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Solution

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drkhdlol
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22-05-2024

6001CJM202082240001K MD

PHYSICS

1) Find the value of rad in degree.

(1) 760°
(2) 560°
(3) 660°
(4) 460°

2) The value of (sin 37°) (cos 53°) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which of the following is not equal to cos 2θ

(1) 2 cos2 θ – 1
(2) 1 – 2 sin2 θ
(3) cos2 θ + sin2 θ
(4) cos2 θ – sin2 θ

4) The equation of a curve is given as y = x2 + 2 – 3x. The curve intersects the x-axis at

(1) (1,0)
(2) (2,0)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

5) The slope of straight line


y= is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 4
(4)

6) Find distance between A(1,2,3) & B(2, 3, 4) :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) If y = x3 + 2x2 + 7x + 8. Then will be :

(1) 3x2 + 2x + 15
(2) 3x2 + 4x + 7
(3) x3 + 2x2 + 15
(4) x3 + 4x + 7

8)

(1)

(2)

(3) cot x
(4) esinx

9) Magnitude of slope of curve shown :-

(1) First increases then decreases


(2) First decreases, then increases
(3) Increases
(4) Decreases

10)

(1) e2 + c

(2)

(3) e2.x + c
(4) Zero

11) is equal to -

(1) x2 + C
(2) x + C

(3)

(4)

12) If y = sin x then = ……… ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) 3

13) The difference in value of roots of equation y = x2 – 5x + 6 will be :

(1) 1
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 2

14) Calculate upto two digits of accuracy

(1) 0.94
(2) 0.99
(3) 0.97
(4) 0.96

15) Find upto ∞

(1) 3
(2) 2

(3)

(4)

16) Which of the following are not a unit of time?


(a) Second
(b) Parsec
(c) Year
(d) Light year

(1) (b) and (d)


(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (c) and (d)

17) SI unit of electric current is

(1) ohm
(2) ampere
(3) mole
(4) candela

18) A dimensionless quantity:-

(1) Never has a unit


(2) Always has a unit
(3) May have a unit
(4) Does not exist

19) The dimensions of universal gravitational constant are :

(1) [M–2 L3 T–2]


(2) [M–2 L2 T–1]
(3) [M–1 L3 T–2]
(4) [ML2 T–1]

20) Which of the following pairs does not have same dimensions?

(1) Force and weight


(2) Stress and pressure
(3) Spring constant and surface tension
(4) Force and impulse

21) Plane angle and solid angle have :

(1) Dimensions but no units


(2) No units and no dimensions
(3) Both units and dimensions
(4) Units but no dimensions

22) Young's modulus of steel is 1.9 × 1011 N/m2. When expressed in C.G.S. unit, it will be equal to :-
(1) 1.9 × 1010
(2) 1.9 × 1011
(3) 1.9 × 1012
(4) 1.9 × 1013

23) Convert 1 joule into erg –

(1) 107 erg


(2) 105 erg
(3) 10–7 erg
(4) 10–5 erg

24) Which of the following functions of A and B may be performed if A and B possess different
dimensions?

(1)

(2) A + B
(3) A – B
(4) None of these

25) The velocity of a particle is given by

If is measured in ms–1 and t is measured in s, the unit of

(1) a is ms–1
(2) b is ms–1
(3) c is ms–1
(4) a and b are same but that of c is different

26) If the force F = MpVqRr, where F is the force, M is the mass, V is the velocity and R is the radius;
then find out the value of p, q and r, respectively.

(1) –1, 2, –1
(2) –1, –2, 1
(3) 1, 2, –1
(4) –1, 1, 2

27) In the relation y = a cos(ωt – kx), if 'x' is position, the dimensional formula for k is :-

0
(1) [M L–1T–1]
0
(2) [M LT–1]
0 0
(3) [M L–1T ]
0
(4) [M LT]

28) Given P = 0.0030 m, Q = 2.40 m and R = 3000m, the number of significant figures in P, Q and R
are respectively :-

(1) 1, 2, 1
(2) 2, 3, 4
(3) 4, 2, 1
(4) 4, 2, 4

29) The numbers 3.845 and 3.835 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give :

(1) 3.85 and 3.84


(2) 3.84 and 3.83
(3) 3.85 and 3.83
(4) 3.84 and 3.84

30) The mass of a box measured by a grocer’s balance is 2.3kg. Two gold pieces of masses 20.15 g
and 20.17g are added to the box. What is the total mass of the box :-

(1) 2.34032 kg
(2) 2.34 kg
(3) 2.3 kg
(4) 2.340 kg

31) Measurement of two quantities along with the precision of respective measuring instrument is:
and
The value of AB will be

(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m


(2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m
(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m
(4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m

32) Which of the following measurement is most precise?

