01-09-2025

2001CMD303034250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) will be :–

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) cos2x
(4) sin2x

2) will be–

(1) 50e50
(2) 0
(3) e50

(4)

3) Find the sum of a series "x" where

x = 10 +

(1) 11.5

(2)

(3) 1.5
(4) None of these

4)

The incorrect relation is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) cos4θ = cos2θ – sin22θ

5) Area bounded by curve y = sin x, with x-axis, when x varies from 0 to is :-

(1) 1 unit
(2) 2 units
(3) 3 units
(4) 0

6) In m = If v < < c then :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none

7)

Two vectors are at an angle of 60° with each other. Their resultant makes an angle of 45°

with . If = 2 units then is:-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

8) Given that ; A = B = C. If , then the angle between is θ1. If , then

the angle between is θ2. What is the relation between θ1 and θ2 ?

(1) θ1 = θ2
(2) θ1 = θ2/2
(3) θ1 = 2θ2
(4) None of these

9) If resultant of and is perpendicular to , then find angle between and -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
10) 100 coplanar forces each equal to 10 N a acting body. Each force makes angle with the
preceding force, what is the resultant of the forces:

(1) 1000 N
(2) 500 N
(3) 250 N
(4) Zero

11) For the given figure :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) In the given square

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of the above

13) A particle is moving along a circular path. The angular velocity, velocity, angular acceleration
and centripetal acceleration of the partical at any instant respectively are ω, v, α and ac, which of the
following relations is/are correct?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, d, a

14)

The maximum value of y = sin x cos x is :

(1) 1

(2)

(3) 2

(4)

15) A body of mass m is accelerated uniformly from rest to a speed v in a time T. The instantaneous
power delivered to the body as a function of time is, given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A particle is released from rest at origin. It moves under influence of potential field U = x2 – 3x ,
kinetic energy at x = 2 is :

(1) 2 J
(2) 1 J
(3) 1.5 J
(4) 0 J

17) An engine pumps up 100 kg of water through a height of 10 m in 5 sec. Given that the efficiency
of the engine is 60%, what is the power of the engine ?

(1) 33 kw
(2) 3.3 kw
(3) 0.33 kw
(4) 0.033 kw

18) A particle is given power p which depends on position x as, p = kx2 where k is constant, if
initially particle was at rest, then the relation between velocity and position of particle will be :

(1) v ∝ x3
(2) v ∝ x
(3) v ∝ x2/3
(4) v ∝ x1/3

19) A spring which is initially in its unstretched condition, is first stretched by a length x and then
again by a further length x. The work done in the first case is W1 and in the second case is W2. Find
W2 / W1

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1/2

20) A block of mass m is attached to two spring of spring constant k1 and k2 as shown in figure. The
block is displaced by x towards right and released. The velocity of the block when it is at its mean

position.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A constant power P is applied to a particle of mass m. The distance travelled by the particle
when its velocity increases from v1 to v2 is (neglect friction):-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The potential energy between the atoms in a molecule is given by

U(x) =
Where a and b positive constant and x is the distance between the atoms. The atoms is in
equilibrium when :-

(1) x = 0
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A particle of mass 'm' describes a circle of radius (r). The centripetal acceleration of the particle

is . The momentum of the particle :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A particle moves in a circular path of radius R with an angular velocity ω = a – bt where a and b
are positive constants and t is time. The magnitude of the acceleration of the particle after time
is :-

(1)

(2)
(3) R(a2 + b)
(4) a2R

25) What is the angular velocity of particle P w.r.t. the particle Q in the arrangement shown in figure
?

(1) 3 rad/s
(2) 7 rad/s
(3) 10 rad/s
(4) 15 rad/s

26) A particle P moving in circle with angular velocity ω about centre O. Then find angular velocity
of particle about point A on circumference of circle.

(1)

(2) ω

(3)

(4)

27) In the given figure, a = 15 m/s2 represents the total acceleration of a particle moving in the
clockwise direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given instant of time. The speed of the

particle is :-

(1) 5.7 m/s

(2) 6.2 m/s
(3) 4.5 m/s
(4) 5.0 m/s

28) Two identical strings with fixed ends separated by height h have their other ends tied to a body
P of mass m as shown in figure. When the body rotates with uniform angular speed in a

horizontal plane about the vertical axis the ratio of tensions in the string is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A small mass of 10 gm. lies in a hemispherical bowl of radius 0.5 m at a height of 0.2 m from the
bottom of the bowl. The mass will be in equilibrium of the bowl rotates at an angular speed of (g =

10 m/sec2) :-

(1)
rad./s
(2) rad./s
(3) 10 rad./s
(4) rad./s

30) A conical pendulum is moving with angular velocity ω as shown in the figure. If tension in the

string is T then find the correct relation :-

(1) T = mω2ℓ
(2) Tsinθ = mω2ℓ
(3) T = mg cosθ
(4) T = mω2ℓ sinθ

31) A rider in a “barrel of fun” finds herself stuck with her back to the wall. Which diagram correctly
shows the forces acting on her?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

32) A particle crosses the topmost point C of a vertical circle with critical speed; then the ratio of
velocities at points A, B and C is :

(1) 3 : 2 : 1
(2) 5 : 3 : 1
(3) 52 : 32 : 12
(4)

33) A block of mass m placed at the top of a fixed hemisphere of radius R is given a tangential

velocity . The angle made by the position vector of the mass when it looses contact with the

hemisphere with the vertical is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A stone of mass 1kg is tied to an end of a string of length 1m and is rotated in verticle circle such
that its velocity at horizontal position of string is 4m/s, then tension in string at the bottom position
will be :-

(1) 46 N
(2) 36 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 24 N

35) A particle of mass m is attached with light string of length ℓ. The string is fixed from other end
at O as shown in figure. The ball is given horizontal velocity then the angular amplitude
during the oscillation will be :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 45°

36) A simple pendulum is oscillating. When the displacement of the bob is less than maximum, its
acceleration vector is correctly shown in :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

37) A small block of mass m slides along a smooth frictionless track as shown. If it starts from rest at

P. What is the normal force on it at Q ?

(1) 3 mg
(2)
(3) 8 mg
(4) None of these

38) A car is moving on a curved path with banking angle θ, the coefficient of friction between tyres
of car and road is μs. The maximum safe velocity of car is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Radius of the curved road on national highway is R. Width of the road is b. The outer edge of the
road is raised by h with respect to inner edge so that a car with velocity v can pass safely over it.
The value of h is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A circular plate of diameter a is kept in contact with a square plate of edge a as shown in figure.
The density of the material and the thickness are same everywhere. The centre of mass of the

composite system will be :-

(1) Inside the circular plate

(2) Inside the square plate
(3) At the point of contact
(4) Outside the system

41) Find the position of centre of Mass :-

(1) (4, 6)
(2) (6/5, 18/5)
(3) (3, 1)
(4) (1, 3)

42) Consider a two particle system with particles having masses m1 and m2. If the first particle is
pushed towards the centre of mass through a distance d, by what distance should the second
particle be moved, so as to keep the centre of mass at the same position –

(1)
d
(2) d

(3)
d

(4)
d

43) The center of mass of a non-uniform rod of length L whose mass per unit length varies as λ =

(where k is a constant and x is the distance measured from one end) is at the following distance
from the same end.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

44) For the system shown in figure. The acceleration of centre of mass is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None

45) The figure shows the positions and velocities of two particles. If the particles move under the
mutual attraction of each other, then the position of centre of mass at t =1 s is :-

(1) x = 5 m
(2) x = 6 m
(3) x = 3 m
(4) x = 2 m

CHEMISTRY

1) The decreasing order of –1 effect of the following is :-

I. H3N⊕ II. NO2 III. CN IV. COOH

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > I > III > IV
(3) I > III > II > IV
(4) II > I > IV > III

2) Which one of the following resonating structures of 1-methoxy-1,3-butadiene is least stable :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) All are same
3) Match the column I with column II.

Column-I Column-II
(Group attached with (Effect shown by
benzene ring) the group)

(A) —NO2 (P) – R effect

(B) —O– (Q) + R effect

(C) —O—CH3 (R) + I effect

(D) —C ≡ N (S) – I effect

(1) (A)–P,S ; (B)–Q,R ; (C)–Q,S ; (D)–P,S
(2) (A)–P,S ; (B)–Q,S ; (C)–P,R ; (D)–R,S
(3) (A)–P,S ; (B)–P,R ; (C)–R,S ; (D)–Q,S
(4) (A)–Q,S ; (B)–P,R ; (C)–Q,S ; (D)–P,S

4) Compare relative stability of following resonating structure :-

(1) a > b > c

(2) a > c > b
(3) b > a > c
(4) c > a > b

5) The shape of and are respectively....and....?

