SURGERY OBJ

1. In teaching the patient with chronic constipation, the nurse instructs the patient to

a. Avoid intake of insoluble fibre to prevent gas production

b. Drink at least 3 litres of liquids daily

c. Schedule enemas three to four times a week to completely empty the large

bowel

d. Use laxatives until the bowel establishes a regular emptying pattern

Ans………………

2. A nursing intervention that is most appropriate to decrease postoperative edema and pain

following an inguinal herniorrhaphy is

a. Applying a truss to the hernia site

b. Allowing the patient to stand to void

c. Elevation of the scrotum with a support or small pillow

d. Supporting the incision during routine coughing and deep breathing

3. Which of the following water is used to irrigate the bowel in colostomy care?

a. A warm water

b. Cold water

c. Hot water

d. Tepid water

4. The reason behind regular irrigation of bowel in colostomy is to

a. Regulate bowel elimination

b. Prevent bad odour

c. Prevent leakage
d. Prevent retention of feces in the bowel Ans………….

5. Which of the following diets must be avoided by the patient with colostomy

a. High fibre diet

b. Fluid diet

c. Gas producing die

d. Water retention diet Ans……………..

6. During assessment of the patient with esophageal achalasia the nurse would expect the

patient to report

a. A history of alcohol use

b. A sore throat and hoarseness

c. Dysphagia, especially with liquids

d. Relief of pyrosis with the use of antacids Ans…………..

7. The pernicious anemia that may accompany gastritis is due to which of the following?

a. A lack of intrinsic factor normally produced by acid-secreting cells of the

gastric mucosa

b. Chronic autoimmune destruction of cobalamin store in the body

c. Hyperchlorhydria resulting from an increase in acid-secreting parietal cells

and degradation of RBCs

d. Progressive gastric atrophy from chronic breakage in the mucosal barrier and

blood loss Ans…………….

8. You are teaching your patient and her family about possible causative factors for peptic

ulcers. You explain that ulcer formation is

a. Caused by a stressful lifestyle and other acid-producing factors such as C.

pylori

b. Inherited within families and reinforced by bacterial spread of Staphylococcus

aureus in childhood

c. Promoted by factors that tend to cause over secretion of acid, such as excess

dietary fats, smoking, and B. pylori

d. Promoted by a combination of possible factors that may result in erosion of

the gastric mucosa, including certain medications, and alcohol

Ans……………….

9. What is the mechanism behind the factors that lead to the development of piles

a. Friction
b. Pressure at the rectal and anal region

c. Stagnation of blood

d. Vein valve abnormality Ans…………….

10. In the treatment of cancrum oris, chewing of raw pineapple does which of the following:

a. Adds more vitamins to the body

b. Cleanses the mouth

c. Nourishes the patient

d. Smoothens the healing of mouth ulcers Ans……………

11. The client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy. The client asks the nurse

about the purpose of this procedure. The nurse tells the client that the procedure

a. Decreases food absorption in the stomach

b. Heals the gastric mucosa

c. Halts stress reactions

d. Reduces the stimulus to acid secretions Ans……………….

12. A nurse teaches a patient with a wound about the incised wound. Which of the following

statements will require the nurse going over the education?

a. “bleeds with ooze.”

b. “blood vessels are cut straight across.”

c. “edges are well approximated.”

d. “edges are jagged.” Ans……………….

13. A patient with typhoid perforation had his wound heavily infected few days after surgery

had been performed. The nurse understood the patient’s wound was a

a. Clean-contaminated wound

b. Clean wound

c. Contaminated wound

d. Infected wound Ans………………

14. An obese surgical patient who had her wound created under aseptic technique soon had

the wound infected because of decreased perfusion. The nurse understands that decreased

perfusion is as a result of the following EXCEPT

a. Less intake of water

b. Metabolic disorders

c. Obesity
d. Old age Ans………………

15. The transient vasoconstriction that occurs in vascular response as a result of inflammation

is aimed at

a. Ingesting microorganisms

b. Neutralizing the injurious substance

c. Preventing blood loss

d. Preventing tissue damage Ans…………….

16. The nurse is teaching a client with a leg ulcer about tissue repair and wound healing.

Which of the following statement by the client indicates effective teaching?

a. “I’ll limit the intake of protein.”

b. “I’ll make sure that the bandage is wrapped tightly.”

c. “I’ll eat plenty of fruits and vegetables.”

d. “My foot should feel cold.” Ans…………….

