Health Environment and Application
Health Environment and Application
• Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is a • It is also called hog flu or pig influenza.
disease of human immune system. • The risk of this disease is higher in those, who consume pork.
• It is caused by Human Immunodeficiency Virus • Symptoms are fever, lethargy, sneezing, coughing, difficulty
(HIV). in breathing and decreased appetite.
• HIV is a lentivirus of the retrovirus family. • Tamiflu and relenza vaccine are used to prevent this disease.
• HIV can spread by the following methods • There is absence of an effective treatment or vaccine for
(i) Through sexual contact, e.g. oral, vaginal and anal swine flu.
sex.
(ii) Through blood transfusions, e.g. accidental needle Helminthic Diseases
sticks or needle sharing. These diseases are caused by helminthic worms. Some
(iii) From mother to child, e.g. a pregnant woman can helminthic diseases are
transmit virus to her foetus through their shared
blood circulation or a nursing mother can pass it 1. Ascariasis
to her baby through breast’s milk.
• It is caused by Ascaris lumbricoides.
• Major clinical symptoms of AIDS in humans are loss
• It spreads through raw vegetables, dirty hands and ingestion
of weight, prolonged fever, chronic diarrhoea, red or
of contaminated soil.
brown blotches on or under the skin of nose, mouth.
swallon gland, fatigue, etc. • Its symptoms are nausea, cough and severe abdominal pain.
Intestinal destruction may also occur.
• In children less then 12 years of age, persistent
cough is not a clinical symptom of AIDS. • Preventive measures includes sanitation and uses of
antihelminthic drugs.
• ELISA, PCR and RIP/IFA are the confirmatory tests
for AIDS.
2. Taeniasis
• Anti-retroviral drugs, e.g. AZT (Azidothymidine),
• It is caused by Taenia solium.
zidovudine and norvir are used to supress AIDS.
• It spreads through improperly cooked food and also through
• AIDS day is observed on 1st December.
raw vegetables, which are not properly washed.
11. Yellow Fever • The symptoms are chronic indigestion, anorexia, similar
symptoms of epilepsy.
• It is caused by Flavi virus.
• Treated by sanitation, use of properly cooked food and
• The mosquito Aedes aegypti transmits the virus to
helminthic drugs.
humans.
• Its symptoms are aching muscles particularly the back 3. Filariasis
and knee muscles, dizziness, loss of appetite, nausea, • It is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.
shivers (chills) and vomiting. Skin and whites of eyes
• Transmitted by Culex sp. of mosquito.
take a yellow tinge.
• Fever, legs may become swollen and resemble with those of
• No effective antiviral medication, but making sure
the patient’s blood pressure is adequate, replacing elephant. So, this disease is also called elephantiasis.
lost blood and treating any secondary infections. • The preventive measures includes destruction of mosquitoes
• This disease is not prevalent in India.
and use of mosquito repellent creams and mats and
antihelminthic drugs.
808 NDA/NA Pathfinder
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Extreme swelling on legs and feet 11. Black death is the name given to 19. Which one of the following is not
is the main symptom of the (a) malaria (b) cholera a bacterium?
disease (c) cancer (d) plague (a) Escherichia coli
(a) food poisoning (b) AIDS 12. Ascaris is transmitted through (b) Neisseria gonorhoeae
(c) elephantiasis (d) malaria (a) housefly (c) Treponema pallidum
(b) contaminated food (d) Wuchereria bancrofti
2. Which one is a bacterial disease?
(a) Ringworm (b) AIDS (c) mosquito (d) tse-tse fly 20. Which one of the following
(c) Malaria (d) Leprosy 13. Rats are known to transmit the diseases is not prevalent in
3. Which of the following is related germs for India?
(a) malaria (b) typhoid (a) Hepatitis (b) Fluorosis
with diphtheria disease?
(c) plague (d) rabies (c) Yellow fever (d) Meningitis
(a) Liver (b) Blood
(c) Throat (d) Spleen 14. Infection of taeniasis usually 21. AIDS is caused by Human
4. In which disease, DPT vaccine is occurs by Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
used? (a) mosquito which is
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Diphtheria (b) roughly cooked food (a) retrovirus (b) DNA virus
(c) Polio (d) All of these (c) contaminated food and water (c) Both a and b (d) immune virus
(d) None of the above 22. Cure to spinal injury is likely to
5. Which of the following is a cause
of AIDS disease? 15. Polio vaccine was first prepared emerge from
(a) Protozoa (b) Virus by (a) gene therapy
(c) Bacteria (d) Helminthic worm (a) J Salk (b) L Pasteur (b) stem cell therapy
(c) G J Mendel (d) Watson (c) xenograft
6. In our body, the immune system (d) transfusion
is suppressed by this disease 16. The disease haemophilia, in
(a) AIDS (b) TB human beings, is due to 23. Leishmania, the causative agent
(c) cancer (d) arthritis (a) sex-linked recessive gene of kala-azar, multiplies
(b) sex-linked dominant gene asexually by
7. Cancer is a disease caused by (c) autosomal recessive gene (a) budding (b) binary fission
(a) bacteria (b) virus (d) autosomal dominant gene (c) multiple fisson (d) sporogony
(c) fungus (d) carcinogens
17. Which one of the following is a 24. Consider the following
8. Most effective medicine for genetic disorder? statements regarding the recent
malaria is (a) Bronchitis global outbreak of ‘Swine Flu’.
