Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on Anesthetics
1. Which of the following is NOT a type of anesthesia?
A. General Anesthesia
B. Local Anesthesia
C. Regional Anesthesia
D. Peripheral Anesthesia
2. What is the primary goal of general anesthesia?
A. Pain relief
B. Induce unconsciousness
C. Muscle relaxation
D. All of the above
3. Which of these agents is commonly used as an intravenous anesthetic?
A. Halothane
B. Propofol
C. Nitrous Oxide
D. Sevoflurane
4. The potency of inhaled anesthetics is measured using:
A. ED50
B. Blood-Gas Partition Coefficient
C. Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC)
D. Therapeutic Index
5. Which of the following drugs has a rapid onset and a short duration due to
redistribution?
A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Thiopental
D. Etomidate
6. What is the primary mechanism of action of propofol?
A. NMDA receptor antagonist
B. Potentiates GABA-A receptor activity
C. Blocks voltage-gated sodium channels
D. Enhances glycine receptor activity
7. Which anesthetic is known for causing dissociative anesthesia?
A. Ketamine
B. Etomidate
C. Sevoflurane
D. Lidocaine
8. Which of the following is a contraindication for ketamine use?
A. Intracranial hypertension
B. Hypotension
C. Severe hepatic dysfunction
D. Seizure disorders
9. Which inhalational anesthetic is associated with malignant hyperthermia?
A. Isoflurane
B. Nitrous Oxide
C. Sevoflurane
D. Halothane
10. What is the onset time for thiopental?
A. 10-20 seconds
B. 30-60 seconds
C. 2-5 minutes
D. 5-10 minutes
11. Which anesthetic has antiemetic properties?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Isoflurane
D. Thiopental
12. What factor decreases the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)?
A. Hypothermia
B. Hyperthermia
C. Younger age
D. High altitude
13. Which of the following is a benefit of balanced anesthesia?
A. Reduced use of individual drugs
B. Enhanced safety profile
C. Improved patient outcomes
D. All of the above
14. Which local anesthetic is an ester-linked compound?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Procaine
D. Ropivacaine
15. What is the primary adverse effect of bupivacaine?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Cardiotoxicity