(1) Planar, Planar

(2) Pyramidal, Pyramidal
(3) Pyramidal, Planar
(4) Planar, Pyramidal

6) Which of the following resonating structure contributes equally to the resonance hybrid.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) CH = CH – CH = O
2

7) Which of the following resonating structure is not valid?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) compound has 'x' localised lone pair & 'y' is sp2 hybridised nitrogen
so find (x – y) ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) True statement about is :-

(1) It has 6 electrons in valence shell of carbon atom.

(2) It is formed due to heterolytic bond fission.
(3) It has lone pair of electrons.
(4) It is formed due to homolytic bond fission.

10) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Canonical structures of a molecule are not the correct representation of the real
molecule.
Reason (R) : The energy of resonance hybrid of a molecule is higher than that of any of the
canonical structures
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) and (R) are false

11) Which of the following is not a pair of valid resonating structures :-

(1) CH = CH–CH=O ↔
2

(2)

(3) ↔

(4)
↔

12) Most stable anion is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) In resonance –

(1) π bond is transfered.

(2) σ bond is transfered.
(3) All atoms have complete octet.
(4) H atom transfer.

14) Resonance shown by -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

15) Which of the following is correct for Mesomeric effect:

(1) It is permanent effect

(2) Generally more dominating effect than inductive effect
(3) Distance independent effect
(4) All of these

16)

Most stable carbocation is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
17) Which is wrong electronic delocalisation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Compound which is not heterocyclic -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Assertion : Butane and 2-Methyl butane are homologous.

Reason : Butane is a straight chain alkane while 2-methyl butane is a branched chain alkane.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

20) How many carbons are secondary (2°) as well as sp2 hybridised in :-
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

21) "Iso" can not be used for structure :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22)

Calculate total number of olefinic & acetylinic bond in following structure ?

(1) Olefinic bond = 2, Acetylenic bond = 3

(2) Olefinic bond = 3, Acetylenic bond = 3
(3) Olefinic bond = 3, Acetylenic bond = 2
(4) Olefinic bond = 2, Acetylenic bond = 2

23) Which of the following is not a pair of a homologous series ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
24)

Which has highest mass ?

(1) 2 mol of H2 gas

(2) 100 ml of water
(3) NA molecules of H2SO4
(4) 112 L of NH3 gas at STP

25) A cylinder of compressed gas contains nitrogen and oxygen gas in the mole ratio 3: 1, if the
cylinder is known to contain 2.40 gm of oxygen. What is the total mass of gas mixture?

(1) 8.7 g
(2) 7.2 g
(3) 6.8 g
(4) 6.3 g

26)

Arrange the following in order of increasing Masses:-

(i) 1 Mole of oxygen
(ii) 1 Molecule of oxygen
(iii) 10–10 g of iron
(iv) 1 g-atom of nitrogen

(1) i < ii < iii < iv

(2) i < iii < iv < ii
(3) iii < iv < ii < i
(4) ii < iii < iv < i

27) An organic compound contains 4% sulphur. Its minimum molecular weight is :-

(1) 200
(2) 400
(3) 800
(4) 1600

28) How many molecule are present in one mL of water vapours at NTP :-

(1) 1.69 × 10+19

(2) 2.69 × 10–19
(3) 1.69 × 10–19
(4) 2.69 × 10+19

29) 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated yields a residue weighing (given At. wt. of Ag
= 108)
Ag2 CO3(s) → 2Ag(s) + CO2(g) + ½ O2(g)

(1) 2.16 g
(2) 2.48 g
(3) 2.32 g
(4) 2.64 g

30) Kc for A + B ⇌ C + D is 10 at 25°C. If a container contains 1, 2, 3, 4 mol/litre of A, B, C and D

respectively at 25°C, the reaction will proceed

(1) Left to right

(2) Right to left
(3) Already at equilibrium
(4) None of the above

31) Given the following reaction at equilibrium, N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g). At constant pressure if
some inert gas added to the system. Then :-

(1) More NH3(g) is produced

(2) Less NH3(g) is produced
(3) No affect on the equilibrium
(4) Kp of the reaction is decreased

32) For the reaction : N2O3(g) NO(g) + NO2(g) ; total pressure = P, degree of dissociation = 50%.
Then Kp would be –

(1) 3P
(2) 3P

(3)

(4)

33)
If high pressure and low temperature are the favourable condition for the formation of the product
in above reaction, hence

(1) a > b + c
(2) a < b + c
(3) a = b + c
(4) None of them

34) For the reaction A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g), the degree of dissociation α would be –

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

35) For any reversible reaction RT = 0, then :-

(1)

(2)

(3) reaction may be PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2

(4) all are correct

36) XY2 dissociates as :

XY2(g) XY(g) + Y(g)
Initial pressure of XY2 is 600 mm Hg. The total pressure at equilibrium is 800 mm Hg. Assuming
volume of system to remain constant, the value of Kp is :

(1) 50
(2) 100
(3) 200
(4) 400

37) The [H+] of a solution is 0.03 M. The pOH of this solution is (at 25oC)-

(1) 11.52
(2) 12.48
(3) 12.54
(4) 1.52

38) How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to
create an aqueous solution with pH of 2 ?

(1) 0.9 L
(2) 2.0 L
(3) 9.0 L
(4) 0.1 L

39) For a binary weak electrolyte, the degree of dissociation is proportional to the :-

(1) Dilution
(2) Square root of dilution
(3) Concentration
(4) Square root of concentration

40) If Kw for water is 10–13 M2 at 62oC, find out the sum of pOH and pH for a neutral aqueous solution
at 62oC.

(1) 13.00
(2) 13.30
(3) 14.00
(4) 7.00

41) Following few statements are given regarding water. How many of these are correct ?
(A) pH + pOH = 14 (at all temperature)
(B) [H+] × [OH–] = 10–14 (at all temperature)
(C) Ionisation constant of water is equal to ionic product of water.
(D) Nature of water remain neutral at all temperature.
(E) It becomes acidic at temperature higher than 25°C.
(F) For H2O ; [H+] < [OH–] at 90°C
(G) For H2O ; [H+] = [OH–] at any temperature

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

42) Which of the following aqueous solutions has pH greater than 7 ?

(1) CuSO4
(2) FeCl3
(3) NaCl
(4) CH3COONa

43) The solubility of AgCl in 0.2 M NaCl solution is (Ksp of AgCl 1.20 × 10–10)

(1) 6.0 × 10–10M

(2) 0.2M
(3) 1.2 × 10–10M
(4) 0.2 × 10–10M

44) The pH of a solution obtained by mixing 50 mL of 0.4 N HCl and 50 mL of 0.2 N NaOH is:

(1) –log 2
(2) –log 0.2
(3) 1
(4) 2

45)

The solubility of different sparingly soluble salts are given as under :-

 Sr. No. Formula Type Solubility Product

1 AB 4.0×10-20

2 A2B 3.2×10-11

3 AB3 2.7×10-31
The correct increasing order of solubility is :
(1) 1, 3, 2
(2) 2, 1, 3
(3) 1, 2, 3
(4) 3, 1, 2

BIOLOGY

1) Find out the odd character of solanaceae family

a) Inflorescence is cymose
b) Flowers are bisexual, actinomorphic
c) sepals are five, united, persistent, twisted aestivation
d) petals are five, united; valvate aestivation
e) stamens are five, epitepalous

(1) a & e
(2) b & d
(3) c & e
(4) b & c

2) How many of following feature is/are not applicable to tobacco family?

Bicarpellary, obliquely placed septa, apocarpous, superior ovary; bilocular ovary; placenta swollen
with many ovules; free-central placentation; drupe fruit.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

3) How many plants in the list give below belong to floral formula
Lupin, Datura, Turnip, Gloriosa, Brinjal, Chilli, Aloe, Raddish, Gram, Indigofera.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Five

4) Assertion A: In the scientific description of a flowering plant, the sequence starts with the habit
and vegetative characters before detailing the floral characters.
Reason R: The floral formula, which comes at the end of the description, is a representation using
specific symbols.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

5)

Following floral diagram belongs to which plant?

