25-04-2025

7501CMD303031240030 MD

PHYSICS

1) The most penetrating radiation out of the following is

(1) X-rays
(2) β-rays
(3) α-particles
(4) γ-rays

2) Assertion: Induced emf will always occur whenever there is change in magnetic flux.
Reason: Current always induces whenever there is change in magnetic flux.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

3) A magnet of magnetic moment A-m2 is placed along the x-axis in a magnetic field
T. The torque acting on the magnet is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) On increase the temperature of a conductor its resistance increases because

(1) relaxation time decreases

(2) mass of the electrons increases
(3) electron density decreases
(4) None of the above

5) A bomb of mass 16 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 4 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of
the 12 kg mass is The kinetic energy of the other mass is :

(1) 144 J
(2) 288 J
(3) 192 J
(4) 96 J

6) If the origin of co-ordinate system lies at the centre of mass, the sum of the moments of the
masses of the system about the centre of mass :
(1) may be greater than zero
(2) may be less than zero
(3) may be equal to zero
(4) is always zero

7) A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the plates
of the capacitor are moved further apart by mean of insulating handles, then

(1) the charge on the capacitor increase

(2) the voltage across the plates decrease
(3) the capacitance increases
(4) the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor increase

8) Two cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their speeds
are such that they make complete circles in the same time t. The ratio of their centripetal
accelerations is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) If N/C and cm2 then find electric flux.

(1) 6 Nm2/C
(2) 6 × 10–2 Nm2/C
(3) 6 × 10–4 Nm2/C
(4) –4 × 10–4 N/C

10) Two insulated charged conducting spheres of radii 20cm and 15cm, respectively, and having an
equal charge of 10 C are connected by a copper wire and then they are separated. Then

(1) both the spheres will have the same charge of 10 C

(2) surface charge density on the on the 20 cm sphere will greater than that on the 15cm sphere
(3) surface charge density on the 15cm sphere will be greater than that on the 20cm sphere
(4) surface charge density on the two spheres will be equal

11) Assertion : When two coils are wound on each other, the mutual induction between the coils is
maximum.
Reason : Mutual induction does not depend on the orientation of the coils.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

12) Electromagnetic waves travel in a medium with speed of 1.5 × 108 ms–1. The relative
permeability of the medium is 2.0. The relative permittivity will be :

(1) 5
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 2

13) Which of the following statement about finding the unknown resistance by meter bridge is
incorrect :

(1) Wire of meter bridge has high resistivity & low temperature coefficient
(2) Obtaining null point near the middle of wire reduces systematic and random errors
If cross sectional area of meter bridge wire is increased, keeping its length same the accuracy
(3)
of bridge increases
If the length of meter bridge wire is increased keeping its cross sectional area constant, its
(4)
accuracy increases

14) In a capillary tube experiment, a vertical 30 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water
rise up to a height of 10 cm due to capillary action. If this experiment is conducted in a freely falling
elevator, the length of the water column becomes:-

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) zero

15) The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th its weight on the surface of earth
(radius R) is : -

(1) 4R
(2) 5R
(3) 15R
(4) 3R

16) Select only the correct statement in the following :-

(1) a body has a constant velocity and still it can have a varying speed.
(2) a body has a constant speed but it can have a varying velocity
(3) a body having constant speed cannot have any acceleration
(4) all of the above

17) A coin is released inside a lift at a height of 2m from the floor of the lift. The height of the lift is
10m. The lift is moving with an acceleration of 9 m/s2 downwards. The time after which the coin will
2
strike with the lift is (g=10m/s )
(1) 4s
(2) 2s

(3)

(4)

18) A particle of mass M and charge Q many with velocity describes a circular path of radius R
when subjected to a uniform transverse magnetic field B. The work done by the field when particle
completes full area

(1) BQv (2πR)

(2)

(3) Zero
(4) BQ(2πR)

19) If 5 gm of U235 is completely destroyed in a reactor, then energy released would be-

(1) 45 × 1013 J
(2) 45 × 1017 erg
(3) 15 × 1010 J
(4) 60 × 1015 J

20) In figure, P1Q1 and P2Q2, both are moving towards right with speed 5cm/sec. Resistance of each

wire is 2Ω. Then current through 19Ω resistor is-

(1) 0
(2) 0.1mA
(3) 0.2mA
(4) 0.3mA

21) Assertion : The photoelectrons produced by a monochromatic light beam incident on a metal
surface, have a spread in their kinetic energies.
Reason : The work function of the metal varies as a function of depth from the surface.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

22) A gun of mass 10kg fires 4 bullets per second. The mass of each bullet is 20 g and the velocity of
the bullet when it leaves the gun is 300 ms–1. The force required to hold the gun while firing is

(1) 6 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 24 N
(4) 240 N

23) In the nuclear reaction what does X stand for ?

(1) Electron
(2) Proton
(3) Neutron
(4) Neutrino

24) An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The
separation between the objective and the eye piece is 36 cms and the final image is formed at
infinity. The focal length f0 of the objective and fe of the eye piece are

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kgm2 about it's geometric axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm
about its axle. The torque an the geometric axis which stop the wheel's rotation in one minute would
be :-

(1)
Nm

(2)
Nm

(3)
Nm

(4)
Nm

26) Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disc) and C : (a circular ring), each have
the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed ω about their own
symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation :

(1) WC > WB > WA

(2) WA > WB > WC
(3) WB > WA > WC
(4) WA > WC > WB

27) In the given circuit A and B are inputs and Y is output then circuit equivalent to logic gate :

(1) NOR
(2) NAND
(3) XOR
(4) XNOR

28) Select the correct alternatives.

