10-08-2025

1752CMD303031250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) A body is projected with a velocity u. It passes through a certain point above the ground after t1
sec. The time after which the body passes through the same point during the return journey is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) If velocity of a particle is given by v = (3t2+2)m/s, then average velocity in the interval 0 ≤ t ≤

2sec :-

(1) 6 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 3 m/s
(4) 4 m/s

3) Two balls are thrown horizontally from the top of a tower with velocities v1 and v2 in opposite
directions at the same time. After how much time the angle between velocity vector of balls becomes
perpendicular.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The acceleration - time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is as shown in figure. The
velocity of the particle at time t = 0 is 2 m/s. The velocity after 2 seconds will be -
(1) 6 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

5) A ball is thrown from a point on ground at some angle of projection. At the same time a bird starts
flying horizontally from a point directly above this point of projection at a height h with speed u.
Given that in its flight ball just touches the bird at highest point of trajectory of ball. Find the
horizontal range of ball. (Acceleration due to gravity is g) :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last 't' seconds
of ascent is :-

(1) ut

(2)

(3)

(4) (u+gt)t

7) A particle moves in a straight line and its position x at a time is given by x2 = t2 + 1. Its
acceleration is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The displacement–time graph of a moving particle is shown below. The instantaneous velocity of

the particle is negative at the point:

(1) C
(2) D
(3) E
(4) F

9) A particle moves in x-y plane according to equations x = αt and y = αt(1–βt), where α and β are
positive constants and t is time. Then equation of the trajectory(path) of the partical is :-

(1)

(2) y = αx(1–βx)

(3)

(4) y = βx(1–αx)

10) For motion of an object along the x-axis, the velocity v depends on the displacement x as v = 3x2
– 2x then what is the acceleration at x = 2m :–

(1) 48 m/s2
(2) 80 m/s2
(3) 18 m/s2
(4) 10 m/s2

11) The numerical ratio of displacement to the distance covered is always :

(1) Less than one

(2) Equals to one
(3) Equal to or less than one
(4) Equal to or greater than one

12) A cyclist starts from the centre O of a circular park of radius one kilometre, reaches the edge P
of the park. Then cycles along the circumference and returns to the centre along QO as shown in the
figure. If the round trip takes ten minutes, the net displacement and average speed of the cyclist (in

metre and kilometre per hour respectively) is:-

(1) 0,1

(2)

(3)

(4) 0, 21.4

13) A car starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration 'a' on a straight road from time t = 0
to t = T. After that, a constant deceleration 'a' brings it to rest. In this process the average speed of
the car is:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) aT

14) Which of the following velocity - time graphs shows a realistic situation for a body in motion ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Equation of a particle moving along the x axis is x = u(t – 2) + a(t – 2)2

(1) the initial velocity of the particle is u

(2) the acceleration of the particle is a
(3) the acceleration of the particle is 2a
(4) at t = 2 particle is not at origin

16) A particle is projected to attain maximum range R. Find the time taken by it to attain its
maximum height.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Let and denote the velocity and acceleration respectively of a body in one-dimensional
motion

(1) must decrease when <0

(2) speed must increase when >0
(3) speed will increase when both < 0 and >0
(4) speed will decrease when < 0 and >0

18) Figure shows the path followed by a particle. Its velocity is shown at points A and B. Which of
the vector in the given options best represents the average acceleration of the particle for its motion

from A to B?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A stone is thrown upwards with speed u from the top of a tower reaches the ground with a
downward velocity 4u. The height of tower is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A particle is moving towards East with a velocity 10 m/s. In 10 seconds the velocity changes to
10 m/s. Northwards. The average acceleration during this period is :-

(1) m/sec2 along North-East direction

(2) m/sec2 along North-West direction

(3)
m/sec2 along North-East direction

(4)
m/sec2 along North-West direction

21) A particle is projected with a velocity u making an angle θ with the horizontal at any instant, its
velocity v is at right angle to its initial velocity u, then v is :-

(1) u cosθ
(2) u tanθ
(3) u cotθ
(4) u secθ

22) A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration at time t = 0 is 5 m/s2 which varies with time as

shown in the figure. The maximum speed of the particle will be :-

(1) 7.5 m/s

(2) 15 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 37.5 m/s

23) Average velocity of a particle moving in a straight line with constant acceleration 'a' and initial
velocity u in first 't' second is :

(1) u + at

(2)
u+

(3)

(4)

24) A body moves along the curved path of a quarter circle. Calculate the ratio of distance to
displacement :-

(1) 11 : 7
(2) 7 : 11
(3)
(4)

25)

The position time graphs for two particles A and B moving in same straight line are shown in figure.
The time after which (from when A starts) B caught A. (tan 37° = 3/4)

(1) 8s
(2) 12s
(3) 16s
(4) none

26) A particle is thrown with velocity u m/sec. At an angle of projection 30° from horizontal, It
passes A and B as shown in figure at time t1 = 1 sec and t2 = 3 sec. The value of u is (g = 10 m/sec) :-

(1) 20 m/sec
(2) 10 m/sec
(3) 40 m/sec
(4) 5 m/sec

27) Find out displacement covered in first 2 second in the given v-t curve :

(1) 15 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 14 m
(4) 16 m

28) The position x of a particle varies with time (t) as x = at2 – bt3. The acceleration at time t of the
particle will be equal to zero, where t is equal to :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

29) Velocity-time graph corresponding to displacement time graph shown between :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A gun is mounted in a stationary battleship which is used to hit two different boats A and B. The
initial speed of both the shots is the same. Choose the correct statement.

(1) Both shots have same time of flight and same final speed
(2) Both shots have same time of flight but different final speeds
(3) Both shots have different time of flight but same final speed
(4) Both shots have different time of flight and different final speed

31) A particle moves 15 m in east direction. Suddenly it takes a sharp right turn and moves 20 m in
South direction. The direction of displacement of the particle can be written as :-

(1) 37o S of E
(2) 53o S of E
(3) 37o N of E
(4) 53° N of E

32) If a car covers of the total distance with speed v1 and distance with speed v2 then
average speed is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Two particles A & B are projected from a building. A is projected with speed 2V making an angle
30° with horizontal & B with speed V making an angle 60° with horizontal. Which particle will hit the

ground earlier ?

(1) Particle A
(2) Particle B
(3) Particle A & B will hit at same time.
(4) None of these

34) The fig. shows the position-time graph of a particle moving on a straight line path. What is the

magnitude of average velocity of the particle over 10 seconds ?

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

35) A rocket is fired vertically from the ground. It moves upwards with a constant acceleration 10
m/s2 for 30 sec after which the fuel is finished. After what time from the instant of firing the rocket
will attain the maximum height?
(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 30 s
(2) 45 s
(3) 60 s
(4) 75 s

36) Assertion : Two particles of different mass, projected with same velocity at same angles. The
maximum height attained by both the particle will be same.
Reason : The maximum height of projectile is independent of particle mass.

