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Surgical Nursing 2

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
80 views32 pages

Surgical Nursing 2

Uploaded by

Freda Morgan
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

COURSE: SURGERY AND SURGICAL NURSING

STUDENT ID:………………………………………

OBJECTIVES TEST

QUIZ TWO

1. While caring for a patient who has undergone surgery under general anaesthesia, the
nurse should notify the surgeon if the

a. Patient pushes the airway out


b. Patient has a snoring respiration
c. Respirations are regular but shallow
d. Systolic B/P drops from 130 to 100

2. A patient convalescing from abdominal surgery develops thrombophlebitis. Which sign will
indicate to you that this complication has occurred?
a. Intermittent claudication
b. Localised warmth and tenderness of the leg
c. Pitting oedema of the lower extremities
d. Severe pain on extension of the extremities

3. When caring for road traffic accident victims the nurse would prioritise care and provide
treatment first for a patient with
a. A fractured femur
b. A penetrating abdominal wound
c. Head injury
d. Ventricular fibrillation
4. The nurse would expect a patient in an early stage of severe Hypovolaemic shock to exhibit
a. A blood pressure 150/90
b. A distension of the neck vein
c. An apical heart rate of 142bpm
d. An output of 50ml urine per hour

5. In the immediate post-operative period following a splenectomy, the nurse should specifically
observe the patient for
a. Haemorrhage and abdominal distension
b. Intestinal obstruction and bleeding
c. Peritonitis and pulmonary complications
d. Shock and infections

6. As a result of a fractured rib the patient may develop


a. Herniation of the diaphragm
b. Obstructive lung disease
c. Pneumothorax
d. Scoliosis Ans.………

7. Predisposing causes of cancer of the lungs include


I. Air pollution
II. Chronic respiratory infection
III. Heavy alcohol ingestion
IV. Poor dentine hygiene
a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. II,I II and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

8. When suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy the nurse must remember to


a. Inflate suction as the catheter is being withdrawn
b. Insert the catheter until the cough reflex is stimulated
c. Remove the inner cannula before inserting the suction catheter
d. Use a new sterile catheter with each insertion
9. When irrigating the indwelling urinary catheter the nurse should
a. Aspirate immediately to ensure return flow
b. Instil the fluid under high pressure
c. Obtain and use sterile equipment
d. Warm the solution to body temperature

10. Following extensive and prolong surgery, it is important that the nurse observes the patient
for depletion of which electrolyte?
a. Calcium
b. Chloride
c. Potassium
d. Sodium

11. During the immediate postoperative period the nurse should give the highest priority to
a. Check the vital signs every 15 minutes
b. Maintaining a patent airway
c. Observing for haemorrhage
d. Recording intake and output

12. Which of these is assessed to determine the cause of prostate cancer?


a. Blood urea estimation
b. Creatinine
c. Prostate fluid for WBC
d. Prostate specific antigen

13. Benign prostate hypertrophy


a. Causes an elevated acid phosphatase
b. Is a congenital abnormality
c. Predisposes to hydronephrosis-
d. Usually becomes malignant

14. A patient is finding it difficult to void after an indwelling catheter has been removed. This
may be due to
a. An interruption in his normal voiding habit
b. Fluid imbalance
c. Nervous tension following the procedure
d. The patient’s recent sedentary lifestyle

15.When assessing the urine of a patient with urinary tract infection, the nurse should assess each
specimen for
a. Clarity
b. Specific gravity
c. Sugar and acetone
d. Viscosity

16. Varicose veins are usually the result of


a. Atherosclotic plaques along the veins
b. Defective valves within the veins
c. Eternal compression of the muscles of the leg
d. The formation of thrombophlebitis

17. The nurse would explain a Suprapubic prostatectomy to a patient that it differs from other
surgical procedures of the prostrate in that
a. A major complication of impotence may occur
b. An incision is made directly into the urinary bladder
c. An indwelling catheter is not required after surgery
d. The postoperative convalescent period is shorter

18. To prevent bleeding after prostatectomy the patient should be advised to avoid straining on
defecaetion. The nurse should therefore advise him to increase his intake of
a. Green leafy vegetables
b. Meat and fish
c. Milk product
d. Ripe plantain and yams

