Health Information Management
Midterm Exam
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Health Information Management
Midterm Exam
Cou
Health Information Management focuses on the systematic collection, analysis,
protection, and dissemination of patient health data within healthcare settings. This
course explores the principles and practices associated with maintaining accurate and
secure health records, managing electronic health systems, ensuring compliance with
legal and ethical standards, and supporting quality patient care through effective
information governance. Students will develop essential skills in data management,
health informatics, coding, and privacy regulations, preparing them for roles in
healthcare administration, data analysis, and information technology within the health
sector.
Recommended Textbook
Diseases of the Human Body 5th Edition by Carol D. Tamparo
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Disease Process
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Q1) Which of the following causes a lack of oxygen and accumulation of carbon dioxide
in the blood?
A) Electric shock
B) Poisoning
C) Asphyxiation
D) Neoplasia
Answer: C
Q2) Anaphylactic shock is:
A) Considered an allergic reaction.
B) A neoplastic malignancy of the lymph system.
C) Chronic and not life threatening.
D) Emotional or mental in etiology.
Answer: A
Q3) Inflammation is defined as:
A) The body's response to trauma, physical or chemical agents, and pathogenic
organisms.
B) Either acute or chronic.
C) A process beginning with the physical irritant and ending with healing.
D) All of the above
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Integrative Medicine and Complementary
Therapies
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Q1) The greatest successes in treatment for clients will come when health-care
practitioners are able to integrate the traditional and complementary modalities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The positive effects of unconditional love are seen clearly when using pets in various
kinds of therapy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) In mind-body medicine, participants are taught how to use relaxation and
visualization to reduce stress in their lives.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) When discussing health care, the term "natural" always means "safe."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Pain and Its Managament
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Q1) Pain that is sometimes referred to as tissue pain is:
A) Neuropathic.
B) Breakthrough.
C) Nociceptive.
D) Both A and C
Answer: C
Q2) Multidisciplinary pain clinics assess and manage physical restoration or
rehabilitation and medical needs, and provide educational and psychological services.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Therapeutic touch replenishes a client's energy field.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Placebos are a powerful example of the mind-body connection.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Infectious and Communicable Diseases
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Q1) Drug-resistant microorganisms are becoming a major health issue around the
world.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Varicella treatment consists of:
A) Isolation.
B) Calamine lotion.
C) Bicarbonate of soda or oatmeal baths.
D) All of the above
Q3) In stage I of Lyme disease:
A) Diagnosis is fairly easy to establish.
B) Flulike symptoms can last from several weeks to several months.
C) ECM rash may be present.
D) Both B and C
Q4) A vaccine is a:
A) Suspension of infectious agents, their components, or genetically engineered
antigens.
B) Solution of toxins from microorganisms and a solution of a nonpathogen.
C) Suspension of living infectious agents and a solution of a nonpathogen.
D) Solution of a nonpathogen.
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Chapter 5: Cancer
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Q1) Removal of a small piece of living tissue for microscopic examination is:
A) Biopsy.
B) Cryosurgery.
C) Immunotherapy.
D) Radiation therapy.
Q2) Radiation therapy for cancer:
A) Is received by less than half of all persons with cancer.
B) May be used alone or in combination with other treatments.
C) Has little or no side effects.
D) A and B only
Q3) A distant stage cancer is when the cancerous cells have disappeared.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tumors that arise from supportive and connective tissue are:
A) In situ.
B) Carcinomas.
C) Sarcomas.
D) Leukemias.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Congenital Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder:
A) Results when the mother drinks alcohol during pregnancy.
B) Occurs when a pregnant mother consumes less than two drinks a day.
C) Usually causes large size and weight of infant at birth.
D) Both A and B
Q2) Which of the following is true of cleft lip and cleft palate?
A) Cleft lip is more common than cleft palate.
B) They are thought to be a multifactorial genetic disorder.
C) The combination of the two occurs in approximately 1:5000 births.
D) One surgery is generally all that is needed to correct cleft lip and cleft palate.
Q3) Diagnostic procedure(s) for sickle cell anemia include(s):
A) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and computed tomography (CT).
B) Hemoglobin electrophoresis.
C) Biopsy of specialized blood cells.
D) Measurement of WBC levels.
Q4) The most common teratogens to cause birth defects are infectious diseases,
physical agents, drugs and chemicals, and maternal issues.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Mental Health Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) Contributing factors of bulimia nervosa may include:
A) Psychological factors.
B) History of OCD, depression, anxiety, and phobias.
C) Genetics.
D) A and B only
Q2) A sign or symptom of female sexual arousal disorder is:
A) A lack of vaginal lubrication and vasocongestive response.
B) Persistent genital pain.
C) A rapid sexual arousal.
D) An anatomical cervical anomaly.
Q3) According to the National Institute of Mental Health, 10% of the U.S. population is
diagnosed with a mental health disorder each year.
A)True
B)False
Q4) People suffering from a narcissistic personality disorder have a need for admiration
and grandiosity.
A)True
B)False
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Skin Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) An inflammatory disease marked by discrete pink or red lesions with a characteristic
silvery scaling is:
A) Psoriasis.
B) Dermatitis.
C) Acne vulgaris.
D) Fever blisters.
Q2) The treatment of furuncles and carbuncles may include:
A) Cleansing with soap and water and using wet, hot compresses.
B) Surgical incision and drainage if lesion is mature.
C) Antibiotic agents.
D) All of the above
Q3) Eczema is a form of scleroderma.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Localized hyperplasia of the stratum corneum of the skin is called:
A) Dermatophytoses.