(1) Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

37) An engine of a train moving with uniform acceleration passes an electric pole with velocity u and
the last compartment with velocity v. The middle point of the train passes the same pole with a
velocity of :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A person walks along an east-west street and a graph of his displacement from home is shown in

figure. His average velocity for the whole time interval is :

(1) 0
(2) 23 m/s
(3) 8.4 m/s
(4) None of above

39) A projectile is projected with a speed u at an angle θ with the horizontal. What is the speed when
its direction of motion makes an angle θ/2 with the horizontal :-
(1)

(2) u cos θ

(3)

(4)

40) A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly by for 4 seconds and then moves with uniform
velocity which of the x-t graph represent the motion of the car ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) The path of a projectile in the absence of air drag is shown in the figure by dotted line. If the air
resistance is not ignored then which one of the paths shown in the figure is appropriate for the

projectile ?

(1) B
(2) A
(3) D
(4) C

42)

The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is . It's velocity (in m/s) at point B is :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) A body initially at rest is moving with uniform acceleration a. Its velocity after n seconds is v.
The displacement of the body in last 2 s is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The displacement-time graph of a particle moving on the x-axis is given below, then :-

(1) The particle is continously going in +x-direction

(2) The particle is at rest
(3) The velocity increases up to a time 't0' and then becomes constant
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time 't0' and then stops.

45) A monkey standing on the ground wants to climb to the top of a verticle pole of 15 m. He climb 5
m in 1 s and slips downward 3 m in next second. He again climb 5 m in 1 sec and slips by 3 m in the
next second and so on. The time taken by the monkey to climb at the top of pole is :-

(1) 2 s
(2) 3 s
(3) 9 s
(4) 11 s

CHEMISTRY

1) Degree of Hydrolysis of the following pair of salts will not be affected by dilution
(1) Na2S, BaCl2
(2) CH3COONH4, (NH4)2 SO4
(3) NH4CN, CH3COONH4
(4) Na2SO4, CH3COONH4

2) Which of the following reaction is not intramolecular redox change ?

(1) 2Mn2O7 → 4MnO2 + 3O2

(2) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
(3) (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
(4) 2ClO2 + 5H2O2 2Cl– + 5O2 + 6H2O

3) Hydrazine reacts with KIO3 in presence of HCl as

N2H4 + KIO3 + 2H+ + Cl– → ICl + N2 + 3H2O + K+

The equivalent masses of N2H4 and KIO3(Mw = 214) respectively are :-

(1) 8 and 53.5

(2) 16 and 53.5
(3) 8 and 35.6
(4) 8 and 87

4) The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the acid HQ is 3. The value of the ionization constant Ka of this
acid is :-

(1) 1 × 10–7
(2) 3 × 10–7
(3) 1 × 10–3
(4) 1 × 10–5

5) Given Ka values of 5.76 ×10–10 and 4.8 ×10–10 for and HCN respectively. What is the
equilibrium constant for the following reaction ?

(1) 0.83
(2) 1.2
(3) 8.0 ×10–11
(4) 27.6 × 10–10

6) The value of a, b, c, d, e, f in the following reaction are respectively :- aH+ + bCr2O72– + cNi →
dCr+3 + eH2O + fNi2+

(1) 14, 1, 3, 2, 7, 3
(2) 1, 3, 14, 2, 7, 3
(3) 7, 1, 3, 2, 7, 3
(4) 3, 1, 7, 1, 7, 3

7) A sufficient quantity of acid is added to change its pH from 5 to 2. It hydrogen ion concentration is
increased by :-

(1) 100 times

(2) 1000 times
(3) 2.50 times
(4) 5 times

8) pH of an aqueous NaCl solution at 50ºC would be:-

(1) 7
(2) >7
(3) <7
(4) zero

9) 2 mole of N2H4 loses 20 mole of electrons determine final O.N of Nitrogen

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +5
(4) –3

10) The ionisation constant of acetic acid is 10–5 and that of formic acid is 10–4. The difference of pKa
value i.e. [(pKa)acetic acid – (pKa)formic acid] is equal to :-

(1) 10
(2) 10–1
(3) –1
(4) +1

11) pKa values of three acids A, B and C are 4.5, 3.5 and 6.5 respectively. Which of the following
represents the correct order of acid strength ?

(1) A > B > C

(2) C > A > B
(3) B > A > C
(4) C > B > A

12) Phenolphthalein is :-

(1) Weak acid

(2) Pink colour in basic medium
(3) pH range 8.2 – 10.2 for colour change
(4) all of above

13) A metal M of equivalent mass E form an oxide of molecular formula MxOy. The atomic mass of
Metal is :

(1)

(2) x.y.E

(3)

(4)

14) 1M NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is :-

(1) not a buffer solution and with pH < 7

(2) not a buffer solution with pH > 7
(3) a buffer solution with pH < 7
(4) a buffer solution with pH > 7

15) For BaCO3 solution, if value of pKa is 4.70. Then find pH of the solution.

(1) 10.35
(2) 9.35
(3) 8.35
(4) None of these

16)
In balanced reaction, the coefficients of , and are respectively :-

(1) 1, 1, 2
(2) 2, 1, 4
(3) 2, 1, 2
(4) 1, 2, 2

17) What is the pH of a solution formed by adding 0.10 mole of HCl to one litre solution of NaNO2 of
molarity 0.10 ? [Ka for HNO2 is 10–5]

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 11
(4) 5

18)
When water is heated, then select the incorrect option :

(1) Its Kw increases

(2) Its [H+] increases
(3) Its [OH–] increases
(4) Its pH increases

19) The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following compound increases in order :-

(1) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl

(2) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl
(3) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl
(4) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN

20) 50 ml of 0.2 M HCl is mixed with 50 ml of 0.2 M CH3COOH (Ka = 1.8 × 10–5). Thus, pH of the
resulting solution is :-

(1) 7.00
(2) 1.7
(3) 0.30
(4) 1.00

21)

Which of the following is a bronsted base ?

(i) NH3 (ii) CH3NH2 (iii) HCO3–

(iv) SO42–
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) only
(3) (i) (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

22) If the concentration of the salt (AB) in the aqueous solution is 5.0 × 10–5 M. Ksp for the salt is 3.6
× 10–9 M2. Then which sentence describe the solution most correctly.