(1) Indigofera
(2) Ashwagandha
(3) Asparagus
(4) Calotropis

6) If the sepals do not fall and remain attached to fruit such kind of sepals are

(1) Wings
(2) Resistant
(3) Persistent
(4) Keel

7) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In potato (Solanum tuberosum), the underground stem is modified into a structure that
stores food.
Statement II: The stem of a plant is always aerial, erect, and cylindrical, and it cannot be branched,
solid, or hollow, nor can it be hairy or glabrous.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

8) In mustard

(1) Placentation is free central type

(2) Placenta is axial in position
(3) Ovary has basal placentation
(4) Ovary becomes two-chambered due to formation of false septum

9) Floral formula of Cruciferae is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Assertion :- In Solanaceae, Axile placentation is present.

Reason :- Floral formula of Solanaceae is

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) Identify the floral diagram of Brassicaceae :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) Select the medicinal plant belongs to family Solanaceae

(1) Aloe
(2) Muliathi
(3) Brinjal
(4) Belladonna

13) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Floral formula shows aestivation and placentation

(2) Floral formula shows cohesion and adhesion within parts of whorls and between whorls
(3) A dot on the top of the floral diagram, represents the position of the mother axis
(4) A2+4 condition is found in Brassicaceae family

14) Assertion A: In the floral formula, the position of the mother axis is indicated by a dot on the
top of the floral diagram.
Reason R: The dot represents the relative position of the flower to the plant's main axis.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

15) Correct position of floral parts over thalamus in mustard plant is :-

(1) Gynoecium occupies the highest position, while the other parts are situated below it.
Margin of the thalamus grows upward, enclosing the ovary completely, and other parts arise
(2)
below the ovary.
(3) Gynoecium is present in the centre and other parts cover it partially.
Gynoecium is situated in the centre, and other parts of the flower are located at the rim of the
(4)
thalamus, at the same level.

16) Which of the following condition is found in brassicaceae family :-

(1) Unisexual flower

(2) Inferior ovary
(3) Pentamerous flowers
(4) Bicarpellary, syncarpous and superior ovary

17) Match the following column–I and column–II :

 Column-I Column-II

(a) G (i) Superior ovary

(b) ⊕ (ii) Zygomorphic

(c) % (iii) Actinomorphic

(d) P (iv) Perianth

(1) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(3) i-b, iv-c, iii-b, ii-d
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b

18)

Cortex is the region found between :-

(1) Endodermis and pith

(2) Epidermis and pericycle
(3) Endodermis and vascular bundle
(4) Pericycle and endodermis

19) Sometimes a few epidermal cells in the vicinity of guard cells become specialized in their shape
and size, and are known as :

(1) Bulliform cell

(2) Trichome cell
(3) Subsidiary cells
(4) Stomata

20) Leaf mesophyll is included in :-

(1) Epidermal tissue system

(2) Ground tissue system
(3) Vascular tissue system
(4) All of the above

21) Given below is the diagram of a stomatal apparatus. In which of the following all the four parts
labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly identified?

A B C D
 Stomatal Subsidiary Epidermal
1 Guard cell
aperture cell cell

Stomatal Subsidiary
2 Epidermal cell Guard cell
aperture cell

Stomatal
3 Epidermal cell Subsidiary cell Guard cell
aperture

Stomatal
4 Subsidiary cell Epidermal cell Guard cell
aperture
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Xylem and phloem are situated at the same radius of V.B., is the character of....

(1) Stem and root

(2) Stem and leaf
(3) Root and leaf
(4) (1) and (2)

23) Assertion :- In monocotyledons, vascular bundles are referred to as closed.

Reason :- In, monocotyledons, vascular bundles have no cambium.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) The inner wall of each guard cell, towards the pore or stomatal aperture, is

(1) Thick
(2) Elastic
(3) Thin and inelastic
(4) Both (1) and (2)

25) Correct statements are

(a) Trichomes and root hair are epidermal appendages
(b) In grasses, the guard cells are bean-shaped
(c) Stomata regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange
(d) Trichomes in the shoot system are usually multicellular.

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (b) and (c)
26) The figures given below represents different types of vascular bundles. Select the correct option

for these diagrams:-

(1) A Shows conjoint open vascular bundle

(2) B Shows radial vascular bundle
(3) C Shows conjoint open vascular bundle
(4) A Shows conjoint closed vascular bundle

27) How many components in the list given below are the part of epidermal tissue system?
Epidermis, Xylem, Phloem, Root hairs, stomata, Cortex, Pericycle, Pith

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

28) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The cuticle is a waxy thick layer present on the outside of the epidermis which prevents
the loss of water and is also found in roots.
Statement II: Stomata are structures present in the epidermis of leaves, and each stoma is composed
of two bean-shaped cells known as guard cells which enclose stomatal pore.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

29) Trichomes are

(1) Unicellular, unbranched and absorb water and minerals

(2) Multicellular, branched and helps in photosynthesis
(3) Multicellular, branched/unbranched and prevent loss of water
(4) Unicellular, unbranched and helps in adhesion

30) What constitutes the ground tissue of a plant ?

(1) All tissues including epidermis and vascular bundle

(2) All tissue except outermost covering of plant and vascular bundles
(3) Xylem, phloem and pith
(4) Phloem and mesophyll

31) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The epidermal tissue system is usually multi-layered in plants.
Statement II: Epidermal cells are parenchymatous with a small amount of cytoplasm lining the cell
wall and a large vacuole.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

32) Assertion A: Ground tissue in plants is made up of all tissues except the epidermis and vascular
bundles.
Reason R: Ground tissue includes parenchyma, collenchyma, and sclerenchyma, which are found in
the cortex, pericycle, pith, and medullary rays.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

33) Find the correct option regarding the figure -

(1) a - dicot root, b - dicot stem, c - monocot stem

(2) a - monocot root, b - dicot root, c - conjoint open
(3) a - dicot root, b - conjoint closed, c - dicot stem
(4) a - monocot root, b - dicot root, c - dicot stem

34)

Which among the following was not the criteria for classification of organisms into 5 kingdoms
proposed by Whittaker ?

(1) Reproduction
(2) Phylogenetic relationship
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Metabolism
35)
What will be the correct/suitable characters in place of A, B, C, D in respective kingdoms in above
table ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) How many structures are not associated with bacterial cell ?
(a) Golgi body
(b) Ribosome
(c) Double stranded DNA
(d) Naked genetic material
(e) Fimbriae
(f) Mitochondria
(g) Endomembrane system
(h) Presence of plasmid
(i) Chloroplast

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 7

37) In given figure identify A, B and C

(1) A - Cell wall, B - Cell membrane, C - DNA
(2) A - Cell membrane, B - DNA, C - Cell wall
(3) A - Cell wall, B - DNA, C - Cell membrane
A - Cell membrane, B - Mesosome,
(4)
C - DNA

38) Multicellular Eukaryotic organisms with holophytic mode of nutrition belong to how many
kingdoms in Whittaker system

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

39) Assertion A: The five kingdom classification system includes criteria such as cell structure and
mode of nutrition.
Reason R: The three-domain system is a part of the five kingdom classification and divides Kingdom
Monera into two domains.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

40) In five kingdom classification of whittaker, kingdom monera is the group of microorganisms.
Among the following statement findout incorrect statement for bacteria:

(1) Bacteria are grouped under four categories based on their shape
(2) They are simple in structure, but complex in behaviour
(3) They show most extensive metabolic diversity
(4) The vast majority of bacteria are autotrophs

41) The name of some common disease are given below in the box:-

Cholera, Tobacco mosaic, Typhoid, Tetanus Influenza, Citrus canker

How many of these diseases are caused by bacteria?
(1) Three
(2) Six
(3) Two
(4) Four

42) “The Domain system Classification divides the Kingdom Monera into ———A——-, Eukaryotic
kingdoms are put into —-B— and thereby a six kingdom classification.

