Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

In mammals, the dark color of skin, hair, and eyes is due to a pigment called melanin, Melanin is produced by specialized
skin cells called melanocytes. The melanin is then transferred to other skin cells called keratinocytes. Melanocytes
synthesize melanin in a multistep metabolic pathway (Figure 1). The amount of melanin produced is dependent on the
amount of the enzymes TYR. TRP2, and TRP1 present inside melanocytes.

[ Tyroaine YR L-DOPA A
" { DOPAGUIrone -} DOPAChrome
m Molann

Figure 1. Melanin synthesis pathway

The peptide hormone ar-melanocyte stimulating hormone (@~MSH) activates a signal transduction pathway leading to
the activation of MITF. MITF is a transcription factor that increases the expression of the TY R, TRP2. and TRP 1
genes (Figure 2).

Adenylyl
+ Cyclase
MC1R
+
w
:q cAMP
Cell
Membrane 1*
G Protein
Protein Kinase A
1+
CREB
1+
MITF

Nucleus
Figure 2. Activation of melanin synthesis genes in melanocytes

Some mammals increase melanin production in response to ultraviolet {UV) radiation. The UV radiation causes damage
to DNA in keratinocytes, which activates the p53 protein. pb3 increases the expression of the POMC gene. The
POMC protein is then cleaved to produce a—MSH. The keratinocytes secrete a-MSH., which signals nearby
melanocytes. The increased melanin absorbs UV radiation, reducing further DNA damage.
[~ Scmng Gk
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

UV Radiation

Ribosome g

<> mRNA
Figure 3. Production of a~MSH in keratinocytes in response to UV radiation

1. Which of the following claims about the T'YR. TRP2 and T RP { mammalian genes is most likely to be
accurate?
The TY R, TRP2 and TRP 1 genes are located next to cach other on a single chromosome and are
(A)
organized into an operon.
The TY R TRP2 and TRP 1 genes may be located on different chromosomes but arc activated by /|
(B) the same transcription factor.

© The TY R. TRP2 and TRP 1 genes are identical genes since they are activated by the same
transcription factor.
The TY R, TRP2 and TRP 1 genes may be located on different chromosomes but with identical
(D) operator sequences.

2. Which of the following claims best explains why keratinocytes do not produce melanin?
(A) Keratinocytes do not contain the TY R, TRP2, and TRP1 genes.
(B) Keratinocytes do not contain the MC 1R gene.

(C) Keratinocytes do not express the MIT F gene. v

(D) Keratinocytes do not express the POMC' gene.
o~ ——
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

3. Mice have melanocytes in the skin on their cars and show a tanning response to UV radiation. Rescarchers were
studying a mutant population of mice that do not show a tanning response. Genetic testing of these mutant mice
showed that the pathway causing the production of a—MSH by keratinocytes in response to UV radiation was
fully functional. Thus, the researchers claimed that the lack of tanning response was due a nonfunctional MC1R.

Which of the following pices of evidence would best support the researchers” claim above?
A) ‘When researchers applied a drug that activates adenylyl cyclase to the mutant mice’;
melanin increased.
B) When rescarchers viewed sections of mutant mouse cars under the microscope, they found melanocyte
numbers comparable to nonmutant mice.
rchers exposed the mutant mice to UV radiation, the amount of POMC mRNA in
did not change.
() When rescarchers exposed the mutant mice to UV radiation, the level of melanin production did not
change.

4. Based on the information provided in Figure 1 and Figure 2, which of the following best explains the effects of a
mutation in the promoter of the T'YR gene that prevents it from being transcribed?
(A) DNA damage due to UV radiation will be strongly inhibited, resulting in a positive selection pressure.
(B) DNA damage due to UV radiation will be strongly inhibited, resulting in a negative selection pressure.
(C) Skin pigmentation will not be able to change, resulting in a positive selection pressure.
(D) Skin pigmentation will not be able to change, resulting in a negative selection pressure. v

Which of the following best explains a process occurring between point | and point 2 in Figure 3 7
=

(A) a-MSH is produced.

(B) The 7YR gene is transcribed.
(C) Polypeptides are removed from a protein
(D) A poly-A tail is added to RNA. v

6. Rescarchers discovered a mutant form of the T'YR gene with a deletion of a single guanine nucleotide in the
beginning of the coding sequence.