19. Fluid replacement for a patient with severe burns during the immediate hypovolaemic stage
is considered satisfactory if the urinary output is approximately
a. Equal to intake
b. Half the intake
c. One third of intake
d. One tenth of intake

20. A patient is transferred to the recovery ward after laparotomy with


Nasogastric tube connected to suction apparatus. The patient started vomiting coloured fluid. The
nurse should
a. Administer anti-emetics
b. Check the patency of the tube
c. Elevate the head of the bed
d. Remove the N.G tube and clean

21. Before a patient sign a consent form for abdominoperineal resection, the nurse should explain
to him that the surgery will probably result in a
a. Permanent colostomy and impotence
b. Permanent ileostomy in the jejunum
c. Temporary colostomy in the descending colon
d. Temporary colostomy with diminished libido

22. Following an amputation the nurse can help a patient prepare the residual limb for a
prosthesis by encouraging him to
a. Abduct the residue limb when ambulating
b. Change the residual limb off the bed frequently
c. Periodically press the end of the residual limb against a pillow
d. Sock the residual limb in warm water twice a day

23. When assessing a patient with cancer of the tongue the specific sign the nurse should expect
to find is
a. Bleeding gum
b. Halitosis
c. Leukoplakia
d. Substernal pain
24. Following subtotal gastrectomy for cancer of the stomach the patient develops dumping
syndrome. The nurse would explain this to the junior nurse as
a. Build-up of faeces and gas within the large intestine
b. Nausea due to a full stomach
c. Rapid passage of osmotic fluid into the jejunum
d. Reflex of the intestinal contents into the oesophagus
25. A serious danger to which a patient with intestinal obstruction is exposed because of
intestinal suction is excessive loss of
a. Energy carbohydrates
b. Protein enzymes
c. Vitamins and minerals
d. Water and electrolytes

26. Before cholecystectomy the surgeon orders vitamin K, this is administered because it is used
in the formation of
a. Bilirubin
b. Cholecystokinin
c. Prothrombin
d. Thromboplastin

27.Following spinal cord injury a patient should be encouraged to drink fluids primary to prevent
a. Dehydration
b. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
c. Skin breakdown
d. Urinary tract infection

28. Following a traumatic amputation of a limb the nursing diagnosis that should receive the
LOWEST priority in the first 24 hours is
a. Activity intolerance
b. Deficient knowledge related to stump care
c. Ineffective air way clearance (potential)
d. Ineffective tissue perfusion (potential)

29. The symptoms to be observed in a patient after radium insertion for cancer of the cervix that
are indicative of a radium reaction are
a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Pain and elevation of temperature
c. Restlessness and irritability
d. Vaginal discharge and excoriation

30. After cataract extraction the nurse should


a. Advise the patient to refrain from vigorous brushing of the teeth and hair
b. Encourage eye exercises to strengthen the ocular muscles
c. Instruct the patient to avoid driving for 2 weeks
d. Teach the patient coughing and deep breathing exercises

31. The principle to follow when changing a surgical dressing of a patient is to


a. Confine the microorganisms to the wound
b. Keep the area free of microorganism
c. Keep the number of opportunistic organisms to minimum
d. Protect self from microorganisms in the wound

32. An effective first aid treatment for acid burns on the skin is to flush them with water and
apply a solution of sodium
a. Bicarbonate
b. Chloride
c. Hydroxide
d. Sulphate

33. The condition of an adult patient with burns of 36% of the body according to Wallace Rule
of Nine would be considered to be
a. Critical
b. Fair
c. Good
d. Poor

34. A patient complains of severe pains of 2 days following surgery. The nurse should first
a. Administer the p.r.n analgesic
b. Ensure the patient is having enough rest
c. Find out when the last analgesic was given
d. Take vital signs

35. When a patient is semi-conscious, the nurse should expect the patient to be unable to
a. Control elimination
b. Hear voices
c. Move spontaneously
d. React to painful stimuli

36. A patient who has sustained head injury regains consciousness and is able to move the
extremities. This suggests non-involvement of the
a. Basal ganglia
b. Parietal lobes
c. Post central gyrus
d. Pre central gyrus

37. To check for subcutaneous emphysema after the insertion of the chest tubes the nurse should
a. Assess for the presence of a barrel-shaped chest
b. Auscultate the breath sounds for crackles
c. Compare the length of inspiration with that of expiration
d. Palpate around the chest tube insertion sites for crepitus