(I) Mobility of electrons is greater than holes.
(II) Effective mass of holes is greater than electrons.
(III) Current through p-type semiconductor is more.
(IV) Current through n-type semiconductor is more.

(1) I & II
(2) Only III
(3) Only IV
(4) I, II & IV

29) A simple pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion with a time period T. If the length of the
pendulum is increased by 21%, the increases in the time period of the pendulum of increased length
is:

(1) 10%
(2) 21%
(3) 30%
(4) 50%

30) Displacement-time equation of a particle executing SHM is x = A . Time taken by

the particle to go directly from to is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Statement-I : The mean free path of gas molecules is inversely proportional to square of
molecular diameter.
Statement-II : Average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to absolute
temperature of gas.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

32) x mole of monoatomic gas is mixed with y mole of diatomic gas such that γmix = , then-

(1) x > y
(2) y > x
(3) x = y
(4) 2x = y

33) Two sound producing bodies produce progressive waves given by :-

y1 = 5 sin (250 πt)
and y2 = 3 sin (260 πt)
A person situated nearby will hear :-

(1) five beats per second of maximum & minimum intensity ratio 4 : 3
(2) five beats per second of maximum & minimum intensity ratio 16 : 1
(3) ten beats per second of maximum & minimum intensity ratio 7 : 2
(4) ten beats per second of maximum & minimum intensity ratio 4 : 3

34) Two rain drops reach the earth with different terminal velocities having ratio
9 : 4. Then, the ratio of their volume is : -

(1) 3 : 2
(2) 4 : 9
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 27 : 8

35) The spheres of the same size are made of the same material but one is hollow and the other is
solid. They are heated to the same temperature then, which sphere will expand more?

(1) Hollow sphere

(2) Solid sphere
(3) Same expansion in both
(4) Cannot be predicted

36) Which of the following measurement is most precise?

(1) 2.00 mm
(2) 2.00 cm
(3) 2.00 m
(4) 2.00 km

37) Statement I : Mean absolute error is dimensionless quantity.

Statement II : Fractional error is dimensionless quantity.
Choose correct alternative :

(1) Statement I & statement II both are correct

(2) Statement I is correct & statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect & statement II is correct
(4) Statement I & statement II both are incorrect

38) A particle of mass M starting from rest undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired in
time T is V, the power delivered to the particle is :

(1) MV2/T
(2) MV2/2T2
(3) MV2/T2
(4) MV2/2T

39) Frequency of the wave is 50 Hz, length is 1 meter and mass of string is 10 gm. What is tension in
the string?

(1) 10 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 200 N

40) An analyser is inclined to a polariser at an angle of 30o. The intensity of light emerging from the

analyser is of that is incident on the polariser. Then n is equal to

(1) 4
(2) 4/3
(3) 8/3
(4) 1/4

41) Sources 1 and 2 emit light of different wavelength whereas sources 3 and 4 emit light of
different intensities. The coherence : -

(1) can be obtained by using sources 1 and 2.

(2) can be obtained by using sources 3 and 4.
(3) cannot be obtained by any of these sources.
 since contrast suffers when sources 3 and 4 are used so coherence can not be obtained by using
(4)
sources 3 and 4.

42) In an AC circuit the applied AC potential is V = 20 cos and current flowing through the

circuit is I = 0.2 sin . Find the power dissipated in the circuit :-

(1) Zero
(2) 10 watt
(3) 1.5 watt
(4) 4 watt

43) A convex glass lens has a focal length of 8 cm when placed in air. What is the focal
length of the lens when it is immersed in water ?

(1) 4 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 16 cm
(4) 32 cm

44) For parallel capacitor having plates with finite area, the electric field lines bend outward at the
edges. This effect is called _____.

(1) Polarisation
(2) Fringing of the field
(3) Electrostatic shielding
(4) Diffraction

45) An energy source will supply a constant current into the load, if its internal resistance is -

(1) equal to the resistance of the load

(2) very large as compared to the load resistance
(3) zero
(4) non-zero but less than the resistance of the load

CHEMISTRY

1) On increasing dilution, specific conductance will:-

(1)
(2) dec ↓
(3) some
(4) cant say

2) At 298 K, the solubility product of PbCl2 is 1.0 × 10–6. What will be the solubility of PbCl2 in
moles/litre. (Put the value of = 0.63)

(1) 6.3 × 10–3

(2) 1.0 × 10–3
(3) 3.0 × 10–3
(4) 4.6 × 10–14

3) The hybridization of O in H3O+ is:

(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3d
(4) sp3

4) Which of the following have one lone pair on the central atom ?
(I) NH3
(II) SF4
(III) XeO4
(IV) XeF6

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, IV
(3) I, IV
(4) I, II,III, IV

5) Most acidic compound is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The final product (III) obtained in the reaction sequence

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)

What is the % dissociation of 0.01N NH4OH in it's buffer solution containing 0.01N NH4Cl :
Kb of NH4OH = 2 × 10–5)

(1) 0.2%
(2) 2 × 10–3%
(3) 2 × 10–5
(4) 5 × 10–3%

8) Vapour density of the equilibrium mixture of the reaction

SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g) is 50.
The extent of dissociation of SO2Cl2 is-

(1) 33.33%
(2) 66.67%
(3) 30%
(4) 35%

9) A B C D [Amide]
What is the compound "D" in above reaction sequence :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) If 0.224 L of H2 gas is formed at the cathode, the volume of O2 gas formed at the anode under
identical conditions, is

(1) 0.224 L
(2) 0.448 L
(3) 0.112 L
(4) 1.12 L

11) One of the products formed due to the reaction between KMnO4 and HCl is :

(1) red liquid, CrO2Cl2

(2) black powder, MnO2
(3) greenish yellow gas, Cl2
(4) colourless liquid, HClO4

12) The cause of chemical combination is :-

(1) Tendency of acquire minimum energy

(2) Tendency to acquire noble gas configuration
(3) (1) & (2) both
(4) None of these

13) If the standard reduction potential, Eo for four divalent elements, X, Y, Z and W are –1.46V, –0.36
V, –0.15 V and –1.24 V respectively, then :

(1) X will displace Z+2 from aqueous solution

(2) Y will displace Z+2 from aqueous solution
(3) W will displace Z+2 from aqueous solution
(4) All the above statements are correct

14) Observe the following laboratory tests for glucose mention +ve or –ve from the code given

below.