Which of the following best predicts the phenotype of an individual who is homozygous for this TY R mutation?
[ Scntn G
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

The mutation will cause a single amino acid change in the TYR protein, which will not be enough to
(A) disrupt its function. Thercfore, those with this mutation will produce melanin in the hair, skin, and eyes
and tan in response to UV radiation.
The mutation will cause a single amino acid change in the TYR protein, leading 1o a nonfunctional
(B} TYR protein. Therefore, those with this mutation will lack melanin in the hair, skin, and eyes and will
not tan in response to UV radiation.
The mutation will change all subsequent amino acids in the TYR protein, leading to nonfunctional
TYR protein. Since the T'RP I and T RP2 genes were not affected, the TRP1 and TRP2 proteins
(8]
will fill the role of the TYR protein. Therefore, those with this mutation will produce melanin in the
hair, skin, and eyes in response to UV radiation.
The mutation will change all subsequent amino acids in the TYR protein, leading to nonfunctional |
(D) TYR protein. Individuals with this mutation will lack melanin in their hair, skin, and eyes and will not v
tan in response to UV radiation. |

7. Scientists conducted a transformation experiment using E. coli bacteria and the pT'ru plasmid. Samples of the
PpTru plasmid (lane A) and the chromosomal DNA from two different £. coli strains that the scientists attempted
to transform (lane B and lane C) were compared using gel electrophoresis. The results are shown in Figure 1.

— — Lane | Sample
A | pTru
B | E. coli strain |
C | E. coli strain |l

Figure 1. Results of E. colf transformation with pTru plasmid

Which of the following statements best explains the experimental results observed in Figure | 7
E. coli in both lanes B and C have been successfully transformed and contain additional genetic
A information.
(B) E. coli in lane B have been successfully transformed and contain additional genetic information.

(€C) E. coliin lane Chave been successfully transformed and contain additional genctic information.
(D) Which E. coli have been transformed cannot be determined from this gel.

8. Which of the following best explains how the pattern of DNA arrangement in chromosomes could be used, in most
cases, to determine if an organism was a prokaryote or a cukaryote?
(o~ S ke
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

Prokaryotic DNA Eukaryotic DNA

(A)

Single circular chromosome Multiple circular chromosomes

Prokaryotic DNA Eukaryotic DNA

B)
Multiple chromosomes | Single chromosome

Prokaryotic DNA Eukaryotic DNA

[(8]

Single lincar chromosome | Multiple linear chromosomes

Prokaryotic DNA Eukaryotic DNA

D) { v
Single circular chromosome | Multiple linear chromosomes

Lynch syndrome is an inherited condition associated with an increased risk for colon cancer, as well as certain other
cancers. Mutations in one of several genes involved in DNA repair during DNA replication have been associated
with Lynch syndrome. DNA sequencing was performed for an individual. The results indicated that the individual
carries onc of the dominant alleles that has been associated with Lynch syndrome.

Which of the following best explains how the results should be interpreted?
The individual does not have an increased risk of developing cancer because one dominant allele is
insufficient to cause the discase.
(B) The individual has an increased risk of developing colon cancer. v
(C) Because the person’s DNA has the mutation, other family members must have cancer.
(D) Results cannot be interpreted until testing determines if additional mutated alleles are present.
[ N—
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

10. An evolutionary biologist hypothesizes that two morphologically similar plant species are not closely related. To
test the hypothesis, the biologist collects DNA samples from cach of the two plant species and then uses restriction
enzymes to cut the DNA samples into fragments, which are then subjected to gel electrophoresis. The results are
shown in Figure 1.

Species Species
A B

JUBWSAO| JO UOoI08IIQ
| LI

Figure 1. DNA analysis of two specics

Given the results shown in Figure 1, which of the following correctly describes a relationship between the two
species?
(A) Species B is the ancestor of species A because it has fewer bands.
(B) Species A is more complex than specics B because it has more bands.
(C) Species B has more short fragments of DN A than species A does.
(D) Species A has more short fragments of DNA than species B does.
[~ e ke
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

11, Labeled nucleotides were supplied to a cell culture before the cells began DNA replication. A simplified
representation of the process for a short segment of DNA is shown in Figure 1. Labeled DNA bases are indicated
with an asterisk (*).