(1) A-Five Domain, B-One Domain

(2) A-Three Domain, B-Three Domain
(3) A-Two Domain, B-Four Domain
(4) A-Two Domain, B-One Domain

43) Choose the wrong statements regarding bacterial cell:-

(A) Small bristle like fibres sprouting out of the cell are called fimbriae
(B) The glycocalyx may be thick and tough called slime layer
(C) The glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called capsule
(D) Inclusion bodies are not bounded by any membrane system and lie free in the cytoplasm

(1) A & B
(2) B, C & D
(3) B & C
(4) C & D

44) Beneficial roles of prokaryotes do not include

(1) helpful in making curd from milk

(2) algal bloom
(3) helps in recycling of nutrients like N, P, Fe and S
(4) used for antibiotic production

45) The extra-chromosomal, self replicating, circular dsDNA in bacteria is called

(1) plastid
(2) polysomes
(3) plasmid
(4) nucleoid

46) In counter current system :-

(1) Descending arm of loop of Henle exchange its material with descending arm of vasa recta.
(2) Ascending arm of loop of Henle exchange its material with descending arm of vasa recta.
(3) "NaCl is returned to interstitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta"
(4) Both (2) & (3)

47) Which of the following Statement is/are true about Atrial Natriuretic factor (ANF)?
(A)An increase in blood volume and B.P. stimulates atria to release ANF.
(B) ANF promotes vasoconstriction and thereby decreases B.P.
(C) ANF acts as a check on RAAS.
(D) It work with renin.

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A & D
(4) A & C

48) Assertion :- Proximal convoluted tubule helps in maintain the pH and ionic balance in our body
fluid.
Reason :- H+ and NH3 are actively secreted while HCO3– reabsorbed through proximal convoluted
tubules.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are True & the (R) is a correct explanation of the (A).
(2) Both (A) & (R) are True but (R) is not a correct explanation of the (A).
(3) (A) is True but the (R) is False.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are False.

49) Assertion (A) :- PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium.
Reason (R) :- Brush border increases the surface area for reabsorption.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are True & the (R) is a correct explanation of the (A).
(2) Both (A) & (R) are True but (R) is not a correct explanation of the (A).
(3) (A) is True but the (R) is False.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are False.

50) Aquatic animals are mostly ammonotelic because :-

(1) water contains less nitrogen.

(2) ammonia helps in checking in flow of H2O into body
(3) these gets less light
(4) excretion of NH3 requires large amount of H2O which is available to these animals.

51) How many of the following statements are not incorrect?

(A) PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium.
(B) Collecting duct also plays a role in the maintenance of pH and ionic balance of blood by the
selective secretion of H+ ions and NH3.
(C) Loop of Henle of cortical nephrons runs deep into the medulla.
(D) Collecting duct extends from the cortex of the kidney to the inner parts of the medulla.
(E) Micturition is primarily controlled by the neural system.
Choose the correct option :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

52) Assertion (A): Blood is filtered so finely through membranes, that almost all the constituents of
the plasma except the proteins pass onto the lumen of the Bowman’s capsule.
Reason (R): The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called podocytes are arranged in an intricate
manner so as to leave some minute spaces called filtration slits or slit pores, by which ultra filtration
occur.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but Reason (R) is not correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect

53) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

a-axons, b-cell body, c-myelin sheath,

(1)
d-dendrites, e-node of Ranvier, f-Schwann cell
a-dendrites, b-axon, c-Schwann cell,
(2)
d-cell body, e-myelin sheath, f-node of Ranvier
a-dendrites, b-cell body, c-Schwann cell,
(3)
d-axon, e-myelin sheath, f-Node of Ranvier
a- synaptic knobs, b-cell body, c-myelin sheath,
(4)
d-axon, e-Schwann cell, f-Node of Ranvier

54) Match the columns I and II and choose the correct option :

Column I Column II

Myelinated Somatic
(a) 1.
nerve fibre nervous system

Non-myelinated Autonomic
(b) 2.
nerve fibre nervous system

3. Cranial nerves

4. Spinal nerves
(1) a-1, 2 ; b-3, 4
(2) a-3,4 ; b-1,2
(3) a-1,3 ; b-2,4
(4) a-2,4 ; b-1,3

55) Select the correct option from the choices given below:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

56) Find out the correct match from the following table with regard to the structural classification
of neurons.

(1) (i) only

(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) (ii) only

57)

Read the following statements :-

(A) Nervous system provides an organised network of point to point connection.
(B) The endocrine system provides chemical integration through hormone.
(C) The neural organisation is very complex in lower invertebrates.
(D) Neuron can detect & receive stimuli but can't transmit.
How many of above statements are false.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

58) Which statement is correct regarding neuron.

(1) Neuron is composed of 4 parts containing cell body dendrite, axon & telodendria
(2) Nissl's granules are found in both cell body & axon
(3) Impulse are divided into apolar, bipolar & multipolar
(4) Dendrites transmit impulse toward the body while axon transmit impulse away from the body

59) Select the symmetry shown by the two given animals A and B

A B

(1) Radial Symmetry Biradial Symmetry

(2) Radial Symmetry Bilateral Symmetry

(3) Biradial Symmetry Bilateral Symmetry

(4) Bilateral Symmetry Radial Symmetry

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Assertion :- In Sponges, fertilization is internal and cross.

Reason :- It occurs due to Protogynous Condition.

(1) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct explaination.

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are not correct.
(4) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.

61) Which of the following pairs of organisms posses stinging cells (nematocytes) ?

(1) Sea mouse and sea fan

(2) Sea pen and sea mouse
(3) Brain coral and sea pen
(4) Bath sponge and sycon

62) Water transport system is characteristic feature of :-

(1) Echinodermata
(2) Porifera
(3) Cnidaria
(4) Ctenophora

63) Identify A, B in the given figure :-

A B

Sexual Asexual
(1)
reproduction reproduction

Asexual Sexual
(2)
reproduction reproduction

Asexual Asexual
(3)
reproduction reproduction

Sexual Sexual
(4)
reproduction reproduction
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64)

Identify the given diagram A,B and C for phylum:-

(1) A-Platyhelminthes B-Aschelminthes C-Annelida

(2) A-Platyhelminthes B-Annelida C-Aschelminthes

(3) A-Annelida B-Platyhelminathes C-Aschelminthes

(4) A-Annelida B-Aschelminthes C-Platyhelminthes

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

65) Match column-I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the option given below :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A a Sycon i Scypha

Fresh water
B b Euspongia ii
sponge

C c Spongilla iii Both sponge

(1) A-b-iii, B-c-ii, C-a-i

(2) A-c-i, B-a-iii, C-b-ii
(3) A-a-ii, B-b-i, C-c-iii
(4) A-b-ii, B-c-i, C-a-iii

66) Complete the sentence :-

Notocord is ________ derived, rod-like structure formed on ________ side during embryonic
development in some animals.

(1) Mesodermally, Dorsal

(2) Endodermally, Ventral
(3) Mesodermally, Ventral
(4) Ectodermally, Dorsal

67) Represented below is the condition of germinal layers in animal, which one of the following
phylum could be an example of this condition :-

(1) Annelida
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Coelenterata

68) Study the chart and fill in the blanks (A), (B), (C) and (D).

(1) A-Cellular level; B-Bilateral symmetry; C-Radial symmetry; D-Acoelomate

(2) A-Cellular level; B-Radial symmetry; C-Bilateral symmetry; D-Pseudocoelomate
(3) A-Cellular level; B-Bilateral symmetry; C-Radial; D-Pseudocoelomate
(4) A-Cellular level; B-Radial symmetry; C-Bilateral; D-Eucoelomate

69) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Radial symmetry – Coelenterates

(2) Coelomates – Aschelminthes
(3) Metamerism – Molluscs
(4) Triploblastic – Sponges
70) The structure given below is present in which animal ?

(1) Scypha
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Physalia
(4) Taenia

71) Which one is the correct route through which pulse making impulse travels in the heart ?

(1) SA node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His → AV node → Heart muscles

(2) AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His → Heart muscles
(3) AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles
(4) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles

72) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

Heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an

A Heart failure I
inadequate blood supply.

Chest pain due to inadequate O2 reaching the heart

B Cardiac arrest II
muscles.

C Heart attack III Atherosclerosis.

Coronary Artery Heart not pumping blood effectively enough to

D IV
Disease (CAD) meet the needs of the body

E Angina pectoris V Heart stops beating

(1) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-III, E-II
(3) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III, E-I

73) In the diagram the section of human heart given here, certain parts have been represented by
alphabets. Choose the correct option in which an alphabet has been not correctly matched with the
part they indicate and their function.

(1) A = aortic arch → supplies oxygenated blood to whole body organs

(2) B = SA node → It generates maximum contraction impulses and initiates heart beat
(3) C = pulmonary vein → it collects the deoxygenated blood from lungs
D = chordae tendinae → To prevents the reverse opening of the AVV towards atria during
(4)
venticular contraction

74) Match the blood vessels of human heart listed under column–I with the functions given under
column–II: Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two
columns.

