CLASS (DROPPER NEET)

City Test-01 Phase – 3

DURATION: 200 Minutes DATE: 14/07/2024 M.MARKS: 720

Topic Covered
Physics : Units & Measurements (Excluding Error Analysis), Mathematical Tools
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry (Excluding Limiting Reagent and Excess Reagent)
Botany : Cell : The Unit of Life (Upto Endomembrane System)
Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals – Complete Chapter

GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four section in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-1 (Physics), Section
- II (Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject
and each subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all compulsory)
and Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

[ 1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A 9. Dimension of electrical resistance is :—
1. The dimension of the ratio of angular to linear (1) [ML2T–3A–1] (2) [ML2T–3A–2]
momentum is (3) [ML3T–3A–2] (4) [ML–1T–3A2]
(1) [M0L1T0] (2) [M1L1T–1]
1 2 –1
(3) [M L T ] (4) [M–1L–1T–1]
10. Convert the following angle from radian to degree
2. Which of the following physical quantities has same 3 7
unit in all the three system of units? (a) rad (b) rad
4 6
(1) Mass (2) Length
(1) 135º, 210º (2) 210º, 135º
(3) Time (4) None of these
(3) 225º, 240º (4) 135º, 225º
3. Two quantities A and 8 have different dimensions.
Which mathematical operation given below is 11. convert the angle from degree to radian:
physically meaningful (a) 210º (b) 315º
(1) A / B (2) A + B
(3) A – B (4) None of these 7 7 5 5
(1) , (2) ,
6 4 6 4
5   3 3
4. If sec  = , find sin and tan? (3) , (4) ,
3 6 4 6 4
3 3 4 4
(1) , (2) ,
5 4 5 3 12. A normal human eye can see an object making an
5 4 4 3 angle of 1.8º at the eye. What is the approximate
(3) , (4) ,
4 3 5 4 height of object which can be seen by an eye placed
at a distance of 1 m from the object
5. Value of sin (37º) cos (53º) is-
9 12
(1) (2)
25 25
16 3
(3) (4)
25 5 (1) 108 m (2) 1 cm
(3)  cm (4) m
6. What is value of expression 2(sin15º + sin75º)2 ?
(1) 3/2 (2) 1/2 d  4 
(3) 2 (4) 3
13. Differentiate with respect to x  
dx  x 3 
x −2
7. A circular arc is of length  cm. Find angle (1) (2) 12x 4
−2
subtended by it at the centre in degree.
−12 4
(3) (4)
x4 x2

14. Find differentiation of y w.r.t x –

If y = 4ℓnx + cosx
4
(1) + sin x (2) 4 nx − sin x
(1) 60º (2) 30º x
4 4
(3) 90º (4) 15º (3) − sin x (4) + cos x
x x
8. Find the value of the following:-
2
 3   7   dy 
(a) cot   (b) cos   15. If y = a sin x + b cos x, then y +   is a -
2

 4   3   dx 
1 1 (1) Function of x
(1) −1, − (2) +1,
2 2 (2) Function of y
1 1 (3) Function of x and y
(3) −1, (4) +1, −
2 2 (4) Constant

[ 2]
 4 24. N kg–1 is the unit of :-
16. Find derivative of y = x 3 + x 2 − 5x + 1
3 (1) velocity (2) energy
4 3 2
x 4x 5x (3) acceleration (4) force
(1) + − +x
4 9 2
(2)
8
3x 2 + x − 5 25. The density of a liquid is 1000 kg m–3. Its value in
3 CGS system :-
(3) x2 + x − 5 (1) 1 (2) 0.1
(4) None of these (3) 10 (4) 100

dy 26. If the units of length, velocity and force are half,

17. If y = logex + sin x + ex then is - then the units of Power will be :-
dx
1 1 (1) doubled (2) halved
(1) + sin + e x (2) − cos + e x
x x (3) one fourth (4) remains unaffected
1 1 3x dy
(3) + cos + e x (4) − sin x 27. If y = then will be -
x x tan x dx
3
(1)
3x + 4 sec2 x
18. Find the derivative of y =
4x + 5 3tan x − 3x sec 2 x
−1 1 (2)
(1) (2) tan 2 x
(4x + 5) 2 (4x + 5) 2
3tan x + 3x sec 2 x
24x + 31 −24x + 31 (3)
(3) (4) tan 2 x
(4x + 5) 2 (4x + 5) 2
3sec2 x − 3x tan x
(4)
tan 2 x
( )
2
19. Find derivative of y = x3 + 1