38. Soon after being admitted for head injuries a patient’s temperature risen up to 39.4OC. This
suggests injury to the
a. Hypothalamus
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Temporal lobe
d. Thalamus

39. When caring for a patient who has a possible skull fracture. The nurse should
a. Check for haemorrhaging from the oral cavity
b. Elevate the foot end of the bed if patient develops symptoms of shock
c. Observe the patient for signs of increased intracranial pressure
d. Observe the patient for symptoms of decrease intracranial pressureand pyrexia

40. To prevent the development of contractures in a patient with spinal injury, the nurse should
give careful consideration to
a. Active exercise
b. Deep massage of the limbs
c. Proper positioning
d. Proper use of fracture board

41. Which of the following diets would be appropriate for the patient with ulcerative colitis
a. Highfibre, low fat
b. High carbohydrate, low sodium
c. Low protein, high calorie
d. Low residue, high protein
42. A priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with ulcerative colitis is
a. Diarrhoea related to hypermotility
b. High risk for infection
c. Ineffective coping
d. Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirement

43. Which of the following is NOT a precipitating cause of haemorrhoids?


a. Constipation
b. Occlusion of the arterial blood supply to the rectum
c. Prolong sitting or standing
d. Pregnancy

44. Conservative management of haemorrhoids include the following EXCEPT


a. High fibre diet
b. Ice compresses for discomfort
c. Laxatives and stool softeners
d. Ligation of the haemorrhoids

45.Predisposing factors of appendicitis include


I. Inadequate food intake
II. Kinking of the appendix
III. Presence of faecalith
IV. Repeated throat infection
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I,II and III
d. II,III and IV

46. As general rule after abdominal operation normal bowel sounds should be present before

a. Ambulation is begun
b. Deep breathing is encourage
c. IV fluids are discontinued
d. Pain medication is administered

47. After closure of duodenal ulcer, which of these analgesics would you NOT administer
a. Paracetamol tablets
b. Pethidine injection
c. Suppository diclofenac
d. Tramadol

48. A patient returns to the ward fully awake following a bronchoscopy and biopsy. The nurse
should
a. Advise the patient to cough frequently
b. Advise the patient to lie flat for 2 hours
c. Evaluate the presence of gag reflex
d. Provide ice chips to suck to reduce swelling

49. On the 3rd day after laparotomy a patient complains of severe pains in the right calf muscle.
The nurse should first
a. Apply hot fermentation to the part
b. Elevate the leg above the heart
c. Notify the surgeon
d. Record the symptom son the nurses notes

50. Emergency equipment that should be at the bed side of a patient after thyroidectomy includes
a. A crushing clamp
b. An air way and ambubag
c. A tracheostomy set and oxygen
d. Two ampules of sodium bicarbonate

51. When a patient returns from theatre after thyroidectomy the nurse should assess injury to the
pharyngeal nerve by
a. Asking the patient to speak
b. Checking the patient for neck oedema
c. Observing the patient for signs of tetany
d. Palpating the patient’s neck for blood seepage

52. The most serious complication associated with chronic inflammatory of the bowel is
a. Bleeding
b. Obstruction
c. Paralytic ileus
d. Perforation

53. When giving enema the patient should be placed in a


a. Fowlers position
b. Knee chest position
c. Left sim’s position
d. Prone position

54. The nurse should protect the patient’s skin surrounding a colostomy opening by using
a. Barrier cream
b. Methylated spirit
c. Mineral oil
d. Tincture benzoin

55. A patient who has had a colostomy should follow a diet that is
a. As close to normal as possible
b. High in carbohydrates
c. Low in fibre content
d. Rich in protein

56.The main purpose of under- water sealed drainage system is to


a. Drain air and blood from the pleural cavity
b. Drain air, fluid and blood from the pleural cavity
c. Prevent air and fluid from entering the lung
d. Prevent air from entering the pleural cavity

57. Objective for managing burns include


I. Prevention of deformity
II. Prevention of infection
III. Provision of adequate diet
IV. Replacement of lost fluid and electrolyte
a. I,II and III
b. I,III and IV
c. II, III and IV
d. I,II, III and IV

58. What would be your immediate intervention when a patient’s tracheostomy tube dislodges
a. Go and get a new tube
b. Inform the doctor to give you directions
c. Insert the tube and give oxygen
d. Reassure patient that this can occur.