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Neurotoxicity
16. What mechanism underlies the action of local anesthetics?
A. NMDA receptor inhibition
B. Potentiation of GABA-A receptors
C. Blocking voltage-gated sodium channels
D. Enhancing serotonin release
17. Which of the following drugs is metabolized by plasma cholinesterases?
A. Procaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Ropivacaine
18. Nitrous oxide is contraindicated in:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Seizure disorders
C. Hepatic dysfunction
D. Hyperthermia
19. What is the elimination route of isoflurane?
A. Renal
B. Hepatic
C. Exhalation
D. Biliary
20. Which anesthetic agent is most suitable for hemodynamically unstable patients?
A. Etomidate
B. Ketamine
C. Propofol
D. Thiopental
21. Which of the following increases the potency of inhaled anesthetics?
A. High MAC
B. Low MAC
C. High blood-gas partition coefficient
D. Low oil-gas partition coefficient
22. Which drug interaction is common with lidocaine?
A. CYP450 inhibitors increase toxicity
B. CYP450 inducers increase efficacy
C. Beta-blockers reduce action
D. NSAIDs increase duration
23. The clinical advantage of halothane includes:
A. Non-irritating to airways
B. Minimal cardiac effects
C. Low hepatotoxicity
D. Rapid metabolism
24. Which local anesthetic is most cardiotoxic?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Procaine
D. Ropivacaine
25. The use of vasoconstrictors with local anesthetics results in:
A. Shortened duration of action
B. Reduced systemic absorption
C. Increased toxicity
D. Reduced potency
26. Which anesthetic has a blood-gas partition coefficient of 0.47?
A. Halothane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Nitrous Oxide
D. Isoflurane
27. The addition of epinephrine to local anesthetics:
A. Reduces systemic toxicity
B. Increases duration of action
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
28. Which of these anesthetics has the slowest onset of action?
A. Lidocaine
B. Procaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Ropivacaine
29. Etomidate’s major advantage is:
A. Rapid metabolism
B. Minimal cardiovascular effects
C. Potent analgesic effect
D. Non-depressive on adrenal function
30. What adverse effect is specific to halothane?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Cardiotoxicity
D. Neurotoxicity
31. A common use of lidocaine includes:
A. General anesthesia
B. Local infiltration anesthesia
C. Induction of labor
D. Sedation in ICU
32. Sevoflurane’s pharmacokinetic advantage is:
A. Slow onset and recovery
B. Rapid onset and recovery
C. Long duration
D. Low metabolism
33. Ketamine’s advantage in emergency surgery is due to:
A. Stable hemodynamic profile
B. Potent anti-inflammatory effect
C. Rapid hepatic clearance
D. Minimal sedation
34. Which local anesthetic has the longest duration of action?
A. Lidocaine
B. Procaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Ropivacaine
35. Isoflurane primarily undergoes elimination via:
A. Hepatic metabolism
B. Renal excretion
C. Exhalation
D. Biliary excretion
36. Propofol infusion syndrome includes all EXCEPT:
A. Hyperlipidemia
B. Cardiac failure
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Metabolic acidosis
37. Which anesthetic is preferred for pediatric patients due to non-irritating
properties?
A. Sevoflurane
B. Halothane
C. Isoflurane
D. Nitrous Oxide
38. Which drug is a weak anesthetic but a strong analgesic?
A. Nitrous Oxide
B. Sevoflurane
C. Propofol
D. Etomidate
39. The rapid redistribution of thiopental leads to:
A. Long duration of action
B. Short duration of action
C. Enhanced metabolism
D. Reduced efficacy
40. What is the mechanism of action of inhalational anesthetics?
A. NMDA receptor blockade
B. GABA receptor potentiation
C. Sodium channel blockade
D. Potassium channel activation
41. Which of the following factors influences the minimum alveolar concentration
(MAC)?
A. Age
B. Temperature
C. Concurrent drug use
D. All of the above
42. An anesthetic with a high MAC is:
A. More potent
B. Less potent
C. Faster acting
D. Slower acting
43. Which intravenous anesthetic is preferred for hemodynamically unstable
patients?
A. Ketamine
B. Propofol
C. Thiopental
D. Etomidate
44. What is a clinical advantage of propofol?
A. Anti-inflammatory effects
B. Smooth induction and recovery
C. Prolonged action
D. Minimal CNS depression
45. Which drug is contraindicated in malignant hyperthermia?
A. Halothane
B. Nitrous Oxide
C. Lidocaine
D. Ketamine
46. Which anesthetic agent is known for minimal postoperative nausea and vomiting?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Sevoflurane
D. Thiopental
47. The duration of action for lidocaine without epinephrine is:
A. 1-2 hours
B. 30 minutes
C. 2-4 hours
D. 4-6 hours
48. Which local anesthetic has a slower onset but longer duration?
A. Lidocaine
B. Procaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Ropivacaine
49. What is the adverse effect of nitrous oxide when used chronically?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Cardiotoxicity