(a) streptomycin (b) quinine (b) Night blindness (a) The agent of infection is not
(c) penicillin (d) None of these (c) Osteoporosis well-identified
9. Which one is a viral disease? (d) Sickle-cell anaemia (b) The risk is higher in those who
(a) Cholera (b) Tetanus consume pork
18. Which one is the causative agent (c) It has a propensity to spread
(c) Rabies (d) None of these
of cerebral malaria? from contact with an infected
10. Which disease is called as Royal (a) Plasmodium falciparum person
disease? (b) Plasmodium malariae (d) Absence of an effective treatment
(a) Haemophilia (b) Cancer (c) Plasmodium ovale or vaccine makes it risk for global
(c) Diabetes (d) Anaemia (d) Plasmodium vivax pandemic
GENERAL SCIENCE > Biology 811
25. Which of the following pairs is 31. Consider the following pairs. 37. Match the following columns.
correctly matched? 1. Robert Koch — Anthrax Column II
Disease Causative agent bacterium Column I
(Pathogen/prevention
(a) Scabies – Entamoeba 2. Edward Jenner — Vaccine (Diseases)
/treatment)
histolytica 3. Pasteur — Rabies A. Amoebiasis 1. Treponema pallidum
(b) Pneumonia – Sarcoptes Rom
Which of these pairs is/are correctly B. Diphtheria 2. Use only sterilised
(c) Filaria – Wuchereria
matched? food and water
bancrofti
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 C. Cholera 3. DPT vaccine
(d) Tetanus – Haemophilus
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these D. Syphilis 4. Use of oral rehydration
pertussis
32. Which of the following are correctly therapy
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-29) The matched? Codes
following questions consist of two 1. Tse-tse fly — Sleeping sickness A B C D
statements one labelleled Statement I 2. Female Anopheles (a) 1 2 3 4
and the other labelleled Statement II. — Malaria mosquito (b) 2 4 1 3
Select the correct answers to these 3. Sand fly — Kala-azar (c) 2 1 3 4
questions from the codes given below. Codes (d) 2 3 4 1
Codes (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
38. Match the following columns and
(a) Both Statements are true and (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Statements II is the correct
choose the correct option.
33. Consider the following diseases.
explanation of Statement I Column I Column II
1. Typhoid 2. Tuberculosis
(b) Both Statements are true, but A. Leishmania donovani 1. Filariasis
Statement II is not the correct 3. Diphtheria 4. Filaria
Which of the above diseases is not B. Trypanosoma 2. Kala-azar
explanation of Statement I
gambiense
(c) Statement I is true, but caused by becteria?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 C. Entamoeba histolytica 3. Sleeping-
Statement II is false sickness
(d) Statement I is false, but (c) Only 4 (d) Only 2
D. Wuchereria bancrofti 4. Amoebiasis
Statement II is true 34. Which of the following diseases are
26. Statement I Haemophilia is a preventable by vaccine? Codes
genetic disorder. 1. Tetanus 2. Polio A B C D A B C D
3. Leprosy 4. Pertussis (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 3 1 4
Statement II Its genes are
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 1 4 2
located in the differential Select the correct answer using the
segment of X-chromosome. codes given below. 39. Match the Column I with Column
27. Statement I Malaria is caused (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 II and choose the correct answer.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
by Plasmodium sp. Column I Column II
Statement II Plasmodium is 35. Which of the following diseases are
A. Colour 1. RBCs of patient
present in the saliva of female water-borne? blindness become
Anopheles mosquito. 1. Typhoid 2. Cholera sickle-shaped
3. Hepatitis-A 4. Tuberculosis B. Hypertrichosis 2. Inability to produce
28. Statement I Rabies is a viral
Select the correct answer using the melanine pigment
disease.