(1) + + + +
(2) – + + –
(3) + – + –
(4) + + – –

15) The stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn, and Pb increases steadily in the sequence :-

(1) PbX2 < SnX2 < GeX2 < SiX2

(2) GeX2 < SiX2 < SnX2 < PbX2
(3) SiX2 < GeX2 < PbX2 < SnX2
(4) SiX2 < GeX2 < SnX2 < PbX2

16) The frequency of the photon having a wavelength equal to 1500 Å :-

(1) 5 × 1016 s–1

(2) 5 × 10–16 s–1
(3) 2 × 1015 s–1
(4) 2 × 10–16 s–1

17) The "solvent" used in paper chromatography functions as

(1) Mobile phase

(2) Stationary phase
(3) Both
(4) Neither

18) For the given complex [CoCl2(en)(NH3)2]+, the number of geometrical isomers, the number of
optical isomers and total number of isomers of all type possible respectively are :

(1) 2, 2 and 4
(2) 3, 2 and 3
(3) 2, 0 and 2
(4) 0, 2 and 2

19) The pH of 0.5 M NaCN solution is

(Ka of HCN = 5 × 10–10)

(1) 11.5
(2) 2.5
(3) 12.5
(4) 1.5

20) Select bidentate ligand from the following:-

(1) CO
(2) SCN–
–
(3) CH3COO
2–
(4) C2O4

21) The major product of the following reaction is:-

(1) a hemiacetal
(2) an acetal
(3) an ether
(4) an ester

22)
The product (A) and (B) are respectively

(1) Kl, I2
(2) I2, KIO3
(3) KIO3, KIO4
(4) I2, I2

23) Which of the following alcohols will undergo easiest dehydration ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

24) If 30 mL of H2 and 20 ml of O2 react to form water, what is left at the end of the reaction?

(1) 10 mL of H2
(2) 5 mL of H2
(3) 10 mL of O2
(4) 5 mL of O2

25) Fac-Mer isomerism is associated with which one of the following complexes?
[M = central metal]

(1) [M(AA)2]
(2) [MA3B3]
(3) [M(AA)3]
(4) [MABCD]

26) The number of moles of BaCO3 which contain 1.5 moles of oxygen atoms is

(1) 0.5
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 6.02 × 1023

27) The ratio of σ bond to π bonds in SO3 and inorganic benzene respectively is :

(1) 1 and 2
(2) 1 and 4

(3)
and 2

(4)
and 4

28) The concentration term independent of temperature is

(1) Mole fraction

(2) Normality
(3) Molarity
(4) Weight/volume percent

29) Values of first four ionisation potential of an elements are 68, 370, 400, 485. It belongs to which
of the following electronic configuration:-

(1) 1s2 2s1

(2) 1s2 2s2 2p1
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(4) (1) and (3) both

30)

Assertion :- The presence of nitro group facilitates nucleophilic substitution reaction in aryl halildes.
Reason :- The intermediate carbanion is stabilized due to the presence of the nitro group.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is correct but Reason is correct.

31) Product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has a density of 1.84 g cm–3 at 35ºC and contains 98%
H2SO4 by mass ?

(1) 1.84 M
(2) 81.4 M
(3) 18.4 M
(4) 184 M

33) The EMF of the cell

(1) 1.50 V
(2) 1.57 V
(3) 2.9 V
(4) 0.23 V

34) Which reaction is correct :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

35) Which of following is an example of super octet molecule ?

(1) ClF3
(2) PCl5
(3) IF7
(4) All of the three

36) When conc. H2SO4 is added to KMnO4, explosion take place and the product formed is

(1) Mn2O7
(2) MnO2
(3) MnSO4
(4) Mn2O3

37) Which of the following compound will give blood red colour while doing the Lassaigne's test for
N?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) Which ionisation potential (IP) in the following equations involves the greatest amount of energy
:-

(1) K+ → K+2 + e–
(2) Li+ → Li+2 + e–
(3) Fe → Fe+ + e–
(4) Ca+ → Ca+2 + e–

39) Which of the following will have lowest freezing point

(1) 10% (w/w) Glucose
(2) 10% (w/w) Sucrose
(3) 10% (w/w) NaCl
(4) 10% (w/w) Na2SO4

40) The IUPAC name of is :

(1) 4-ethylpent-4-en-2-amine
(2) 2-amino-4-ethylpent-4-ene
(3) 2-ethylpentan-4-amine
(4) 4-amino-2-ethylpent-1-ene

41) Most reactive toward electrophilic substitution reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Which of the following is not correct :

(1)

[Boiling point]
(2)
[Melting point]

(3)
[Stability]

(4)
[Dipole moment]

43) Calculate pH of the mixture of 100 cc of 0.03 (M) HCl and 300 cc of 0.01(M) NaOH

(1) 7
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

44) The correct values of ionisation energies (in kJ mol–1) of Be, Ne, He and N respectively are

(1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256

(2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
(3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999
(4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256

45) What is IUPAC name for :-

(1) P-Hydroxy-m-bromo acetophenone

(2) 1-[3'-Bromo-4'-hydroxy phenyl] propan-1-one
(3) 2-Bromo-4-propanoyl phenol
(4) 2-Hydroxy-5-propanoyl bromo benzene

BIOLOGY

1) Under normal conditions, which one is completely reabsorbed in the renal tubule?