(1) ( x + 1)(3x )
3 3
(2) (
2 x3 + 1 ) 28. If y = sin x & x = 3t then
dy
will be
dt
(3) 2 ( 3x )3
(4) 2( x 3
+ 1)( 3x ) 4
(1) 3 cos (x) (2) cos x
(3) –3 cos (x) (4) –cos x
20. If momentum P and velocity v are related as
a 29. The force is given in terms of time (t) and
, then dimensional formula of [ab–2] is
b + v2 displacement (x) by the equation:
(1) [MLT–1] (2) [M2L2T–1] F = A cos Bx + C sin Dt
(3) [M2L2T–2] (4) [ML2T–2] D
Then, the dimensions of : are : −
B
21. Dimensions of relative density is (1) M0L0T0 (2) M0L0T–1
(1) kg m–3 (2) [ML–3] (3) M0L–1T0 (4) M0LT–1
(3) dimensionless (4) [M2L–6]
dx
2 −2x dy
30. Evaluate the indefinite integral  (4x + 5) -
22. If y = 4ex then will be-
dx (1) loge(4) (2) loge(4x + 5) + c
(1) (8x − 8) e ( x 2 − 2x
) (2) (2x − 2) e ( x 2 − 2x
) (3)
1
4
log e (4x + 5) + c (4) None of these

( )
2 − 2x
(3) (8x − 8) ex −2x (4) 4e x
31. If Farce (F), Velocity (V) and Time (T) are taken as
fundamental quantities. Find dimensions of energy.
23. Convert 1 newton (SI unit of force) into dyne (CGS
unit of force) (1) [E] = [F V2 T] (2) [E] = [F V T2]
(1) 1 newton = 104 dyne (3) [E] = [F V T] (4) [E] = [F V–2 T]
(2) 1 newton = 105 dyne
(3) 1 newton = 106 dyne
(4) T newton = 107 dyne
[ 3]
  /2 40. The velocity v of a particle at time tis given by v =
32. The value of integral  sin(2x)dy -
at +
b
, where a, b and c are constants. The
t+c
0

(1) 0 (2) –1 dimensions of a, b and c are respectively: -

(3) 1 (4) None of these (1) LT–2, L and T (2) L, T, and L T2
(3) LT2, LT and L (4) L, LT, L and T2
dx
33. Evalute  3
x
-
41. If E and G respectively denote energy and
3 −2/3 2 −3/2 E
(1) x +c (2) x +c gravitational constant, then has the dimensions
2 3 G
2 3/2 3 2/3 of :
(3) x +c (4) x +c
3 2 (1) [M2][L–1][T0] (2) [M][L–1][T–1]
(3) [M][L0][T0] (4) [M2][L–2][T–1]
d2 y
34. If y = sin x + cos x then is :- 42. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are
dx 2
chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find
(1) sin x – cos x (2) cos x – sin x
the dimensions of energy.
(3) –sin x – cos x (4) None of these
(1) [F][A][T] (2) [F][A][T2]
(3) [F][A][T–1] (4) [F][A–1][T]
35. If the unit of length is micrometre and unit of time
is microsecond, the unit of velocity will be :-  /4
(1) 100 m/s
(3) micrometer/s
(2) 10 m/s
(4) m/s
43. The value of  (cos x − sin x)dx −
0

(1) 2 −1 (2) 2 +1
36. For 10(at + 3), the dimensions of a is :- (3) 1− 2 (4) 1+ 2
(1) M0L0T0 (2) M0L0T1
(3) M0L0T–1 (4) None of these
 cos
2
44. xdx -

37. A wave is represented by x sin 2x x sin 2x

(1) + +c (2) + +c
y = a sin (At – Bx + C) 2 4 2 2
where A, B, C are constants. The dimensions of A, (3) −2sin x + c (4) 2sin x + c
B, C are
(1) T–1, L, M0L0L0 (2) T–1, L–1, M0L0L0 1
45. The dimensions of 0 E 3 , where, is permittivity
(3) T, L, M (4) T–1, L–1, M–1 2
of free space and E is electric field, is :-
38. Which of the following is incorrect? (1) [MLT–1] (2) [ML2T–2]
–1 –2
(1) All derived quantities may be represented (3) [ML T ] (4) [ML2T–1]
dimensionally in terms of the base quantities
(2) A base quantity cannot be represented 46. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given
dimensionally in terms of other base by MaLbTc, then the physical quantity will be:
quantities (1) Force if a = 0, b = –1, c = –2
(3) The dimension of a derived quantity ls never (2) Pressure if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2
zero in any base quantity
(3) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = –1
(4) The dimension of a base quantity in other
(4) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2
base quantities is always zero.