(1) The solution is supersaturated

(2) The solution is unsaturated
(3) The solution is saturated
(4) Nothing could not be said about the solution

23) For which, ostwald dilution law is applicable :-

(1) NaCl
(2) HCl
(3) CH3COONa
(4) CH3COOH

24) What will be the resultant pH when 200 mL of an aqueous solution of HCl (pH = 2) is mixed
with 300 mL of an aqueous solution of NaOH (pH = 12):-

(1) 2.7
(2) 11.3
(3) 3
(4) 14

25) Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code :

List I List II
Electrolyte Solubility product
(a) Bi2S3 (i) 4s3
(b) CdS (ii) 27s4
(c) Al(OH)3 (iii) 108s5
(d) CaF2 (iv) s2

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Choose the weakest and strongest acid :- HA1 (pKa = 1.2), HA2 (pka=4.2), HA3 (pKa =6.8), HA4(pKa
= 2.8)

(1) HA2, HA4

(2) HA2,HA1
(3) HA3, HA2
(4) HA3, HA1

27) The pH of Decinormal monoacidic base (BOH) whose degree of ionisation is 1% is :-

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 11
(4) 13

28) The Bronsted acids in the reversible reaction are:-

HCO3–(aq) + OH–(aq)

(1) OH– and

–
(2) OH and H2O
–
(3) HCO3 and H2O
– –2
(4) HCO3 and CO3

29) aK2Cr2O7– – + bFeS2 → Cr+++ + Fe+++ + SO2 a and b are :

(1) 1 & 2
(2) 11 & 6
(3) 5 & 6
(4) 7 & 6

30) If 6 × 10–3 mole K2Cr2O7 reacts completely with 9 × 10–3 mole of Xn+ to give and Cr3+, then
the value of n is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 5

31) Which of the following equations hydrogen peroxide acts as a reductant?

(1) 2FeCl2 + 2HCl + H2O2 → 2FeCl3 + 2H2O

(2) Cl2 + H2O2 → 2HCl + O2
(3) 2HI + H2O2 → 2H2O + I2
(4) H2SO3 + H2O2 → H2SO4 + H2O

32) Which reaction does not represent disproportionation reaction :-

– – –
(1) Cl2 + OH → Cl + ClO3 + H2O
(2) 2H2O2 → H2O+O2
(3) 2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu
(4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O

33) Solubility of MX2 type electrolyte is 0.5 × 10–4 mol/litre. The value of Ksp of the electrolyte is :

(1) 5 × 10–13
(2) 25 × 10–10
(3) 1.25 × 10–13
(4) 5 × 1012

34)
pH of 0.1M NaA solution is -

Given :
(1) 5
(2) 11
(3) 9
(4) 8

35) A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of X– and HX. The Kb for X– is 10–10. The pH
of the buffer is

(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) 10
(4) 14

36) In combustion of CH4 number of e– involved is :-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 2

37) 1 mol of FeC2O4 is oxidised by x mol of Cr2O7–2 in acidic medium then x is :

(1) 3
(2) 1.5
(3) 0.5
(4) 1.0

38) The hydrolysis constant of the salt NaA and NaB (of the two weak acids HA and HB) are 10–8 and
10–10 respectively. If the dissociation constant Ka of weak acid HC is 10–5, then decreasing order of
the acid strength would be :-

(1) HB > HC > HA

(2) HA > HB > HC
(3) HB > HA > HC
(4) None

39) If pOH ≥ 5 then possible nature of aqueous Solution is :-

(1) acidic
(2) basic
(3) neutral
(4) any one is possible
40) Which one is the weakest monobasic acid? Ka value are given as under :-

(1) 1.8 × 10–5

(2) 2.7 × 10–7
(3) 1.4 × 10–4
(4) 1.2 × 10–6

41) What is the pH of 10% dissociated solution ? [H2CO3 ⇌ 2H+ + ]

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

42) A solution has a pH of 4.30. What is the [H3O+] ?

(1) 3.0 × 10–4

(2) 2.0 × 10–4
(3) 2.0 × 10–5
(4) 5.0 × 10–5

43) Match List-I (Compounds) with List-II (Oxidation states of Nitrogen) and select answer using the
codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(a) NaN3 (1) +5

(b) N2H2 (2) +2

(c) NO (3) -1/3

(d) N2O5 (4) -1

Codes:-
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 3 4 2 1

(2) 4 3 2 1

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 4 3 1 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) 2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2 ; is an example of :-

(1) Intermolecular redox reaction
(2) Intramolecular redox reaction
(3) Disproportionation redox reaction
(4) none

45) a NH3 + b O2 → c NO + d H2O value of a, b, c, d are :-

(1) 4, 3, 4, 5
(2) 3, 2, 3, 4
(3) 4, 5, 4, 6
(4) None

BIOLOGY

1) Identify the correct statement regarding the stem morphology from the following :
(i) Axillary bud may get modified into thorn as in Bouganvillea and Citrus.
(ii) Rosette like leaves and short internode is found in subaerial stem like Pistia and Eichhornia.
(iii) Stem is modified into phyllode as in australian acacia.

(1) I, II, III

(2) I and II
(3) II and III
(4) I and III

2) Which one of the following diagram represents the placentation in Argemone ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

3) In which of the following plant a slender lateral branch after growing aerially for some time arch
downwards to touch the ground-

(1) Pistia
(2) Banana
(3) Watermelon
(4) Jasmine

4)

How many plants in the list given below have stem tendrils:-

Cucumber, pumpkin, watermelon, grape wine, potato, Zaminkand, lady finger.

(1) Four
(2) Six
(3) Three
(4) Two

5) The term 'monoadelphous' is related to

(1) Hibiscus
(2) Cucurbita
(3) Citrus
(4) Pea

6)

Nodulated roots bearing family is :-

(1) Mimosoideae
(2) Cesalpinoideae
(3) Papilionadae
(4) Solanaceae

7) In wheat (monocot)

(1) Primary root is short lived

(2) Primary root replaced by fibrous root
(3) Fibrous root arises from the base of stem
(4) 1, 2 and 3
8) Read the following four statement (A-D) :-
(A) In racemose inflorescence the main axis terminate in a flower.
(B) In flowers of rose ovary is half inferior
(C) In canna the flowers are zygomorphic
(D) Prop roots present in sugarcane and maize
How many of the above statements are right?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

9) Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown in :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Assertion : Respiratory roots are found in rhizophora.

Reason : Rhizophora mainly grow in marshy area.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

11) The following figure represents the modified stem of -

(1) Grass
(2) Bougainvillea
(3) Euphorbia
(4) Cucumber

12) The zone proximal to region of elongation in root and bears root hairs is known as :-

(1) Region of maturation

(2) Region of elongation
(3) Region of meristem
(4) Both (1) & (3)

13) A well developed tap root system is seen in :

(1) Maize
(2) Mustard
(3) Wheat
(4) Sugarcane

14) Floral formula related to given diagram is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Assertion :- In some xerophytic plants stem becomes green, flat, leaf like and leaves are
modified into spines.
Reason :- In xerophytic areas rate of transpiration is high, so plants develop various adaptations to
minimize transpiration.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

16) Identify the family with its character from the below given floral diagram :-
(1) Liliaceae, non-endospermic seed
(2) Liliaceae, bulb and corm
(3) Solanaceae, bulb and corm
(4) Fabaceae, Zygomorphic flower

17) Pappus is madification of -

(1) Bracts
(2) Corolla
(3) Calyx
(4) All

18) Which of the following is wrongly matched ?

