Dietetics MCQ PDF

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 Dietetics
MCQ PDF
Cou
Dietetics is the study of how food and nutrition impact human health, focusing on the

science of diet planning, nutrient metabolism, and therapeutic nutrition practices. This

course explores the principles of healthy eating, nutritional assessment, and the

development of dietary recommendations to prevent and manage diseases. Students

will learn about the role of dietitians in various settings, including hospitals, community

health, and food service management, while gaining practical skills in meal planning,

dietary counseling, and nutrition education.

Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 9th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne

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Page 2
 Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is wellness? Discuss the Health Line and its relation to wellness.
Answer: Wellness is defined as: maximum well-being; the top range of health states; the
goal of the person who strives toward realizing his or her full potential physically,
mentally, emotionally, spiritually, and socially. The choices people make each day affect
not only their physical health but also their wellness -all the characteristics that make a
person strong, confident, and able to function well with family, friends, and others. People
who consistently make poor lifestyle choices on a daily basis increase their risks of
developing diseases. A person's health can fall anywhere along a continuum, from
maximum wellness on the one end to total failure to function (death) on the other. This is
what's known as the Health Line.

Q2) The Recommended Dietary Allowances_____.

A) are designed primarily to prevent toxicities
B) are set when there is a lack of scientific data to generate an Adequate Intake
C) focus on all dietary components
D) are the foundation of the Dietary Reference Intakes
E) focus strictly on inorganic nutrients
Answer: D

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Page 3
 Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most fiber-rich foods are kcalorie-free.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

Q2) When carbohydrates are plentiful, the human brain depends almost exclusively on
them as an energy source.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

Q3) Refer to the "Ice Cream" box above. How many artificial sweeteners are contained in
the product?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: A

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Page 4
 Chapter 3: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which fish is most likely to contain the highest levels of mercury?
A) salmon
B) catfish
C) pollock
D) shark
E) sardine
Answer: D

Q2) A triglyceride contains more than three fatty acids.

A)True
B)False
Answer: False

Q3) Which food contains cholesterol?

A) corn
B) fruit
C) peanut butter
D) milk
E) bran
Answer: D

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Page 5
 Chapter 4: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) A polypeptide ____.
A) contains less than five amino acids
B) is composed of more than one protein molecule
C) contains ten or more amino acids
D) contains only three amino acids
E) not folded or coiled

Q2) Severe marasmus ____.

A) results in low resistance to disease
B) causes increased body temperature
C) occurs only in children
D) hampers physical development but leaves the brain unaffected
E) occurs only in adults

Q3) Only water transports substances such as lipids, vitamins, and minerals throughout
the body.
A)True
B)False

Q4) The dramatically different shapes of proteins enable them to perform different tasks
in the body.
A)True
B)False

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 Chapter 5: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) The microscopic hairs that cover the surface of each cell lining the small intestine
are called ____.
A) intestinal folds
B) villi
C) microvilli
D) lymphatics
E) microcilia

Q2) Pepsin cannot function in the strong acidic environment of the stomach.
A)True
B)False

Q3) Involuntary muscle contractions move food through the intestinal tract. The
movement that forces the contents back a few inches before pushing it forward again is
called ____.
A) segmentation
B) rotation
C) peristalsis
D) liquefaction
E) digestion

Q4) Outline and trace the path food follows through the digestive tract from one end to
the other.

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 Chapter 6: Metabolism Energy Balance and Body

Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor is not used to calculate the EER?
A) height
B) percent body fat
C) weight
D) gender
E) age

Q2) Describe how fat can be made from an excess of each of the energy
nutrients-carbohydrate, protein, or fat.

Q3) Explain the difference between anaerobic and aerobic metabolism.

Q4) A person will typically expend _____% of their daily energy budget on basal
metabolism.
A) 25-30
B) 30-35
C) 50-65
D) 10-15
E) 80-90

Q5) The building up of body compounds is known as anabolism.

A)True
B)False Page 8

Q6) Discuss the characteristics of the female athlete triad?

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 Chapter 7: Weight Management Overweight and

Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severe kcalorie restriction and rapid weight loss can result in _____.
A) excessive hair loss
B) a higher basal metabolism
C) slow regain of weight
D) excessive loss of lean muscle tissue
E) excessive loss of fat tissue

Q2) Why are fad diets appealing to a lot of people?

Q3) Why is nutritional adequacy difficult to achieve on fewer than 1200 kcalories per
day?

Q4) A good way to begin a safe and effective weight-loss program is to _____.
A) keep a food and activity diary
B) reduce energy intake to 800 kcalories per day
C) start on a Monday
D) recognize that the feelings of starvation are inevitable
E) commit to drinking 2 gallons of water per day

Q5) Discuss the nuances of over-the-counter weight-loss products, both in terms of

what they promise and the federal regulatory climate.