(1) Urea
(2) Uric acid
(3) Salts
(4) Glucose

2) Which of the following is not a favourable factor for increasing the rate of decomposition ?

(1) Oxygen richness of soil.

(2) Detritus rich in lignin
(3) Warm environment
(4) High soil moisture

3) What is the possibility in those men whose blood group is 'AB' ?

(1) Antibody for A and B but no antigen

(2) Antibody for A and antigen for B
(3) Antigen A and B but no antibody
(4) Antibody and antigen both for A and B

4) Richmond lang effect is due to

(1) Cytokinin
(2) Auxins
(3) ABA
(4) Ethylene

5) The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at:

(1) Hilum
(2) Nucellus
(3) Micropyle
(4) Chalaza

6) Which glands secrete alkaline mucus to neutralize the acidity of urine in urethra?

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Prostate gland
(3) Cowper’s gland
(4) Tyson’s gland

7) Which one doesnot involve detrimental interaction ?

(1) Predation
(2) Amensalism
(3) Competition
(4) Commensalism

8) Cardiac output can be increased due to these hormones

(1) Pancreatic hormones

(2) Adrenal cortical hormones
(3) Adrenal medullary hormones
(4) Parathyroid hormone

9) Species diversity increase as one proceeeds from

(1) high altitude to low altitude and high latitude to low latitude.
(2) low altitude to high altitude and high latitude to low latitude.
(3) low altitude to high altitude and low latitude to high latitude.
(4) high altitude to low altitude and low latitude to high latitude.

10) In humans, kidneys are located between the levels of

(1) Last cervical and 3rd thoracic vertebrae

(2) Last thoracic and 3rd lumbar vertebrae
(3) Last lumbar and 3rd sacral vertebrae
(4) 3rd thoracic and last lumbar vertebrae

11) Choose the correct cause of population growth

(I) Decline in death rate.
(II) Rapid increase in MMR and IMR.
(III) Rapid decline in MMR and IMR.
(IV) More people in reproductive age group.
(V) Rapid-increase in death rate.

(1) I, II, III, IV, V

(2) I, II, IV
(3) I, III, IV
(4) III, IV, V

12) Given below are two statements: One is labelled Assertion(A) and other is labelled Reason(R).
Assertion (A) : Each restriction endonuclease recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide
sequences in the DNA.
Reason (R): The palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base pairs that reads same on the two strands
when orientation of reading is kept different.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(2) Both (A) and(R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

13) Which is not true about PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?

(1) PCR can amplify very small amount of DNA

(2) It can be used to detect HIV in suspects
(3) Only RNA can be used as primer
(4) Used to detect mutation in genes

14) Prophase II differes from prophase I in the absence of -

(1) crossing over

(2) synapsis
(3) splitting of centromeres
(4) both (1) and (2)

15) Which type of productivity of producers can be used by other trophic levels ?

(1) GPP
(2) NPP
(3) GSP
(4) NC

16) The complex concerned with oxidative phosphorylation in inner mitochondrial membrane is :-

(1) Complex IV
(2) Compelx V
(3) Complex III
(4) Complex II

17) (A) Wt = W0 ert ; 'r' in the formula is relative growth rate.

(B) Efficiency index of the plant is ability of plant to produce new plant material.
(C) Plant growth is open and unique.
(D) Redifferentiated structure are secondary meristem
How many are incorrect ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

18) Match the list-I with list-II

List-I List-II

(a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joint

(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone

(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints

Vertebral
(d) (iv) Triangular flat bone
column

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) iv ii iii i

(2) iv iii ii i

(3) i iii ii iv

(4) ii iii iv i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Which of the following is not correct about ethylene.

(1) Break dormancy in peanut seeds

(2) Promote male flowing in cucumber
(3) Enhance respiration rate in ripening fruits
(4) Thinning in wallnut & cotton

20) Pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the :-

(1) One male gamete in cytoplasm of synergids & other in cytoplasm of central cell
(2) Both in cytoplasm of central cell
(3) Cytoplasm of antipodal cell
(4) Both in cytoplasm of synergids

21) Which of the following enzyme is not present in lysosome ?

(1) Lipase
(2) Acid phosphatase
(3) Alkaline phosphatase
(4) Nuclease

22) In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct
Assertion: Sperm formation continues even in old men.
Reason: Ovum formation ceases in women around the age of fifty years.

(1) Assertion and reason both are correct statement and reason is correct explanation for assertion
Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
(2)
assertion
(3) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(4) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

23) The ions responsible for the creation of electrochemical gradient, for the synthesis of ATP during
oxidative phosphorylation are :-

(1) Phosphate
(2) Sodium
(3) Hydrogen
(4) Potassium

24)

Find out the correct match from the following table :-

 Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Tap roots Formed by the direct elongation of radicle Sugarcane

(ii) Fibrous roots Originate from the base of the stem Wheat

(iii) Adventitious roots Arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle Sweet potato
(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

25) A diploid organism is heterozygous for 4 loci, how many types of gametes can be produced ?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 4
(4) 32

26) Ovule of Cycas is

(1) Orthotropous and unitegmic

(2) Anatropous and unitegmic
(3) Orthotropous and bitegmic
(4) Anatropous and bitegmic

27) Planting of trees on unused farm land, road and rail ride etc. is called :-

(1) Social forestry

(2) General forestry
(3) Agro
(4) Commercial forestry

28) Assertion : From the genetical point of view geitonogamy is similar to self pollination.
Reason : Here pollen grain came from the same flower.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

29)

Which statement about the light reactions of photosynthesis is false?

