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 Surgical Technology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Surgical Technology is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the

principles and practices of surgical procedures and the pivotal role of surgical

technologists within the operating room team. The course covers fundamental topics

such as sterile technique, surgical instrumentation, equipment management, patient

preparation, and intraoperative care. Students will gain a thorough understanding of

preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative procedures, alongside the ethical and

legal responsibilities of surgical technologists. Through a blend of theoretical instruction

and hands-on laboratory experiences, students are prepared to assist surgeons

effectively and ensure optimal patient outcomes during surgical interventions.

Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surg

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Page 2
 Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following roles is defined by the American College of Surgeons (ACS) as
providing aid in exposure, hemostasis, and other technical functions that help the
surgeon carry out a safe operation with optimal results for the patient?
A) assistant circulator
B) surgical first assistant
C) first scrub
D) second scrub
Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following is an independent, nonprofit national organization that

develops standards for and accredits health care organizations in the United States?
A) the Joint Commission
B) U.S.Department of Health and Human Services
C) American National Standards Institute
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Answer: A

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Page 3
 Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical

Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Errors in chart documentation should be erased to prevent confusion by subsequent
caregivers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

Q2) Which of the following torts would be classified as unintentional?

A) battery
B) defamation
C) foreign bodies left in patient
D) invasion of patient privacy
Answer: C

Q3) Which of the following legal terms is BEST described as "professional misconduct
that results in harm to another"?
A) allegation
B) liability
C) malpractice
D) negligence
Answer: C

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 Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following legislative rulings requires medical facilities to inform patients
of their rights to choose the types and extent of medical care available and their legal
right to advance directives?
A) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
B) Patient Self-Determination Act
C) Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
D) Affordable Care Act
Answer: B

Q2) Title XI of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1986 requires hospitals to
establish protocols for organ procurement or risk losing funding by the Centers for
Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS).
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

Q3) Anointing of the sick is a practice of Muslim tradition and includes facing the patient
toward the holy city of Mecca.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Page 5
 Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bariatric patients undergoing surgery and in the immediate postoperative period
should have sequential compression devices applied to the lower extremities to prevent:
A) congestive heart failure
B) deep vein thrombosis
C) hypovolemic shock
D) respiratory arrest

Q2) Surgical site infections (SSIs) are the most common postoperative complication in
patients with diabetes due to the increased perfusion of affected tissues.
A)True
B)False

Q3) All of the following national agencies have regulations or protocols for health care
workers who may be exposed to infectious diseases in their work environment EXCEPT:
A) CDC
B) NIOSH
C) NFPA
D) OSHA

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Page 6
 Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An erasable board is usually hung in the OR that is within easy viewing range of the
surgical team to record:
A) sponge usage
B) sharps
C) instrument counts
D) all of the above

Q2) Area of an operating room suite where patients have IV lines started, sign consents,
interview with surgeons, anesthesia providers, and nurses prior to transfer to the OR for
procedures
A)CSPD
B)Anesthesia cart
C)Hypodermics
D)Suction outlets
E)Pre-op holding
F)Static electricity
G)Fluoroscopy
H)Substerile
I)Laminar flow
J)Laser

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Page 7
 Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the developing technology of performing a surgical procedure in
real time but from a distant location?
A) Cartesian coordinate geometry
B) expert systems
C) revolute geometry
D) telesurgery

Q2) Solids, gases, liquids, and semiconductor crystals are types of:
A) chemical coagulants
B) electrical conductors
C) robotic power sources
D) surgical laser media

Q3) Google, Yahoo, and Bing are popular:

A) computer processing units
B) Internet service providers
C) Internet search engines
D) word-processing programs

Q4) The acronym laser stands for light application by special electromagnetic radiation.
A)True
B)False

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Page 8
 Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and

Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the type of dating system that denotes the number of the
calendar day in 1 through 365/366?
A) alphanumeric
B) Cartesian
C) Julian
D) military

Q2) What is the term used to describe the process of removing all soiled linen, waste,
and instruments from the room and cleaning of furniture, floors, or other contaminated
surfaces in preparation for opening new supplies for a subsequent case?
A) changeover
B) concurrent cleaning
C) terminal cleaning
D) turnover

Q3) What term refers to a barrier, such as plastic-backed table cover, that does NOT
allow for passage of liquid through it?
A) integral
B) insoluble
C) impervious
D) imperceptible
Page 9
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 Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards

Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following accounts for up to 90% of contamination and should be
removed as soon as possible after exposure to a radiological disaster?
A) ash
B) clothing
C) dust
D) hair

Q2) Which of the following is a mild form of shock, due to the increase in blood flow to
the skin, thus causing a reduction of blood flow to vital organs
A) heat cramps
B) heat exhaustion
C) heat stroke
D) hyperthermia

Q3) Which medical specialist is probably BEST suited to perform disaster triage?
A) surgeon
B) radiologist
C) ER physician
D) anesthesiologist