B) Corns.
C) Calluses.
D) Warts.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal System Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) Paresthesia
A)Difficulty swallowing
B)Occurs from a sudden impact to the joint
C)Drooping eyelid
D)Intermittent interruptions of blood supply to the fingers and toes
E)Difficulty speaking
F)Cracking sound due to the grating of bones
G)Blood clot
H)The strength and power of an organism
I)Immobility of joint
J)Sensation of numbness, prickling, or tingling
Q2) Which of the following diseases is a chronic inflammatory process of the joints and
bones?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Osteitis deformans
Q3) Osteoporosis is a congenital condition.
A)True
B)False
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Nervous System Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) The most common of headaches is the cluster headache.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Agraphia
A)Makes energy in a cell
B)An agent that blocks parasympathetic nerve impulses
C)Flashing lights before one's eyes
D)Builds proteins in a cell
E)Abnormally slow movements
F)Inability to turn thought into writing
G)Opening in the occipital bone
H)Fibrosis of connective tissue that prevents normal mobility
I)Double vision
J)Inability to understand auditory or visual information
Q3) The loss of voluntary muscular control and sensation on one side of the body is
called:
A) Paraplegia.
B) Quadriplegia.
C) Hemiplegia.
D) Agnosia.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Endocrine System Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) Type 2 diabetes requires regular injections of insulin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The classic manifestations of Graves disease are:
A) Goiter, symptoms of thyrotoxicosis, ophthalmopathy, dermopathy, and nervousness.
B) Symptoms of thyrotoxicosis and ophthalmopathy only.
C) Dermopathy and nervousness only.
D) None of the above
Q3) The pancreas produces prolactin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An endocrine disease caused by insufficient secretion of vasopressin and resulting
in excessive thirst and polyuria is known as:
A) Diabetes insipidus.
B) Gigantism.
C) Diabetes mellitus.
D) Hashimoto thyroiditis.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) High doses of a combination of antibiotics is the treatment of choice for Hodgkin
lymphoma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma:
A) Is also called lymphosarcoma.
B) Is less common than Hodgkin lymphoma.
C) Likely affects the B cells important in fighting infection.
D) Both A and C
Q3) Initial treatment of pernicious anemia includes:
A) Injections of folic acid.
B) Bone marrow transplant.
C) Injections of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
D) High doses of vitamin B.
Q4) Megaloblasts are found in:
A) Iron deficiency anemia.
B) Pernicious anemia.
C) Folic acid deficiency anemia.
D) Aplastic anemia.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Respiratory System Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) Pulmonary TB is more common in:
A) Children.
B) Young adults.
C) Middle-aged adults.
D) Elderly adults.
Q2) Inflammation of the inner and outer membranes enveloping the lungs is:
A) Pleurisy.
B) Asthma.
C) COPD.
D) Bronchitis.
Q3) The antibiotic of choice for acute tonsillitis is:
A) Erythromycin.
B) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate.
C) Keflex.
D) Penicillin.
Q4) Initial symptoms of mononucleosis include:
A) Anorexia.
B) Malaise and chills.
C) Swollen cervical lymph nodes.
D) A and B only
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Chapter 14: Digestive System Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) Signs and symptoms of a hiatal hernia include:
A) Gastritis and GERD.
B) Heartburn, belching, and esophageal reflux.
C) Diarrhea and severe abdominal pain.
D) Vomiting and serious weight loss.
Q2) The procedure or procedures most likely used to diagnose colorectal cancer are:
A) Digital examination of the rectum and barium x-ray study.
B) Testing for occult blood in the stool and sigmoidoscopy.
C) Colonoscopy and CT.
D) All of the above
Q3) Hepatitis B is transmitted by blood or serum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) GERD:
A) Does not respond well to antacids.
B) Is the result of prolonged acidity in the esophagus.
C) Is an acute systemic disease of the stomach.
D) Causes belching and vomiting.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Urinary System Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) Causes of ESRD include:
A) Diabetes.
B) Pregnancy.
C) Fevers.
D) All of the above
Q2) Kidneys:
A) Help regulate the water and electrolyte balance and the acid-base content of the
blood.
B) Filter waste products of metabolism.
C) Provide energy from the body's digestion.
D) Both A and B
Q3) The prognosis for individuals with acute glomerulonephritis is good.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antibiotics are not the treatment of choice for UTI.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Renal cell carcinoma is the most common type of kidney cancer.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Reproductive System Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
A)Containing pus
B)Process of two successive cell divisions
C)Benign cystic tumors
D)Red, ulcerated, painless lesion found in primary syphilis
E)Creation of new sperm
F)Surgical removal of a testis
G)In pregnancy, the thinning of the cervix
H)X-ray to visualize the uterus and fallopian tubes
I)Tube, in which sperm mature, that is coiled on the posterior surface of a testis
J)Most common of the STDs
Q2) Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized ovum implants and grows in the
uterine cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Menopause, a female reproductive disease, is the cessation of menses and ovarian
function.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Eye and Ear Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) A stapedectomy is needed to correct otosclerosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pain, photophobia, and blurred vision are symptoms of uveitis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An opacity or clouding of the crystalline lens of the eye is called:
A) Hordeolum.
B) Glaucoma.
C) Cataract.
D) Conjunctivitis.
Q4) Formation of new bone, especially around the oval window, with resulting
immobilization of the stapes, is known as:
A) Ménière disease.
B) External otitis.
C) Otosclerosis.
D) Swimmer's ear.
Q5) Refractive errors are defects in auditory acuity.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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