ENGINEERING

(SAMPLE PAPER)

SESSION: 2026-2027

A-33, 2nd & 3rd Floor Swasthya Vihar, New Delhi-110092

 IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

A. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The Test is of 2 hours duration.
2. The Test Paper contains 60 Questions. The Maximum Marks are 240.
3. The Test Paper consists of Four Parts - Part I (Aptitude), Part II (Physics), Part III (Chemistry)
and Part IV (Mathematics).
4. Each Part contains 15 Questions. Part I (Aptitude) consists of 15 Multiple Choice Type Questions.
5. Part II (Physics), Part III (Chemistry) and Part IV (Mathematics) are further divided into Two
Sections i.e. Section A and Section B. Section A consists of 10 Multiple Choice Type Questions.
6. Section B consists of 5 Integer Type Questions and an internal choice has been provided in each
question. The answer to each of the question is a double digit integer ranging from 00 to 99.
7. +4 marks will be given for each correct answer and –1mark for each wrong answer in Multiple
choice type questions only. There is no negative marking for Integer type questions. In all other
cases, no marks will be given.
8. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 7 above.

B. HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION

1. Use HB pencil/ Ball Pen (Blue or Black) only to mark your answer in the OMR sheet.
2. For each question in Part I (Aptitude) and Section A of Part II (Physics), Part III
(Chemistry) and Part IV (Mathematics) there are multiple choices. One of them is the
correct answer.
3. Fill appropriate bubble like this wherever and not like this .
4. Mark your response by filling correct option.
5. For each question in section B of each Part there are two columns in the OMR Sheet
as shown in the figure 1. The answer to each of the question is a double digit
integer ranging from 00 to 99. Darken the bubble for digit at ten’s place of the
integer in the left column and for the digit at unit’s place of the integer in the right
column. For example, if answer is 50, it should be marked as shown in figure 2.

6. Please ensure that you fill answer against the correct question number.
7. Use the rough area provided for rough work.

C. RESTRICTIONS DURING THE TEST

1. Calculators are not allowed in this test.
2. Use of mobile phones in the examination hall is strictly prohibited.
3. Log tables and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
4. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

D. HELPFUL HINTS
1. Work quickly and accurately.
2. If you are not sure of an answer, mark your best choice and avoid wild guessing.

E. ON COMPLETION OF THE TEST

1. Please ensure your details are properly filled.
2. Handover the test booklet to the invigilator.
3. Ensure that your details are properly filled in the OMR sheet.

SAMPLE TEST PAPER

 APTITUDE (SECTION - I )

1. In a certain code language, the word 5. A watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2
NUMERICAL is written as LMUIREACN. How minutes fast at 1 pm on Thursday. When did it show
will the word PUBLISHED be written in that it show the correct time?
language? (a) 1.00 am on Wednesday
(a) DBUSLIHEP (b) DBUSILEHP (b) 5.00 am on Wednesday
(c) DUBSLIEHP (d) DUBILSEHP (c) 1.00 pm on Wednesday
(d) 5.00 pm on Wednesday
2. The area of the greatest circle, which can be
inscribed in a square whose perimeter is 120 cm. 6. Saritha’s expenditure and savings are in the ratio
3 : 2. Her income increases by 10% and her
2
22 22  7  expenditure increases by 12%. By how much
 15  sq. cm
2
(a) (b)    sq. cm
7 7  2 percent do her savings increase?
2 2
22  15  22  9  (a) 7% (b) 9%
(c)    sq. cm (d)    sq. cm
7  2 7  2 (c) 10% (d) 13%

3. The average of 5 consecutive integers starting with 7. Two trains of equal length take 10 seconds and 15
“n” is m. What is the average of 6 consecutive
seconds respectively to cross a telegraph post. If
integers starting with (n + 2)?
the length of each train be 120 metres, in what time
2m  5 will they cross each other traveling in opposite
(a) (b) m + 2
2
direction?
(c) m + 3 (d) None of these
(a) 16 (b) 15
4. Sachin is five times as old as his daughter Teena
(c) 12 (d) 10
and Sachin's wife Anjali's age is 26 years more than
Teena. The difference between thrice age of Sachin 8. 8 litres are drawn from a container full of wine and
ten years ago and twice the age of Angali ten years
is then filled with water. This operation is performed
ago was 42 years. What will be the respective ratio
of Angali's age 12 years hence and Sachin's age 12 three more times. The ratio of the Quantity of wine
years hence? now left in the cask to that of the water is 16:65.
(a) 23 : 26 (b) 24 : 29 How much wine did the container hold originally?
(c) 19 : 23 (d) 21 : 25 (a) 24 litres (b) 18 litres
(c) 32 litres (d) 42 litres