59. When assessing a patient suspected of raptured ectopic, which of these would you monitor?
a. Abdominal distension
b. Haemoglobin and haematocrit
c. Pulse rate
d. Uterine clamping

60. A serious gastrointestinal disturbance that frequently occur to a severely burn patient
a. Haematemasis
b. Paralytic ileus
c. Peritonitis
d. Ulcerative colitis
61. In performing a surgical procedure, the scrub nurse is responsible for the following activities.

I. assisting the surgeon

II. counting all needle/ sponges

III. preparing sutures/ ligatures

IV. setting up the sterile table

a. I & II

b. I, II &IV

c. II,III&IV

d. I,II,III&IV

62. Spinal anaesthesia is an extensive conducting nerve block that is produced when a local

anaesthesia is introduced into the subarachnoid space of the lumber level, usually between……..

a. L1 and L2

b. L2 and L3

c. L4 and L5

d. L7 an L8

63. Mama Yawa Yayra 65years is schedule to undergo a laparotomy at the Peki Government

Hospital. Mama Yayra will go through the following stages of general anaesthesia:

I. Excitement

II. beginning anaesthesia

III. medullary depression

IV. surgical anaethesia

a. II,III,IV&I

b. I,II,III&IV
c. I,III,IV&II

d. II,I,IV&III

64..There have been reported cases of post-operative wound infections on your ward over the

past few weeks. Which of the following pathogens is likely to be the cause?

a. aerobactor aerogens

b. proteus vulgaris

c. pseudomonas aeruginosa

d. staphylococcus aureus

65. Kwasi Akoma has impression that he is developing cancer. Which of the following warning

signs will prompt him to seek medical attention?

I. a sore throat that does not heal

II. frequent diarrhea

III. indigestion or difficulty in swallowing

IV. unusual bleeding or discharge

a. I &II

b. I,II&III

c. I,III&IV

d. III&IV

66. A patient with the diagnose of malignant cancer is undergoing radiation therapy through

internal implants. Such a therapy can be described as ………………

a. Brachytherapy

b. Chemotherapy

c. Pharmacotherapy
d. Teletherapy

67. Papa Kojo 31-year-old reported to the hospital with a swelling on the head. The doctor

assessed and suspected meningioma. Which of the following is NOT a feature of meningioma?

a. cells growth very fast

b. responds to surgery only

c. responds to radiotherapy only

d. spread to the other regions

68. A woman reported to the health facility with the obstetrical history of having prolonged and

excessive bleeding at the time of regular menstrual flow. What is the likely disorder this woman

is likely this woman may be experiencing?

a. amenorrhea

b. dysmenorrhea

c. menorrhagia

d. metrorrhagia

69. In managing pain, the most important person to consider is the ……………

a. doctor

b. nurse

c. patient

d. psychologist

70. One of the method used in managing pain is adjuvant analgesics agents. Which of the

following example best demonstrates adjuvant analgesic agents?

a. xylocaine, nadil and tofranil

b. xylocaine, phenelzine and tofranil


c. xylocaine, tegretrol and tofranil

d. xylocaine, valium and tegretol

71. Alhaji Baba 47 years old reported to the hospital with a complain of pain at the joints, muscle

and skin. He described the pain as aching, throbbing and well localized. What type of pain is

Baba likely to be complaining of?

a. centrally generalized pain

b. peripherally generalized pain

c. somatic pain

d. visceral pain

73. The nursing management of a client with post-operative wound complications include(s) the

following:

I. assess vital signs especially temperature

II. change dressing 4hourly

III. maintain client’s hydration and nutritional status

IV. observe aseptic technique during dressing

a. I &II

b. II&III

c. I,II&III

d. I,III&IV

74. During a major surgery on a patient, which of the following drainage devices could be used?

I. Hemovac wound suction device

II. Jackson-Pratt wound suction device

III. Penrose drain


IV. Rosepen drain

a. I &II

b. I &IV

c. I,II&III

d. II,III&IV

75. Ms Zumah was admitted to the gynecological ward with severe dysmenorrhea. What will be

your focus of care for Ms Zumah?