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Page 10
 Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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Q1) The practice of applying cricoid pressure during endotracheal intubation was named
for a British anesthesiologist named:
A) Doppler
B) Heimlich
C) Korotkoff
D) Sellick

Q2) Which drug is an anticoagulant antagonist used to reverse the effects of heparin?
A) naloxone HCl
B) dantrolene sodium
C) sodium bicarbonate
D) protamine sulfate

Q3) A bovine-derived enzyme used as a chemical method of hemostasis is:

A) heparin
B) collagen
C) thrombin
D) epinephrine

Q4) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.
A)True
B)False

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Page 11
 Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of instrument often has a tungsten carbide insert and crosshatch
serrations for stabilization?
A) handheld retractor
B) needle holder
C) pneumatic drill
D) vascular clamp

Q2) What is the technical name for a clamp?

A) compressor
B) forceps
C) hemostat
D) stabilizer

Q3) What do Broviac and Hickman catheters do?

A) decompress the bladder
B) instill contrast media into the biliary system
C) monitor central venous pressure changes
D) provide access for peritoneal dialysis

Q4) Penrose drains are active drains that are connected to a reservoir called a J-P bulb
or "grenade."
A)True
B)False

Page 12
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 Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound

Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Capability of suture material to retain tissue fluids and bacteria that can
communicate along the length of a continuous suture line
A)Laceration
B)In-growth mesh
C)Abrasion
D)Hydrolysis
E)Fistula
F)Cicatrix
G)Contusion
H)Sinus
I)Incision
J)Capillarity

Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding natural absorbable sutures?
A) They are packaged dry.
B) They are packaged wet.
C) They are braided multifilament strands.
D) They have less tissue reaction than synthetics.

Q3) Avitene, Gelfoam, and Surgicel are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.
A)True
B)False Page 13

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 Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the likely result of positioning the patient's arms on armboards at a
greater than 90° angle from the torso?
A) hyperextension nerve damage
B) foot drop
C) hamstring strain
D) restriction of respiratory freedom

Q2) Which of the following statements regarding hair removal is INCORRECT?

A) Hair must be shaved from every incisional and ECG lead site.
B) Hair removal should be performed as close to the time of the procedure as possible.
C) Hair removal is dependent upon surgeon's preference, patient factors, and surgical
site.
D) Hair removal using a razor can result in microabrasions and increased microbial
count.

Q3) What is the name of the device used to manually assess blood pressure?
A) electrocardiograph
B) glucometer
C) pulse oximeter
D) sphygmomanometer

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Page 14
 Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which anatomic area is ultrasonography ineffective?
A) amniotic sac
B) heart
C) lungs
D) veins

Q2) Auscultation involves use of a(n):

A) otoscope
B) stethoscope
C) laparoscope
D) bronchoscope

Q3) Which of the following is a flexible, atraumatic device used to facilitate proper
placement of catheters into lumens of vessels, ducts, or ureters?
A) balloon dilator
B) Doppler probe
C) J-guidewire
D) Swan-Ganz

Q4) MRI scans require shielding of thyroid and gonads because of ionizing radiation
emissions.
A)True
B)False

Page 15
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 Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the MOST common permanent colostomy?
A) end
B) loop
C) end-loop
D) sigmoid

Q2) The upper-hand and Thompson retractors are complex self-retaining retractors
frequently used in major abdominal procedures.
A)True
B)False

Q3) A Whipple procedure is done for treatment of a tumor in which abdominal organ?
A) liver
B) pancreas
C) rectum
D) spleen

Q4) Which handheld retractors are frequently used to retract tissues during
thyroidectomy?
A) Green
B) Harrington
C) malleable
D) Weinberg

Page 16
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 Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of needle holder is curved and frequently used for hysterectomy
procedures?
A) Castroviejo
B) Heaney
C) Mayo-Hegar
D) Webster

Q2) For which procedure would the surgical technologist want to be sure to have
adequate numbers of Allis or Allis-Adair tissue forceps?
A) A&P Colporrhaphy
B) D&C
C) LAVH
D) TAH-BSO

Q3) Which of the following is a weighted vaginal speculum?