(1) Runner - Cyanadon

(2) Stolon - Jasmine
(3) Sucker - Pineapple
(4) Offset - Mint

19) Given below are two Statements.

Statements-I : The main function of the stem is spreading out branches bearing leaves, flowers and
fruits.
Statements-II : Some stem perform the function of storage of food, support, protection and of
vegetative propagation.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and II are correct

20) Find out the incorrect match.

(1) Stolon-Jasmine
(2) Runner-Mint
(3) Offset-Pistia
(4) Sucker-Chrysanthemum

21) The function of root cap is-

(1) Provide protection to root apex

(2) Storage of food products
(3) Absorption of nutrients
(4) None of the above

22) Basal type of placentation is found in :-

(1) Primrose
(2) Chinarose
(3) Marigold
(4) Bean

23) In___, the lateral branches originate from the basal and underground portion of the main stem,
grow horizontally beneath the soil and then come out obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots:

(1) Strawberry
(2) Pineapple
(3) Pistia
(4) Eichhornia

24) Find out the correct statements :

a. The roots which store food in Turnip are adventitious roots
b. Stems of maize & sugarcane have stilt roots coming out from upper nodes
c. In Monstera, roots arise from parts of the plant other than radicle
d. Zimmikand has organ of perennation

(1) c, d
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b

25) Identify the correct match from the column-I, II, and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Hanging roots
(1) Prop root (a) Sugarcane (i)
an stem

(2) Stilt root (b) Rhizophora (ii) Food storage

Lower nodes
(3) Pneumatophore (c) Banyan (iii)
of stem

Help to get
(4) Tuberous root (d) Sweet potato (iv)
oxygen
(1) 1-c-ii, 2-a-iii, 3-d-iv, 4-b-i
(2) 1-a-i, 2-c-iii, 3-b-iv, 4-d-ii
(3) 1-c-i, 2-a-iii, 3-b-iv, 4-d-ii
(4) 1-c-i, 2-a-iii, 4-b-iv, 3-d-ii
26) If the main axis continues to grow, the flowers are born laterally in an acropetal order, then this
is called :-

(1) Solitary Infloresence

(2) Racemose Infloresence
(3) Cymose infloresence
(4) Scorpiod Infloresence

27) Zygomorphic flowers are found in :-

(1) Mustard
(2) Chilli
(3) Datura
(4) Cassia

28)

Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

1 Runner a Arch is present i Jasmine

Horizontally running weak stem

2 Stolon b ii Doob grass
above the ground

3 Sucker c Aquatic and fragile iii Mint

4 Offset d Main stem grows in soil iv Eichornia

(1) 1-b-ii, 2-a-i, 3-d-iii, 4-c-iv

(2) 1-d-iii, 2-b-ii, 3-c-i, 4-a-iv
(3) 1-c-iii, 2-b-ii, 3-d-i, 4-a-iv
(4) 1-d-iv, 2-c-iii, 3-a-i, 4-b-ii

29) Epipetalous stamens are found in :-

(1) Onion
(2) Indigofera
(3) Brinjal
(4) Pea

30) Bicarpellary gynoecium with ovaries arranged obliquely on thalamus occurs in :

(1) Capsella
(2) Brinjal
(3) China rose
(4) Pea
31) How many of them are modification of root :-
Potato, Sweet potato, Garlic, Turnip, Onion, Ginger, Colocasia, Radish, Carrot, Jaminkand

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

32)

Perigynous flower is observed in

(1) Rose
(2) Plum
(3) Pea
(4) Both (1) and (2)

33) A distinct monocot character shown by the flowers of Liliaceae is :-

(1) Hypogynous flowers

(2) Actinomorphic flowers
(3) Trimerous flowers
(4) Bisexual flowers

34) Which of the following statement is not correct about stem?

(1) Bears node and internode

(2) Can perform vegetative propagation
(3) Develops from the radicle of the embryo
(4) Bears terminal or axillary buds

35) Assertion :- Alstonia shows whorled phyllotaxy.

Reason :- In Alstonia one leaf arises on each node.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

36)

Correct floral formula of chilli is ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

37) Which of the following plant parts in garlic and onion store food?

(1) Underground stem

(2) Fleshy leaves
(3) Adventitious root
(4) Apical Bud

38) “In some plants stems are modify into flattened or fleshy cylindrical structure and contain
chlorophyll to carry out photosynthesis”. Which of the following pair of plants adaptable for this
modification.

(1) Opuntia and Bougainvillea

(2) Pistia and Eichhornia
(3) Opuntia and Euphorbia
(4) Opuntia and Eichhornia

39) The 'Eyes' of the potato tuber are:

(1) Flower buds

(2) Shoot buds
(3) Axillary buds
(4) Root buds

40) Identify the incorrect match for plant and the phyllotaxy according to diagram:

Plant Phyllotaxy

(1) a China rose Alternate

(2) b Sunflower Opposite

(3) b Guava Opposite

(4) c Alstonia Whorled

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41)

How many stem in the list given below is modification of aerial stem ?

Stem Tendril, Stem thorn, phylloclade, bulb, corm, Rhizome

(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Five

42) Choose the correct match for A,B,C & D

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Meristematic Absorption
i A
zone of water

Elongation Maximum
ii B
zone growth

Maturation Absorption
iii C
zone of water

iv D Root cap Protection

(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

43)

The Iberis is commonly called as:-

(1) Pansy
(2) Candy-tuft
(3) Poppy
(4) Snapdragon

44)

Consider the following four statements A, B, C and D and select the right option for two correct
statements :
Statements :
(A) In vexillary aestivation, the large posterior petal is called - standard, two lateral ones are wings
and two small anterior petals are termed keel.
(B) The floral formula for Liliaceae is

(C) In pea flower the stamens are monoadelphous

(D) The floral formula for Solanaceae is

The correct statements are :-

(1) (A) and (B)

(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D)
(4) (A) and (C)

45) When the anthers are united but filaments remain free, Such an androecium is known as :

(1) Synandrous
(2) Polyadelphous
(3) Syngenesious
(4) Monoadelphous

46) During ventricular systole :-

(1) Semilunar vaves are close

(2) About 30 percent blood is pumped into aorta from ventricles.
(3) Tricuspid and Bicuspid valves are closed
(4) Ventricular pressure declines

47) Read the following statements and select the correct option :
Statement-I : The AV node acts as pace maker.
Statement-II : The SA node is located in the wall of the left atrium near the inter atrial septum

(1) Both statements I and II are correct, statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
Both statements I and II are correct but statement II is the not correct explanations of
(2)
statement I
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
48) Read following statements carefully.
(A) NaCl is returned to interstitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta.
(B) Counter-current mechanism helps to maintain a concentraction gradient in cortical zone of
kidney.
(C) An increase blood flow to atria of heart can cause release of ANF which causes vasoconstriction.
(D) Human kidney can form urine nearly four times concentrated than the initial filtrate formed.
Which of the above statement are correct :-

(1) A and B
(2) A, B, C & D
(3) A and D
(4) B, C and D

49) The below figure is the diagrammatic representation of standard ECG.