1
39. Units of length, velocity and force are doubled. 47. If S = ft 3 , ‘f' has the dimensions of - (S =
3
Which of the following is correct?
distance, t = time)
(1) Unit of time is doubled
(1) [M0L–1T3] (2) [M1L1T–3]
(2) Unit of mass is doubled
(3) [M0L1T–3] (4) [M0L–1T–3]
(3) Unit of momentum is doubled
(4) Unit of energy is doubled

[ 4]
  ( 2x )
− x 2 + 1 dx - 50. It is known that the time of revolution T of a satellite
3
48. Integrate
around the earth depends on the universal
(1) 6x – 2x + c (2) 6x2 – 2x + c gravitational constant G, the mass of the earth M,
x 4 x3 and the radius of the circular orbit R. Obtain an
(3) − +x+c (4) None of these expression for T using dimensional analysis,
2 3
R3 R2
(1) 2 (2) 2
49. A system has basic dimensions as density [D], GM GM
velocity [V] and area [A]. The dimensional
R3 R2
representation of force in this system is :- (3) 2 (4) 2
GM 2 GM 2
(1) AV2D (2) A2VD
(3) AVD2 (4) AVD

[ 5]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 61. Which of the following contains the largest mass of
51. 3–
Number of moles of electrons in 4.2gm of N ion hydrogen atoms?
(nitride ion) is (1) 5.0 moles C2H2O4 (2) 1.1 moles C3H8O3
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1.5 moles C6H8O6 (4) 4.0 moles C2H4O2
(3) 1.5 (4) 4.2
62. The volume of a drop of water is 0.0018 mL then
52. Calculate number of electrons present in 9.5 g of the number of water molecules present in two drop
PO34− of water at room temperature is:
(1) 6 (2) 5 NA (1) 12.046 × 1019 (2) 1.084 × 1018
(3) 0.1 NA (4) 4.7 NA (3) 4.84 × 1017 (4) 6.023 × 1023

53. What is the number of moles of O-atom in 126 amu 63. The unit of intensity is
of HNO3 ?
(1) Mole (2) kg
2
(1) 2 (2) (3) Candela (4) Ampere
NA
6
(3) 6 (4) 64. Name the particles which make up matter?
NA
(1) Non-metals (2) Metals
(3) Metalloids (4) Atoms
54. What is the charge of 96 amu of S2– ?
(1) 2C (2) 3.2 × 10–19 C 65. What is matter?
(3) 9.6 × 10–19 C (4) 6C
(1) Anything which has mass but does not
occupies space
55. A sample of sodium has a mass of 46 g. What is the
(2) Anything which has mass and occupies space
mass of the same number of calcium atoms as
sodium atoms present in given sample ? (3) Anything which neither has mass nor
(1) 46 g (2) 20 g occupies space
(3) 40 g (4) 80 g (4) Anything which does not have mass but it
occupies space
56. The total no. of neutrons present in 54 mL H20 (l)
are: 66. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) 3 NA (2) 30 NA (1) Liquids have definite volume but not the
(3) 24 NA (4) none of these definite shape
(2) Gases have neither definite volume nor
57. Total no. of electrons present in 48 g Mg2+ are: definite shape
(1) 24 NA (2) 2 NA (3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 20 NA (4) none of these (4) None of the above

58. Volume occupied by 4.4 gm of CO2 at STP is 67. 44.8 L of SO2(g) weight how much gram at STP
(1) 22.4 L (2) 2.24 L (1) 128 gm (2) 95 gm
(3) 0.224 L (4) 0.1 L (3) 24 gm (4) 50 gm