(1) 2.00 mm
(2) 2.00 cm
(3) 2.00 m
(4) 2.00 km

33) The radius of a ball is (5.4 ± 0.2) cm. The percentage error in the volume of the ball is

(1) 11%
(2) 4%
(3) 7%
(4) 9%

34) The least count of a stop watch is 0.1 sec. The time of 20 oscillations of the pendulum is found to
be 20 sec. The percentage error in the time period is :-

(1) 0.25%
(2) 0.5%
(3) 0.75%
(4) 1.0%

35) If x = an, then fractional error is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A physical quantity p is given as and the percentage errors in the measurements of A,
B and C are 1 %, 2 % and 4 % respectively. The maximum percentage error in the calculation of p is

(1) 4 %
(2) 6 %
(3) 8 %
(4) 10 %

37) Which of the following has the highest number of significant figures ?

(1) 0.007 m2
(2) 2.64 × 1024 kg
(3) 0.0006032 m2
(4) 6.3200 J

38) A physical quantity depends upon five factors, all of which have dimensions; then to deduce the
relation between them, method of dimensional analysis :

(1) Can be applied


(2) Cannot be applied
(3) Depends upon factors involved
(4) Both (1) and (3)

39) The value of G = 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 (kg)–2. Its numerical value in CGS system will be :

(1) 6.67 × 10–8


(2) 6.67 × 10–6
(3) 6.67
(4) 6.67 × 10–5

40) If the unit of length and force be increased four times, then the unit of energy is :-

(1) Increased 4 times


(2) Increased 8 times
(3) Increased 16 times
(4) Decreased 16 times

41) If velocity 'v', acceleration 'A' and force 'F' are chosen as fundamental quantities, then what
would be the dimensional formula of angular momentum in terms of 'v', 'A' and 'F'

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Force F is given in terms of time t and distance x by F = A sin Ct + B cos Dx. Then, dimensions
of A/B and C/D are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The dimensions of in the equation , where F is the force, v is velocity and t is time, is
:–

(1) [MLT–1]
(2) [ML–1T–2]
(3) [ML3T–4]
(4) [ML2T–4]

44) If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by MaLbTc , then the physical quantity will be :-

(1) Velocity, if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1
(2) Work, if a = 1, b = 2, c = –2
(3) Force, if a = 0, b = –1, c = –2
(4) Acceleration, if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2

45) A wire has a mass (0.3 ± 0.003)g, radius (0.5 ± 0.005) mm and length (6 ± 0.06) cm. The
maximum percentage error in measurement of its density is :-

(1) 1%
(2) 2%
(3) 3%
(4) 4%

46) Given: Potential difference, V = (8 ± 0.5) V and current, I = (2 ± 0.2) A. The value of resistance
R in Ω is :-

(1) 4 ± 16.25%
(2) 4 ± 6.25%
(3) 4 ± 10%
(4) 4 ± 8%

47) In the relation P = (α/β) e–(αZ/kθ), P is pressure, Z is distance, k is boltzmann constant and θ is the
temperature. The dimensional formula of β will be : (K is energy per temperature)

0 0
(1) [M L2T ]
(2) [ML2T]
0
(3) [ML T–1]
0
(4) [M L2T–1]

48) If A, B and C are physical quantities, having different dimensions, which of the following
combinations can never be a meaningful quantity ?

(i) (ii)
(iii) AB–C2 (iv) (A–B)C

(1) (iii, iv)


(2) (i, ii)
(3) (ii, iv)
(4) (ii, iii)

49) A physical quantity X is given by X = . The percentage error in the measurements of k, ℓ,


m and n are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. The value of X is uncertain by

(1) 8 %
(2) 10 %
(3) 12 %
(4) None of the above

50) The mean time period of second's pendulum is 2.00 s and mean absolute error in the time period
is 0.05 s. To express maximum estimate of error, the time period should be written as :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

51) Arc length of 15π cm makes an angle of radian. Find the radius of the circle .

(1) 15 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 30 cm

52) sin 217° will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

53) Which graph correctly represents the straight line y = 2x + 6.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

54) The magnitude of slope in figure at point 1,2 and 3 is m1, m2 and m3 respectively then :-

(1) m1 > m2 > m3


(2) m1 < m2 < m3
(3) m1 = m2 = m3
(4) m1 = m3 < m2

55) If y = x2 – 4x + 10, then minimum value of y will be :

(1) 3
(2) –3
(3) 6
(4) 2

56) Differentiation of cos with respect to x is

– sin
(1)

(2)
– sin

(3) – sin

(4)
– sin

57) Value of dx is -

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

58) Find the area under the curve y = 5x from x = 0 to x = 3.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

59) 1– + – + – +....... = ?

(1) 3/2
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) None of these

60) Find the sum of given arithmetic progression


4 + 8 + 12 + ..... + 64

(1) 464
(2) 540
(3) 544
(4) 646

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following represents Avogadro's hypothesis

(1) Gases react together in volumes which bear a simple ratio to one another.
Equal volume of all gases under same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal
(2)
number of molecules
Equal volumes of all gases under same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal
(3)
number of atoms
(4) The rate of diffusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square root of their densities.