5, 5 a-C* 3
G . G-G
N DNA T-A
5 3 G
y
Synthesis 6C-G*
¢-¢ A A-T*
G-C 3 3 ¥
A —
¢-¢ ¥ ¥ G¥
A-T
P) $A DNA s
Tona g‘é'G
ONAMOoede G Synthesis AT
T ¢-¢
T-A"
L
Copies of the
Original DNA Molecule

Figure 1. A simplified representation of the DNA replication process

Which of the following best helps explain how the process represented in Figure | produces DNA molecules that
are hybrids of the original and the newly synthesized strands?
(A) Each template strand is broken down into nucleotides, which are then used to synthesize both strands of
anew DNA molecule
Each template strand is broken into multiple fragments, which are randomly assembled into two
B
different DNA molecules.
© Each newly synthesized strand is associated with another newly synthesized strand to form a new DNA
molecule.
Each newly synthesized strand remains associated with its template strand to form two copies of the v
(D) g N
original DNA molecule.
o~ ——
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

12 Cycloheximide (CHX) is a eukaryote protein synthesis inhibitor. It is used in biomedical rescarch to inhibit protein
synthesis in eukaryotic cells studied in vitro. Its efficts are rapidly reversed by simply removing it from the culture
medium.
In a translation experiment using a fungus culture, radiolabeled amino acids were added to the culture, allowing the
researchers to measure the growth of a single polypeptide chain by measuring counts per minute (CPM). As the
chain grew, the CPM increased. After a certain amount of time, CHX was added to the mixture, and the
experiment continued. After an additional amount of time, the CHX was removed from the culture medium.

Which of the following graphs best predicts the data collected during the experiment?
[~ N—
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

4 Inhibitor Removed

Inhibitor X
E Added
w O

0
Time
A

Inhibitor Added
b
o * Inhibitor
® O Remfved

0
Time
4

Inhibitor Inhibitor
=| Added Removed
o
© O ‘ ‘

0
Time
(o~ S ke
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

Inhibitor
Added
CPM

f
(D)

Inhibitor
Removed
Time

Retroviruses such as HIV and hepatitis B virus use RN A as their genetic material rather than DNA. In addition,
they contain molecules of reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that uses an RNA template to synthesize
complementary DN.

Which of the following best predicts what will happen when a normal cell is exposed to a retrovirus?
(A) The reverse transcriptase will cut the host DNA into fragments, destroying the host cell.
B The reverse transcriptase will insert the viral RNA into the host's genome so it can be transcribed and
translated.
(€) The reverse wranscriptase will produce DNA from the viral RNA. which can be incorporated into the /|
host’s genome and then transcribed and translated
‘D)_Thc reverse transcriptase will force the host ribosomes to translate the viral RNA prior to polypeptide
assembly.
(o~ —
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

14, Exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation is the leading cause of skin cancer in humans. Figure 1 shows a model of
how UV exposure damages DNA.

Incoming
UV Photon

Figure 1. Model of damage to DNA caused by UV exposure

Which of the following statements best explains what is shown in Figure 1 7

(A) UV exposure triggers DNA replication, which results in rapid cell proliferation.
Naturally occurring dimers are removed by the UV photons, causing misshapen DNA, which results in
(B)
replication errors.
The hydrogen bonds between base pairs absorb the UV photons, separating the two DNA strands,
(8]
which results in rapid DNA replication.
UV photons cause dimers to form, leading to misshapen DNA, which results in replication and v
D) ranscription errors.
 Sconing Guide

Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

15, The trpoperon in E. coli is an example of a repressible operon that consists of genes coding for enzymes used to
synthesize tryptophan. When tryptophan levels are high, the operon is tumed off and these genes are not
transcribed. However, it is also known that tryptophan does not bind directly to the operator DNA sequence. A
regulatory gene called trpR has also been discovered although it is not part of the #7p operon. The propesed model
of how tryptophan acts as a corepressor is shown in Figure 1.

"Dolpfmn

f ) Functional Genes
ona me
Regulatory 7 ANA 7~ (ot or
Gene | Polymerase
N
L]
3
"

miANA 5

o S
'
ve tp Active tp
Repressor IRepressor

Tryptophan Absent Tryptophan Present

Figure 1. Model of proposed regulation of the £rp operon by corepressors trp repressor and tryptophan

Which of the following evidence best supports a claim that tryptophan functions as a corepressor?
(A) Normal expression of trp/R causes the trp operon to be transcribed regardless of tryptophan levels.
(B) When the operator sequence is mutated, the trp operon is not transcribed.
(C) The trpR gene codes for a repressor protein that has a DNA binding domain
(D) When trpRis mutated, the £rp operon is transcribed regardless of tryptophan levels,
 Scoring Guide

Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

16. Eukaryotes transcribe RNA from DNA that contains introns and exons. Alternative splicing is
one posttranscriptional modification that can create distinet mature mMRNA molecules that lead to the production of
different proteins from the same gene. Figure 1 shows a gene and the RNA produced after transcription and after
alternative splicing.