59. Aspirin has the formula C9H8O4. How many atoms 68. Chlorine atom differs from chloride ions in the
of oxygen are there in a tablet weighing 360 mg? number of
(1) 1.204 × 1023 (2) 1.08 × 1022 (1) Proton
(3) 1.204 × 1024 (4) 4.81 × 1021 (2) Neutron
(3) Electrons
60. 20 g of an ideal gas contains only atoms of S and O (4) Protons and electrons
occupies 5.6 L at 1 atm and 273 K. What is the mol.
wt. of gas ?
(1) 64 (2) 80
(3) 96 (4) None of these
[ 6]
69. The nitrogen atom has 7 protons and 7 electrons, 78. The % of copper and oxygen in samples of CuO
the nitride ion (N3– ) will have obtained by different methods were found to be
(1) 7 protons and 10 electrons same. This proves the law of:
(2) 4 protons and 7 electrons (1) Constant Proportion
(3) 4 protons and 10 electrons (2) Reciprocal Proportion
(4) 10 protons and 7 electrons (3) Multiple Proportion
(4) Conservation of mass.
70. The modern atomic weight scale is based on
(1) 12C (2) 16O 79. “The total mass of reactants is always equal to the
(3) 1H (4) 13C total mass of product in a chemical reaction”. This
statement is known as:
(1) Law of conservation of mass
71. One ‘u’ stands for the mass of
(2) Law of definite proportions
(1) An atom of carbon-12
(3) Law of equivalent weights
(2) 1/12th of carbon-12
(4) Law of combining masses
(3) 1/12th of hydrogen atom
(4) One atom of any of the elements
80. Law of multiple proportions illustrated by the two
compounds:
72. Which property of an element is always a whole
(1) Sodium chloride and sodium bromide
number?
(2) Ordinary water and heavy water
(1) Atomic weight (2) Equivalent weight
(3) Caustic soda-and caustic potash
(3) Atomic number (4) Atomic volume
(4) Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide
73. The number of particles present in 1 mol of nitrogen
atom are 81. Hydrogen and oxygen combine to form H2O2 and
H2O containing 5.93% and 11.2% hydrogen
(1) 6.022 × 1025 (2) 6.022 × 1024
respectively, the data illustrates:
(3) 6.022 × 1023 (4) 6.022 × 1022
(1) Law of conservation of mass
(2) Law of Constant proportions
74. The ratio between the neutrons in C and Si with
(3) Law of reciprocal proportions
respect to atomic masses 12 and 28 is (atomic
number of C is 6 and of Si is 14) (4) Law of multiple proportions
(1) 2:3 (2) 3:2
(3) 3:7 (4) 7:3 82. Insulin contains 3.4% sulphur by mass. What will
be the minimum molecular weight of insulin?
75. Calculate weight occupied by 12.04 × 1024 (1) 941.17 u (2) 1884 u
molecules of N2(g) (3) 941 u (4) 976 u
(1) 208 g (2) 560 gm
(3) 112 gm (4) 200 gm 83. Boron has two isotopes B10 and B11 whose relative
abundances are 20% and 80% respectively Atomic
weight of Boron is:
76. The molecular weight of SO24− is (1) 10 (2) 11
(1) 192 u (2) 48 u (3) 10.5 (4) 10.8
(3) 96 u (4) 24 u
84. Avogadro’s number is the number of molecules
77. The molar mass of ferrous sulphate (FeSO4.7H20) is present in:
(molar atomic mass of Fe = 56 g, S = 32g, O = 16 g, (1) 1 g of molecule
H = 1g) (2) l atom of molecule
(1) 152gm (2) 278gm (3) gram molecular mass
(3) 137gm (4) None of these (4) 1 litre of molecule

85. One amu is equal to:

(1) 1.66 × 10–8 g (2) 1.66 × 10–4 g
(3) 1.66 × 10–16 g (4) 1.66 × 10–24 g
[ 7]
86. 1 g-atom of nitrogen represents: 94. Which of the following gases contain the same
(1) 6.02 × 1023 N2 molecules number of molecules as that of 16 grams of
(2) 22.4 L of N2 at S.T.P oxygen?
(3) 11.2 L of N2 at S.T.P (1) 16 gm of O2 (2) 32 grams of SO2
(4) 28 g of nitrogen (3) 16 gm of SO2 (4) All of these

87. Which of the following has the highest mass? 95. 60 g of a compound on analysis gave 24.g C,4 H
and 32 g O. The empirical formula of the
(1) 20 g of sulphur
compound is:
(2) 4 mol of carbon dioxide
(1) C2H4O2 (2) C2H2O2
(3) 12 × 1074 atoms of hydrogen
(3) CH4O2 (4) CH2O
(4) 11.2 L of helium at N.T.P.

96. A compound made of two elements A and B are

88. 5.6 L of a gas at S.T.P. weights equal to 8 g. The
found to contain 25% A (at mass 12.5) and 75% B
vapour density of gas is:
(at mass 37.5).
(1) 32 (2) 16
The simplest formula of the compound is:
(3) 8 (4) 40
(1) AB (2) AB2
(3) AB3 (4) A3B
89. One atom of an element weights 1.8 × 10–22 g, its
97. Simplest formula of compound containing 50%
atomic mass is
of element X (at mass 10) and 50% of element
(1) 29.9 g (2) 18 g Y (at mass 20) is:
(3) 108.36 g (4) 154 g (1) XY (2) X2Y
(3) XY2 (4) X2Y3
90. After chemical reaction, the total mass of reactant
and products 98. The vapour density of gas A is four times that of B.
(1) Is always increased If molecular mass of B is M, then molecular mass
(2) Is always decreased of A is:
(3) Is not changed (1) M (2) 4 M
(4) Is always less or more M
(3) (4) 2 M
4
91. The total number of electrons in 1.6 g of CH2 to that
in 1.8 g of H2O is: 99. A metal nitride M, N, contains 28% of nitrogen by
(1) Same (2) One half weight. The molecular formula of metal nitride is
(3) One fourth (4) Double M3N2. What is the atomic mass of metal M is
(1) 24 (2) 54
92. One mole of nitrogen gas has volume equal to: (3) 9 (4) 87.62
(1) 1 litre of nitrogen at 8.T.P.
(2) 32 litre of nitrogen at S.T.P. 100. Find number of electrons 32 gm of oxygen gas
(3) 22.4 litre of nitrogen at S.T.P. (1) 16 NA (2) 32 NA
(4) 11.2 litre of nitrogen at S.T.P. (3) 48 NA (4) None of these