2) Law of multiple proportions is illustrated by one of the following pairs

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) The total mass of reactants is always equal to the total mass of products in a chemical reaction.
This statement is known as

(1) Law of conservation of mass


(2) Law of definite proportions
(3) Law of equivalent weights
(4) Law of combining masses

4) Correct statement in the following is / are

(1) Chemical equation is balanced according to Law of conservation of mass


(2) Law of conservation of mass is not applicable for nuclear reactions.
(3) Law of combining volumes was proposed by Gay-Lussac
(4) All the above

5) Different samples of water were found to contain hydrogen and oxygen in 1:8 mass ratio this
illustrate law of

(1) Law of reciprocal proportion


(2) Law of multiple proportions
(3) Law of conservation proportions
(4) Law of definite proportions

6) Which of the following is incorrect about SI units.

(1) Density in kgm-3


(2) Force in Newtons
(3) Pressure in pascals
(4) Amount of the substance in

7) The proper value of significant figures in 38.0 + 0.0035 + 0.00003 is

(1) 38.0
(2) 38
(3) 38.0035
(4) 38.00353

8) 8.281 has how many significant figures?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
9) The prefix Femto stands for

(1) 109
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) The number of significant figures in electronic charge

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

11) Which of the following example of a Homogeneous mixture?

(1) Water + Oil


(2) Water + Sand
(3) Water + Alcohol
(4) None of these

12) A pure substance can only be

(1) A compound
(2) An element
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) A Heterogeneous mixture

13) Which of the following statements is/are true?

(1) An element of a substance contains only one kind of atoms.


(2) A compound can be decomposed into its components.
(3) All homogeneous mixtures are called as solutions.
(4) All of these

14) Which of the following is not an element

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Water

15) Which is an example of matter according to physical state at room temperature and pressure?

(1) Solid
(2) Liquid
(3) Gas
(4) All of these

16) The volume of two moles of oxygen at NTP is

(1) 22.4 L
(2) 11.2 L
(3) 40 L
(4) 44.8 L

17) Correct statement in the following is

(1) The molar volume of any gas at NTP is 22.4 lit


(2) The volume of 1 mole of water at STP is 22.4 lit
(3) The molar volume of any gas at STP contains 22.4 molecules
(4) All of these

18) The weight of 0.1 mole of Na2CO3 is

(1) 106 g
(2) 10.6 g
(3) 5.3 g
(4)

19) One gram of hydrogen contain atoms, then 4 grams of He contains

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) Which of the following is highest mass

(1) 1 g atom of C
(2)
(3) 1 ml of water

(4)

21) The Empirical formula of acetic acid is same as-

(1) C12H22O11

(2)
(3) H2C2O4
(4) HCHO

22) Caffeine contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen. If molecular mass of caffeine is 194, then the
number of N atoms present in one molecule of caffeine is

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

23) The weight percentage of oxygen in NaOH is

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 40
(4) 16

24) Two elements X at mass = 75) and Y (At mass = 16) combine to give a compound having 75.8%
of X. The formula of the compound is

(1) XY
(2) X2Y
(3) X2Y​2
(4) X2Y​3

25) An organic compound contains 'C' and H has 92.3% of carbon. What is its Empirical formula

(1) CH4
(2) CH3
(3) CH2
(4) CH

26) For reaction the amount of product formed by starting the reaction with 5 moles of
A and 8 moles of B is

(1) 5 mol
(2) 8 mol
(3) 16 mol
(4) 4 mol

27) The volume of gas at NTP by 100 gm of CaC2 with excess water;

(1) 70 litre
(2) 35 litre
(3) 17.5 litre
(4) 22.4 litre

28) For complete combustion of 5 mol propane (C3H8). Find required mole of O2

(1) 10 mole
(2) 20 mole
(3) 25 mole
(4) 5 mole

29) 4 gm of hydrogen react with 4gm of oxygen. The weight of water formed is

(1) 0.5 gm
(2) 3.5 gm
(3) 4.5 gm
(4) 2.25 gm

30) A solution is prepared by adding 4g of substance A to 18g of water. Calculate mass % of the
solute

(1) 10%
(2) 4%
(3) 18%
(4) 8%

31) 0.1 gram mole of urea (NH2CONH2) is dissolved in 100g of water. The molality of solution is

(1) 1 m
(2) 1 M
(3) 0.01 M
(4) 0.01 m

32) 6g of urea is dissolved in 90g of water. The mole fraction of solute is (Urea M.F: NH2CONH2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Molality is expressed in units of

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) How many moles of sodium chloride present in 250 mL of a 0.50 M NaCl solution?

(1) 0.125 mol


(2) 0.150 mol
(3) 0.075 mol
(4) 0.02 mol

35) The molarity of 98% H2SO4 (d = 1.8 g/ml) by wt. is

(1) 6 M
(2) 18 M
(3) 10 M
(4) 4 M

36) 2.2 g of a compound of phosphorous and suphur has 1.24 g of 'P' in it. Its empirical formula is-

(1) P2S3
(2) P3S2
(3) P3S4
(4) P4S3

37) When 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion

(1) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced


(2) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
(3) All the oxygen will be consumed
(4) All the ammonia will be consumed

38) If 18 g glucose is present in 1000 g of solvent, the solution is said to be:

(1) 1 molar
(2) 0.1 molar
(3) 0.5 molar
(4) 0.1 molal

39) Mole fraction of C3H5 (OH)3 (glycerine) in a solution of 36 g of water and 46 g of glycerine is:

(1) 0.46
(2) 0.36
(3) 0.20
(4) 0.40
40) Which of the following statement is true:-
(a) Molarity is the no. of moles of solute dissolved per litre of solvent.
(b) The molarity and normality of a solution of sodium carbonate are same.
(c) Molality (m) of a solution is defined as the number of moles of solute dissolved is 1000 gm of
solution.
(d) The ratio of mole fraction of solute and solvent is in the ratio of there respective moles.