Q6) Describe why physical activity is veryPage

important
9 in a weight-loss program.

Q7) Briefly describe the set-point theory and its role as a cause of obesity.

Q8) Describe strategies for successful weight gain.

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Page 10
 Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin B differs from the other water-soluble vitamins in that it _____.
A) does not play a role in the metabolism of energy-yielding nutrients
B) can be stored in muscle tissue
C) is absorbed like the fat-soluble vitamins
D) is only found in animal foods
E) is never found in vegetables

Q2) The amount of a vitamin absorbed and used by the body is called _____.
A) vitamin efficiency
B) bioavailability
C) fortification
D) vitamin equivalency
E) vitamin intake

Q3) The first signs of vitamin C deficiency appear in the _____.

A) blood vessels
B) bones
C) hair
D) fingernails
E) irises

Q4) Name the antioxidant vitamins and describe how they function in the body.

Q5) How do the vitamins differ from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins?
Page 11
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 Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is selenium important in the body and why might it be used to treat cancer?

Q2) The hallucinations commonly experienced during withdrawal from alcohol

intoxication are believed to be due to a deficiency of _____.
A) magnesium
B) phosphorus
C) iron
D) calcium
E) selenium

Q3) Electrolytes in the body function to _____.

A) maintain fluid balance.
B) stimulate enzyme action
C) synthesize protein
D) maintain the health of cell membranes
E) synthesize glycogen

Q4) People who eat mostly processed and fast foods have the highest sodium intakes.
A)True
B)False

Q5) What is the mechanism by which fluoride exerts a caries-reducing effect?

Q6) Discuss why iron is so important to the body and some of the ways the body tries to
prevent losing iron. Page 12

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 Chapter 10: Fitness and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain what a person has to do in terms of type, frequency, intensity, and duration of
activity to meet the ACSM's guidelines for physical activity.

Q2) A person's own _____ is usually a reliable indicator of the intensity of an activity.
A) perceived effort
B) heart rate
C) feelings of self-worth
D) positive attitude
E) competitiveness

Q3) The American College of Sports Medicine's guidelines for physical activityspecify
that people need to spend at least _____ minutes performing moderate-intensity
aerobic activity on five to seven days per week.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
E) 75

Q4) Why is it important to "refuel" as soon after physical activity as possible?

Q5) Describe some of the conditioning effects of cardiorespiratory training.

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Page 13
 Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span Pregnancy and

Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrients and oxygen travel to the developing fetus via _____.
A) the placenta
B) the amniotic sac
C) its lungs
D) its intestines
E) the uterine wall

Q2) The effects of malnutrition during critical periods in pregnancy _____.

A) can be offset by vitamin and mineral supplementation
B) are irreversible
C) can be remedied later in pregnancy with a nutritious diet
D) are not significant
E) can be offset by boosting protein and carbohydrate intake

Q3) During pregnancy, food energy needs increase less than nutrient needs. To achieve
this balance, food selection should include _____.
A) foods of lower nutrient density
B) increased portions of vitamin C-rich foods
C) use of whole milk and fatty meats
D) decreased portions of vitamin C-rich foods
E) decreased portions of calcium-rich foods

Page 14
Q4) Discuss the potential health problems of a low-birthweight infant.

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 Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span Infancy

Childhood and Adolescence

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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the nutrients most often found lacking in the diets of teenagers.

Q2) Power struggles over food arise when _____.

A) parents try to control every aspect of a child's eating
B) children are allowed to regulate their own food intake
C) parents don't demonstrate healthy eating habits
D) children are presented with too many food choices
E) parents give children only one food choice

Q3) The most important risk factor for type 2 diabetes in children is _____.
A) food intolerances
B) high cholesterol
C) obesity
D) food allergies
E) parents who smoke indoors

Q4) Positive eating habits for a young child can be promoted by _____.
A) presenting a new food at the beginning of the meal
B) allowing him to stand and play at the table
C) making sure he eats all the food he is given at each meal
D) rewarding him with dessert when he has cleaned his plate
E) offering him a choice of two new foods at a time
Page 15

Q5) Describe the relationship between hunger and school performance.

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Chapter 13: Nutrition Through the Life Span Later Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many older people take in adequate amounts of _____.
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin D
C) folate
D) zinc
E) calcium

Q2) The primary cause of hunger in developed countries is _____.

A) food poverty
B) war
C) mental illness
D) politics
E) poor roads

Q3) Which food assistance program would most likely improve the intake of fruits and
vegetables among low-income older adults?
A) OAA Nutrition Program
B) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
C) Meals on Wheals
D) Senior Farmers Market Nutrition Program
E) Meals for Singles

Q4) Why is dehydration a risk for older adults?