93. 10 grams of each O2, N2, and Cl2 are kept in three
bottles. The correct order of arrangement of bottles
containing decreasing number of molecules.
(1) O2, N2, Cl2 (2) Cl2, N2, O2
(3) Cl2, O2, N2 (4) N2, O2, Cl2

[ 8]
 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION – A 108. In each cheek cell, there is a dense membrane
101. Which of the following organisms are not bound structure which contains chromosome. This
composed of cells? structure is
(1) Amoeba (2) Paramecium (1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Euglena (4) None of these
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Nucleus
102. Unicellular organisms are not capable of (4) Mitochondria
(1) Independent existence
(2) Performing essential functions of life 109. What does a nucleus of a typical animal cell
(3) Both (a) and (b) contain?
(4) None of these (1) Chromosomes (2) Genes
(3) DNA (4) All of these
103. Who was the first one to see a live cell?
(1) Robert Hook (2) Leeuwenhoek 110. What is the main arena of cellular activities in
(3) Robert Brown (4) None of these eukaryotic cells?
(1) Nucleus
104. Who was the German botanist to study the different (2) Cytoplasm
cells forming plant tissues? (3) Plasma membrane
(1) Schleiden (2) Schwann (4) All of these
(3) Rudolf Virchow (4) None of these
111. In an eukaryotic cell, where does the various
105. In which year Matthias Schleiden examined a large chemical reactions occur to keep the cell in living
number of plants and observed that all plants are state?
composed of different kinds of cells which form (1) Nucleus (2) Cytoplasm
the tissues of the plant? (3) Mitochondria (4) All of these
(1) 1638 (2) 1738
(3) 1838 (4) 1938 112. Where are ribosomes found in eukaryotic cells?
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Mitochondria
106. What is the outer covering of typical plant cell? (3) Chloroplast (4) All of these
(1) Cell wall internally, plasma membrane
externally
113. How many of the following are membrane
(2) Plasma membrane externally bound organelles?
(3) Cell wall internally Lysosomes, Ribosomes, Mitochondria,
(4) Cell wall externally, plasma membrane Vacuoles
internally (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 0
107. Identify the A, B, C and D in the given figure.
114. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) Smallest cell → Mycoplasma
(2) Smallest cell → Bacteria
(3) Largest single cell → Ostrich’s egg
(1) A–WBC, B–Mesophyll cell, C–RBC, D– (4) None of these
Columnar Epithelial cells
(2) A–Columnar epithelial cells, B–Mesophyll 115. Which of the following is incorrect matching?
cell, C–WBC, D–RBC (1) Round and biconcave – RBC
(3) A–Mesophyll cell, B–WBC, C–Columnar (2) Amoeboid – WBC
epithelial cells, D–WBC (3) Elongated – Tracheid
(4) A–RBC, B–Columnar epithelial cells, C– (4) Long and narrow - Nerve cells
Mesophyll Cell, D–WBC