(1) PS I and PS II are located in stroma of the chloroplast

(2) PS I and PS II are linked by-carriers.
(3) Chlorophylls have an absorption spectrum with pronounced peaks in red and blue light.
(4) Protons diffuse through protein channels which are ATP synthetase molecule.

30) During which state of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level, if the initial
amount is denoted as 2C.

(1) G0 & G1
(2) G1 only
(3) G2 & M
(4) Only G2

31) Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function :

(1) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands

(2) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle
Progesterone-corpus-luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex
(3)
organs
(4) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall, increases the blood pressure

32) 2(C51H98O6) + 14502→ 102CO2+ 98 H2O + Energy

RQ for the given reaction will be :-

(1) More than one

(2) Equal to RQ of carbohydrate
(3) Less than RQ of proteins
(4) More than RQ of organic acid

33) Phloem fibres are generally present in :-

(1) Primary phloem

(2) Secondary phloem
(3) Protophloem
(4) All the above

34) An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of:

(1) Competent bacterial cells

(2) Transformed bacterial cells
(3) Recombinant bacterial cells
(4) Both 2 and 3

35) Which of the following is a free living biocontrol microbial agent for plant pathogen?

(1) Algae
(2) Glomus
(3) Trichoderma
(4) Rhizobium

36)

List-I List-II

(A) Cytokine barriers (I) Mucus coating of respiratory tract

(B) Cellular barriers (II) Interferons

(C) Physiological barriers (III) Neutrophils and Macrophages

(D) Physical barriers (IV) Tears and Saliva

(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

37) Read the following statements (i to v) and identify them as true (T) or false (F) :
(i) LH acts at Leydig cells stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens.
(ii) Androgen stimulates the process of spermatogenesis.
(iii) FSH acts on Sertoli cells and stimulate secretion of some factors required for spermiogenesis.
(iv) Spermatogenesis is regulated by both FSH and LH.
(v) LH and FSH stimulate gonadial activity and hence are called gonadotrophins.
Options:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) ___A___ is a tuft of capillaries formed by the ___B___?

(1) A - Bowman's capsule, B - Efferent arteriole - a fine branch of renal vein.

(2) A - Glomerulus, B - Efferent arteriole - a fine branch of renal vein.
(3) Glomerulus, B - Efferent arteriole - a fine branch of renal artery.
(4) A - Glomerulus, B - Afferent arteriole - a fine branch of renal artery.

39)
Identify the ABCDE major taxa of vertebrates in above graph.

A B C D E

(1) Amphibians Fishes Mammals Birds Reptiles

(2) Fishes Reptiles Birds Mammals Amphibians

(3) Fishes Amphibians Reptiles Birds Mammals

(4) Fishes Mammals Birds Reptiles Amphibians

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) In diastole, heart is refilled by :-

(1) Mixed blood

(2) Deoxygenated blood
(3) Oxygenated blood
(4) Venous blood

41) In human beings, the colour of skin is controlled by

(1) Multiple alleles

(2) Lethal genes
(3) Polygene
(4) None of these

42) Which of the following factor influences the breakdown of cross bridge?

(1) Releasing of ATP from myosin head

(2) Entering of ATP into myosin head
(3) Releasing of ADP from myosin head
(4) Entering of ADP into myosin head

43) Identify A, B and C in given diagram :-

A B C
(1) S Vmax Km
(2) Km Vmax S
 (3) S Km Vmax
(4) Vmax S K
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Heterophagosome is :-

(1) Primary lysosome

(2) Secondary Lysosome
(3) Residual bodies
(4) Autophagic vacuole

45) The method in which alien DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell is known as
:-

(1) Biolistic
(2) Micro-injection
(3) Electroporation
(4) Heat-shock treatment

46) How many ovarioles are present in female cockroach ?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 20
(4) 2

47) Assertion (A) :- Xylem and phloem constitute the complex tissues in plants.
Reason (R) :- They are made up of more than one type of cells.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

48) Part of biosphere reserve which is strictly prohibited and protected from any external
interference is called :-

(1) buffer zone

(2) core zone
(3) transition zone
(4) all above

49) The following figure represents the :-

(1) Central Dogma
(2) Lac Operon
(3) Sequence Annotation
(4) Wobble Hypothesis

50) Sporopollenin is absent in the pollen grains of :-

(1) Salvia
(2) Yucca
(3) Lotus
(4) Zostera

51) Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within :

(1) 72 hrs of coitus

(2) 72 hrs of ovulation
(3) 72 hrs of menstruation
(4) 72 hrs of implantation

52) When there is a modification in a wild type gene, then the modified allele could be responsible
for the production of
(a) Normal enzyme
(b) Non-functional enzyme
(c) Less efficient enzyme
(d) No enzyme at all
The correct one(s) is/are

(1) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (d) only
(3) (b) and (d) only
(4) (b) and (c) only

53) In which of the following type of flowers stamens are superior in position?