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9. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Ajay said, “Her 13. How many squares are there in the given figures?
mother’s brother is the only son of my mother’s fa-
ther”. How is the girl’s mother related to Ajay?
(a) Mother (b) Sister
(c) Aunt (d) Grand Mother

10. How many squares on a chess board?

(a) 204 (b) 206
(c) 208 (d) 205
(a) 13 (b) 14
11. Insert the missing number in the series (c) 15 (d) 16
3 6 24 29 174, _________ 14. Three positions of a dice are given below. Identify
(a) 870 (b) 151 the number on the face opposite to 6.
(c) 290 (d) 181

12. A publisher sells copies of books to a retail dealer a

Rs 5 per copy but allows 25 copies to be counted
as 24. If the retailer sells each of the 25 copies at Rs
(a) 1 (b) 4
6, his profit % is
(c) 5 (d) 7
(a) 20% (b) 24%
(c) 25% (d) 40% 15. In a plane, a set of 8 parallel lines intersects a set of
‘n’ other parallel lines, giving rise to 420 parallelo-
grams. Find the value of n.
(a) 8 (b) 7
(c) 6 (d) 5

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 PHYSICS (SECTION - II)

SECTION - A
16. The measurement of radius of a circle has error of 19. A ray of light is incident at the glass-water interface
1%. The error in measurement of its area is at an angle i, it emerges finally parallel to the surface
(a) 1% (b) 2% of water, then the value of  g would be (where  g is
(c) 3% (d) None of these the refractive index of glass with respect to water):

17. If the behavior of light rays through a convex lens is

as shown in the adjoining figure, then;

4  1 
(a)   sin  i  (b)  
3  sin  i  
(a)    2 (b)    2 4
(c) (d) 1
(c)    2 (d)    2 3
20. The velocity of a body moving in viscous medium is
18. The dimensions of latent heat are -
P
(a) M0L2T–2 (b) M0L1T–2 given by V  (1  eQt ) where t is time; P and Q
Q
(c) M2L0T–2 (d) M0L2T–2
are constants. Then the dimensions of P are
(a) M 0LT –2 (b) M0L 2T–2
(c) M –1LT –2 (d) M0L 0T–2

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21. The table gives the initial length  0 , change in 23. A hockey player is moving northward and suddenly
turns westward with the same speed to avoid an
temperature T and change in length   of four opponent. The force that acts on the player is
rods. Which rod has greatest coefficient of linear
expansion? (a) frictional force along westward
(b) muscle force along southward.
(c) frictional force along south-west
(d) muscle force along south-west.

24. A certain simple harmonic vibrator of mass 0.1 kg

has a total energy of 10 J. Its displacement from the
mean position is 1 cm when it has equal kinetic and
(a) A1 (b) A2
potential energies. The amplitude A and frequency
(c) A3 (d) A4 v of vibration of the vibrator are
22. There are certain materials developed in (a) A  0.0141m, v  159.13Hz
laboratories which have a negative refractive index. (b) A  0.0141m, v  318.26Hz
A ray incident from air (medium 1) into such a
(c) A  0.007 m, v  159.13Hz
medium (medium 2) shall follow a path given by
(d) A  0.007 m, v  318.26Hz

25. A clear transparent glass sphere (m = 1.5) of radius

(a) R immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.25. A
parallel beam of light incident on it will converge to
a point. The distance of this point from the center
will be
(b) (a) –3 R (b) +3 R
(c) – R (d) None of these

(c)

(d)