[ 9]
116. Which of the following are long and narrow cells? 124. A thin, filamentous extension of cell wall required
(1) Nerve cells for a bacterial motility is called _________.
(2) WBC (1) Hook (2) Flagella
(3) Columnar epithelial cells (3) Tail (4) Mesosome
(4) Tracheid
125. Which of the following is not a part of bacteria
117. What is true for a prokaryotic cell? flagellum?
(1) They are smaller in size (1) Filament (2) Hook
(2) Multiply much rapidly than eukaryotes (3) Basal body (4) None of the above
(3) Greatly vary in shape and size
(4) All of these 126. What is the size of ribosomes?
(1) 10-20 μm (2) 15-20 nm
118. Which is the common organelles that are found in (3) 10-20 nm (4) 15-20 cm
both eukaryotes and prokaryote?
(1) Lysosome (2) Ribosome 127. Gas vacuoles are found in
(3) Vacuole (4) Mitochondria (1) Blue-green bacteria
(2) Purple bacteria
119. Select the incorrect statement: (3) Green photosynthetic bacteria
(1) Glycocalyx differs in composition and (4) All of these
thickness among different bacteria.
(2) All organism are made of cells or aggregates 128. Which of the following does not belong to
of cells. eukaryote?
(3) ER helps in synthesis of proteins, (1) Protists (2) Bacteria
lipoproteins and glycogen. (3) Fungi (4) All of these
(4) Cells of all living organisms have nucleus.
129. The lipid component of plasma membrane will be
120. A bacterial cell was taken and gram staining was mainly constituted of
done and observed that it did not take up gram stain (1) Glycolipids
such a bacteria is known as (2) Glycogen
(1) Gram positive (3) Phosphoglycerides
(2) Gram negative (4) All of these
(3) Non-effective to gram stain
(4) None of these 130. In which year Schwann studied different types of
animal cells?
121. What is a thick, tough, layer of glycocalyx known (1) 1839 (2) 1739
as? (3) 1639 (4) 1938
(1) Slime layer (2) Capsule
(3) Cell wall (4) Cell envelope 131. Which of the following are not the component of
plasma membrane?
122. Which of the following helps in respiration, (1) Sugar (2) Protein
secretion process, and increase the surface area for (3) Cholesterol (4) None of these
enzymatic content?
(1) Plasma membrane (2) Cell wall
132. The most important function of plasma membrane
(3) Mesosomes (4) Glycocalyx layer is that it
(1) Divides the cell
123. In which organisms the pigment containing (2) Gives shape to the cell
chromatophores are found?
(3) Transports the molecules across
(1) Algae (2) Cyanobacteria
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Green algae (4) Amoeba

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133. Movement of water across the plasma membrane 141. How many of the following are not included in
occurs by endomembrane system?
(1) Passive transport (2) Osmosis Endoplasmic Reticulum, Golgi complex,
(3) Active transport (4) All of these Lysosome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Vacuoles,
Peroxisomes
134. In which kind of transport, the molecules will go (1) 2 (2) 3
against the concentration gradient? (3) 4 (4) 5
(1) Passive transport
(2) Active transport 142. What is the network of tiny tubular structures
(3) Facilitated transport scattered in cytoplasm as seen from electron
microscope?
(4) All of these
(1) Golgi complex (2) Microtubules
(3) Endoplasmic (4) Mitochondria
135. In which of the following does active transport take
place?
(1) Pumps 143. What indicates A in the figure?
(2) Carrier protein transport
(3) Ion channels
(4) Diffusion

SECTION-B

136. Which of the following organisms have cell wall

made up of cellulose, hemicelluloses, pectins and (1) Cisternae (2) Nuclear pore
proteins? (3) Crista (4) Thylakoid
(1) Fungi (2) Plants
(3) Algae (4) All of these 144. Which side in a cell does luminal and extra luminal
compartments are situated respectively?
137. Which of the following wall is capable of growth (1) Cytoplasm, inside ER
in a plant cell? (2) Inside ER, cytoplasm
(1) Primary wall (2) Secondary wall (3) cytoplasm, plasma membrane
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Middle lamella (4) Nucleus, cytoplasm

138. What is the component of middle lamella that 145. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is called so due to
binds neighbouring cells together? the presence of
(1) Calcium phosphate (1) Lysosome (2) Golgi granules
(2) Sodium pectate (3) Ribosomes (4) Protein granules
(3) Calcium pectate
(4) Sodium phosphate 146. RER is frequently seen in cells associated with
frequent synthesis and secretion of
139. A structure that is traversing the middle lamella (1) Lipid (2) Glucose
and connecting the cytoplasm of neighbouring (3) Protein (4) All of these
cells is called
(1) Primary wall junction
(2) Plasmodesmata 147. SER is frequently associated with the synthesis of
(3) Desmosomes (1) Lipid (2) Glucose
(4) Secondary wall (3) Protein (4) All of these

140. ‘Cell wall is a unique structure of plant cells’. Who 148. What is the diameter of cisternae?
concluded this? (1) 0.5 to 1 μm (2) 0.5 to 1 mm
(1) Schleiden (2) Schwann (3) 0.5 to 2 μm (4) 5 to 11 μm
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

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149. Cis and trans face of golgi body are ____ and ____ 150. Which face of golgi apparatus receives the
respectively. materials packaged in the form of vesicles from the
(1) Convex, Concave ER?
(2) Concave, Convex (1) Cis (2) Trans
(3) Convex, Convex (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
(4) Concave, Concave