(1) a & c
(2) a & d
(3) b & c
(4) Only d

41) The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture is 1:4. The ratio of
number of their molecules is:

(1) 1:8
(2) 3:16
(3) 1:4
(4) 7:32

42) 1 gram of carbonate (M2CO3) on treatment with excess HCl produces 0.01186 mole of CO2.
the molar mass of M2CO3 in g mol-1 is:-

(1) 1186
(2) 84.3
(3) 118.6
(4) 11.86

43) 25 g of an unknown hydrocarbon upon burning produces 88g of CO2 and 9 g of H2O. This
unknown hydrocarbon contains.

(1) 20 g of carbon and 5 g of hydrogen


(2) 24 g of carbon and 1 g of hydrogen
(3) 18 g of carbon and 7 g of hydrogen
(4) 22 g of carbon and 3 g of hydrogen

44) For the following reaction, the mass of water produced from 445 g of is:

(1) 495 g
(2) 490 g
(3) 890 g
(4) 445 g

45) The mass of CO2 obtained when 2g of pure limestone (CaCO3) is calcined is

(1) 44 g
(2) 0.22 g
(3) 0.88 g
(4) 8.8 g

46) How many moles of magnesium phosphate will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 0.02

47) A compound has 40% of carbon by weight. If molecular weight of the compound is 90, the
number of carbon atoms Present in 1 molecule of the compound are:

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 5

48) The number of molecules of CO2 liberated by the complete combustion of 0.1 g-atom of graphite
in air is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

49) What is the molarity of NaOH solution if 250 mL of it contains 1 mg of NaOH ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

50) 25.3 g of sodium carbonate, is dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. If sodium
carbonate dissociates completely, molar concentration of Na+ and are respectively (Molar mass
of Na2CO3 = 106 gmol )

(1) 1.90 M and 1.910 M


(2) 0.477 M and 0.477 M
(3) 0.955 M and 1.910 M
(4) 1.910 M and 0.955 M

51) The number of water molecules present in a drop of water weighing 0.18 g is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

52) What amount of dioxygen (in gram) contains molecules?

(1) 0.0960
(2) 0.960
(3) 9.60
(4) 96.0

53) The weight percentage of nitrogen in urea (NH2CONH2) is

(1) 38.4
(2) 46.6
(3) 59.1
(4) 61.3

54) A mixture of CaCl2 and NaCl weighing 4.44 g is treated with sodium carbonate solution to
precipitate all the calcium ions as calcium carbonate. The calcium carbonate so obtained is heated
strongly to get 0.56 g of CaO. The percentage of NaCl in the mixture is (atomic mass of ca = 40)

(1) 75
(2) 31.5
(3) 40.2
(4) 25

55) The mass of AgCl precipitated when a solution containing 11.70 g of NaCl is added to a solution
containing 3.4g of AgNO3 is [Atomic mass of Ag = 108, Atomic mass of Na = 23]

(1) 5.74 g
(2) 1.17 g
(3) 2.87 g
(4) 6.8 g

56) Aluminium reacts with hydrogen chloride to produce H2 according to the equation

Then 2g of H2 would be produced from

(1) 1 mole of Al
(2) 2 moles of Al

(3)

(4)

57) The number of atoms in 'n' mole of gas can be given by


(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

58) Vapour density of gas is 11.2 volume occupied by 2.4g of this at STP will be

(1) 11.2L
(2) 2.24L
(3) 22.4L
(4) 2.4L

59) Which of the following contain greatest No. of oxygen atoms?

(1) 1g of oxygen atom


(2) 1g of O2
(3) 1g of O3
(4) All have the same No. of atoms

60) Density of a gas NTP is 1.43 what is its molecular weight?

(1) 16
(2) 32
(3) 48
(4) 64

MATHEMATICS

1) A - (A - B) =

(1) A
(2)
(3)
(4) B

2) Sum of roots of the equation is -

(1) 4
(2) 12
(3) -12
(4) -4

3) In a group of 500 students, who speak Hindi or Bengali, there are 475 students who can speak
Hindi and 200 can speak Bengali. What is the number of students who can speak Bengali only?