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 Chapter 14: Illness and Nutrition Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which aspect of a patient's appearance is an indicator of good nutritional status?
A) shiny hair
B) smooth tongue
C) lack of fat under the skin
D) rough skin
E) dry skin

Q2) Which food is recommended for a high-kcalorie, high-protein diet?

A) cheese
B) raw vegetables
C) fresh fruit
D) plain pasta
E) white bread

Q3) Albumin has a half-life of ____.

A) 14-20 days
B) 14-20 weeks
C) 3-6 days
D) 3-6 weeks
E) 3 months

Q4) Describe what is included in a diet manual.

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Page 17
 Chapter 15: Medications - Diet Drug Interactions - and

Herbal Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are three general ways in which diet and drugs can interact?

Q2) Why is it recommended that tetracycline be taken on an empty stomach at least

two hours before or after consuming dairy products?
A) Stomach acidity affects calcium absorption.
B) Too much tetracycline will be absorbed and blood levels will be too high.
C) The combination of tetracycline and calcium will cause tooth enamel to discolor.
D) Too much calcium will be absorbed and blood levels will be too high.
E) Tetracycline and calcium will bind to each other, reducing the absorption of both.

Q3) Which drug prevents cancer cells from obtaining folate?

A) methotrexate
B) ephedra
C) coenzyme Q
D) leucovorin
E) isoniazid

Q4) Could either of the dietary supplements Mr. Hare is taking interact with his
prescription medications? If so, which ones and why?

Q5) Discuss the ways in which drugs can affect food intake.

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 Chapter 16: Specialized Nutrition Support - Enteral and

Parenteral Nutrition
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Q1) Phelebitis may develop as a result of _____.
A) tube feeding intolerance
B) refeeding syndrome
C) peripheral parenteral nutrition
D) the use of hypertonic formulas
E) rotating venous access sites

Q2) Enteral nutrition is preferred over parenteral nutrition because enteral nutrition helps
stimulate or maintain normal gut function.
A)True
B)False

Q3) The protein content of most standard formulas ranges from _____ of total
kcalories.
A) 5-10%
B) 12-20%
C) 25-30%
D) 35-40%
E) 45-50%

Q4) Describe the current procedure for administering a TPN feeding.

Pageare
Q5) Describe characteristics of patients who 19 candidates for PPN.

Q6) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of nasogastric feeding.

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 Chapter 17: Foods and Food Consistency for Upper Gi

Disorders
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Q1) One of the most common causes of acute gastritis is _____.
A) food allergies
B) viral infections
C) repeated use of NSAIDS
D) radiation therapy
E) repeated use of proton pump inhibitors

Q2) Repeated bouts of pneumonia may be associated with _____.

A) dysphagia
B) irritable bowel syndrome
C) peptic ulcers
D) diverticular disease
E) achalasia

Q3) What is the primary treatment of ulcers?

A) surgery
B) relaxation therapy
C) drug therapy
D) diet
E) lifestyle changes

Q4) What types of medications are used to treat GERD?

Page 20

Q5) Describe the nutritional concerns for a patient following bariatric surgery.

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 Chapter 18: Fiber-Modified Diets for Lower Gastrointestinal

Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mother of a toddler is concerned about her child's frequent episodes of diarrhea.
The dietitian suggests that the mother reduce the child's intake of _____.
A) oatmeal
B) fruit juice
C) rice
D) yogurt
E) bananas

Q2) Which strategy would be the first step in the treatment of someone with diarrhea?
A) correct the underlying medical condition
B) place the patient on a clear liquid diet
C) start parenteral nutrition
D) start an oral rehydration solution
E) start IV fluids.

Q3) Describe potential problems associated with probiotic use.

Q4) Should Mr. Fruge develop diverticulitis in the future, how would the dietary
recommendations change?

Q5) Differentiate between diverticulosis and diverticulitis.

Q6) Describe important components of nutrition

Page 21 management for people with ostomies.

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 Chapter 19: Carbohydrate - and Fat Modified Diets for

Malabsorption Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kati is at greatest risk of _____ malabsorption.
A) macronutrient
B) water-soluble vitamin
C) B vitamin
D) sodium, potassium, and chloride
E) amino acid

Q2) Severe liver disease can lead to fat malabsorption because _____.
A) bile availability is reduced
B) the production of pancreatic lipase is reduced
C) it results in damage to the intestinal wall
D) intestinal transit is increased
E) duodenal surface area is reduced

Q3) Which food is included in a gluten-restricted diet?

A) wheat
B) rice
C) barley
D) rye
E) malted milk

Q4) Explain the cause of Julia's impaired nutrition status.

Page 22

Q5) Explain the process of intestinal adaptation.