(1) Hypogynous
(2) Perigynous
(3) Epigynous
(4) Protogynous

54) Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Bone marrow (1) Maturation of T-Lymphocytes

 (B) Thymus (2) Production of blood cells

(C) Spleen (3) Serve to trap antigens

(D) Lymph Nodes (4) Reservoir of erythrocytes

(1) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4
(2) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3
(3) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1
(4) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

55) In roots of flowering plants, the protoxylem lies towards periphery and metaxylem lies towards
the centre of the organ. Such arrangement of primary xylem is called :-

(1) Endarch
(2) Centrach
(3) Exarch
(4) Mesarch

56) In vector pBR 322, the 'rop' codes for the

(1) Pvu II
(2) Pvu I
(3) Proteins that involved in the replication of the restriction enzyme
(4) Proteins that involved in the replication of the plasmid

57) Which of the following is not useful effect of GM plants?

(i) Made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses likes cold, drought, salt, heat.
(ii) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides by forming pest-resistant crops
(iii)Decrease efficiency of mineral usage by plants
(iv)Enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g., Vitamin ‘A’ enriched rice.
(v)Create tailor-made plants to supply alternative resources to industries, in the form of starches,
fuels and pharmaceuticals.

(1) (i) only

(2) (ii) only
(3) (iii) only
(4) (iv) only

58)

What is the composition of the biogas?

(1) Methane, carbon dioxide, oxygen etc

(2) Methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, nitrogen dioxide etc.
(3) Methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulphide
(4) Methane, carbon dioxide, sulphurdioxide etc

59) Congestion of lungs is one of the main symptoms in:-

(1) Hypotension
(2) Coronary artery disease
(3) Heart failure
(4) Angina

60) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II

Pumping activity of
(a) Heart failure (i)
heart decreases

Heart muscles
damaged due to
(b) Heart attack (ii)
inadequate blood
supply

(c) Cardiac arrest (iii) Heart stops beating

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii

61) Identify A, B, C and D in this figure.

(1) A: Immigration (I), B: Emigration (E), C: Natality (B), D: Mortality (D)

(2) A: Natality (B), B: immigration (I), C: Mortality (D), D: Emigration (E)
(3) A: Mortality (D), B: Emigration (E), C: Natality (B), D: Immigration (I)
(4) A: Mortality (D), B: Natality (B), C: Emigration (E), D: Immigration (I)

62) The amount of filtrate formed by kidney per minute is called ________, and for healthy individual
it is approximately _______.

(1) Glomerular Filtration Rate, 125ml/min i.e. 170 Litre/day

(2) Capsular Filtration Rate, 125ml/min i.e. 180 Litre/day
(3) Glomerular Filtration Rate, 150ml/min i.e. 200 Litre/day
(4) Glomerular Filtration Rate, 125ml/min i.e. 180 Litre/day

63) Identify the incorrect match for plant and the phyllotaxy according to diagram :
 Plant Phyllotaxy

(1) Sunflower Alternate

(2) Mustard Opposite

(3) Calotropis Opposite

(4) Alstonia Whorled

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) Which one represents pulmonary circulation ?

(1) Left auricle (oxygenated blood) → lungs (deoxygenated blood) → Right auricle
(2) Left auricle (deoxygenated blood) → lungs (oxygenated blood) → Right auricle
(3) Left auricle (oxygenated blood) → lungs (deoxygenated blood) → Left auricle
(4) Right auricle (deoxygenated blood) → lungs (oxygenated blood) → Left auricle

65) Which one of the following statement is correct?

(1) The vertebrates have simple tubular organ like kidneys, which are intra-peritoneal in position
Kidneys are reddish brown, bean shaped structures. Situated between the levels of last thoracic
(2)
and fourth lumbar vertebra close to the ventral inner wall of the abdominal cavity
(3) Outer to the hilum is a broad funnel shaped space called the renal column of Bertini
(4) Towards the centre of inner concave surface of kidney is a notch called hilum

66) If natural selection leads to stabilizations this means

(1) More individuals acquire mean character value

(2) More individuals acquire value other than mean character value
(3) More individuals acquire peripheral character value at both the ends of distribution curve
(4) None of these

67) Fatty acid for entry into Krebs' cycle is degraded to :-

(1) Pyruvate
(2) Citric acid
(3) Acetyl CoA
(4) PGA

68) Consider the following statements:-

(a) They grow in soil, on logs and tree stumps and in living plant bodies as parasites. (b) The
mycelium is branched and septate and the asexual spores are generally not found but vegetative
reproduction by fragmentation is common. (c) The sex organs are absent but plasmogamy is brought
about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of different strains or genotypes. Above statements
are related to the member of which class :-

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

69) Find out the structure A, B, C and D in given figure:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

70) Assertion: Mast cells in the human body release excessive amounts of inflammatory chemicals
which cause allergic reactions.
Reason: Allergens in the environment on reaching human body stimulate mast cells in certain
individuals.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct
71) If biotic potential of a species is high than :-

(1) No. of species in that area increase

(2) Species diversity increase in area
(3) No. of individuals of particular species increases
(4) None of these

72) Atrio-ventricular septum is made up of

(1) Cartilage
(2) Muscular tissue
(3) Fibrous tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

73) Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids ?

(1) Abscisic acid

(2) Indole butyric acid
(3) Indole-3-acetic acid
(4) Gibberellic acid

74) Which of the following trait is only express in homozygous condition -

(a) Yellow seed colour
(b) Green pod colour
(c) Inflated pod shape
(d) Terminal flower position
(e) Yellow pod colour

(1) Only e
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c, d, e
(4) d & e

75) Which statement is wrong for Darwin's theory

(1) All population has built in variation in Characteristics

Organism whose characteristics which are better for survival in natural conditions breed less
(2)
and survive
(3) Those who are better fit in environment survive more and naturally selected
(4) Natural selection was taken as a mechanism of evolution

76) Match the following columns and choose the correct combination.