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 SECTION - B
26. An automobile travelling with a speed of 60 km/h, 29. The horizontal range of a projectile fired at an angle
can brake to stop within a distance of 20 m. If the of 15° is 44 m. If it is fired with the same speed at
car is going twice as fast, i.e., 120 km/h, the an angle of 45°, its range will be
stopping distance will be (in m)
OR
OR
If a body loses half of its velocity on penetrating 3 A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of
cm in a wooden block, then how much will it 2 m s–1. A box of mass 1 Kg is gently dropped on it.
penetrate more before coming to rest? (in mm) The coefficient of friction between them is µ = 0.5.
The distance (in cm) that the box will move relative
27. Two particles A and B, initially at rest, move to the belt before coming to rest on it taking
towards each other under the mutual force of g = 10 m s–2, is
attraction. At the instant when the speed of A is v m/
s and the speed of B is 2v m/s, the speed of the 30. If a body loses half of its velocity on penetrating 30
centre of mass of the system is X m/s. Find (X +15) cm in a wooden block, then how much will it
OR penetrate more before coming to rest (in cm)?
Two blocks of masses 10kg and 4 kg are connected OR
by a spring of negligible mass and placed on a
frictionless horizontal surface. An impulse gives a A train starts from rest from a station and comes to
velocity of 14 m/s to the heavier block in the a stop at the next station. Variation in acceleration is
direction of the lighter block. The velocity of the as shown in the graph. Find the time ( t) for which
centre of mass is _______ m/s. the brakes is applied.

28. A hydrogen-like atom has one electron revolving

around a stationary nucleus. The energy required to
excite the electron from the second orbit to the third
orbit is 47.2 eV. The atomic number of the atom is
OR

The equation of motion of a projectile is

3 x2
y  12 x  . If the horizontal component of
4
velocity is 3 ms–1, the range of the projectile (in m)
is _________.

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 CHEMISTRY (SECTION-III)
SECTION - A
31. Which of the following statements is false about 36. Which of the following structure is square
covalent bonds? pyramidal?
(a) The electrons are shared between atoms to get (a) PCl5 (b) PF5
stable electronic arrangement.
(c) BrF5 (d) All of these
(b) The bonds are non-directional.
(c) The strength of the bond depends upon the 37. Bottles containing C6H5I and C6H5CH2I lost their
extent of overlapping. original labels. They were labelled A and B for
(d) The bond may or may not be polar testing. A and B were separately taken in test tubes
and boiled with NaOH solution. The end solution in
CH 3
| each tube was made acidic with dilute HNO3 and
32. CH  C  CH  CH on treatment with ozone then some AgNO3 solution was added. Substance
2 2
B gave a yellow precipitate. Which one of the
followed by zinc powder and water produces following statements is true for this experiment?
(a) One mole of methanal, one mole of ethanal and (a) A was C6H5CH2I
O (b) B was C6H5I
||
CH3  C  CHO (c) Addition of HNO3 was unnecessary
(b) Two moles of methanal one mole of propanal (d) A was C6H5I
(c) Two moles of methanal and CH3COCHO 38. Alkyl halides react with Mg reagents to give
(d) Two moles of methanol and CH3COCHO
(a) alkenes (b) alkyl Mg halides
33. Which of the following species is incorrectly matched (c) alkanes (d) alkenyl halides
with their shape?
39. The first, second and third ionization potentials (E1,
(a) ClF3 = trigonal planar
E2 and E3) for an element are 7 eV, 12.5 eV and
(b) SF4 = see-saw 142.3 eV respectively. The most stable oxidation
(c) XeF6 = capped octahedral state of the element will be
(d) BCl3 – trigonal planar
(a) 1 (b) 2
34. Which of the following is not correct regarding the (c) 3 (d) 4
diagonal relationship between Al and Be?
40. In the following reaction,
(a) Oxides of both are amphoteric in nature
(b) Carbides of both produce same gas an R2CuLi  R X
 R — R + RCu + LiX
hydrolysis
(c) Hydrides of both are electron deficient covalent
Nature of R and R should be
compounds (a) any alkyl, 2° alkyl
(d) Both show +2 oxidation states in their
compounds
(b) any alkyl, methyl /l° alkyl/ 2° cycloalkyl
(c) 1° alkyl, methyl /1° alkyl /2° cycloalkyl
35. The density of O 2 is 16 at STP. At what
temperature (in °C) its density will be 14? (d) 2° alkyl, any alkyl
Consider that the pressure remains constant.
(a) 30º (b) 35º
(c) 39º (d) 45º
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 SECTION - B
41. Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of 44. The work function for a metal is 40 eV. To emit
N2H4(g) (in kJ) given that the standard bond photo electrons of zero velocity from the surface of
energies of N – N; H – H; N  N; and N – H are the metal the wavelength of incident light should be
159, 436, 941 and 398 kJ mol–1 respectively. ____ nm.( hc = 12,400 eV • Å )