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 Chapter 20: Nutrition Therapy for Liver and Gallbladder

Diseases
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Q1) Mr. Jamison begins experiencing hyperglycemia as his disease progresses. The
appropriate diet for him is _____.
A) low protein
B) carbohydrate controlled
C) low sodium
D) fat controlled
E) high fiber, high carbohydrate

Q2) Cirrhosis patients frequently develop insulin resistance and consequently must
follow a diet that _____.
A) maintains blood glucose control
B) is low in fiber
C) provides consistent vitamin K intake
D) is low in sodium
E) is low in protein

Q3) Patients with ascites generally must restrict their intake of _____.
A) fat
B) carbohydrates
C) sodium
D) iron
E) potassium Page 23

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 Chapter 21: Carbohydrate Controlled Diets for Diabetes

Mellitus
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Q1) Which insulin preparation has the quickest onset of action?
A) lispro
B) regular
C) NPH
D) glargine
E) detemir

Q2) Type 2 diabetes is associated with _____.

A) autoimmune diseases
B) insulin resistance
C) destruction of pancreatic beta cells
D) viral infection
E) low insulin secretion

Q3) Acetone breath is characteristic of hypoglycemia.

A)True
B)False

Q4) It is appropriate for clients diagnosed with type 2 diabetes to take oral antidiabetic
agents and ignore their prescribed diet.
A)True
B)False
Page 24

Q5) Describe how glycated hemoglobin is used to evaluate long-term glycemic control.

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 Chapter 22: Fat Controlled - Mineral Modified Diets for

Cardiovascular Diseases
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Q1) In working with patients with disabilities, a valuable method for assessing current
eating behaviors is _____.
A) interviewing the patients
B) directly observing patients during mealtimes
C) conducting nutrition histories
D) talking with the occupational therapist
E) interviewing the patient's family

Q2) Describe how atherosclerosis develops.

Q3) All of these substances have been found to be protective against CHD except
_____.
A) antioxidant nutrient supplements
B) eating two fatty fish meals per week
C) dietary fiber
D) moderate consumption of alcohol
E) moderate, regular exercise

Q4) Of the dietary lipids, cholesterol has the strongest effect on blood cholesterol levels.
A)True
B)False

Pageof
Q5) Name and describe three different types 25stroke.

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 Chapter 23: Protein - Mineral - and Fluid Modified Diets for

Kidney Diseases
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Q1) For most kidney transplant patients, dietary adjustments are required as a result of
_____.
A) kidney dysfunction
B) metabolic changes
C) hypertension issues
D) healing issues
E) the side effects of immunosuppressive drugs

Q2) Describe how drug therapy is used to control some of the complications of chronic
kidney disease.

Q3) In oliguric patients, recovery from kidney injury may begin with a period of diuresis,
during which the patient's fluid and electrolyte status are monitored.
A)True
B)False

Q4) Describe the medical nutrition therapy for calcium oxalate stones.

Q5) Suggest appropriate amounts of protein, sodium, potassium, and fluids for a patient
on hemodialysis.

Q6) Adults with chronic kidney disease frequently develop wasting and PEM.
A)True Page 26
B)False

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 Chapter 24: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for

Metabolic and Respiratory Stress

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Q1) Metabolic stress can result from uncontrolled infection or extensive tissue injury.
A)True
B)False

Q2) Most critical care patients require between _____ kcalories per kg per day.
A) 5-10
B) 10-15
C) 15-20
D) 25-30
E) 35-40

Q3) Adequate fluid intake will help the person with COPD by _____.
A) decreasing carbon dioxide output
B) preventing the secretion of overly thick mucus
C) aiding in weight loss
D) improving oxygen consumption
E) improving ventilation

Q4) Describe the medications used to treat COPD and the possible metabolic side
effects.

Q5) Why is Caroline likely to experience negative nitrogen balance despite being
provided with adequate protein? Page 27

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 Chapter 25: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for

Cancer and HIV Infection

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Q1) hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
A)the accumulation of fatty tissue at the base of the neck
B)the process of cancer development
C)a fungal infection of the mouth and throat
D)to spread from one part of the body to another
E)substances that can cause cancer
F)a wasting syndrome, associated with cancer, that is characterized by anorexia, muscle
wasting, weight loss, and fatigue
G)the use of drugs to arrest or destroy cancer cells
H)benign tumor composed of fatty tissue
I)a common virus that can cause blister-like lesions on the lips and in the mouth
J)transplantation of the stem cells that produce red and white blood cells

Q2) Discuss three strategies that might help a patient cope with her reduced taste
sensation.

Q3) Describe the metabolic changes associated with cancer that contribute to weight
loss and nutrient depletion.

Q4) Why should AIDS patients be concerned about food-borne illnesses?

Q5) Discuss three strategies that might help a cancer patient cope with nausea.
Page 28
Q6) Explain reasons why HIV patients have reduced food intake.

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