(1) 275
(2) 300
(3) 325
(4) 25

4) If A = {x : x is an even prime number}. Then n(A) = ___

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

5) Let n(A) = n. Then the number of all relations on A to A is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

6) If A = {x : x is a letter of the word "DOCTOR"}, B = {x : x is a letter of the word "DIRECT"} then


is equal to

(1) {D, T, E, R}
(2) {D, T, C, R}
(3) {I, C, T, R}
(4) {D, R, E, C}

7) If , then is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) R is a relation from {11, 12, 13} to {8, 10, 12} defined by . Then is

(1) {(8, 11), (10, 13)}


(2) {(11, 18), (13, 10)}
(3) {(10, 13), (8, 11)}
(4) {(13, 10), (11, 8)}
9) Let R be a relation on N defined by . The domain of R is

(1) {2, 4, 8}
(2) {2, 4, 6, 8}
(3) {2, 4, 6}
(4) {1, 2, 3, 4}

10) If (1, 3), (2, 5) and (3, 3) are three elements of and the total number of elements in
is 6, then the remaining elements of are

(1) (1, 5), (2, 3), (3, 5)


(2) (5, 1), (3, 2), (5, 3)
(3) (1, 5), (2, 3), (5, 3)
(4) (5, 3), (1, 2), (3, 5)

11) In a school there are 20 teachers who teach mathematics or physics. Of these, 12 teach
mathematics and 4 teach physics and mathematics. How many teach physics?

(1) 24
(2) 12
(3) 10
(4) 8

12) Which one of the following is a null set?

(1) {0}
(2) {{{ }}}
(3) {{ }}

(4)

13) The complete solution set of the inequation is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) Total number of elements in the proper subset of A containing 15 elements is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) If A = {1, 2, 4}, B = {2, 4, 5}, C = {2, 5}, then is


(1)
(2) {(1, 4)}
(3) (1, 4)
(4) {(4, 1)}

16) is equal to

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) If a set A has 4 elements, then the total number of subsets of set A is :

(1) 16
(2) 14
(3) 15
(4) 17

18) If A = {1, 2, 3} , B = {1, 4, 6, 9} and R is a relation from A to B defined by 'x is greater than y'.
The domain of R is

(1) {1, 4, 6, 9}
(2) {4, 6, 9}
(3) {1}
(4) {2,3}

19) Let A = {1, 2, 3}. The total number of distinct relations which can be defined over A is

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 29
(4) 26

20) Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}; B = {2, 3, 6, 7}. Then the number of elements in is

(1) 18
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 0

21) Let then is equal to:

(1) 2x3
(2)

(3) 0
(4) 1

22) If f(x) = ax + b, where a and b are integers, f (– 1) = – 5 and f (3) = 3, then a and b are equal to :

(1) a = – 3, b = – 1
(2) a = 2, b = – 3
(3) a = 0, b = 2
(4) a = 2, b = 3

23) Two finite sets P & Q having m and n elements respectively. The total number of subsets of P is
56 more than the total number of subsets of Q. Then (m, n) equals

(1) (6, 5)
(2) (6, 3)
(3) (6, 6)
(4) (5, 4)

24) Write the set builder form of A = {–1, 1} :

(1) A = {x : x is a real number}


(2) A = {x : x is an integer}
(3) A = {x : x is a root of the equation x2 = 1}
(4) A = {x : x is a root of the equation x2 + 1}

25) If A = {1, 3, 5, 7} then what is the cardinality of the power set P(A)?

(1) 8
(2) 15
(3) 16
(4) 17

26) The set equals

(1)
(2) {14,3,4}
(3) {3}
(4) {4}

27) Two finite sets have m and n elements. The number of subsets of the first set is 112 more than
that of the second set. The values of m and n are, respectively :

(1) 4, 7
(2) 7, 4
(3) 4, 4
(4) 7, 7

28) Let then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) If , then is equal to

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

30)

(1) A
(2) B
(3)
(4) A - B

31) If X = {8n – 7n – 1: n ∈ N} and Y = {49 (n – 1) | n ∈ N}, then :

(1)
(2)
(3) X=Y
(4)

32) and , then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) Number of real solution(s) of the equation is-

(1) Exactly four


(2) Exactly three
(3) Exactly two
(4) Exactly one

34) Which one of the following is a null set.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) If the sets A and B are defined as:

, then:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) The number of elements in the set. where z is the set of all
integers is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 12

37) Which of the following is not correct ?

(1) If A U B = A U C then B = C
(2) if and only if A = X, where X is the Universal set
(3) if and only if

(4) A = B is equivalents to A U C = B U C &

38) If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {2, 6, 7} then is

(1)
(2) {1, 2, 3, 6, 7}
(3) {1, 3, 6, 7}
(4) {2}
39) The domain of the function is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) Which of the following set is a finite set.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) D = { x : x is a two digit number sum of whose digits is 12}

41) The largest set of real values of x for which is a real function

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

42) If A = {x : x is a natural number less than 1}, then set A is.

(1) An infinte set


(2) A singleton set
(3) An empty set
(4) None of these

43) A relation R is defined from {2, 3, 4, 5} to {3, 6, 7, 10} by is relatively prime to y. Then
domain of R is

(1) {2, 3, 5}
(2) {3, 5}
(3) {2, 3, 4}
(4) {2, 3, 4, 5}

44) If is a relation in Z, then domain of R is

(1) {0, 1, 2}
(2) {0, - 1, - 2}
(3) {- 2, - 1, 0, 1, 2}
(4) {-1, 0, 1}
45) If then

(1)
(2)
(3) P = Q
(4)

46) If then is equal to

(1) 17
(2) 18
(3) 21
(4) 23

47) The range of real function f defined by is given by :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

48) The domain and range of real function f defined by is given by

(1) Domain = R, Range = {– 1, 1}


(2) Domain = R – {1}, Range = R
(3) Domain = R – {4}, Range = {– 1}
(4) Domain = R – {– 4}, Range = {– 1, 1}.

