UNIT TEST-I

CLASS-X
Social Science

Time: 3 Hours
Max.Marks:80
General Instructions:
i. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the question
paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words
v. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each.
vii. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Multiple Choice Questions: (1X20=20)

1.The ‘Simon Commission’ was boycotted because

(a) there was no British Member in the Commission.
(b) it demanded separate electorates for Hindus and Muslims.
(c) there was no Indian Member in the Commission.
(d) it favoured the Muslims over the Hindus.

2. ECO.

3. What happened to Poland at the end of 18th century? Which of the following statements is
correct?
(a) Poland achieved independence at the end of the 18th century.
(b) Poland came totally under the control of Russia and became part of Russia.
(c) Poland became the part of East Germany.
(d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th century by three Great Powers i.e. Russia, Prussia
and Austria.

4. Which among the following statement is true regarding renewable resources?

(a) Renewable resources are available only in the developed nations.
(b) Renewable resources are in abundance.
(c) Renewable resources are fixed and they are bound to get exhausted.
(d) Renewable resources are replenished by the nature over a period of time.

5. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did the Rowlatt Act arouse popular outrage?
(a) It curtailed the freedom of religion.
(b) It curbed trade union activities.
(c) It was against the Champaran Satyagraha.
(d) It allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
6. The Constitution of India divided the powers among which of the following?
(a) Between centre and states in two lists.
(b) Between centre and states in three lists.
(c) Specified the powers of the states and left the residuary powers with the centre.
(d) Listed the powers of the states and left the undefined powers to the state.

7. ECO.

8. Identify the correct statement(s) about unitary form of government.

Statement I There is either only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the
Central Government.
Statement II The Central Government can pass an orders to the Provincial Government.
Statement III Laws made by the centre are equally enforced in rest of the states without territorial
distinction.
Statement IV The powers of State Governments are guaranteed by the Constitution.
Codes
(a) Statement I and II are right
(b) Statement II and III are right
(c) Statement I, II and III are right
(d) Only Statement IV is right

9. Choose the correct statement.

a. Democracy is not guarantee of economic development.
b. Economic growth is better in non-democratic government.
c. USA has a democratic government but also has a remarkable economic development.
d. Democracy is not to lag behind dictatorship.

10. Which of the following federal principles are found in the Indian federation?
i) Equal representation of states in the Second House of Parliament.
ii) Bicameral Legislature at federal level.
iii) Double citizenship.
iv) Independent and Impartial judiciary.
Choose the correct option from the following.
a. (ii) and (iii)
b. (ii) and (iv)
c. (iii) and (iv)
d. (i) and (ii)
11. ECO.
12. Who among the following was described as the most dangerous enemy of social order by Duke
Metternich?
(a) Karol Kurpinski (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Garibaldi (d) Louis Philippe

13. Suppose your teacher has given you the assignment regarding power arrangements in Belgium
and Sri Lanka. According to you
which of these following statements are appropriate for helping you in preparing your assignment?
I. In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the minority
French-speaking community
II. In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhala-
speaking majority.
III. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect their
culture, language and equality
of opportunity in education and jobs.
IV. The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented a possible
division of the country on linguistic lines.
Codes
(a) I, II, III, and IV
(b) III and IV
(c) I, II, and IV
(d) II, III, and IV
14. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the
options given below.
Assertion (A) Nationalist Congress party was formed in 1999.
Reason (R) It is a major party in Maharashtra and demands for Gandhian secularism, democracy,
social justice and federalism.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is true, but R is false.

15. Arrange the following events in a chronological order.

(i) Integration of Italy
(ii) Greek struggle for idependence initiated
(iii) Unification of Germany
(iv) Agreement on Vienna peace settlement
Codes
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) iv, ii, i, iii
(c) iv, ii, iii, i
(d) (d) i, iv, ii, iii
16. ECO.
17. Read the following data and select the appropriate option from the following.
Region/Country Reserves 2017 (Thousand Number of Years Reserves will
last
Millions Barrels)

Middle East 808 70

United States of America 50 10.5

World 1697 50.2

For how many years will the reserves of crude oil last in Middle East, if they continue
extracting it at the present rate?