I. alleviation of pain

II. endurance of pain

III. identification of the underlying cause

IV. re-establishment of functional capacity

a. I&II

b. I&III

c. I,III&IV

d. II,III&IV

76. The absence or ineffective peristalsis of the distal oesoghagus accompanied by the failure of

the oesophageal sphincter to relax in response to swallowing is known as …………….

a. Achalasia

b. Dysphagia

c. hiatal hernia

d. odynophagia

77. Which of the following best describes the role of circulating nurse during surgery?

a. assist the surgeon by providing exposure at the operative field


b. in charge of scrubbing and cleaning the theater after the surgery

c. in charge of setting up the sterile field or tables

d. manages the surgical room and monitors the activities of the surgical team

78. Madam Dorsaa developed a complication after vaginal surgery. Patient reported faecal

incontinence and flatus is discharged through the vagina. Patient is likely to developed

……………. Fistula

a. rectovaginal

b. urethrovagina

c. vagino perineal

d. vesico vaginal

79. Madam kwonor sustained a fracture femur and was brought to your unit. Patient was

observed to be in severe pain and had insomnia. The following are all stress responses to pain’s

EXCEPT.

a. decreased retention of fluid

b. high metabolic rate

c. impaired insulin response

d. increased cardiac output

80. Mr Odoom had an artificial cardic pace maker permanently placed in his heart. The main

function of the pace maker is to …………..

a. prevent congestion in the heart chambers

b. promote improved cardiac output

c. promote increased blood circulation

d. provide electrical stimuli to the heart muscle


81. Madam adwumi had a plague in her coronary artery surgically removed. This type of surgery

is termed as ………….

a. Angiography

b. Atherectomy

c. brachytherapy

d. plaquetomy

81.After ungergoing cardac surgery, Mr. Anum had fluid and blood clots accumulating in his

pericardial sac resulting in compression of the heart. Which of the following complications has

patient developed?

a. cardiac embolism

b. cardiac tamponade

c. fluid overload

d. post-surgical hemothorax

82. Gerald Mbeah, a 17-year-old student has been booked for laparotomy following a diagnose

of intestinal obstruction. Describe the measures for allaying his anxiety prior to the surgery.

I. allow patient to express fears and anxieties

II. encourage patient to start grieving before the surgery

III. ensure relatives to stay with patient 24hours

IV. provide a relaxed and non-threatening atmosphere

a. I&II

b. I&III

c. I&IV

d. I,III&IV
83. In addition to the complications to which all post-operative patients are subject, the patient

undergoing gastric surgery is at increased risk for……………….

a. anorexia, nausea and vomiting

b. dietary deficiencies and damping syndrome

c. pain on swallowing and regurgitation

d. vomiting and aspiration of gastric content

84. Obaa yaa, aged 25, has been diagnosed of peritonitis. The main objective of surgical

intervention include…………

a. excision of the appendix

b. remove the infected content and correct the cause

c. resection and anastomosis of the intestines

d. resection of the intestine and correct the cause

85. Which of the following measures will be appropriate for preventing post-operative

pulmonary complications after thoracic surgery

I. assess capillary refill and patient skin color

II. auscultate lung sounds and assess for rate , rhythm of respiration

III. encourage patient relatives to visit regularly

IV. serve patient with only fluid diet

a. I&II

b. I&IV

c. I,II&III

d. I,II&IV

86. Mrs Esi Armah is to undergo laryngectomy. In patient teaching what will be your priority?
a. ability to sing and laugh will be lost

b. ability to sing and laugh will be maintained

c. ensure adequate intake of soft food

d. milk and milk products may be restricted

87. A patient who had road traffic accident sustained fracture of the nose . what will be the

immediate nursing action.

a. apply direct pressure to the nose

b. apply ice and keep the head elevated

c. apply tropical analgesics

d. splint the nose with a gauze

88. Madam yaa abira, 65years old has undergone cataract surgery, which of the following

structures was affected.

a. Cornea

b. Iris

c. Lens

d. retina

89. An 18year old girl has been admitted with severe ear ache and discharged. Which of the

following is an indication for mastoidectomy.

a. chronic otitis media

b. Meniere ‘s diseases

c. Myringitis

d. perforated ear drum


90. Mr. kwaw is admitted into the ICU following transurethral resection of the prostrate (TUR).

What will be the nurses’ post-operative management.