Column I Column II

Ventricular depolarization followed by

A. P-wave I.
ventricular contraction

Atrial depolarization followed by contraction of

B. QRS complex II.
both atria

Ventricular repolarization followed by

C. T-wave III.
ventricular relaxation
(1) A – I, B – II, C – III
(2) A – III, B – II, C – I
(3) A – II, B – I, C – III
(4) A – II, B – III, C – I

50) Indetify A,B and C in the given below blood clotting process.

A B C

1 Thromoplastin Prothrombin Fibrinogen

2 Thrombin Fibrinogen Thrombokinase

3 Thromboplastin Thrombin Fibrinogen

 4 Prothrombin Thrombin Fibrinogen
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51) Which is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart?

(1) Sino-atrial node (SAN)

(2) Atro-ventricular node (AVN)
(3) Purkinje fibres
(4) Bundle of his

52) Identify the correct sequence of events in a cardiac cycle:-

(1) Joint diastole → Atrial systole → Ventricular systole

(2) Join diastole → Atrial diastole → Ventricular systole
(3) Ventricular systole → Atrial systole → Joint diastole
(4) Atrial systole → Joint diastole → Ventricular systole

53) Match the colmns.

Column –I Column -II

(A) Uremia (p) The increase of urea in blood
(B) Ketonuria (q) Oxalate of calcium
(C) Glycosuria (r) Ketone body in urine
(D) Renal calculi (s) Glucose in urine
(1) (A) -p, (B) - q, (C) -r, (D) -s
(2) (A) -p, (B) - r, (C) -s, (D) -q
(3) (A) -s, (B) - q, (C) -r, (D) -p
(4) (A) -q, (B) - r, (C) -s, (D) -p

54) Following structures A, B, C are a part of blood circulatory system matched with their specific

description. Find out the correct matches : A. Thick elastic tissue,

valves absent, blood pressure is high, carries blood away from heart
B. Thin elastic tissue, valves prevent black flow of blood, blood pressure is low, carries blood
towards heart
C. Smallest blood vessels, made up of single layerof flat endothelial cells.

(1) A,B,C
(2) A, C
(3) B,C
(4) only C

55) Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?

Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman's
(1)
capsule
(2) Henle's loop : most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
(3) Distal convoluted tubule : reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
(4) Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein.

56) In cortical nephrones (LOH = Loop of henle)

(1) LOH is long

(2) collecting duct is long
(3) LOH is sort
(4) Absesnce of LOH

57) Statement - I : In open circulation blood is pumped out of heart and the cell and tissues are
directly bathed in it.
Statement - II : In close circulation blood is circulated through series of vessles of varying
diameters.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

58) Erthroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering.......... to the mother immediately after
the delivery of first child:-

(1) Vitamins
(2) Antibiotics
(3) Anit-Rh antibodies
(4) Rh-antigen

59) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III ?

Column-I Column-II Column-III

In medulla Concentration
1 PCT a i
of kidney of urine

Major site
Loop of
2 b Podocytes ii of selective
Henle
reabsorption

Brush
3 DCT c iii Ultrafiltration
border
 Conditional
Bowman's In cortex
4 d iv reabsorption
capsule of kidney
of H2O, salts
(1) 2-(a)-(i), 1-(c)-(iv), 3-(d)-(ii), 4-(b)-(iii)
(2) 1-(c)-(ii), 2-(b)-(i), 3-(d)-(iv), 4-(a)-(iii)
(3) 2-(a)-(i), 1-(c)-(ii), 4-(b)-(iii), 3-(d)-(iv)
(4) 3-(d)-(iv), 1-(c)-(i), 3-(a)-(ii), 4-(b)-(iii)

60) Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by :-

(1) Liver cell

(2) Macula densa
(3) Juxta glomerular cells
(4) Endothelial cells lining blood vessels

61) Which of the following WBCs are phagocytic cells ?

(a) Monocytes (b) Neutrophils
(c) Basophils (d) Eosinophils

(1) Only (a)

(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)

62) Choose the statement which is not incorrect :-

(1) Glomerular filtration rate in human kidney is 125 ml/day.

(2) conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water occur in DCT.
+ –
(3) H reabsorbed and HCO3 secreted in PCT to maintain blood pH.
(4) Site of main secretion of K+ is descending limb of loop of Henle.

63) Involving mainly in RAAS:

(1) Angiotensin
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Renin
(4) All of these

64) Rate of heart beat can be increased by:

(A) Sympathetic neural signals.
(B) Parasympathetic neeural signals.
(C) Adrenal medullary hormones.
(D) Vagus nerve.
(E) Thyroxine hormone
(F) Acetylcholine
(1) A, C, E
(2) D, E, F
(3) A, C, D
(4) B, D, F

65) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

Selective secretion of H⊕ and

A PCT (i)
K⊕ ions.

70-80 percent of electrolytes

B DCT (ii)
and water reabsorbed

Allow passage of small

C Descending limb (iii)
amount of urea

D Ascending limb (iv) Permeable to water

E Collecting duct (v) Permeable to salts

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii), E-(v)
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(v), E-(iii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iv), E-(iii)

66) The glomerular filteration rate in a normal adult is nearly:

(1) 200 ml/min

(2) 250 ml/min
(3) 125 ml/min
(4) 170 ml/min

67) Which one of the following couple were suggested by Doctors to not have more than one child

(1) Rh+ male and Rh– female

(2) Rh– male and Rh+ female
(3) Rh+ male and Rh+ female
(4) Rh– male and Rh– female

68) Find the incorrect statement

(1) Heart attack occurs when the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply
(2) Angina occurs in the middle aged and elderly men but not women
(3) A constant blood pressure of 140/90 or higher shows hypertension
(4) In atherosclerosis, lumen of arteries becomes narrower

69) Foramen ovale

(1) Is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close
(2) Is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus
(3) Is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum
(4) Connects the two atria in the foetal heart

70) The glomerular filtrate i.e., the liquid collected in the cavity of Bowman's capsule is :

(1) Blood minus proteins

(2) Blood minus proteins and corpuscles
(3) Water
(4) Urine

71) A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates:

(1) adrenal medulla to release aldosterone

(2) posterior pituitary to release oxytocin
(3) juxta glomerular cells to release renin
(4) adrenal cortex to release adrenaline

72) Assertion : Distal Convoluted Tubule is permeable for Urea.

Reason : Large amount of Urea is always retains in the medullary interstitium.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

73) Chordae tendinae are found in-

(1) joints
(2) Atria of heart
(3) Ventricles of heart
(4) Ventricles of brain

74) Which of the following represent correct order of abudance of blood cells ?