Exont Exon? Exend Exond Exon$

t ¥ t —t + ONA

| Tranacrption

Exon! Exon2 Exond Exond Exons

£ : g 3£ ' 3¢ - Pre-mANA

ik
After Alternative Splicing

Exon Exon Exon Exon Exon Exon Exon Exon Exon Exon Exon Exon Exon
mANA 1,2
Pt .3 ety
4 6 1,2
——t4 8 1 3.5
+
®
' . '
. =L
Enzyme c

Figure 1. Model of posttranscriptional alternate splicing of mRNA

A cell needs to metabolize the substrate illustrated in Figure | for a vital cellular function. Which of the following
best explains the long-term effect on the cell of splicing that yields only enzyme C mRNA?
Ay The cell will dic because it is unable to metabolize the substrate without enzyme A. which is structurally 7
specific for the substrate shown.
B) The cell will remain healthy because all three of the above enzymes can metabolize the substrate, as they
are from the same gene.
© The cell will remain healthy because the enzyme C mRNA will undergo alternative splicing again
until it transformed into enzyme A mRNA.
) The cell will remain healthy because enzyme-substrate interactions are nonspecific and enzyme C will
eventually metabolize the substrate
[ Scing Gk
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

17. A simplified model of a DNA replication fork is represented in Figure 1. The protein labeled Enzyme | carries out
a specific role in the DNA replication process.

Enzyme 1

Figure 1. A simplified model of a DNA replication fork

Which of the following statements best explains the role of Enzyme 1 in the DNA replication process?
) Enzyme 1 is a DNA ligase that joins together the DNA fragments at a replication fork to form
continuous strands.
() Enzyme 1isa DNA primasc that catalyzes the synthesis of RNA primers on the lagging strand of a
replication fork.
© Enzyme 1 is a DNA polymerase that synthesizes new DNA by using the leading and lagging strands
of a replication fork as templates.
[ (D) Enzyme | is a topoisomerase that relieves tension in the overwound DNA in front ofa replication fork. /|
18. Small single-stranded RN A molecules called microRNAs (miRNAs) are capable of base pairing with specific
binding sites in the 3" untranslated region of many mRNA transcripts. Transcription of gene Q yields an mRNA
transcript that contains such an miRNA binding site, which can associate with miRNA -delta, a specific
miRNA molecule.

Which of the following best supports the claim that binding of miRNA-delta to the miRNA binding site inhibits
translation of gene O mRNA?
(A) When the promoter for gene is altered, transcription is inhibited.
Translation of O mRNA is inhibited regardless of whether the miRNA binding site sequence is
(B)
altered.
(C) Translation of 0 mRNA is inhibited in the absence of miRNA-delta.
oy When the miRNA binding site sequence is altered, translation of 0 mRNA occurs in the presence of /|
miRNA-delta
[~ N—
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

19. All cells must transcribe rRNA in order to construct a functioning ribosome. Scientists have isolated and identified
TRNA genes that contribute to ribosomal structure for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Figure | compares the
transcription and processing of prokaryotic and cukaryotic TRNA.

Prokaryotic Eukaryotic
168 23S 58 185 58S 28S
[ Pre-rANA [ ——
- — )
l FRANA Processing 1 RANA Processing
168 238 58 18S 58S 288
[ [0 O Mature rRNA 0 [0 [0 Mature rRNA

Figure 1. Comparison of FRNA processing in prokaryotes and cukaryotes

Which of the following statements provides the best explanation of the processes illustrated in Figure | 7
Introns are removed from the pre-rRNA. and the mature fRNA molecules are joined and then
) ranslated to produce the protein portion of the ribosome.
Introns are removed from the pre-rTRNA, and each mature TRNA molecule is translated to produce the
(B) )
proteins that make up the ribosomal subunits.
() Sections of the pre-TRNA are removed, and the mature TRNA molecules are available to combine |
with proteins to form the ribosomal subunits.
Sections of the pre-rRNA are removed, and the mature TRNA molecules are available to bring
D) ifferent amino acids to the ribosome.
20. Huntington's discase, an autosomal dominant disorder, is caused by a mutation in the HTT gene. The HT'T gene
contains multiple repeats of the nucleotide sequence CAG. A person with fewer than 35 CAG repeats in the
HTT gene is unlikely to show the neurological symptoms of Huntington's disease. A person with 40 or more
CAG repeats almost always becomes symptomatic. Due to errors in meiosis, an individual without symptoms of
Huntington's disease can produce gametes with a larger number of CAG repeats than there are in their somatic
cells.