Column–I Column–II
(Blood vessel) (Function)

Superior Carries deoxygenated blood

A. p
vena cava to lungs

Inferior Carries oxygenated blood to

B. q
vena cava lungs

Brings deoxygenated blood

Pulmonary
C. r from lower parts of the body
artery
to the right atrium

Pulmonary Brings oxygenated blood to

D. s
vein the left atrium

Brings deoxygenated blood

t from upper parts of the body
into the right atrium
(1) A = t, B = p, C = r, D = q
(2) A = t, B = r, C = p, D = s
(3) A = s, B = t, C = r, D = p
(4) A = t, B = p, C = q, D = r

75) Assertion: Erythroblastosis feotalis not observed during first pregnancy although foetus is
Rh positive and mother is Rh negative.
Reason: Rh antigens of foetus do not get exposed to Rh negative blood of mother in first pregnancy
as the two bloods are well separated by placenta.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

76) The given figure is the systematic part of blood circulation in human. Identify from A to F.

A B C D E F

Body Pulmonary Vena Pulmonary Dorsal

(1) Lungs
parts vein cava artery aorta

Body Pulmonary Vena Pulmonary Dorsal

(2) Lungs
parts artery cava vein aorta

Body Pulmonary Dorsal Pulmonary Vena

(3) Lungs
parts artery aorta vein cava

Pulmonary Body Dorsal Pulmonary Vena

(4) Lungs
artery parts aorta vein cava
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Which of the following statement/statements are correct ?

(a) Crocodiles, birds and mammals possess a four chambered based heart.
(b) In single circulation, heart receives oxygenated blood from gills.
(c) There is no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in double circulation.
(d) In amphibians and reptiles, the left atrium receives deoxygenated blood and right atrium
receives
oxygenated blood.
(e) In open circulatory system blood is pumped by the heart into open spaces or sinuses.
(f) Annelids and chordates have a closed circulatory system.

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Three
(4) Two

78) The below figure is the diagramma tic representation of standard EGG.

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III

(2) A-III, B-II,C-I
(3) A-II, B-I,C-III
(4) A-II, B-III,C-I

79) Which of the following events do not occur during joint diastole?
A. All four chambers of heart are in relaxed state.
B. Tricuspid and bicuspid valves open.
C. Action potential is conducted from SAN to AVN.
D. Blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the left and right ventricles respectively
through the left and right atria.
E. The semilunar valves are closed.

(1) Only E
(2) Only C
(3) Only D
(4) Only A and B

80) Assertion: Starting of ventricular diastole leads to closure of semi lunar valves.
Reason: Ventricular diastole leads to fall in ventricular pressure.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

81) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The action potential is conducted to the ventricular side by the AVN and AV bundle, and
the
bundle of His transmits it through the entire ventricular musculature, causing the ventricular
muscles to
contract during ventricular systole.
Statement II: During ventricular systole, the increase in ventricular pressure causes the semilunar
valves to
close, preventing the flow of blood into the pulmonary artery and the aorta.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

82) A doctor suggested to a couple not to have more than one child because of :-

(1) Rh+ male and Rh– female

(2) Rh– male and Rh+ female
(3) Rh– male and Rh– female
(4) Rh+ male and Rh+ female

83) Assertion (A) :- Parasympathetic neural signal decrease the cardiac output.
Reason (R) :- Parasympathetic neural signal decrease the rate of heart beat, speed of conduction of
action potential.

(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

84) Read the following statements and choose the correct option -
(a) Plasma consists of nearly 45% part of blood
(b) Fibrinogen, albumin & globulin are major proteins of plasma
(c) Albumin helps in osmotic balance & retention of water in plasma
(d) Plasma without the clotting factors is called serum

(1) only b and c correct

(2) b, c & d correct
(3) a, b & c correct
(4) only c & d correct

85)
Choose A, B, C and D :-

(1) A → Fibrinogen, B → Prothrombin, C → Fibrin, D → Thrombin

(2) A → Prothrombin, B → Thrombin, C → Fibrinogen, D → Fibrin
(3) A → Fibrin, B → Thrombin, C → Fibrinogen, D →Prothrombin
(4) A → Fibrinogen, B → Thrombin, C → Prothrombin, D → Fibrin

86) Observe the following figure :- Identify A to E structure-

(1) A-Superior vena cava, B-Inferior vena cava, C-Dorsal Aorta, D-Urethra, E-Pelvis
(2) A-Inferior vena cava, B-Superior vena cava, C-Dorsal Aorta, D-Urethra, E-Pelvis
(3) A-Ureter, B-Inferior vena cava, C-Dorsal Aorta, D-Urethra, E-Pelvis
(4) A-Dorsal Aorta, B-Inferior vena cava, C-Urethra, D-Cortex, E-Pelvis

87) Given figure is of longitudinal section of kidney. Identify the parts labelled as A to D and select
the correct option :-

A-Cortex, B-Calyx,
(1)
C-Renal column, D-Ureter
A-Renal pyramid, B-Cortex,
(2)
C-Renal column, D-Ureter
A-Medulla, B-Cortex,
(3)
C-Renal capsule, D-Urethra
A-Calyx, B-Cortex,
(4)
C-Renal pelvis, D-Urethra

88) Assertion : Terrestrial adaptation necessitated the production of lesser toxic nitrogenous waste.
Reason : Terrestrial organisms produce urea and uric acid for conservation of water.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

89) Functions of ADH :-

I. Reabsorption of water from distal tubules.
II. Secretion of water from distal tubules.
III. Constriction of blood vessels.
IV. Dilatation of blood vessels.
V. Increase the blood flow.
VI. Decrease the blood flow.
Choose the correct combination of given functions from given option :-

(1) I, III, IV and V

(2) I, IV and V
(3) I, III and V
(4) II, IV and VI

90) Consider the following four statements (A–D) and select the option which includes all the
incorrect statements :-
(A) Henle's loop plays a significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary
interstitital fluid
(B) DCT plays a role in the maintenance of pH and ionic balance of blood by the selective secretion
of H⊕ and K⊕ ions
⊕
(C) Conditional reabsorption of Na and water takes place in PCT
(D) Nearly all of the essential nutrients and 70–80 percent of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed
by collecting duct

(1) Statements (A), (B), (D)

(2) Statements (A), (C), (D)
(3) Statements (B), (D)
(4) Statements (C), (D)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 1 3 1 3 2 2 2 4 3 1 3 2 1 1 2 2 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 2 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 3 4 2 1 2 3 3 2 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 1 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 1 1 4 3 3 1 4 3 4 3 1 3 4 3 4 3 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 2 2 1 4 3 4 1 1 2 3 1 1 4 2 2 3 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 1 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 2 2 2 3 1 4 4 2 4 4 1 4 1 4 1 2 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 1 3 2 4 1 3 4 1 2 1 1 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 3 2 3 4 4 1 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 2 (4) 1 1 4 2 1 3 4 1 3 2 1 2 1 3 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 1 2 2 3 2 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

3)

4)
hence (3) option is incorrect

5) y = sinx

Area =

=
⇒

⇒
⇒ 1

6)

7)

8)
9)

10)

Explaining : Resultant of forces

Concept : This question is based on polygon law of vector addition
Solution :
If vectors of equal magnitude are separated at equal angle of separation then resultant will be
zero.

Equal angle

Here

or radian
Final Answer : (4)

11) By triangle law

12)

13) or

14)

y = sinx cosx = × 2sinx cosx

y = × sin 2x
Maximum value of sin2x = 1
So, maximum value of y =

15) P = F.V
= ma.V
v = aT

16)

U = x2 – 3x

= – (2x – 3)
= – 2x + 3
So by Work - Energy Theorem
Δ(K.E.) = Wnet

Kf – Ki =

K–0=

K=

K=
K = [–(2)2 + 3(2)] – [–(0)2 + 3(0)]
K=2–0
K = 2J
Alternate solution → force is conservative so total mechanical energy remains conserved at x =
0
U + K.E. = 0
∴ at x = 2 U + K.E. = 0
at x = 2 U = (2)2 – 3 × 2 = –2
∴ K.E. = 2

17)
= 2000 W

= 3333.33 W
= 3.3 kW

18) Power,

⇒v∝x

19)

20)

Mean position is x2 +

21)

Fv = P
(ma)v = P

22) At equilibrium,

F=– =0
(–12) ax + (6 bx–7) = 0
–13
or

∴ x=

23) Explain - Centripetal acceleration is given and momentum is asked for a particle
performing circular motion.
Concept - Centripetal & acceleration and momentum both depends on speed.
Formula -
1)
2) p=mv
Calculation

(Given)

24)

At

⇒ Now

25) w.r.t. Q

26)

Linear speed of particle P → V = rω

Angular velocity of P about A =

27) a cos 30° = ac =

⇒ v2 = aR × ⇒ v2 = 32.47
⇒
28)
As strings are identical, means same length
So, θ1 = θ2 = θ
h1 = h – h1

...(1)
(T1 – T2) cosθ = mg ...(2)
by (1) ÷ (2)

...(3)

Here put in (3)

29) (1) Asking About:

The angular speed at which the mass remains in equilibrium inside a rotating hemispherical
bowl.