50. Which anesthetic agent is commonly used for outpatient surgical procedures?
A. Sevoflurane
B. Halothane
C. Isoflurane
D. Propofol
51. Which inhalational anesthetic is most suitable for induction in pediatric patients?
A. Sevoflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Halothane
D. Nitrous Oxide
52. Which of the following anesthetics is known to inhibit methionine synthase?
A. Halothane
B. Nitrous Oxide
C. Isoflurane
D. Sevoflurane
53. What is the primary elimination route for desflurane?
A. Hepatic
B. Renal
C. Exhalation
D. Biliary
54. Which local anesthetic is least likely to cause systemic toxicity?
A. Lidocaine
B. Procaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Ropivacaine
55. What is a common side effect of etomidate during induction?
A. Hypotension
B. Myoclonus
C. Hypertension
D. Hallucinations
56. What effect does ketamine have on the cardiovascular system?
A. Depresses myocardial function
B. Increases heart rate and blood pressure
C. Causes bradycardia
D. None of the above
57. Which local anesthetic is associated with methemoglobinemia at high doses?
A. Bupivacaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Procaine
58. The duration of action of ropivacaine compared to bupivacaine is:
A. Longer
B. Shorter
C. Similar
D. Dose-dependent
59. What adverse effect is associated with the use of high doses of thiopental?
A. Respiratory depression
B. Hypertension
C. Seizures
D. Tachycardia
60. What factor increases the risk of propofol infusion syndrome?
A. Prolonged use at high doses
B. Use in elderly patients
C. Combination with benzodiazepines
D. Use in hypovolemic patients
61. Which anesthetic has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient?
A. Nitrous Oxide
B. Isoflurane
C. Halothane
D. Sevoflurane
62. Lidocaine toxicity primarily affects which organ systems?
A. Renal and hepatic
B. CNS and cardiovascular
C. Pulmonary and renal
D. Gastrointestinal and hepatic
63. Which anesthetic agent is considered safe for use in patients with asthma?
A. Halothane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. Propofol
64. The mechanism of action of etomidate involves:
A. Inhibition of NMDA receptors
B. Potentiation of GABA-A receptors
C. Sodium channel blockade
D. Dopamine receptor activation
65. What is a unique adverse effect of bupivacaine?
A. Allergic reactions
B. Severe cardiotoxicity
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Nephrotoxicity
66. The recovery from inhalational anesthetics is primarily due to:
A. Renal clearance
B. Redistribution from the brain
C. Hepatic metabolism
D. Respiratory exhalation
67. Which inhaled anesthetic is preferred for rapid induction and emergence?
A. Desflurane
B. Halothane
C. Isoflurane
D. Sevoflurane
68. Which intravenous anesthetic has both anesthetic and analgesic properties?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Thiopental
D. Etomidate
69. A patient with a history of malignant hyperthermia requires anesthesia. Which
agent should be avoided?
A. Propofol
B. Halothane
C. Nitrous Oxide
D. Lidocaine
70. What is the primary use of ropivacaine in clinical practice?
A. General anesthesia
B. Local infiltration
C. Regional anesthesia
D. Conscious sedation
71. Which local anesthetic is metabolized by plasma esterases?
A. Procaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Ropivacaine
72. What is the primary indication for using nitrous oxide?
A. Induction of deep anesthesia
B. Supplemental analgesia
C. Muscle relaxation
D. Sedation in ICU
73. Which inhalational anesthetic is associated with fluoride nephrotoxicity?
A. Isoflurane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Desflurane
D. Halothane
74. What is the advantage of using regional anesthesia?
A. No systemic effects
B. Reduced postoperative pain
C. Faster recovery time
D. All of the above
75. Which intravenous anesthetic has the fastest onset?
A. Thiopental
B. Etomidate
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol
76. Which anesthetic agent should be avoided in patients with porphyria?
A. Ketamine
B. Thiopental
C. Propofol
D. Etomidate
77. What is the effect of volatile anesthetics on cerebral blood flow?
A. Decrease
B. No change
C. Increase
D. Depends on dose
Answers:
1. D
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. A
9. D
10. A
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. C
17. A
18. A
19. C
20. A
21. B
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. C
27. C
28. C
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. B
33. A
34. C
35. C
36. C
37. A
38. A
39. B
40. B
41. D
42. B
43. A
44. B
45. A
46. A
47. A
48. C
49. B
50. D
51. A
52. B
53. C
54. B
55. B
56. B
57. C
58. C
59. A
60. A
61. A
62. B
63. B
64. B
65. B
66. D
67. A
68. B
69. B
70. C
71. A
72. B
73. B
74. D
75. A
76. B
77. C
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