17. The following are reactions of the tissues to inflammation EXCEPT

a. Diapedesis

b. Elimination of injurious agent

c. Identification of the injurious agent

d. Phagocytosis Ans…………….

18. Which of the following is the most important to observe when a nurse first receives a

patient from the theatre?

a. Bleeding wound

b. Cough reflex

c. Gaggle reflex

d. Patent airway Ans………………

19. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for an arthroplasty. The nurse explains

that the purpose of this procedure is to

a. Assess and remove degenerative debris

b. Fuse a joint and reduce pain

c. Prevent further joint damage

d. Replace the joint and improve function Ans…………….

20. In the application of traction, counterbalance is needed to provide the required pull. The

countertraction is provided by
a. Patient’s body

b. Pulley

c. Rope

d. Weights Ans…………..

21. Direct entry of the bone by microorganism in osteomyelitis can be made possible through

the following EXCEPT

a. Fracture

b. Orthopaedic implant

c. Penetrating wound

d. Tonsillitis Ans……………

22. The nurse is caring for an older client who had a hip pinned after it fractured. Which of

the following would the nurse avoid to minimize the chance for further injury?

a. Call bell placed within reach

b. Delays in responding to the call light

c. Side rails in the up position

d. Use of a night light in the hospital room and bathroom Ans……….

23. The nurse is performing a neurovascular assessment on a client with a cast on the left leg.

The nurse notes the presence of edema in the foot below the cast. The nurse would

interpret that this finding indicates

a. Arterial insufficiency

b. Impaired arterial circulation

c. Impaired venous return

d. The presence of an infection Ans……………

24. Madam Grace Osei is admitted to your ward with fracture of the tibia and fibula. The

following are the signs and symptoms she would exhibit EXCEPT

a. Fever

b. Pain

c. Shortness of the limb

d. Swelling Ans…………….

25. Which of the following patterns of bone breaks into fragments

a. Communited

b. Greenstick
c. Oblique

d. Spiral Ans…………….

26. An x-ray film showed that the humerus of a patient is broken into three parts. Which of

the following will be used to keep the ends of the broken together?

a. Screws and rods through open reduction

b. Screws and rods through closed reduction

c. Screws and rods through skeletal traction

d. Screws in plaster through manipulation Ans…………..

27. The nurse must observe a patient in a POP cast for the following EXCEPT

a. Compartment syndrome

b. Developing wound

c. Malalignment

d. Neurovascular compromise Ans……………

28. Apart from the external fixation device, the following can be used to immobilize fracture

externally EXCEPT

a. Bandage
b. Pin in plaster

c. Traction

d. Rods Ans…………….

29. A patient with cholelithiasis is admitted with acute right upper quadrant pain that radiates

to the back. Which of the following nursing interventions should have the highest priority

during the first hour of admission?

a. Administering pain medication

b. Completing admission history

c. Maintaining hydration

d. Teaching about planned diagnostic test Ans……………….

30. Which of the following term best describes the term intussusceptions?

a. Infection

b. Inflammation

c. Obstruction

d. Perforation Ans……………..

31. A patient with pyloric stenosis undergoes a pyloromyotomy and returns to his room in a
stable condition. While standing by his bed, his mother says, “Perhaps if I had brought

him to hospital earlier, he would have not needed surgery.” What would be the nurse’s

best response?

a. “do you feel that this problem reflects your mothering skills?”

b. “surgery is the most effective treatment for pyloric stenosis.”

c. “try not to worry; your son will be fine.”

d. “you think that earlier hospitalization could have avoided surgery?”

Ans………………

32. A patient reported at the hospital with gangrenous stomatitis. Which of the following do

you need to confirm that the patient has developed cancrum oris?

a. Breath odour

b. fever

c. Leukocytosis

d. Difficulty in swallowing Ans………………..

33. A patient returns to the ward after resection an anastomosis has been done. The patient

become anxious and alarmed after recovering from anaesthesia and finding NG tube and
drainage tubes in the nostrils and the abdomen. The nurse knows that the

a. Patient should have been pre informed about them

b. She should have been by the patient’s side during recovery

c. Patient should have been restrained

d. She should have reassured the patient Ans……………..