A woman develops Huntington's discase. Her father had the disorder. Her mother did not, and there is no history of
the disorder in the mother's family. Which of the following best explains how the woman inherited Huntington’s
disease?
She inherited an allele with fewer than 40 CAG repeats in the HTT gene because her mother did not
(A) have Huntington's discase.
— A
(B) She inherited an allele with more than 40 CAG repeats in the HTT gene from her father. v
(C) Her mother produced eggs that all have more than 40 repeats in the HTT gene.
(D) Her mother produced eggs that all have fewer than 40 CAG repeats in the HT'T gene.
[ —
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

21, Figure | depicts a simplificd model of a replication bubble.

WIS199412901
(15 o penell942 ror
Mot CEAG Movemers
TACACAATACACCAT 1T cqii> TY TACCACATAAC
AAS M
b v
s, o

yASSITIAGR10014 AN » Y SEEECAR A16019GATIQT964,

SLEASCT 10aalag0r 1654

Figure 1. DNA replication bubble.

Which of the following best explains how this model illustrates DNA replication of both strands as a replication
fork moves?
(A) Tand IV are synthesized continuously in the 5 to 3" direction.
(B) IIand Il are synthesized in segments in the 37 to B/ direction.
thesized continuously
in the 5 to 3 direction, and 111 is synthesized in segments in the 5 10 3 /|
© girection.
(D) Ilis synthesized in segments after DNA polymerase is released from synthesizing strand [V,

22, Figure | represents a portion of a process that occurs during protein synthesis.

”l)(ll)fl l‘
Q‘.m
Repressor Protein
. Structural Gene

DO HArerer NI
T 1 DODL
MANA

Figure 1. Model of selected features of DNA transcription

Which claim is most consistent with the information provided by the diagram and current scientific understanding
of gene regulation and expression?
o~ S ke
Unit 6 Progress Check: MCQ

(A) Reversible changes in the DNA sequence may influence how a gene is expressed in a cell.
[ (B) Some sequences of DNA can interact with regulatory proteins that control transcription v
() This is an inducible operon controlled by several regulatory factors.
The transcription factor may produce mutations in the binding site at the promoter sequence inhibiting
the synthesis of the protein.

'ystic fibrosis ( CF) is a progressive genetic discase that causes persistent lung infections and affects the ability to
breathe. CF is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, caused by the presence of mutations in both copies of
the gene for the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein. Partial nucleotide sequences
and the corresponding amino acid sequences for an unaffected individual and an affected individual are modeled in
Figure 1.

TT TTTTTT T T I T T
Nucleotides —=ACA TGG TAT GAC TCT CTT GGAG

Amino Acid —s110r HTrp H Tyr HAspH Ser HLeu{ Gly |-+
Unaffected Individual

- T TTTTTIT T I T I T TT I TT
Nucleotides —=ACA GGT ATGACTCTC TTG GAG

Amino Acid - ThrH GIyHMélH Thr HLeuH LeuH Glu}-+

Affected Individual

Figure 1. CFTR protein sequences in unaffected and affected individuals

Based on the information in Figure 1, which type of mutation explains the nature of the change in DNA that
resulted in cystic fibrosis in the affected individual?
(A) Substitution, because the amino acid tryptophan is replaced with glycine.
(B) Insertion, because an extra guanine is present, which changes the reading frame.

(C) Deletion, because a thymine is missing, which changes the reading frame. v
(D) Duplication, because the amino acid leucine occurs twice, which changes the reading frame.

24, Nucleotide base pairing in DNA is universal across organisms. Each pair (T — A; C — G) consists of a purine
and a pyrimidine. Which of the following best explains how the base pairs form?
(A) lonic bonds join two double-ringed structures in each pair.
(B) Hydrogen bonds join two single-ringed structures in each pair.

(C) Hydrogen bonds join a double-ringed structure to a single-ringed structure in ea L

(D) Covalent bonds join a double-ringed structure to a single-ringed structure in cach pair.