tall plant with yellow seeds (TtYy) and tall
plant with green seeds (Ttyy), what proportion of phenotype in the offspring
could be expected to be

I) tall and green.

II) dwarf and green.
28. A child has blood group O. If the father has blood group A and mother
blood group B, work out the genotypes of the parents and the possible
genotypes of the other offsprings.

Section – D (4
each)
29. A) What are carcinogens? What are the different types of carcinogens?
Also, mention the different methods of treatment of cancer.

OR

B) Describe the ill – effects of drug abuse in males and females. Also,
mention the preventive measures that are to be taken to reduce such
effects.

30. a) Give two reasons why both the strands of DNA are not copied during
transcription.

b) Mention any two applications of DNA fingerprinting.

Section – E (5
each)
31.A) Answer the following questions based on Meselson and Stahl’s
experiment.

a)Write the name of the chemical substance used a source of nitrogen in the
experiment by them.

b) Why did the scientists synthesise the light and the heavy DNA
molecules in the organism used in the experiment.

c) How did the scientists make it possible to distinguish the heavy DNA
molecule from the light DNA molecule ? Explain.

d) Write the conclusion the scientists arrived at after completing the

experiment.
e)This experiment was first performed in which bacteria ?
OR

B) how did Hershey and Chase differentiate between DNA and protein in
their experiment while proving that DNA is the genetic material ?

32. A) differentiate the following and give examples of each : (2 + 2 + 1 =

5)

I) Innate and acquired immunity

II) Active and passive immunity
B) Diagrammatically represent the stages in the life cycle of plasmodium.
C) Labell A and B in the following diagram.

33. A) With the help of a neat labelled diagram of the female reproductive
system, depict the following sites:

(I) production of gamete

(II) site of fertilization
(III) site of implantation
(IV) birth canal
(V) Ruptured wall during mensuration
 OR

B) With the help of diagram showing male reproductive system, following

functions are takes place in which part ?

I) Muscular walls contract to forcefully expel semen through the urethra

during ejaculation.

II) Protect the testes and to regulate their temperature.

III) urination and sexual intercourse.
IV) to transport mature sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory ducts

V) to produce testosterone hormone.