(1) Neutrophils > Lymphocytes > Monocytes > Eosinophils > Basophils
(2) Lymphocytes > Monocytes > Eosinophils > Basophils > Neutrophils
(3) Eosinophils > Monocyte > Neutrophils > Lymphocytes > Basophils
(4) Basophils > Lymphocytes > Eosinophils > Neutrophils > Lymphocytes

75) The cardiac impulse is initiated and conducted further upto ventricle. The correct sequence of
conduction of impulse is

1 S A Node A V Node Purkinje fiber A V Bundle

 2 S A Node Purkinje fiber A V Node A V Bundle

3 S A Node A V Node A V Bundle Purkinje fiber

4 S A Node Purkinje fiber A V Bundle A V Node

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76) Passage of urine.

(1) Duct of bellini – urethra – ureters – urinary bladder

(2) Urinary bladder – urethra – ureters – calyces
(3) Duct of bellini – calyces – urethra – urinary bladder
(4) Duct of bellini – calyces – ureters – urinary bladder.

77) Changes is CO2 and H+ ions concentration in the blood is detected by :

(1) Chemosensitine areas of cerebellum

(2) Aortic and carotid chemoreceptors
(3) Respiratory centers in pons
(4) Both (1) and (2)

78) Match the terms given under Column 'I' with their functions given under Column 'II' and select
the answer from the options given below:

Column-I Column-II

A. Lymphatic System i. Carries oxygenated blood

B. Pulmonary vein ii. Immune Response

C. Thrombocytes system iii. To drain back the circulatory system

D. Lymphocytes iv. Coagulation of blood

(1) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii), D–(iv)
(2) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(ii)
(3) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(ii), D–(iv)
(4) A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iii), D–(iv)

79) Osmalarity of interstitial fluid in cortex is

(1) 1200 mOsm/lit

(2) 900 mOsm/lit
(3) 600 mOsm/lit
(4) 300 mOsm/lit

80) Diabities incipidus is due to :

(1) Hyposecretion of vasopressin
(2) Hyperecretion of insulin
(3) Hyposecretion insulin
(4) Hypersecretion vasopressin

81) Platelets are cells fragments produced from:-

(1) Thrombocytes
(2) Megakaryocytes
(3) Monocytes
(4) Mast cell

82) Observe the following figure ? Identify A to D structure -

A B C C

(1) Superior vena cava Inferior vena cava Dorsal Aorta Urethra

(2) Inferior vena cava Superior vena cava Dorsal Aorta Urethra

(3) Ureter Inferior vena cava Dorsal Aorta Urethra

(4) Dorsal Aorta Inferior vena cava Urethra Cortex

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) The condition of accumulation of urea in the blood is termed as :

(1) Renal calculi

(2) Glomerulonephritis
(3) Uremia
(4) Ketonuria

84) Blood colloidal osmotic pressure is maintained by

(1) Albumin
(2) Globulin
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Thrombin

85) It is activated as the change of blood volume and volume of body fluid.
(1) Medulla oblongata
(2) Osmoreceptor
(3) Aorta
(4) Renal vein

86) Urine produced by human kidney is concentrated by -----times than the initial filtrate formed

(1) 2
(2) 300
(3) 4
(4) 1200

87) During systole of heart :-

(1) Only auricles contract

(2) Only ventricles contract
(3) Atria and ventricles contract separately
(4) Atria and ventricles contract simultaneously

88) Choose correct sequence of toxicity among ammonia, urea and uric acid in the increasing order.

(1) Uric acid < urea < ammonia

(2) Uric acid < ammonia < urea
(3) Urea < uric acid < ammonia
(4) Ammonia < urea < uric acid

89) Which one of the following is a correctly match pair

(1) Lubb = Sharp closure of AV valves at the begining of ventricular systole

(2) Dup = Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the begining of ventricular diastole
(3) Pulsation of the radial artery = Valves in the blood vessels
(4) Initiation of the heart beat = Purkinje fibres

90) The mechanism of urine formation in nephorn involves

(1) Ultrafilteration
(2) Secretion
(3) Reabrorption
(4) All of above
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 2 1 3 2 1 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 4 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 2 3 3 3 4 3 2 3 2 4 2 1 3 1 3 1 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 1 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 1 4 2 1 2 3 2 4 3 4 1 1 3 3 1 4 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 4 2 1 4 3 3 2 1 2 4 1 3 1 2 3 1 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 1 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 4 1 1 3 4 2 3 1 4 1 2 1 4 2 3 4 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 2 1 3 2 4 1 3 2 2 4 3 3 2 2 2 3 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 2 1 3 3 4 3 3 3 1 1 2 4 1 3 1 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 4 1 3 3 1 2 4 2 3 4 3 1 3 4 2 2 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 3 1 2 3 3 1 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

2)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

3) After time t

v1v2 = (gt)2

t=

4)

Area = Δv
4=v–2
v = 6 m/s

5) For ball to touch the bird, Vcosθ = u

∴ R = Vcosθ(Tf) = Vcosθ

6) As, Distance travelled by the body in last 't' sec. of ascent = Distance travelled by the body
in first 't' sec. of decent.
∴ s=

7)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

8) The slope of position–time (x–t) graph at any point shows the instantaneous velocity at that
point.
The slope of given x – t graph at different point can be shown as

Obviously the slope is negative at the point E as the angle made by tangent with +ve X–axis is
obtuse, hence the instantaneous velocity of the particle is negative at the point E i.e.,

9) For equation of path

t= put in another equation

⇒y=

⇒y=

10)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

11) ∴ Distance ≥ |Displacement|

or

12) Net displacement of the cyclist is zero, since the initial position coincides with the final
position.
Average speed of the cyclist

= km/min
 = km/min

= × 60 km/hr = 21.4 km/hr.

13)

vm = aT

so,

14)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

15)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

16)

To attain maximum range θ = 45º

R=

Maximum height is attained in time t =

17)

In retardation and both are in opposite direction.

18)
Average acceleration =

19) ∵ v2 = u2 + 2as
∴ (4u)2 = u2 + 2(–g) (–H)

20)

21)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

22) Area under a-t graph gives the change in velocity during given time interval.

∴ vmax = × 5 × 6 = 15 m/s
Since initial velocity = 0
∴ Maximum speed of the particle = 15 m/s

23) Displacement ⇒ s = ut + at2 Average velocity = <v> =

24)

25)
Correct Answer : Option (3)

26) Time of flight = t1 + t2

= 1 + 3 = 4sec

u = 40 m/sec

27)
(y = mx + c)
v = – 2t + 10

x = – 4 + 20 = 16 m

28)

K = at2 – bt3
v = 2at – 3bt2
a = 2a – 6bt

a=0⇒

29)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

30) Hmax = , H different so T different.

31)

θ = 53°, S of E

32)

33) (vy)B = v sin 60° =

(vy)A = 2v sin 30° = v
(vy)A > (vy)B
So TA > TB

34)

Avg vel. = = 2m/s

35) v = u + at
v = 0 + 10 × 30
v = 300 m/s
Now, fuel is finished.
now 'g' will act downwards
v = u + at
⇒ 0 = 300 – 10 (t)
t = 30 sec
∴ Total time = 30 + 30
= 60 sec

36)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

37)
Correct Answer : Option (3)

38) Average velocity = =

39)
In a projectile motion, the horizontal component of velocity remains same.