(2) Concept:
In equilibrium, the forces acting on the mass (gravitational force, normal force, and centrifugal
force) must balance in the rotating frame.

(3) Formula:
Centrifugal force:
• Equilibrium condition:
(4) Calculation / Explanation:
1. Given:
2. Horizontal distance:

3. Angle θ :

4. Using the equilibrium equation:

5. Solving for ω :
 (5) Final Answer:

(6) Correct Option: Option 1

30)

31)

32)

(1) Asking About:

Velocity ratio at A,B, and C in vertical circular motion.

(2) Concept:

A. Energy conservation governs velocity changes.

(3) Formula:
Critical speed at C:

Energy conservation from C to any other point x :

Heights: hC = 2R, hB = R, hA = 0.

Calculation / Explanation:

Using energy conservation at each point:

A. At C :

At B (midway point, R below C):

At A (lowest point, 2R below C):

Final Answer: Option (2)

33)

....(i)

= mgR(1–cosq) ....(ii)

34) Speed at any angle from vertical

Tension at bottom position

= 16m + 2mg + mg
= 16m + 3mg
= (16 × 1 + 3 × 1 × 10)N
= 46N

35)

⇒
36)

37)

Apply COME from P to Q :-

⇒ mg(5R) =

⇒ 4mgR =
⇒V=

At Q :- = 8mg

38)

Velocity
other options are dimensionally wrong.

39)

40) Question Explanation :

A circular plate of diameter a is in contact with a square plate of edge a. We need to find the
center of mass of the composite system.
Concept Based :
This problem involves finding the center of mass of a composite system made of two shapes: a
circle and a square. The center of mass is determined by the masses and positions of the
objects.
Formula Used :
The center of mass (CM) for two objects is given by:

where M is the mass and x is the position of the center of mass of each object.
Calculation :
Given that the density and thickness are the same for circular and square plates, the masses of
the two plates are proportional to their surface areas.
• Mass of the circle:

• Mass of the square:

Msquare ∝ a2

Since a2 is greater than , the square plate has more mass.

Thus, the center of mass of the system will be closer to the square plate, inside the square
plate.

Final Answer: inside the square plate

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

41) Explain:- masses of three particles and their cordinates are given. We are asked to find
cordinates of COM of 3- particle system.
Concept:- COM of Descrete system

Formula:-

Calculation:-

So COM(1,3)

42) Explain:- In a two mass system, if mass m1 is moved toward the centre of mass then, in
what way m2 must move in a way that centre of mass remains fixed.
concept:- → To maintain the center of mass at the same position, the movement of one mass
must be compensated by the other.
→ If m1 is at r1 distance from COM and m2 is at r2 distance from COM then we can use
formula:- m1r1=m2r2
m1r1=m2r2
visual aid

Calculation:
initially
 ...(i)
finally

using equation (1)

43)

44)

T1 – 4g = 4a ________(i)
T2 – T1 = 8a ________(ii)
8g – T2 = 8a ________(iii)
Solving (i), (ii) and (iii) ; we get |a| = 2 m/s2

45)

so, x = 5m

CHEMISTRY

46)
47) Due to cross conjugation

48) –NO2 is –I, –R

–O– is +I, +R
–O–CH3 is –I, +R
–CN is –I, –R

49)

a>b>c

50)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks about the molecular shapes of two species: the
methyl cation (CH3+) and the methyl anion (CH3-). Specifically, it wants to know whether
their shapes are planar, pyramidal, or otherwise.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves understanding molecular geometry based on
electron pairs around the central carbon atom. The shape depends on the number of bonding
pairs and lone pairs, as explained by VSEPR theory. Hybridization (sp² vs sp³) influences
geometry, with no lone pairs leading to a planar shape and the presence of a lone pair causing
a pyramidal shape.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that molecules with no lone pairs and three substituents are
usually trigonal planar (sp²), and those with one lone pair and three substituents are typically
trigonal pyramidal (sp³).

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to assume both CH3+ and CH3- have the same
shape without accounting for lone pairs. Another is confusing the hybridization states.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like 'Planar, Planar' ignore the lone pair effect
on CH3-, and 'Pyramidal, Pyramidal' incorrectly assign a lone pair to CH3+. 'Pyramidal,
Planar' reverses the geometries of the two ions.

51) Sol. When -ve change on any atom after Resonance goes on same atom then it is called as
EQUIVALENT RESONANCE and structures are called as EQUIVALENT RESONATING
STRUCTURES.

∴ are
equivalent Resonating structures.

52) A. Question: The question which of the following resonating structure is not valid.
B. Given Data: C.
Concept: Rules for writing resonating structure: -
1.The -bond skeleton will remain same in two resonating structures.

2. The atoms are not moved.

no. of paired eΘ = 4 no. of paired eΘ = 2

no. of unpaired eΘ = 0 no. of unpaired eΘ = 2
4. The octet rule is not violated (for second period element).

5. High Energy Structure (H.E.S.) are rejected as resonating structure or their contribution to
the resonance hybrid is least.
6. Opposite charge on adjacent atoms and similar charge on adjacent atoms are cases of high
energy. They are not accepted as resonating structures.

D. Explanation:

E. Final Answer: 3

53) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about Value of (X-Y) where 'X' is number of Localised lone pair and 'Y' is
number of sp2 hybridised Nitrogen atom.

Concept: - This question is based on

(1) If Lone pair is present on double bonded atom then it never takes part in conjugation that
is Lone pair is Localised.

(2) If atom has more than one Lone pair then at a time only one Lone pair takes part in
resonance and rest are localised.

Solution :

→ Lone pair on all Nitrogen atom and one Lone pair on oxygen atom are Localised that is
"X=4"
→ Both Double bonded nitrogen atom are sp2 hybridised that is Y = 2
→ Hence X-Y = 4 - 2 ⇒ 2

Final Answer :
Option (2)

54)

Refer properties of carbocation.

55) Energy of resonance hybrid of a molecule is lower than that of any of the canonical
structures.

56) ↔ is not pair of valid resonating structure because in

resonance transfer of atom does not take place i.e. atom do not change there position.

57)

Refer order of -I effect

58)

In resonance π bond is transfered.

59)
Resonance shown by

60) All of these (Theoritical Fact)

61)

Due to +I effect and hyper conjugation

62)

The flow of pi electron should be in one direction.

63)

Hetro atom (O) not present within the ring.

64) Homologous compound constitute a service in which they have same functional group and
similar chemical property. The member of series differ by number of repeating units (–CH2)
they contain. Hence, they have the same general formula.

65)
Number of carbon that are 2° as well as sp2 hybridised = 2

66)

Iso group:
In , this iso group structural unit is not present.

67)

C = C bond → Olefinic bond

C ≡ C bond → Acetylinic bond

68) Concept:
Homologous series has members having same functional group and different molecular
weights.

Soln/Explanation:

• are not homologue of each other because both the

compounds has different functional groups alcohol and ether respectively.

69)

100 ml of water

70)

= 0.225
= 6.3
Total mass = 6.3 + 2.4 = 8.7 g

71) (i) 1 Mol of oxygen = 32 g

(ii) 1 Molecule of oxygen = g

(iii) 10–10 g of iron = 10–10 g
(iv) 1 g atom of nitrogen = 14 g

72) 4 g in 100 g 100 g compound

32 g in ⇒ = 800 g

73) 22.4 L water vapour has = 6.023 × 1023 molecule

1mL has =

74) Moles of Ag2CO3 = Mol

Ag2CO3 —® 2Ag + CO2 + O2

0.01 mole 0.02 mole
Mass of 0.02 mole Ag = 0.02 × 108 = 2.16 g

75)

So Forward direction.