Protein Function

(a) Collagen (i) Enable glucose transport

(b) GLUT-4 (ii) Sensory reception

 (c) Receptor (iii) Hormone

(d) Insulin (iv) Intercellular ground substance

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

77) The correct sequence of spermatogenesis is :

(1) Spermatogonia → spermatid → primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte → spermatozoa.

(2) Spermatocyte → spermatogonia → spermatid → spermatozoa.
(3) Spermatogonia → primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte → spermatid → spermatozoa.
Primary spermatocyte → secondary
(4)
spermatocyte → spermatozoa → spermatid.

78)

Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms from:

(1) Seminiferous tubules

(2) Vas deferens
(3) Epididymis
(4) Prostate gland

79) The main reason for extinction of species is :-

(1) hunting
(2) destruction of habitat
(3) pollution
(4) Co-extinction

80) Which of the following statement(s) given below are correct :-

(A) 71% of total global carbon is dissolved in the ocean.
(B) Plants capture 2-10% of I.S.R. in the process of photosynthesis.
(C) Total annual net primary productivity of whole biosphere is 55 billion tonns.
(D) Total 4 × 1013 kg carbon is fixed annually by producers in biosphere. (Replica of Q. 149)

(1) (A), (B) and (C)

(2) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) (B) and (C)
(4) (A) and (D)

81) In which of the following statement is not related in the reference of loose connective tissue

(1) It provides base to epithelial tissue normally

(2) Fibroblast, macrophages & mast cells are found in it
(3) Fibers and fibroblast are compactly arranged
(4) Areolar tissue is a type of loose connective tissue

82) Which one not for prokaryotic system ?

(1) Poly cistronic structural gene

(2) More than one start and stop codon in mRNA
(3) Presence of snRNA
(4) Coupled transcription and translation

83) Radioactive element used to label DNA of bacteriophage in experiment of Hershey and Chase
was :-

(1) S35
(2) P32
(3) N15
(4) C14

84)

Which of the following statements is incorrect about gene therapy in ADA deficiency?

(1) Lymphocytes from patient's blood are taken out and cultured.
(2) A functional ADA cDNA is introduced into these lymphocytes.
(3) Lymphocytes are then introduced in the body of patient
(4) Patient does not require periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes.

85) Rate of diffusion of gases in our body depends on

(1) Solubility of gases

(2) Thickness of diffusion membrane
(3) Pressure gradient of gases
(4) All of the above

86) Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to
be

(1) Smaller and to have smaller sex organs

(2) Smaller but to have larger sex organs
(3) Larger but to have smaller sex organs
(4) Larger and to have larger sex organs

87) Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of:

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Transduction
(3) Pre-existing variation in the population
(4) Divergent evolution

88) Terminal bronchiole gives rise to alveoli which are

(1) Thick, regular walled vascular bag

(2) Thin, regular walled vascular bag
(3) Thin, irregular walled a vascular bag
(4) Thin irregular walled vascular bag

89) The ladybird beetle and dragonflies are useful to get rid of _______ and _______ respectively.

(1) Caterpillars and mosquitoes

(2) Mosquitoes and fruit borer
(3) Mosquitoes and aphids
(4) Aphids and mosquitoes

90) The first antibiotic was discovered accidently by ____A_____ while working on ____B______.

(1) A - Waksman; B - Streptococcus

(2) A - Fleming; B - Penicillium notatum
(3) A - Waksman; B - Bacillus brevis
(4) A - Fleming; B - Staphylococci
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 2 1 2 4 4 3 4 3 3 4 3 3 4 2 2 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 4 4 2 1 3 4 1 1 3 3 2 4 3 1 3 4 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 4 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 4 2 4 1 1 4 1 3 3 3 4 2 4 3 1 2 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 4 4 2 1 2 1 3 1 2 3 2 4 4 1 2 2 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 1 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 3 1 1 3 4 3 1 2 3 3 3 4 2 2 4 2 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 3 4 2 1 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 4 3 1 4 4 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 2 2 2 2 4 2 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 4 3 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 2 4 4 1 3 3 4 1 3 3 1 4 2 2 3 1 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 2 4 4 1 3 4 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Conceptual

2) Emf will always induces whenever, there is change in magnetic flux. The current will
induced only in closed loop.

3)
=

4) Resistance of conductor depends upon relaxation time as . With rise in temperature

rms speed of free electrons inside the conductor increases, so relaxation time decreases and
hence resistance increases.

5)

6)

If the origin of the co-ordinate system is at the centre of mass then which in turn

implies that

Here, represents the moment of a mass about the origin or the centre of mass.

7) When the battery is disconnected the charge will remains the same in any case.

Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by

When d is increase, capacitance will decrease and because the charge remains the same, so
according to q = CV the voltage will increase, Hence the electrostatic energy stored in the
capacitor will increase.

8) Since the cars complete the circles in the same time t, they possess the same angular
velocity. As centripetal acceleration,
9)

ϕ = 4 – 3 – 5 = –4
ϕ = –4 Ncm2/C

10) After redistribution, charges on them will be different, but they will acquire common
potential i.e.,

As

e.i., surface charge density on smaller sphere will be more.

11) Mutual induction depends on orientation of coils

12)

εr × 2 = 4
εr = 2

13)

Meter bridge wire is made up of nichrome, constantan or manganin as these have high
resistivity and low temperature coefficient of expansion to minimize errors due to temperature
changes
Bridge will more sensitive when balancing length on either side are nearly equal
If S is known resistance & R is unknown resistance in gap resistance of wire at balancing
length are r1 and r2
then

Thus accuracy is independent of the area of cross section of wire

If length of wire is increased then its potential gradient decreases and hence accuracy
increases

14) The length of the water column will be equal to full length of capillary tube.