I. assess the three way catheter at regular interval

II. instruct patient to avoid straining void

III. Monitor for hemorrhage

IV. Monitor patient’s eating pattern

a. I&IV

b. I,II&III

c. I,II &IV

d. II&IV

91. Kwame was rushed to the accident and emergency unit with a history of sudden collapse

during a football match, which of the following clinical assessment indicate head injury

I. a bruise on the skull

II. ecchymosis noted on the mastoid process

III. lost of conscious not longer than ten minutes

IV. visual disturbance

a. I&II

b. II&III

c. II&IV

d. I,III&IV

92. Oko was admitted to ICU after craniotomy. Patient is at risk for increased in intracranial

pressure. Which of the following will include the nurses’ post-operative management.

I. assess for vomiting


II. monitor intake and output

III. monitor vital signs for bradycardia

IV. Monitor vital signs for tachycardia

a. I,II&III

b. I,II&IV

c. I,III&IV

d. II,III&IV

93. In a suspected care of spinal cord injury following a road traffic accident, what will be the

nurses’ appropriate emergency care.

a. monitor vital signs

b. put in lateral position

c. put in supine position

d. turn position regularly

94. Maame adjoa is admitted to the burns unit with burns involving the face, trunk, upper and

lower limbs. The following are nurses’ intervention for a diagnose of “impaired skin integrity”

EXCEPT.

a. apply mafenide acetate

b. gently debride the wound

c. provide daily wound care

d. take wound swab for culture

95. A patient has reported severally at the OPD with a diagnose of primary hyperparathyroidism.

Which of these indications require surgical interventions.

a. serum calcium level below 0.25mmol/L


b. serum calcium level greater than 0.25mmol/L

c. urinary calcium of 10mmol/L

d. urinary calcium of 8mmol/Lm

96. Florence mason is admitted and being managed for hypothyroidism. After assessment, a

nursing diagnose of “risk for imbalanced body temperature” was made by the nurse. Which of

the following will be the nurses’ intervention?

I. closed windows to prevent draughts

II. discourage the use of external heat source

III. encourage the use of external heat source

IV. open windows to allow in sun rays

a. I&II

b. II&III

c. III&IV

d. I&IV

97. A patient has undergone an abdominal surgery and is been managed on the ward. In order to

prevent wound dehiscence, the nurse would:

a. administer prescribed antibiotics every 8hours

b. encourage patient to only put on light clothing

c. serve food rich in vitamins and proteins

d. teach patient how to splint the incision when coughing

98. Akosou mansa developed rhinitis. The following medications will be prescribed for her

EXCEPT

a. Cetirizine
b. chlorpheniramine maleate

c. clemastine

d. ephedrine nasal drop

99. A nurse is obtaining a history of present illness on a patient who complains of toothache and

inability to taste food. Which data obtained would alert the nurse that the infection has spread?

a. headache and chills

b. fever and chills

c. yellow secretions

d. facial swelling and headache

100. Mercy adams, 23 year old has being booked for elective lower extremity amputation of the

right leg. Which of the under listed conditions is the MOST frequent cause for such an operation.

a. diabetes mellitus

b. electrical burns

c. malignant tumors

d. Trauma

101. Afua Asanto had amputation of the left limb. Which the following is the appropriate for the

management of Afua’s limb.

a. avoid excessive hip abduction, flexion or external rotation

b. avoid pillows under the stump or bent the knee off the bed

c. change position every 4hours in bed or chair

d. keep the residual limb elevated on padded surface at the level of the chair

102. In which of the following conditions can parecentesis be done as therapeutic and diagnostic

procedure.
a. Ascites

b. ectopic gestation

c. liver laceration

d. ovarian cyst

103. Hassan Atubiga has been on the Ward for a week with incontinence of urine. The following

types of incontinence may apply to his condition EXCEPT.

a. functional incontinence

b. overflow incontinence

c. retention incontinence

d. stress incontinence

104. Mr cooper has just been diagnosed with gout. Your patient teaching will include to:

a. avoid alcohol and turkey

b. avoid fats and milk products

c. check his feet every day for ulcers

d. take only antigout medications only when his toe hurts.

105. A nurse is assessing a patient about urinary retention. Which of the following questions will

she ask?