A) Auvard
B) Graves
C) Heaney
D) Sims

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Page 17
 Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which retinal structure allows for perception of general shapes and shades of gray in
dim light?
A) cones
B) fovea
C) rods
D) macula

Q2) Cryotherapy uses which of the following to seal retinal tears and holes?
A) cold
B) heat
C) monopolar current
D) ultrasonic energy

Q3) What is the portion of the eye between the cornea and the iris in which aqueous fluid
flows and nourishes tissues?
A) anterior chamber
B) posterior chamber
C) fovea
D) macula

Q4) Donor corneas must be screened for HIV, HBV, and CJD prior to transplant.
A)True
B)False

Page 18
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 Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Q1) In which of the following procedures would the surgical technologist need to have a
spreader and a hook ready for use?
A) myringotomy
B) septoplasty
C) tonsillectomy
D) tracheotomy

Q2) What is the name of the double-action, cupped, forward-angled forceps used to
resect portions of the nasal septum?
A) Aufricht
B) Cottle
C) Jansen-Middleton
D) Kerrison

Q3) Rhinoplasty procedures are often considered "plastic surgery" cases rather than
otorhinolaryngological.
A)True
B)False

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Page 19
 Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Q1) Type of x-ray that shows on one film: alveolar processes, mandible, posterior
maxillary sinuses, and zygomas
A)Gingiva
B)Enophthalmos
C)Panoramic
D)Pulp
E)Alveolar process
F)Weider
G)Dentin
H)Caldwell
I)Malocclusion
J)Molars

Q2) What is the MOST common position for patients undergoing oral and maxillofacial
procedures?
A) supine with arms on armboards
B) supine with arms tucked in at sides
C) Trendelenberg with arms on armboards
D) Trendelenberg with arms tucked in at sides

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Page 20
 Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) Type of dressing used for frequent dressing changes and wound assessment;
prevents excoriation from tape application and removal
A)Eschar
B)Heterograft
C)Turban
D)Hypovolemia
E)Stratum
F)Aesthetic
G)Montgomery straps
H)Caliper
I)Denuded
J)Oscillating

Q2) Under which muscle is the pocket for breast implant often created for greatest
support?
A) internal oblique
B) latissimus dorsi
C) pectoralis major
D) serratus anterior

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Page 21
 Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystoscopy and ureteroscopy procedures are performed in which position?
A) lateral
B) low-lithotomy
C) supine
D) Trendelenburg

Q2) Which suture configuration is used to anastomose vessels in transplants?

A) fine, absorbable, single-armed
B) fine, nonabsorbable, double-armed
C) heavy, absorbable, single-armed
D) heavy, nonabsorbable, double-armed

Q3) How is the anesthetic jelly that is inserted into the male urethra prior to cystoscopy
kept from leaking out?
A) A cotton-tipped applicator is inserted into the external meatus.
B) A sterile tight-fitting condom is applied to the penis.
C) A flexible penile clamp is applied to the head of the penis.
D) A gloved finger is held firmly against the head of the penis.

Q4) Every instrument or catheter placed into the urethra should be lubricated to
minimize mucosal injury or irritation.
A)True
B)False

Page 22
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 Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The elbow is categorized as which type of joint?
A) amphiarthrosis
B) coxarthrosis
C) diarthrosis
D) synarthrosis

Q2) Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on the tibia and
prevents hyperextension of the knee?
A) anterior cruciate
B) posterior cruciate
C) medial collateral
D) lateral collateral

Q3) How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis?

A) two
B) three
C) five
D) eight

Q4) There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization
routine and uncomplicated.
A)True
B)False

Page 23
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 Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Q1) Which of the following regarding blood flow is correct?
A) right atrium, pulmonary vein, lungs, pulmonary artery, left ventricle
B) right ventricle, pulmonary vein, lungs, pulmonary artery, left atrium
C) right atrium, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left ventricle
D) right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium

Q2) Prior to the closure of a lobectomy procedure, the anesthesia provider performs a
Valsalva maneuver to check for:
A) air leakage from bronchial closure
B) bleeding from the dissection bed
C) functionality of the diaphragm
D) perfusion of the unaffected lobes

Q3) Which statement regarding the anatomical placement of the heart is CORRECT?
A) It is positioned exactly midline in the thoracic cavity.
B) It is positioned in the thoracic cavity with nearly its entirety on the left side.
C) It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side.
D) It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the right
side.

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Page 24
 Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is found only in veins?
A) tunica adventitia
B) tunica intima
C) tunica media
D) valves

Q2) A newly diagnosed patient in need of vascular access long-term hemodialysis

would undergo which procedure?
A) embolectomy
B) endarterectomy
C) arteriovenous fistula and shunt
D) inferior vena cava filter placement

Q3) Dermal atrophy, hemorrhage, ulceration, and cellulitis are complications of:
A) abdominal aortic aneurysm
B) carotid stenosis
C) pulmonary embolus
D) varicose veins

Q4) Glass syringes are preferred in drawing up contrast media for angiography because
of less accumulation of bubbles.
A)True
B)False

Page 25
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 Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many vertebrae are there in the normal adult spine?
A) 12
B) 23
C) 30
D) 33

Q2) Where do most intracranial aneurysms occur?

A) arterial bifurcations
B) tunica media
C) venous sinus
D) venous valves

Q3) Special attention must be taken during application and removal of the Mayfield
cranial fixation device due to the removal of the OR table head piece.
A)True
B)False

Q4) How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12

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Page 26