76)

Additional of inert gas at constant pressure will increase volume so reaction moves in the
direction having more gaseous moles.

77)

N2O3(g) NO(g) + NO2(g)

1 0 0 x = .5
1–x x x
1 – .5 .5 .5 Total moles = 1.5

78)

Explaining the Question :-

Determine the relationship between stoichiometric coefficients a, b, and c for the reaction aA
bB + cC, based on the given favorable conditions.
Concept :- Le Chatelier's Principle
Reasoning :- According to Le Chatelier's principle, an increase in pressure favors the reaction
direction that results in fewer moles of gas.
• The problem states that high pressure favors the forward reaction (product formation).
• This implies: (moles of gaseous reactants)> (moles of gaseous products).
• From the equation, this means : a > b + c.
• The low temperature condition is consistent with the given exothermic reaction but does not
determine the relationship between the coefficients
 Final Answer :-
The relationship between the coefficients is a> b + c. Correct option: 1

79) k =

80)

81)

Explanation

A. Calculation of the equilibrium constant of the reaction.

Given Data

A. Reaction: XY₂(g) ⇌ XY(g) + Y(g)

B. Initial pressure of XY₂ (P₀) = 600 mm Hg
C. Total pressure at equilibrium (Ptotal) = 800 mm Hg

Concept

For a gaseous reaction at equilibrium, Kp is expressed in terms of the partial pressures of the
reactants and products. We need to determine the partial pressures at equilibrium using the
given total pressure and initial pressure.

Calculation

Let 'p' be the increase in pressure of XY and Y at equilibrium.

XY₂(g) XY(g) Y(g)

Initial (P) 600 0 0
Change (P) -p +p +p
Equilibrium (P) 600-p p p

A. Total pressure at equilibrium

Ptotal) = P(XY₂) + P(XY) + P(Y)

800 = (600 - p) + p + p 800 = 600 + p

p = 800 - 600 p = 200 mm Hg

Now, find the partial pressures at equilibrium:

A. P(XY₂) = 600 - p = 600 - 200 = 400 mm Hg

B. P(XY) = p = 200 mm Hg
C. P(Y) = p = 200 mm Hg
D. Now, calculate Kp:
Kp = [P(XY) × P(Y)] / P(XY₂)

Kp = (200 ×2 00) / 400

Kp = 40000 / 400

Kp = 100

Answer option 2, (100).

82)

83)

84)

Fact

85)

86)

87) Concept & Explanation: pH measures the acidity of basicity of an aqueous solution. A pH
grater than 7 indicates a basic solution. Salts formed from a weak acid and a strong base will
have a pH grater than 7.
CuSO4: Copper sulfate is formed from a strong acid (H2SO4) and a strong base (Cu(OH)2). Its
is aqueous solution is acidic (pH < 7).
FeCl: Iron (III) chloride is formed from a strong acid (HCl) and a weak base (Fe(OH)3). Its
aqueous solution is acidic (pH – 7) due to the hydrolysis of the Fe3+ion.
NaCl: Sodium chloride is formed from a strong acid (HCl) and a strong base (NaOH). Its
aqueous solution is neutral (pH = 7).
CH3COONa: Sodium acetate is formed from a weak acid (CH3COOH) and a strong base
(NaOH). The acetate ion (CH3COO–) will react with water, accepting a proton and forming
OH–ions, making the solution basic (pH > 7).
 Answer: Option 4, CH3COONa.

88)

Solubility in presence of common ion effect

⇒ S' =

89) N1V1 acid – N2V2 base = NR (V1 + V2)

0.4 × 50 – 0.2 × 50 = NR × 100
NR = 0.1
∴ [H+] = 0.1 M
pH = –log[H+] = –log 0.1 = 1

90) Solubility calculations:

For a general salt AxBy, solubility s is given by:

A. AB (1:1 Type)

• A2B (2 : 1 Type)

Increasing Order of Solubility:

Comparing the solubilities:

Thus, the increasing order of solubility is:

Correct Answer:
Option 1: 1, 3, 2

BIOLOGY

91)
statement c and statement e are odd.
Correct statement -
Calyx: sepals five, united, persistent, valvate aestivation
Androecium: stamens five, epipetalous
Correct Answer: (3)

92)

Ncert Pg No: 79, 2021-22

93)

The plants that belong to the solanaceae family are:

Datura, Brinjal, Chilli

94) The assertion is true as the standard practice in botanical description is to start with the
general habit and vegetative parts of the plant, moving towards the more specific floral
characters. The reason is also true; the floral formula is indeed a representation using symbols
that summarize the structure of a flower. However, the reason is not the correct explanation
for the assertion; it does not explain why the description starts with the habit and vegetative
characters, but rather it describes the content of the floral formula.

95)

NCERT Pg. No. 80

96)

97) Statement I: Correct. In potato (Solanum tuberosum), the underground stem is modified
into tubers, which are structures that store food.
Statement II: Incorrect. The stem of a plant can be aerial or underground, erect or prostrate,
cylindrical or flattened, branched or unbranched, solid or hollow, and hairy or glabrous. The
stem exhibits a wide range of variations and is not always aerial, erect, and cylindrical.

98) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 75

99)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 67

100) NCERT-XI Page No. # 80

101) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 78

 102) NCERT Pg 68

103) NCERT pg.no. 67, 68

104) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Assertion is false but reason is true. The floral diagram uses a dot to indicate the position of
the mother axis, which shows the orientation of the flower in relation to the plant's main axis
not floral formula so assertion is wrong.
Hence, option (4) is correct.

105) The correct answer is 1. Gynoecium occupies the highest position, while the other
part are situated below it.
Explanation: In the mustard plant (and other members of the Brassicaceae family), the
flower has a hypogynous arrangement. In this type of flower, the gynoecium (the female
reproductive part) occupies the highest position on the thalamus, and the other floral parts
(such as the stamens, petals, and sepals) are situated below the gynoecium.

A. The gynoecium is positioned at the top of the flower, at the highest level.
B. The stamens, petals, and sepals are positioned below the gynoecium in a hypogynous
arrangement.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

106) NCERT – XI, Pg. # 80

107)

Solution-

the correct matching is:

(a) - (i)

(b) - (iii)

(c) - (ii)

(d) - (iv)

the correct answer is:(1) i-a, iii-b, ii-c, iv-d

108)

NCERT Pg. # 73-74

109)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 72

110)

Ncert page 89 (Ncert 2022).

111)

NCERT Page No. 89

112) NCERT 11th Page No. 90

113) NCERT-XI Page No. # 90

114) NCERT Pg. No.-187

115) NCERT Pgno.88, 89

116) NCERT pg- 73

117) NCERT pg- 72

118) Statement I: Incorrect. The cuticle is indeed a waxy thick layer that prevents the loss of
water, but it is absent in roots, not present as the statement suggests. Statement II: Correct.
Stomata are structures in the epidermis of leaves involved in transpiration and gaseous
exchange, and each stoma is surrounded by two guard cells that form the stomatal pore.

119) Ncert Page 89.

120) NCERT Page no. 89

121) Statement I: Incorrect. The epidermal tissue system is usually single-layered, not multi-
layered as stated. It forms the outermost covering of the whole plant body. Statement II:
Correct. Epidermal cells are parenchymatous with a small amount of cytoplasm lining the cell
wall and a large vacuole, which is a characteristic feature of these cells.

122) The assertion is true as ground tissue excludes the epidermis and vascular bundles,
encompassing all other tissue types. The reason is also true and is the correct explanation for
the assertion because ground tissue indeed includes parenchyma, collenchyma, and
sclerenchyma, which are located in the specified areas of the plant.

123)

NCERT XI, Pg # 73
124)

response to external stimuli was not a primary criterion used for categorizing
organisms. Instead, he based his classification on cell structure, body organization, mode of
nutrition, reproduction, and phylogenetic relationships.

125)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 11

126)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 11

127)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 14

128)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 12

129) The assertion is true as the five kingdom classification system indeed uses criteria such
as cell structure, body organisation, mode of nutrition, reproduction, and phylogenetic
relationships for classification. However, the reason is false because the three-domain system
is not a part of the five kingdom classification. Instead, it is a separate system that proposes a
division of Kingdom Monera into two domains and suggests a six kingdom classification by
adding the domains Archaea and Bacteria, with the remaining eukaryotic kingdoms grouped
under the domain Eukarya.