I. do you completely empty your bladder?

II. do you strain to start urinating?

III. does the urge to urinate interrupt your sleep?

IV. have you ever been able to urinate at all?

a. I only

b. III only
c. I &IV

d. II&IV

106. Aisha Tanko, 80 years old was diagnosed of pathological fracture of the left femur. Her

condition could have been caused by the following EXCEPT.

a. irradiation fracture

b. neoplasms

c. poor flexibility

d. rickets

107. Kwashie agosar developed biliary cirrhosis due to blocked bile duct. During patient’s

education, he understood that his condition could be caused by the following EXCEPT.

a. Congestion

b. damage to the liver tissue

c. inflammation

d. tissue hypoxia

108. Kukua dennis 5 years old is to undergo liver transplant. The most common indication for

such an operation in children is ……………………..

a. biliary atresia

b. cholangitis

c. congenital hepatitis B virus

d. pancreatitis

109. Bob Attala has been admitted with acute abdomen. A Murphy’s test was performed to

confirm the diagnose of ………………..

a. appendicitis
b. cholecystitis

c. enteritis

d. pancreatitis

110. A patient was brought to the OPD with a complain of severe pain in the lower right

quadrant of the abdomen. On assessment, Rovsing’s sign is positive for which of the following

inflammatory processes?

a. appendicitis

b. diverticulitis

c. pancreatitis

d. peritonitis

111. Mr. James mayfair 55 years old has been booked for Billroth I anastomosis. In this type of

operation, the ……………..

a. duodenum is sutured to the jejunum

b. duodenum is sutured to the stomach

c. ilium is sutured to the jejunum

d. jejunum is sutured to the stomach

112. The following activities may be Implored to confirm the placement of nasogastric tube into

the stomach EXCEPT.

a. administering medications through the tube

b. measurement of the length of the tube

c. Ph measurement of aspirate

d. visual assessment of aspirate


113. Which of the following medicines is administered to peptic ulcer patient to decrease the

amount of HCL produced by blocking the action of histamine.

a. cimetidine

b. clarithromycin

c. misoprostol

d. omeprazole

114. Mr Tatale Kule was admitted to your ward after undergoing gastrostomy. The nurse would

monitor Mr Kule for the following complications which may arise after the surgery.

I. Constipation

II. gastrointestinal bleeding

III. premature removal of the tube

IV. wound infection

a. I&II

b. I&III

c. I,II&IV

d. I,II,III&IV

115. Mr. Nyeme has been admitted to the chest clinic and you have been asked to prepare him

for thoracentesis. Which of the following is not the reason for thoracentesis.

a. aspiration for the pleural fluid and air from the pleural cavity

b. instillation of medications into the pleural space

c. measuring the pressure of air in the pleural cavity

d. pleural biopsy
116. Mr. Mahama has suffered left hemiplegia as a result of hematoma on the right cerebrum,

why is it necessary to administer phenytoin before he undergoes craniotomy to evacuate the

hematoma? To reduce………………….

a. cerebral edema

b. risk of brain damage

c. risk of post-operative infection

d. risk of post-operative seizures

117. In selecting the donor site for skin grafts, the following criteria are taken into consideration.

I. achieving the closed possible color match

II. considering the cosmetic effects of the donor site after healing

III. Matching the texture

IV. obtaining the thickest possible skin graft without disturbing the healing of the donor site

a. I only

b. II&IV

c. I,II&IV

d. I,II,III&IV

118. Testing for crepitus in a patient with fracture of the humerus should be avoided because it

………….

a. can lead to shorting of the limb

b. can produce further tissue damage

c. will discolor the fracture site

d. will lead to gangrene formation


119. Mr. Jaro was involved in road traffic accident and sustained a simple fracture of the right

humerus. He is most likely to undergo which of these methods of reduction

a. closed reduction without metal pins

b. closed reduction with metal pins

c. open reduction with bone plate

d. open reduction with wires

120. Sarah, a 30- year- old seamstress is admitted to your ward for laminectomy pending a

lumber puncture procedure. What will be your role as a nurse to prevent her from experiencing

post-lumber headache? Instruct her ……………………………

a. not to eat immediately after the lumber puncture

b. to lie prone after the lumbar puncture

c. to reduce fluid intake after the lumber puncture

d. to sit up after the lumber puncture

SUCCESS AWAITS YOU ALL

0542396110... Likely MCQs, SPECIAL AND REPOSTING NSS ,


PERMANENT POSTINGS

JASON & TEAM

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