15)

16) If velocity is constant then speed must be constant while if speed is constant then direction
may change and velocity may change.

17)

t= = 2 sec

18)
W=0

19) E = mc2

=
= 45 × 1016–3
= 45 × 1013 J

20) Equivalent circuit of Situation :-

I= = = = 0.1 mA

21) Statement is correct, but the work function only depends on the photoelectric metal.

22) F = Nmν
= 4 × 20 × 10–3 × 300
= 24 N

23) By conservation of mass

11 = 11+0+A A=0
By 6 = 5 + 1 + Z Z=0
is a neutrino.

24) and

25) ω = 2nf = 2π × = 2π Rad./s

2
Given I = 2 kg m & t = 60 sec.
ωf = ωi + ∝ t
0 = 2π + ∝ × 60

⇒ rad/s2

Now, τ = I ∝ = 2 ×

⇒τ= N.m

26) W = loss in
As

and

27) XOR gate

28) μe > μh
⇒ ∴ mn > me
∴ (Vd)e > (Vd)h
⇒ ∴ (i)n-type > (i)p-type

29)
⇒ % increase in time period will be 10%

30)

Time period of
∴ Time for traveling 60°

is

31) Mean free path (λmean) =

where, n = no. of molecules per unit volume
d = diameter of molecule

<K.E.> =
∴ <KE> α T
∴ both statement are correct.

32) γmix =

∴x=y

33) Δn = n1 – n2
= 130 – 125 = 5b/s

34)

35) Both will experience same thermal expansion, if they are heated to the same temperature.

36) Precision for a set of measurement is seen by least count of instrument.

38) Work done, W = change in KE, i.e.,

39)

T = 100 newton

40)

41) Difference wavelength shows different frequency so they can not be coherent sources
while coherent sources can have different intensity.

42) V = 20 cos

V = 20 sin

I = 0.2 sin

ϕ=
cosϕ = 0
Power = 0

43)

Dividing we have
 45)

CHEMISTRY

47)

Ksp = 4s3 1 × 10–6 = 4s3 S3 = × 10–6 = = 0.63 × 10–2 = 6.3 × 10–3

48)

52)

NH4OH ⇌ NH4+ + OH–

t = 0 0.01 0 0
teq 0.01 – 0.01α (0.01α + 0.01) 0.01α
NH4Cl ⇒ NH4+ + Cl–
0.01 0.01 0.01

Kb =
2 × 10–5 = 0.01α (1 + α) [Here 1 + α 1]
α = 2 × 10–3
% α = 2 × 10–3 × 100 = 0.2

55)
= .112 ℓ

57) Explanation: The question asks what drives atoms to form chemical bonds.
Concept : Atoms combine to lower their energy state, achieving greater stability.
They also strive for a noble gas electron configuration (full valence shell). Therefore, both
minimum energy and noble gas configuration drive chemical combinations.
Final Answer - Option (3)

58) The metal with more negative reduction potential will displace the metal with less negative
reduction potential from its solution.

61)

64)

pH = 7 + (pka + log C)

=7+

=7+ [10 – log5 + log5 – log 10]

= 7 + [9]
pH = 11.5

69) H2(g) + 1/2O2(g) → H2O(g)

30 mL 20 mL 0
30-30 = 0 20–15=5 mL 30 mL

77)

= 18.4 M

78)
Ecell = 1.57 V

80) Explanation:- super octet molecule is asked

Concept: by using lewis structure; more than 8e-
Solution:-

82)

83) Asking about : equation involving greatest amount of ionisation energy

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :

In case of Li+ ; e– will get removed from 1st shell where as in other cases, it will get removed
from either 3rd or 4th shell depending upon the species. Since 1st shell is closer to nucleus
and thus will have stronger pull of the nucleus. Thus IE will be highest.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

84) ΔTf = i Kfm

ΔTf ∝ im ∝
 only check

89) Asking about : Correct values of IE for Be, Ne, He, N will be

Formula : IP ∝ Zeff (In a period)

IP ∝ (In a group)
Solution/Explanation/Calculation :

So in the given options ; IE(min) = Be & IE(max) = He overall order of IE : Be < N < Ne < He
Since in the questions ; the position of He is shown at 3rd position. Hence He should come at
3rd position. because highest IE is of He.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

BIOLOGY

92) NCERT XII Pg.# 244

94) NCERT Pg. No. # 250

95) NCERT/P–09 (NEET 2020)

103)

NCERT Page no. 202

106) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 233

108) NCERT Page No - 309 to 310

109) NCERT Pg. No. # 250

110) NCERT-XII, Page No. 18

112) Ncert Pg No: 31

114) NCERT XI Pg # 58

115)

The number of different types of gametes produced by a heterozygous diploid organism is

given by the formula 2n, where n is the number of heterozygous loci.
For 4 heterozygous loci, the number of gametes is: = 16

122)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 237

124) Ncert Pg No: 169

125) NCERT Page no:187

126) Ncert Pg No: 134, 135

132) NCERT Page No - 306

133) NCERT Pg. # 157

135) Ncert Pg No: 171

137) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87

144) Ncert Pg No: 137, 138

145) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87

146) Ncert Pg No: 169

148)

Ncert Pg No: 185

156)

NCERT Pg # 137

157) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 235

158)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 18

160) Ncert Pg No: 137

164) NCERT (XII) Pg # 55

165)

NCERT Pg # 128-129

168) Ncert Pg No: 31

170) NCERT Pg. # 207

174)

Ncert Pg No: 211

177)

NCERT Pg # 136

179) Ncert Pg No:

180)

Ncert Pg No: 152