49) The domain of the real valued function defined by

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

50) If [x]2 – 5[x] + 6 = 0, where [·] denotes the greatest integer function, then :

(1) x ∈ [3, 4]
(2) x ∈ (2, 3]
(3) x ∈ [2, 3]
(4) x ∈ [2, 4)

51) A relation from P to Q is


(1) A universal set of
(2)
(3) An equivalent set of
(4) A subset of

52) In the given Venn diagram, A - B is equal to

(1) {3, 4}
(2) {1, 8}
(3) {5, 6}
(4) {3, 4, 5, 6}

53) If A = {2, 3, 5}, B = {2, 5, 6}, then is

(1) {(3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 5)}


(2) {(3, 2), (3, 5), (3, 6)}
(3) {(3, 2), (3, 5)}
(4) {(3, 3), (3, 6), (3, 5)}

54) Let

then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

55) Which of the following set is an empty set.

(1)
(2) B = {x : x is an even prime number}
(3)
(4)

56) The domain of the function f defined by : is equal to:

(1) (– ∞, – 1) ∪ (1, 4]
(2) (– ∞, – 1] ∪ (1, 4]
(3) (– ∞, – 1) ∪ [1, 4]
(4) (– ∞, – 1) ∪ [1, 4)

57) A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {3, 8}, then is

(1) {(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 8)}


(2) {(1, 3), (2, 3), (3, 3), (8, 3)}
(3) {(1, 2), (2, 2), (3, 3), (8, 8)}
(4) {(8, 3), (8, 2), (8, 1), (8, 8)}

58) If two sets A and B have 99 elements in common, then the number of elements common to the
sets
A × B and B × A is :

(1) 299
(2) 992
(3) 100
(4) 18

59) If then find

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

60) The domain of the function f defined by :

(1)
(2) R+
(3) R–
(4) R – {0}
ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 3 3 1 3 2 3 2 3 3 1 1 2 4 1 2 3 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 1 1 3 3 3 2 4 3 1 1 1 2 2 2 4 2 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 1 3 3 2 4 1 1 3 3 3 2 3 4 1 3 2 2 1 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 2 4 1 4 4 4 1 4 3 1 3 3 4 4 4 4 1 2 1 1
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 2 3 4 4 4 2 3 3 3 1 3 2 1 2 4 3 4 3 4
Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 2 2 1 3 1 1 3 3 4 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 4 2

MATHEMATICS

Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A. 3 3 4 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 2 4 4 4 2 3 1 4 3 3
Q. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A. 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 2 3 1 4 2 4 3 3 1 3 4 4
Q. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 3 1 2 2 2 1
SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Multiply by

2) sin 37° cos 53° =

3) cos 2θ = 2 cos2 θ – 1
= 1 – 2 sin2 θ = cos2 θ – sin2 θ

4)

x2 – 3x + 2 =0
x2 –2x – x + 2 = 0
x(x–2) –1 (x–2) = 0
⇒ x = 1 or x = 2
(1,0) and (2,0)

5) y = mx + c
m=

6)

7)

8)

9)
tan θ decreases initially then becomes zero.
After C, tan θ increases

10)

11)

12)

13)

y = (x–2) (x–3)
roots are x1 = 2, x2 = 3
Difference of root ⇒ 3 – 2 = 1

14)

15) a = 1,

16)

Parsec and light year are units of distance.

17) SI unit of electric current is ampere.

18)
0 0 0
Unit of angle is radian but dimensions = [M L T ]

19)

20) Force = [M1L1T-2]


Impulse = [M1L1T-1]
Force and impulse does not have similar dimensions

21)

Plane angle and solid angle are dimensionless but have units.

22)

Y = 1.9 × 1011 N/m2

Y = 1.9 × 1011 = 1.9 × 1011 kg m–1 s–2

Y = 1.9 × 1011 × = 1.9 × 1012 gm cm–1 s–2

23)

n2 = 1 × 1000 × (100)2 × 1
n2 = 107

24)

In addition & subtraction they possess same dimension but in multiplication and dividation not.

25)
Here, unit of a is ms–1, that of b is ms–2 and of c is ms–1.

26)

[M1L1T–2] = [M1]p[L1T–1]q[L1]r
For 'M' 1 = P .....(1)
For 'L' 1 = q + r .....(2)
For 'T' –2 = –q .....(3)
p = 1, q = 2, r = –1

27)

y = acos(ωt-kx)
0 0 0
[ωt – kx] = [M L T ]
0 0 0
[ωt] = [kx] = [M L T ]
[k] = [L–1]

28)

P = 0.0030 ⇒ 2 SF
Q = 2.40 ⇒ 3 SF
R = 3000 m ⇒ 4 SF

29)

If the digit to be rounded off is equal to 5 then the preceding digit is increased by 1 if the digit is
odd.