34. Which of the following conditions may call for colostomy to be done

a. Peptic ulcer disease

b. Hirschprong’s disease

c. Typhoid perforation

d. Impacted faeces Ans…………………

35. The following are risk factors that can lead to lung abscess EXCEPT

a. Aspiration of oropharyngeal contents

b. Poor oral hygiene

c. Patients with impaired cough reflexes

d. Patients with swallowing difficulties

36. A 56-year-old man is in the postanaesthesia care unit (PACU) following a thyroidectomy.
While in the PACU, the nurse will monitor his vital signs

a. Continuously

b. Every 5 minutes

c. Every 15 minutes

d. On a prn basis Ans……………..

37. An adult who has had general anaesthesia or major surgery is in the PACU. One of the

signs that may indicate that his artificial airway should be removed is

a. An increase in pain

b. Clear lungs on auscultation

c. Gagging

d. Restlessness Ans…………………

38. Which of the following surgical procedures involves removal of a body organ?

a. Cholecystectomy

b. Colostomy

c. Herniorrhaphy

d. Mammoplasty Ans……………..
39. The nurse’s role in informed consent for surgery may include

a. Asking the patient for consent for the planned procedure

b. Explaining the risks and consequences of the proposed surgery

c. Informing the patient of the prognosis if the surgical procedure is refused

d. Obtaining the patient’s signature on the consent form Ans………..

40. A nursing intervention to assist a preoperative patient in coping with fear of pain would

be to

a. Describe the degree of pain expected

b. Divert the patient when talking about pain

c. Explain the availability of pain medication

d. Inform the patient of the frequency of pain medication Ans…………

41. The nursing measure that should be performed last on the morning of surgery is to

a. Administer preanaesthetic medication

b. Ask patient to void in the bathroom

c. Check chart for signed consent form

d. Remove jewelry and lock up securely Ans………

42. An activity that is carried out by nurses performing both sterile and nonsterile activities in

the operating room

a. Assisting ACP with monitoring of patient during surgery

b. Checking electrical equipment

c. Coordinating activities occurring in the operating room

d. Passing instruments to the surgeon and assistants Ans…………

43. To prevent complication of immobility, which activities would the nurse plan for the first

postoperative day following a colon reaction?

a. It is not necessary to worry about complications of immobility on the first

postoperative day

b. Out of bed and ambulate to a bedside chair

c. Passive range of motion three times a day

d. Turn, cough and deep breath Ans……..

44. In the recovery room, the postoperative client suddenly becomes cyanotic. What is the

first nursing action?

a. Begin oxygen per nasal cannula

b. Call for assistance

c. Insert oral airway

d. Suction the nasopharynx Ans………………

45. A postoperative client asks a nurse why it is so important to deep breath and cough after

surgery. In formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the understanding that retained

pulmonary secretions in a postoperative client can lead to

a. Carbon dioxide retention

b. Fluid imbalance

c. Pneumonia

d. Pulmonary oedema Ans………………

46. A nurse assesses a client’s surgical incision for signs of infection. Which findings by the

nurse would be interpreted as normal finding at the surgical site?

a. Purulent drainage

b. Red, hard skin

c. Serous drainage

d. Warm, tender skin Ans………………

47. A patient was scheduled for thyroidectomy a day before his operation. Observation of the

conjunctiva revealed that the patient was quite pale. Which of the following laboratory

investigations would be done first?

a. Blood grouping and crossmatching

b. Haemoglobin level estimation

c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

d. Sickling test Ans……………….

48. The injection of the local anaesthetic agent into the tissues through which the surgical

incision will pass is the technique of

a. Nerve block

b. Local infiltration

c. Regional application

d. Topical application Ans………………

49. As soon as the patient enters the recovery room, the priority assessment by the nurse is

a. Airway patency and respiratory status

b. ECG monitoring
c. Level of consciousness

d. Urinary output Ans……………

50. Nursing interventions indicated during the patient’s recovery from general anaesthesia in

the recovery room include

a. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing

b. Placing the patient in a supine position

c. Restraining patient during episodes of emergence delirium

d. Withholding analgesics until the patient is discharged from the recovery room

Ans……………

SUCCESS AWAITS YOU ALL

0542396110
Papa Jay
JASON & TEAM

LIKELY MCQs
NSS POSTINGS
PERMANENT POSTINGS etc