(a) 70 years (b) 60 years (c) 50 years (d) 100 years

18. Statement I : The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for
independence against the Greeks which began in 1831.
Statement II: Greece was suffering under subjugation of the Ottoman Empire.
Codes
(a)Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(b)Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
(c)Both statement are incorrect
(d)Both statement are correct

19. ECO.
20. Annette studies in a Dutch Medium School in the Northern region of Belgium. Many French-
speaking students in her school want the medium of instruction to be French. Her parents approach
towards the respective government to realise the desire of the child. What could be the measure
Belgian Government will adopt in such a situation? (1)
(a) Majoritarian Measures
(b) Policy of Accommodation
(c) Despotic Measures
(d) All of the above
SECTION-B
21. Who founded the ‘Depressed Classes Association’ in 1930?

22. What is federalism? Explain with an example.

23. What were the causes of the ethnic conflict in Belgium?

24. Differentiate between ferrous and non-ferrous minerals.

OR
Differentiate between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.
 SECTION-C

25. ECO.

26. Which feature of the Panchayati Raj do you like most and why?

27. Why did Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act
1919? Explain any three reasons.
OR
Why did Non-Cooperation Movement gradually slow down in cities? Explain two reasons.

28. ECO.

29. ECO.

SECTION-D
30. Write the difference between vertical division of power-sharing and horizontal division of
power- sharing.
OR
“Democracy is much superior than any other form of government in promoting dignity and
freedom of the individuals”. Justify this statement by providing suitable examples.

31. Discuss the various factors that led to the rise of nationalism in Europe.
OR
Describe the cause of the Silesian weaver’s uprising. Comment on the viewpoint of the journalist
Wilhelm Wolff.
32. ECO.
33. Compare Non-cooperation movement and the civil disobedience movement.
OR
What were the reforms made by Napoleon? Explain it’s importance.

SECTION-E

Case Based Question (Q 34 to 36) (4X3=12)

34. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal weight in electing
representatives. Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the political arena on an equal
footing, we find growing economic inequalities. A small number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly
disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. Not only that, their share in the total income of
the country has been increasing. Those at the bottom of the society have very little to depend
upon. Their incomes have been declining. Sometimes they find it difficult to meet their basic
needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health.
Questions:
(i) “Democracy ensures reduction of inequalities and poverty”. Explain the statement.
(ii) List the factors that affect economic growth.
 (iii) How can accommodation of social diversity work in a democracy?

35. Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the
status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language.
But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians. Therefore, there were
many safeguards to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages
recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution. A candidate in an examination
conducted for the Central Government positions may opt to take the examination in any of
these languages. States too have their own official languages. Much of the government work
takes place in the official language of the concerned state. Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our
country adopted a very cautious attitude in spreading the use of Hindi. According to the
Constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1965. However, many non-
Hindi-speaking states demanded that the use of English continue. In Tamil Nadu, this
movement took a violent form. The Central Government responded by agreeing to continue
the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that this solution
favoured the English-speaking elite. Promotion of ‘Hindi continues to be the official policy of
the Government of India. Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can impose
Hindi on states where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian
political leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.

Questions:
(i) Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Why?
(ii) Evaluate the importance of continuing English as the official language of India.
(iii) State the difference between India and Sri Lanka on the basis of status of the language.
36. ECO.
SECTION-F
Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b)

37 (a) Two places are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct
names on the line drawn near them.

A. Movement of Indigo Planters

B. Peasant Satyagraha

(b) On the same map of India, locate and label any three among the following with suitable
symbols.
C. Bengaluru Software Technology Park
D. Mangaluru Seaport
E. Indira Gandhi International Airport
F. Kakrapara Nuclear Plant
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