30)

Total mass = (2.300 + 0.02015 + 0.02017) kg


= 2.34032 kg
As the least number of significant figures in the mass of box is 2, so maximum number of significant
figures in the result can be 2.
∴ Total mass = 2.3 kg

31)

Error in AB

Therefore AB = (0.25 ± 0.08) m

32)

Precision for a set of measurement is seen by least count of instrument.

33) Percentage error =

34)

Percentage error =

= 0.5 %

35)
36) % Error in p = 3(% error in A)+ (% Error in B) + (% Error in C)

37)

According to the rules of significant figures 0.007 m2 has one significant figures.
2.64 × 1024 kg has three significant figures.
0.0006032 m2 has four significant figures.
6.3200 J has five significant figures.

38)

If a quantity depends upon more than three factors, each having dimensions, then the method of
dimensional analysis cannot be applied. It is because applying the principle of homogeneity will give
only three equations.

39)

41)
42)

F = A sin Ct + B cos Dx
Since the argument of trigonometric functions is the angle, which is dimensionless

........ (1)
Similarly [Dx] = M°L°T°
[DL1] = M°L°T°
[D] = L-1....(2)
Step 2: Using principle of homogeneity
Since the value of trigonometric functions is dimensionless,
Using the principle of homogeneity, Dimension of A and B is same as Force F
...... (3)
Step 3: Final calculation From equation (3)

From equation (1) and (2)

43)
Dimensionally, α = [T2]

⇒ β = [M–1L–3T+6]

Dimensions of

44)

= [M1L1T–2] [L1]= [M1L2T–2] a = 1, b = 2, c = –2

45)

Density, ρ =

ρ=

then, =

=
= 1 + 2 + 1 = 4%
46)

= 16.25%
∴ R ± ΔR = 4 ± 16.25 %

47)

Since exponential term is dimensionless,


Dimension of α,

[α] = = MLT–2

Since must have the dimensions of pressure (ML–1 T–2)

Therefore, dimensions of β, [β] =

48)

We cannot add or subtract two physical quantities of different dimensions.

49)

50)

Mean time period T = 2.00 sec and Mean absolute error = = 0.05 sec
To express maximum estimate of error, the time period should be written as .

51)

Radius =

52)
sin (180 + 37°) = –sin37° =

53)

y = 2x + 6
m = +2
c = +6
Therefore,

54)
θ1 > θ2> θ3 ⇒ tanθ1> tan θ2 > tanθ3

55) y = x2 – 4x + 10

for minima
2x – 4 = 0
2x = 4 ⇒ x = 2
∴ ymin = (2)2 – 4 × 2 + 10
= 4 – 8 + 10
= 14 – 8 = 6

56)

57)
58)

Area =

=5

=5× =

59)

60)

Sn = 544

CHEMISTRY

61)

Avogadro's law states that an equal volume of all gases under same temperature and pressure
contain equal number of molecules.

62)

Law of multiple proportions: Two elements combine to form more than one compound and the
masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other element is in the ratio of small
whole numbers.

63)

The law of conservation of mass states that during any physical or chemical changes, the total mass
of reactants is equal to the total mass of the product.

64)

Refer the Law of conservation of mass and Gay-Lussac law

65)

The law of constant (or) definite proportion states that a chemical compound always contain same
elements combined together in the same proportion by mass.

66)

Amount of substance SI unit is mol but not


67)

One significant figure after decimal point i.e., 38.0

68)

8.281 has four significant figures.

69)

70)

has four significant figures.

71)

Homogeneous mixture of the all components are uniformly distributed throughout the mixture.
There is only one phase of matter is observed in Homogeneous mixture.

72)

A pure substance is a substance in which only one type of atom or molecule is present.
Eg: H2O, S, Sucrose, etc.

74)

An element which contain only one kind of an atom is called element H2O is molecule has oxygen and
hydrogen.

75)

According to the physical state at room temperature and pressure. The matter is present in three
state solid, liquid and gas.

76)

One mole of oxygen gas occupies a volume is 22.4L, Hence 2 mole oxygen = 44.8 L

77)

The molar volume of any gas at NTP is 22.4 L.

78)

79)
4 g of He also contains

80)

1 g of carbon contain 12 g.

81)

Acetic acid molecular formula = CH3COOH


Whole number ratio of C : H : O is 2 : 4 : 2
Simple whole number ratio 1 : 2 : 1
Empirical formula of acetic acid is CH2O.

82)

Caffeine molecular weight = 199 u


% Mass of Nitrogen = 28.9 %

Mass of Nitrogen =
Mass of one Nitrogen atom = 14u

Number of nitrogen atom

83)

Molecular weight of NaOH = 40


Mass of single oxygen = 16

% composition of oxygen
= 40

84)

Empirical formula = XY1.5 = X2Y3

85)
Empirical formula = CH

86)

(1 mol) (2 mol) (1 mol)

Hence 8 mole of B will be produces .

87)

Given

88)

Balanced chemical equation

1 mole propane required 5 mole oxygen.


5 mole propane required .