40)

a = constant, ⇒ x ∝ t2

v = constant, ⇒ x ∝ t

41) If air resistance is taken into consideration then range and maximum height, both will
decrease.

42)

Correct Answer : Option (4)

43) ; v = an

44) Concept: & Explanation

• The displacement-time graph represents how the position of a particle changes with time.
• The slope of the displacement-time graph gives the velocity of the particle.
 A. A positive slope indicates motion in the positive x-direction.
B. A horizontal segment (zero slope) means the particle is at rest.
C. A constant slope corresponds to uniform velocity.
D. A changing slope indicates varying velocity.

Analysis of the Given Graph:

A. From t = 0 to t = t0:

A. The graph shows a straight line passing through the origin with a positive slope.
B. This indicates that the particle is moving with a constant velocity in the positive x-direction.

B. From t = t0 onwards:

A. The graph becomes a horizontal line (zero slope).

B. This means the particle has stopped moving and is at rest.

Formula used:
The velocity v is the slope of the displacement-time graph:

Where:

A. is the change in displacement.

B. is the change in time.

Calculation:
[Link] t = 0 to t = t0:

A. The slope of the line is constant.

B. Let the displacement at t = 0 be [Link],

A. The particle moves with this constant velocity until t = t0.

2. For t > t0:

A. The graph is horizontal, so the velocity v = 0 The particle is at rest.

Final Answer:
The correct option is:
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time t0 and then stops.

45)

Total time = 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 1 = 11s

CHEMISTRY
46)

Both salts are of weak acid and weak base, so there degree of hydrolysis will be independent
of concentration (dilution).

47)

Correct Answer : Option (4)

48)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

49) Asking about : Value of Ka of Acid

Concept : H+ =

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
Given Data → PH = 3
concentration of Acid HQ = 0.1 m
[H+] = 10–PH
= 10–3
+ 2
[H ] = ka . C
(10–3)2 = ka × 0.1

ka =
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

50)

51)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

52)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks by how much the hydrogen ion concentration
increases when the pH of a solution changes from 5 to 2 after adding acid.

Underlying Concept: pH is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution. It is

defined as the negative logarithm (base 10) of the hydrogen ion concentration. A decrease in
pH means an increase in hydrogen ion concentration by a factor of 10 for each unit change.
Relevant Formulas: The pH relationship with hydrogen ion concentration is given by:

Where is the hydrogen ion concentration. To find the increase factor:

Step-by-Step Calculation: Initial pH = 5 so

Final pH = 2 so
Increase factor = times

Tips and Tricks: Use the definition of pH and the property of logarithms to quickly calculate
concentration changes without converting to actual molarity if you prefer.

Common Mistakes: Mixing up which pH corresponds to higher or lower hydrogen ion

concentration; forgetting that pH decreases as acidity increases.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: 100 times would correspond to a pH change of 2 units if
each unit change reflected a tenfold difference, but here pH changes by 3 units so the increase
is 1000 times. 2.5 or 5 times have no basis with the logarithmic pH scale.

53)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

54) 2 mole N2H4 → 20 mole e–

1 mole N2 H4 → 10 mole e–
2 N atom → 10 mole e–
1 N atom → 5 mole e–
N–2 → N+3 + 5e–

55)

Correct Answer : Option (4)

56)

Q. Explanation: Find correct order of acid strength.

Given data: pKa of acid A 4.5, pKa of acid B = 3.5, pKa of acid C = 6.5
Concept: pKa is a measure of acid strength. A lower pKa value indicates a stronger acid.
Answer: The correct order of acid strength is B > A > C. So,
Option 3 is correct.

57)
 Correct Answer : Option (4)

58)

M + O2 —→ MxOy

E=

E= ⇒M=E×

59)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

60)

A. Question: Find the pH of a BaCO3 solution given that the pKa value is 4.70.

B. Given Data:

A. pKa of the solution = 4.70

C. Concept: PH of Baco3.
D. Solution -

A. Relationship between pKa and pKb: In aqueous solutions at 25°C, the sum of pKa and
pKb is always 14.

B. pH and pOH: pH + pOH = 14

E. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Calculate pKb: pKa +pKb = 14 pKb = 14 - 4.70 pKb = 9.30

B. Calculate pOH: For a salt solution of a weak acid and strong base (like BaCO3), the pOH
is given by: pOH = 0.5 × pKb pOH = 0.5 × 9.30 pOH = 4.65

C. Calculate pH: pH = 14 - pOH pH = 14 - 4.65 pH = 9.35

E. Final Answer: The pH of the BaCO3 solution is 9.35.

61)
 Correct Answer : Option (3)

62)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

63)

Question Explanation : Select the incorrect option about what happens when water is
heated.

Concept : On Heating :-
Ionisation of water
Concentration of [H+]
Concentration of [ON–]
kω = [H+] [OH–]
pH = –log [H+] ⇒ [H+] ; pH ↓
Final Answer :- Its pH increases
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

64)

Explanation: We need to determine the increasing order of pH for 0.1 M solution.

Concept: increasing order of pH

Solution :

A. HCl: Strong acid → very low pH

B. NH₄Cl: Salt of weak base (NH₃) and strong acid (HCl) → slightly acidic pH

C. NaCl: Neutral salt (strong acid HCl + strong base NaOH) → pH ≈ 7

D. NaCN: Salt of strong base (NaOH) and weak acid (HCN) → slightly basic pH

Answer: Option 4, HCl < NH₄Cl < NaCl < NaCN

65) Asking about:

pH of solution

Concept:
pH of S.A. + W.A. mix

Soln/Explanation:

H+ =
 = 0.1 = 10–1

pH = 1

Final Answer: The correct option is (4).

66)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

67) [AB] = 5 × 10–5 M

I.P. = [A+] [B–] = (5 × 10–5)2 = 2.5 × 10–9
Ksp = 3.6 × 10–9
Ksp > IP
Unsaturated solution

68) Concept: Ostwald's dilution law applies to weak electrolytes.

NaCl (sodium chloride), HCl (hydrochloric acid) and CH3COONa (sodium acetate) are strong
electrolyte
CH3COONa (acetic acid ) is a weak electrolyte
Answer : Option-4 (CH3COOH)

69)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

70)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

71) Ka ↑ pka ↓ acidic strength ↑

72) Solution:
C = decimal = 0.1 N
% =1%
For weak base (BOH)
[OH–] = C

= 0.1
[OH–] = 10–3
POH = – log [OH–]
= – log (10–3)
POH = 3
PH = 14 – POH
PH = 14 – 3
PH = 11
 73)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

74)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

75) gram equivalent of K2Cr2O7 = gram equivalent of Xn+

(6 × 10–3) × 6 = (5–n) × 9 × 10–3
5–n=4
n=1

76)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

77) In 4th reaction, N undergoes oxidation while Cr undergoes reduction.