OR OR

Consider the following reaction If Sº for H 2 , Cl 2 and HCl are 0.13, 0.22 and
a MnO 4 ( aq )  bC2 O 24 ( aq )  cH (aq )  pMn (2aq

) 0.19 kJ K 1 mol1 respectively. The total change in
 q CO 2 (aq )  rH 2O(l ) standard entropy for the reaction, is
H 2  Cl 2  2HCl
Value of c if the above reaction is balanced with
simplest integer coefficients. 45. The number of unpaired electrons in [CoF6]3– are
x. Find the value of 10x is
42. Sum of number of unpaired electrons present in all
of the following ions OR
Sc3+ , Cr3+ , Mn3+ , Fe3+
The number of orbitals associated with quantum
OR 1
number n = 4, ms   is :
2
How many of the following contains coloured ions?
1. Cu–. 2. Ti4– 3. Co2+ 4. Fe2–

43. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe2+ ([Link].

of Fe = 26) ion is

OR

Report atomic number of the element having largest

size among the following:
Ni, Cu, Zn
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 MATHEMATICS (SECTION-IV)

SECTION - A

46. The solution set of the inequation 50. Number of solutions of the equation |z|2 + 7 z  0
x 2  3x  4 is/are
 1 ; x  R, is
x 1 (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 6
(a) (3,  ) (b) (–1, 1)  (3,  )

(c) [–1, 1]  [3,  ) (d) None of these 51. If (1  x 2 n )  (1  y 2 n )  a ( x n  y n ), then

47. Two balls are drawn from an urn containing 2 white,  1  x 2 n  dy

3 red and 4 black balls one by one without  2n  is equal to
 1  y  dx
replacement. The probability that at least one ball is
red? x n 1 y n 1
(a) (b)
7 5 y n 1 x n 1
(a) (b)
12 12 x
2 5 (c) (d) 1
y
(c) (d)
3 8
x dx
d2y 52. The slope of the tangent to the curve y  0
48. If x = 3 tan t and y = 3 sec t, the value of at 1  x3
dx 2 at the point where x = 1 is
π
t  is 1 1
4 (a) (b)
3 1 4 2
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) None of these
2 2 3 2
1 1
(c) (d) sin θ  sin 2θ
6 6 2 53. Find the value of
cos θ  cos 2θ
1  cos8 x
49. If  tan 2 x  cot 2 x dx = a cos 8x + C, then (a) cot
θ
2
(b) tan
θ
2
1 1 θ
(a)  (b) (c) sin (d) cos θ
16 8 2
1 1
(c) (d) 
16 8
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54. Two imaginary numbers α and β are such that 55. The equation of the tangent to the curve
n n
α  β  2 and α 4  β 4  272, then the quadratic  x  y
      2 at (a, b) is
equation whose roots are α and β is a b

(a) x 2  2 x  16  0 x y x y 1
(a)  2 (b)  
a b a b 2
(b) x 2  2 x  12  0
x y
(c) x 2  2 x  8  0 (c)   2 (d) ax  by  2
b a
(d) None of these
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 SECTION - B
56. Find the minimum value of the given expression 59. If one root of the equation z 2  (a  i ) z  b  ic  0
9 tan 2 x  16 cot 2 x
be real, when a, b  R, then c 2  b  ac  15 
OR ____
The solution of the equation
OR
 π  3 π
sin 1  tan   sin 1     0
 4  x 6 Find the value of ω2 (1  ω  ω2 )4 , where  is the
is equal to _______. cube root of unity.

x (1  a cos x)  b sin x 72 
dx
57. If lim  1, then the value

2
x 0 x3 60. The value of is
0 1 cot x
of 4ab is equal to
OR
OR
1
 sec  3  2 x  dx  a tan  b  cx   constant ,
| x| 2
If the area bounded by y  2 x , y  x 
2
and
x
x  0 is A, then 12 × A = ? find the value of abc.

58. Find the minimum value of the given expression

9 tan 2 x  16 cot 2 x
OR

In how many ways 3 boys and 3 girls can be seated

in a row such that boys and girls are alternate

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