89)

The balanced equation for H, O to form H2O

Given 4 g of H2 and 4 g of O2
Hence

90)

Mass percent of solute


Mass of solute = 4g
Mass of solvent = 18g
Mass of solution = 20g

= 18%
91)

92)

GMW of urea NH2CONH2 = 60 gm


Weight of solvent = 90 gm

Mole of urea

Mole of water

93)

94)

Given: Molarity = 0.50 M


Volume = 150 mL 0.25 L

95)

96)

Given:
Mass of compound = 2.2 g
Mass of phosphorous = 1.24
Mass of sulphur

Mole of phosphorous

Mole of sulphur
Hence, P:S = 4:3
Empirical formula of P,S is P4S3.
97)

Given:

1 mole of NH3 react with 1.25 moles of O2 to produce 1 mole of NO and 1.5 mole of H2O.
Hence all the oxygen are made to react to completion hence all the oxygen is consumed.

98)

Given:
Mass of glucose = 18 g
Molar mass of glucose = 180 g
Mass of solvent = 1000 g = 1 kg

molal

99)

Given:
Glycerine = 46 g M.wt = 92
Water = 36 g M.wt = 18

Moles of glycerine

Moles of H2O

= 0.2.

100)

Study the statement of Molarity, Normality, Molality and Molefraction.

101)

Given:
The ratio of Oxygen and Nitrogen 1:4

Moles of O2 =

Moles of N2 =

102)
Moles of M2CO3 = moles of CO2
Given: Moles of CO2 i.e., moles of M2CO3 = 0.01186

Moles of M2CO3 = (w = 1 g)

Molar mass =

103)

Let the hydrocarbon is CxHy


Given:
25 g of hydrocarbon, 88 g of CO2, 9 g of H2O

Hence the unknown hydrocarbon contain 24 g of C & 1 g of H

104)

Mole of =
Given:

(2 mol) (110 mol)


0.5 moles of produces H2O

105)

2g xg

106)

107)
Mass of 1 atom of C = 12 gm

108)

109)

110)

No. of moles of

Molarity of solution
= 0.954

Concentration of = 0.954M
+
Concentration of Na =
= 1.908 M

111)

Number of moles
Number of molecules

112)

113)

Molar mass of urea 60g


= 46.6

114)

0.56 g
100 g CaCO3 = 111 g CaCl2
1 g CaCO3 = 1.11 g CaCl2
Wt. of CaCl2 = 1.11 g
Wt. of NaCl =

115)
(58.5g) (170 g) (143.5)
170 g AgNO3 143.5g AgCl
3.4 g AgNO3 x

116)

(2 moles) (3 moles)

Mole of 2g of H2 =
3 moles of H2 from 2 moles of Al

1 mole of H2 from

117)

The n mole of gas can be derived

118)

Molecular weight

Volume = n Molar volume

= 2.4L

119)

1g of oxygen atom
1g of O2

1g of O3
Hence all have the same No. of atoms.

120)

Volume of gas at NTP = 22.4L

MATHEMATICS

121)

122)

123)

Speak Bengali only

= 200 - 175
= 25

124) A = {2}

125)

126)

127)

128) R = {(11, 8) (13, 10)}


R-1 = {(8, 11) (10, 13)}
129)

130) A = {1, 2, 3}
B = {3, 5}

131)
20=12+n(P)-8
n(P)=12

132) no real of x

133)

134) 2n - 1

135) A - B = {1}
B - C = {4}

136) Conceptual

137)

138) R = {(2, 1) (3, 1)}

139)

140) A Χ B = {(1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 6) (1, 7)


(2, 2) (2, 3) (2, 6) (2, 7)
(3, 2) (3, 3) (3, 6) (3, 7)
(4, 2) (4, 3) (4, 6) (4, 7)
(5, 2) (5, 3) (5, 6) (5, 7)}
Similarly B X A

141)

142) -5=-a+b
3=3a+b

143) 2m - 2n = 56

144)

145) 2n = 24

146)

147)

⇒ 2n (2m–n – 1) = 24 (7)
⇒ n = 4, 2m–n – 1 = 7
⇒ 2m–4 – 1 = 7
⇒ 2m–4 = 8
⇒ 2m–4 = 23
⇒m–4=3
⇒ m = 7.

148)

149)

150)

151) Put n=1,2,3

152)

153)
x=2,4

154) is not less than 0

155)

and y=-x

156) (1, 4)(-1, 4)(1, -4)(-1, -4)


(2, 3)(2, -3)(-2, 3)(-2, -3)

157) Assuming A to be any set other than the empty set also B = A and we have
but .

158)

159)

160) {11, 39, 48, 57, 66, 75, 84, 93}

161)

162) { }

163) {2, 3, 4, 5}

164) {-2, -1, 0, 1, 2}


by verification

165) P = {3, 6, 9 ---}


Q = {3, 9, 27 ---}
166)
=36–15
=21

167)

Domain [-3, 3]
Range [0, 3]

168)

169)
No Solution.

170) Put [x]=t


Solve quadratic equation

171) By Definition of relation

172)

173)

174)

175) x=0

176)

177)

178)
=992

179) { }

180)

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