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 SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION – A 159. Read the following (A - D) statements :-
151. Epithelial tissue origined from :- (A) Areolar tissue present beneath the skin
(1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm (B) Adipose tissue is a type of dense
(3) Mesoderm (4) All of these connective tissue
(C) Tendons attach one bone to another
152. Columnar Epithelium with microvilli or Brush (D) Ligaments attach skeletal muscles to bones
Border is present in :- How many of the above statements are incorrect:-
(1) Gall Bladder (2) Stomach (1) Four (2) Three
(3) Appendix (4) Pharynx (3) Two (4) One

153. The internal lining of blood vessels is called as :- 160. Tendons and ligaments are specialized types of
(1) Mesothelium (1) Nervous tissue
(2) Endothelium (2) Epithelial tissue
(3) Pavement Epithelium (3) Muscular tissue
(4) Stratified Epithelium (4) Fibrous connective tissue

154. Tissue can be best explained as 161. Which is the structure act as sound receptor in
(1) group of similar cell along with cockroach :-
intercellular substances performing (1) Anal style (2) Anal cerci
different functions (3) Antenna (4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) group of different cell without intercellular
substances performing different functions 162. Nymph differs from adult cockroach in–
(3) group of similar cell along with (1) Absence of wings
intercellular substances performing
(2) Smaller in size
specific functions
(3) Absence of mature reproductive organs
(4) group of different cell without intercellular
(4) All of these
substances performing specific functions

163. In male cockroach, outermost layer of

155. Histeocytes destroy bacteria by :-
spematophore is secreted by–
(1) Phagocytosis
(1) Ejaculatory duct, during copulation
(2) Producing Antitoxins
(2) Phallic gland, during copulation
(3) Producing antibodies
(3) Mushroom gland, during copulation
(4) Producing antigen
(4) Conglobate gland, after copulation

156. Type of junction helps to stop substance from

164. Physiologically the heart of cockroach is :
leaking across a tissue;
(1) Neurogenic (2) myogenic
(1) Tight junction (2) Gap junction
(3) Epigenic (4) Agenic
(3) Adhering junction (4) None of these

165. Common Indian bull frog is :-

157. Which one is a apocrine gland :-
(1) Rana tigrina (2) Rana essulenta
(1) Oil gland (2) Mammary gland
(3) Rana silvatica (4) Rana goliat
(3) Goblet cell (4) Parotid gland

158. Haversian canal is found in the bone of : 166. The third eyelid in frog is called :-
(1) Mammals (2) Reptiles (1) Pineal eye
(3) Aves (4) Pices (2) Lower eyelid
(3) Nictitating membrane
(4) Upper eyelid

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167. Kidneys in adult frog are :- 176. Epiphysis & Diaphysis of bone is :-
(1) Pronephric (2) Metanephric (1) End and shaft of long bone respectively
(3) Mesonephric (4) All of these (2) Shaft & end of long bone respectively
(3) Head & neck of long bone
168. In frogs, urine is temporarily stored in (4) Spongy bone only
(1) Kidneys (2) Urinary bladder
(3) Ureters (4) Cloaca 177. Which protein is present in largest amount in
human body :-
169. Alimentary canal in frog terminates into (1) Collagen (2) Elastin
(1) Cloaca (2) Stomach (3) Albumin (4) Keratin
(3) Ileum (4) Duodenum
178. Male cockroach and female cockroach can be
170. Goblet cells are modification of differentiated by :
(1) Columnar cell (2) Squamous cell (1) Ocelli (2) Anal cerci
(3) Cuboidal cell (4) neuron cell (3) Anal styles (4) Male rabbit

171. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body 179. Assertion :- Blood in cockroach is colourless
are joined by : with no respiratory pigment.
(1) Muscular tissue Reason :- Gaseous exchange occurs through
diffusion in haemolymph.
(2) Arthrodial membrane
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True &the
(3) Cartilage
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(4) Cementing glue Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
172. Gastric caeca are present at _. Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1) Junction of fore gut and midgut Assertion.
(2) Foregut (3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) Hindgut (4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
(4) Junction of midgut and Hindgut
180. Assertion :- Cockroach undergoes many
173. Excretory product of frog is :- moulting in their development stages.
(1) Urea (2) Ammonia Reason :- Cockroach exhibits gradual
(3) Uric acid (4) Amino acids metamorphosis.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True &the
174. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms Reason is a correct explanation of the
in male frog :- Assertion.
(1) Testes - Vasa efferentia -Kidney - Seminal (2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
vesicle - Urinogenital duct - Cloaca Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Testes - Vasa efferentia - Bidder's canal -
Ureter - Cloaca (3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) Testes - Vasa efferentia - Kidney - Bidder's (4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
canal - Urinogenital duct - Cloaca
(4) Testes - Bidder's canal - Kidney - Vasa 181. Which of the following does not help in excretion
efferentia - Urinogenital duct - Cloaca in Periplaneta Americana?
(1) Fat body (2) Urecose glands
175. Major Inorganic components of Bone :- (3) Nephrocytes (4) None of these
(1) Calcium phosphate
(2) Calcium carbonate 182. The type of cartilage present in the epiglottis,
(3) Sodium hydroxide pinna and tip of the nose is:
(4) Potassium hydroxide (1) Elastic (2) Hyaline
(3) Fibrous (4) Calcified