130)

The vast majority of bacteria are autotrophs

131)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 14

132) NCERT 11th Class (Chapter-2) Page No. 16

133)

The glycocalyx may be thick and tough called slime layer

The glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called capsule
 134)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 10

135)

NCERT-XI; Page no. # 13

136) The correct answer is: Option (4) Both (2) & (3)

Solution/Explanation:

A. Incorrect: The descending limb of the loop of Henle primarily loses water, not NaCl. Also, the
exchange isn't with the descending vasa recta.
B. Correct: The ascending limb of the loop of Henle loses NaCl, which is picked up by the
descending vasa recta. This is a key part of the countercurrent exchange.
C. Correct: As the vasa recta ascends back toward the cortex, it loses water (which went into the
descending limb of the loop of Henle) and returns the NaCl to the interstitium (the space
surrounding the loop of Henle), maintaining the high salt concentration in the medulla.

Hence, option (4) is correct.

137) Question Explanation: Identify. Correct about ANF

Concept : RAAS.

Solution :
ANF → it is released by Heart to check the effect of RAAS mechenism. when blood volume &
blood pressure increases in body due to RAAS., Atrial got Stimulated & Secrete ANF. Which
then intibit the RAAS.
So A & C are correct.

Final Answer : option (4).

138) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 294 (H), Para-4th

139) NCERT, Pg. # 209, Fig.-16.3

140) excretion of NH3 requires large amount of H2O which is available to these animals.

141)

(B) Selective secretion of H+ and K+ occurs in collecting duct.

(C) In juxta medullary nephron, the loop of Henle is very long and runs deep into the medulla.

142) XI NCERT Page # 208

 143)

The correct answer is 3. a-dendrites, b-cell body, c-Schwann cell, d-axon, e-myelin
sheath, f-Node of Ranvier
Let's break down the components of the neuron:
• Dendrites (a): These are short, branching fibers that receive signals from other neurons.
• Cell Body (b): This is the main part of the neuron, containing the nucleus and other
organelles.
• Schwann Cell (c): These cells wrap around the axon, forming the myelin sheath.
• Axon (d): This is a long, slender projection that transmits signals away from the cell body.
• Myelin Sheath (e): This is a fatty layer that insulates the axon and speeds up signal
transmission.
• Node of Ranvier (f): These are gaps between segments of the myelin sheath.

144) NCERT(XIth) Pg # 317

145)

146)

NCERT Pg. No: 232

147) B) The endocrine system provides chemical integration through hormones.

A. This statement is true. The endocrine system is responsible for releasing hormones into the
bloodstream, which help in regulating various physiological processes and maintaining
homeostasis in the body.

(C) The neural organisation is very complex in lower invertebrates.

A. This statement is false. The neural organization in lower invertebrates is relatively simple
compared to more complex organisms like mammals. Their nervous systems are less
developed and lack the intricate structures

found in higher animals.

(D) Neuron can detect & receive stimuli but can't transmit.

A. This statement is false. Neurons are designed to both detect and receive stimuli, and
importantly, they can also transmit electrical impulses to other neurons or effector cells (such
as muscles or glands).
Conclusion:

A. False statements: (C) and (D).

B. Therefore, 2 statements are false.

148) Solution:
he question asks which statement is correct regarding neurons. The options are:
1. Neuron is composed of 4 parts containing cell body, dendrite, axon & telodendria.
2. Nissl's granules are found in both cell body & axon.
3. Impulse are divided into apolar, bipolar & multipolar.

149) NCERT Page 47.

150) Spanges are Hermaphrodite, but the fertilization takes place inside the body and it is
cross due to Protogynous Condition (Female Gametes Mature prior to Male Gametes).

151) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50

152) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 49

153) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50

154)

Ncert page 48.

155) NCERT Pg # 49 para 4.2.1 fig 4.5 a, b, c

156)

NCERT Page no. 48

157) NCERT Page no. 47

158) NCERT Page no. 49

159) NCERT XI Pg. # 41

160)

Explain Question : The structure given below (Diagram) is Present in which Animal ?

Concept : This question is based on Phylum Coelenterata.

 Solution : The given Diagram is of Cnidoblast and Present in members of phylum
Coelenterata
Eg. → Physalia

Final Answer : option (3)

161)

The electrical impulse for a heartbeat normally originates in the sinoatrial (SA) node, which is
why it's known as the heart's pacemaker. The impulse then travels through the heart in a
specific and coordinated manner:

A. SA node: The impulse is generated here.

B. AV node: The impulse travels across the atria to the atrioventricular (AV) node. The AV node
introduces a brief delay to allow the atria to contract and empty blood into the ventricles
before ventricular contraction begins.
C. Bundle of His: From the AV node, the impulse travels rapidly through the Bundle of His,
which is a bundle of specialized muscle fibers located in the interventricular septum.
D. Purkinje fibres: The Bundle of His then branches into the left and right bundle branches,
which further subdivide into a network of Purkinje fibres that spread throughout the
ventricular myocardium. This ensures a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles.
E. Heart muscles (ventricular myocardium): The impulse finally reaches the individual
cardiac muscle cells of the ventricles, causing them to depolarize and contract.

Therefore, the correct route through which the pulse-making impulse travels in the heart is:

SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → Heart muscles

Final Answer : (4) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers → Heart muscles

162) Explanation:
The question asks to match descriptions of heart-related conditions in Column I with their
corresponding medical terms in Column II.
Correct Answer and Explanation:
Option 1: A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II

A. A (Heart failure) - IV (Heart not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs
of the body): Heart failure occurs when the heart muscle is weakened and cannot pump
enough blood to support the body's needs.
B. B (Cardiac arrest) - V (Heart stops beating): Cardiac arrest is the sudden cessation of
heart function, meaning the heart stops beating.
C. C (Heart attack) - I (Heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood
supply): A heart attack, also known as myocardial infarction, happens when blood flow to a
part of the heart muscle is blocked, causing damage.
D. D (Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)) - III (Atherosclerosis): CAD is often caused by
atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of plaque in the coronary arteries that supply blood to the
heart muscle.
E. E (Angina pectoris) - II (Chest pain due to inadequate O2 reaching the heart
muscles): Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart
muscle, often during physical activity or stress.
163) NCERT - Pg. # 283

164)

NCERT - Pg. No.# 297

165)

NCERT-XI, Page # 196

166)

NCERT-XI, Page # 202

167) NCERT XI, pg # 282

168) 1. Asking About : Different waveforms of ECG

2. Concept: Electro cartogram (ECG)
3. Solution/Explanation: P – wave – Represents Atrial depolarization followed by Stature of
both Aria.
QRS Complex :-
Ventricular depolarization followed by ventricular contraction.
T - Wave :
Ventricular Repolarization followed by ventricular Relaxation.
Hence correct answer is option (3)

169) NCERT XI, Page # 199

170) NCERT XI, Page # 200

171) Statement I: Correct. The action potential is indeed conducted to the ventricular side by
the AVN and AV bundle, and the bundle of His transmits it through the entire ventricular
musculature, causing the ventricular muscles to contract during ventricular systole.
Statement II: Incorrect. During ventricular systole, the increase in ventricular pressure does
not cause the semilunar valves to close; rather, it forces them open, allowing the blood in the
ventricles to flow through the pulmonary artery and the aorta into the circulatory pathways.

172) NCERT-XI, Page # 281

173) NCERT, Pg. # 287

174)
 What the Question Is Asking: The question asks to evaluate four statements about blood
plasma and choose the option that correctly identifies which of these statements are accurate.

Solution:

(b) Fibrinogen, albumin and globulin are major proteins of plasma is correct.
(c) Albumin helps in osmotic balance and retention of water in plasma is correct.
(d) Plasma without the clotting factors is called serum is correct.

The correct option should include statements b, c, and d.

Final Answer : option (2). b, c & d correct

175) A → Prothrombin, B → Thrombin, C → Fibrinogen, D → Fibrin

176)

NCERT-XI, fig. 16.1

177)

Explain Question : The question is asking to identify and match labeled parts A to D in the
longitudinal section of a kidney.

Concept : This question is based on Structure of kidney.

Solution :
A: Renal pyramid – cone-shaped structure in medulla
B: Cortex – outer region of kidney
C: Renal column – tissue between pyramids
D: Ureter – carries urine from kidney to bladder

Final Answer : option (2)

178) NCERT Pg#290

179) NCERT XI (E) Pg # 297

180) Module