78)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

79)

pH = 7 +

=7+

= 7 + 2.5 – 0.5 = 9

80)

pH = pKa + log

Ka × Kb = Kw

81)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

82) 6FeC2O4 + 3Cr2O7–2 → 6Fe3+ + 12 CO2 + 6Cr3+

6 mol 3 mol

1 mol = 0.5 mol

83)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

84)

Correct Answer : Option (4)

85)

Explaining the question : The strength of an acid is determined by its acid dissociation
constant (Ka).
Concept : This Questions based on Acidic strength of weak acid.
Solution :
A lower Ka value indicates a weaker acid because it dissociates less in solution so that less H+
concentration in the solution.

The weakest acid will have the smallest Ka value.

Comparing given values : 2.7 × 10–7 is the smallest.

Final Answer : 2

86) Asking about : pH of 10% dissociated H2CO3 Solution

Concept : pH = – log (H+)

Solution/Explanation :
Given Data
H2CO3 2H+ + CO32–

∝ = 10% OR = 0.1

Concentration = = 0.005 M

Calculation :
H2CO3 is a weak Acid,
H2CO3 2H+ + CO32–
t=0 C - -
teqbm C–Cµ 2Cµ Cµ
+
Total [H ] = 2C ∝
= 2 × 0.005 × 0.1
= 10–3M
PH = – log (H+) = –log (10)–3
=3
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

87) Explanation - [H3O+]

 Concept - pH scale
Solution - we know that
[H3O+] = 10-pH Given pH = 4.3
= 10-4.3

Final Answer = 4

88) NaN3 ⇒ 1(+1) +3 (x) = 0 ∴ x = –1/3

N2H2 ⇒ 2(x) +2 (+1) = 0 ∴ x = –1
NO ⇒ 1(x) + 1(–2) = 0 ∴ x = +2
N2O5 ⇒ 2(x) + 5(–2) = 0 ∴ x = +5

89)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

90)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Pg # 68,71

92)

NCERT-XI, Pg#75

93) NCERT Pg # 67

94) NCERT Pg. # 68 Modification stem

95) NCERT XI_Page No.75

96)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

97)
NCERT XI Page # 65

98) NCERT-XI, Page # 67,72,73

99)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

100)

Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

101)

Correct Answer : Option (4)

102) NCERT XIth Pg. # 67

103)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

104)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

105)

Ncert pg No: 71 2021 - 2022

106)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

107)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

108) NCERT Pg. # 67

109) NCERT Pg # 68

110)
Correct Answer : Option (2)

111)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

112) NCERT Pg.# 75, [Link]

113)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

114)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

115)

NCERT-XI Pg#67

116)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

117) NCERT XI Pg # 72

118)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

119)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 75

120)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 69

121) NCERT (XI) Pg # 67, para 5.1.2

122)

Correct Answer : Option (4)

123)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

124)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 59

125)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

126)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

127)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

128) NCERT Pg # 68

129)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

130)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

131)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

132) NCERT XI Pg. # 67

133)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

134)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

 135)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

136)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

137)

Correct Answer : Option (4)

138)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

139)

A. A. P-wave - II. Atrial depolarization followed by contraction of both atria: The P-wave
represents the electrical activity associated with the depolarization (activation) of the atria.
This depolarization leads to the contraction of the atria, which helps push blood into the
ventricles.
B. B. QRS complex - I. Ventricular depolarization followed by ventricular contraction:
The QRS complex is a series of waves that represent the electrical depolarization of the
ventricles. This depolarization triggers the contraction of the ventricles, which pumps blood
out to the body (left ventricle) and lungs (right ventricle).
C. C. T-wave - III. Ventricular repolarization followed by ventricular relaxation: The T-
wave represents the repolarization (return to resting state) of the ventricles. This
repolarization leads to ventricular relaxation, allowing the ventricles to refill with blood before
the next contraction.
D. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3:
E. A-II
F. B-I
G. C-III

140)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

141)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

142)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

143)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

144)

Correct Answer : Option (4)

145)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

146)

In cortical nephrons LOH is short.

147)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 38, 40

148)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

149)

Question Explanation:
The question asks you to match the structures of the nephron (Column I) with their locations
(Column II) and functions (Column IIII).

Solution Explanation:
Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks to correctly match the parts of the kidney (listed in
Column-I) with their corresponding structural features (Column-II) and primary functions
(Column-III). This involves understanding the anatomy and physiology of various kidney
structures like PCT, Loop of Henle, DCT, and Bowman's capsule.

Underlying Concept: The core scientific concepts involve renal anatomy and physiology.
Specifically, how different parts of the nephron (functional unit of the kidney) are located,
their cellular structures, and their respective roles in processes like selective reabsorption,
urine concentration, conditional reabsorption, and ultrafiltration.

Tips and Tricks: Remember:

• PCT has a brush border and is the major site of selective reabsorption.
• Loop of Henle lies in the medulla and functions to concentrate urine.
• DCT is located in the cortex and involved in conditional reabsorption of water and salts.
• Bowman's capsule contains podocytes and performs ultrafiltration.
Common Mistakes: Confusing the locations (cortex vs medulla) of nephron parts, or mixing
up their functions such as thinking Bowman's capsule is involved in reabsorption instead of
filtration.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices that mismatch structural features or functions
to wrong nephron parts are incorrect, e.g., assigning podocytes to PCT or naming
ultrafiltration as a function of DCT.

150)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

151)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

152)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

153)

Correct Answer : Option (4)

154)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

155)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

156)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

157)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

158)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

 159)

Correct Answer : Option (4)

160)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

161)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

162)

Correct Answer : Option (4)

163) Question Explanation:

The question asks where chordae tendineae are located in the body.
Correct Answer :
3. Ventricles of heart

A. Explanation: Chordae tendineae are found in the ventricles of the heart. They are connected
to the flaps (cusps) of the atrioventricular valves (tricuspid valve on the right and mitral valve
or bicuspid valve on the left). They prevent the valves from collapsing back into the atria when
the ventricles contract.

164)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

165)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

166)

Duct of bellini – calyces – ureters – urinary bladder.

167)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

168)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

 169)

Correct Answer : Option (4)

170)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

171)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

172)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

173)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

174)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

175)

Correct Answer : Option (2)

176)

Correct Answer : Option (3)

177)

During systole, the heart chambers contract in a coordinated sequence to pump blood
effectively.

A. Atrial systole: First, the atria contract, pushing the remaining blood into the ventricles.
B. Ventricular systole: Then, the ventricles contract forcefully, pumping blood out of the heart.

So, the correct answer is Option 3: Atria and ventricles contract separately.

178)

Correct Answer : Option (1)

179)
Correct Answer : Option (1)

180)

Correct Answer : Option (4)