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183. In cockroach, the formation of ootheca is by the 189. The inner layer of gizzard of cockroach is
secretions of: covered by :
(1) Prothoracic glands of male (1) By cuticle
(2) Prothoracic glands of female (2) By mucous membrane
(3) Colleterial glands of male (3) By endoepithelium
(4) Colleterial glands of female (4) By peritrophic membrane

184. Which of the following animal is correctly 190. Identify the correct matching.
matched to their corresponding respiratory
organ?
(1) Cockroach - Open circulatory system with
hemoglobin
(2) Cockroach - Three pairs of spiracles in
each thorax
(3) Frog in water - Skin and lungs (1) A-Cartilage, P-Elastic fibers
(4) Frog on land - Skin, buccal cavity, lungs (2) A-Bone, Q-Osteocyte
185. Hindlimbs ends in _______ digits fore limbs ends (3) B-Cartilage, R-Chondrocyte
in _______ digits
(4) B-Bone, R-Haversian canal
(1) five; four (2) six; four
(3) four; five (4) five; five

191. Identify the correct option with respect to the

figures (A & B) given below.
SECTION – B

186. Perichondrium is :-
(1) Adipose tissue
(2) White fibrous connective tissue
(3) Yellow fibrous connective tissue (1) A: Provide protection against chemical and
(4) Areolar connective tissue mechanical stresses: Stomach
(2) A: Secrete mucus, saliva, earwax, oil,
187. Read the given statements about frogs and find milk, digestive enzymes: Stomach
the incorrect one. (3) B: Found in ducts of glands: Secretion and
(1) The skin of frog is smooth and slippery absorption
(2) Frogs drink water to keep their body (4) B: Mainly present in the inner surface of
hydrated hollow organs: Secretion and absorption
(3) Dorsal side of body is olive green with
dark irregular spots. 192. Basement membrane is composed of :-
(4) Body is divisible into head and trunk (1) Hyaluronic Acid + glycoproteins
(2) Only mucopolysacharides
188. Select the false statement with respect to (3) Endodermal cells
epithelial tissue. (4) Epidermal cells
(1) It has a free surface
(2) It faces body fluids sometimes 193. Cockroach can digest _________.
(3) It faces the external environment (1) Protein (2) Carbohydrate
sometimes (3) Fat (4) All of them
(4) it sometimes forms middle structure part of
organs 194. Function of arthroidial membrane is _______.
(1) Circulation
(2) Respiration
(3) Joining/Articulation
(4) Excretion

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195. Given below are two statements 197. Glass like cartilage is :-
Statement-I : Goblet cells are unicellular glands (1) Hyaline cartilage (2) Fibro cartilage
Statement-II : Earwax is the secretion of (3) Calcified cartilage (4) Elastic cartilage
exocrine gland. In the light of the above 198. Our heart consists of :-
statements, choose the correct answer from the (i) Epithelial tissue (ii) Connective tissue
options given below;
(iii) Muscular tissue (iv) Neural tissue
(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is
(1) Only ii (2) i & iii only
false
(3) ii, iii & iv only (4) All of these
(2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is
true
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 199. Vasa-efferentia in male frog opens into
true (1) Vas deferens
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (2) Bidder's canal
false. (3) Cloaca
(4) Urinogenital duct
196. Match the List-I and List II find the correct
combination. 200. Which type of mouth parts are present in
List-I List-II cockroach ?
A Skeletal muscles P Involuntary & (1) Lapping & chewing
unstriated (2) Siphoning
B Smooth muscles Q Voluntary & (3) Sucking and piercing
striated (4) Chewing and biting
C Cardiac muscles R Have
neurotransmitters
D Neurons S Involuntary &
striated

(1) A-(Q); B-(R); C-(P); D-(S)

(2) A-(Q); B-(P); C-(S); D-(R)
(3) A-(Q); B-(S); C-(P); D-(R)
(4) A-(S); B-(R); C-(P); D-(Q)

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