codes given below. C. Albinism 3. Also known as
Statement II Filariasis is (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 Daltonism
transmitted by Aedes mosquito. (c) 1 and 4 (d) Only 4 D. Sickle-cell 4. Excessive hairs on
29. Statement I Gonorrhoea is a anaemia ear pinna
36. Match Column I with Column II
bacterial disease. and select the correct answer using Codes
Statement II It spreads the codes given below. A B C D A B C D
through sexual contact, common
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
toilets and under clothes. Column I Column II
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
30. Consider the following pairs. A. Common cold 1. Haemophilus
1. Syphilis – Sexually pertussis Previous Years’ Questions
transmitted B. Food poisoning 2. Rhino Rom 40. Which one among the following is
disease C. Whooping cough 3. Streptococcus not included in the major clinical
2. Tuberculosis – BCG vaccine sign as a cause definition of AIDS
D. Septic sore throats 4. Clostridium
3. Typhoid – Widal test botulinum in children less then 12 years of
4. Gonorrhoea – Viral disease age? e 2012(II)
Which of these pairs is/are Codes (a) Persistent cough for more than
correctly matched? A B C D A B C D 1 month
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) Only 1 (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 4 3 1 (b) Loss of weight
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 2 3 1 (c) Chronic diarrhoea
(d) Prolonged fever
812 NDA/NA Pathfinder
41. Polio disease is caused by 45. Which one among the following 51. Who among the following
e 2012(II) diseases is not caused by polluted discovered antibiotic producing
(a) bacteria (b) fungi water? e 2013 (II) fungus from Penicillium genus?
(c) virus (d) worm (a) Dysentery (b) Jaundice (a) Louis Pasteur e 2015 (II)
(c) Typhoid (d) Tuberculosis (b) Sir Alexander Flemming
42. After entering the human body (c) Stanley Prusiner
through mosquito bite, the 46. Which of the following human (d) Robert Hooke
malarial parasite (Plasmodium) organs is not associated with
shows initial multiplication in immune response? e 2013 (II) 52. Which one of the following is not a
e 2012 (II) place of action in human body for
(a) Thymus (b) Brain
(a) Spinal cord (b) Blood
the malarial parasite
(c) Spleen (d) Lymph node
Plasmodium? e 2015 (II)
(c) Liver (d) Spleen
47. Adulteration of which of the (a) Liver
43. Which one among the following following causes dropsy? (b) Kidney
water-borne diseases is not caused e 2014 (I) (c) Red blood cell
by a bacteria? e 2012 (II)
(a) Ghee (b) Arhar pulse (d) Brain
(a) Cholera (c) Mustard oil (d) Turmeric powder
(b) Bacillary dysentery 53. Which of the following pairs of
(c) Typhoid 48. Which one among the following is vector and disease is/are correctly
(d) Hepatitis-A not a sexually transmitted matched? e 2016 (I)
disease? e 2014 (I)
44. Consider the following diseases. Vector Disease
(a) Syphilis (b) Gonorrhoea
e 2013 (I)
(c) Scurvy (d) Hepatitis-B 1. Anopheles — Malaria
1. Cholera 2. Tuberculosis 2. Aedes aegypti — Chikungunya
3. Filaria 4. Typhoid 49. What is ‘breakbone fever’ most
commonly known as? e 2014 (I) 3. Tse-tse fly — Filariasis
Which of the above diseases are
(a) Typhoid (b) Rhinitis 4. Bed bugs — Sleeping sickness
caused by bacteria?
(a) 1 and 3 (c) Yellow fever (d) Dengue
Select the correct answer using
(b) 2 and 4 50. Leprosy is caused by e 2015 (I) the codes given below
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (a) virus (b) bacteria (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 4 (c) protozoan (d) retrovirus (c) 1 and 4 (d) Only 2
ANSWERS
1 c 2 d 3 c 4 b 5 b 6 a 7 d 8 b 9 a 10 a
11 d 12 b 13 c 14 b 15 a 16 a 17 d 18 a 19 d 20 c
21 a 22 a 23 c 24 d 25 c 26 a 27 b 28 c 29 b 30 d
31 d 32 d 33 c 34 b 35 a 36 a 37 d 38 a 39 c 40 a
41 c 42 c 43 d 44 d 45 d 46 b 47 c 48 c 49 d 50 b
51 b 52 b 53 b
09
ECONOMIC IMPORTANCE
OF BIOLOGY
Usually 2 to 3 questions are asked from this chapter. These questions are based upon economic
importance of plants.
(v) Induced Mutation • Pisciculture is the practice of fish rearing involving proper
• Mutations are the sudden permanent changes in the utilisation of freshwater, brackish water and coastal areas.
genome of organisms. These can be artificially induced • Edible fishes in India are classified as major carps, e.g.
with the use of X-ray, β-rays, γ-rays, UV-rays, etc. It Rohu, catla (both freshwater) and eel (marine) and minor
can also be induced by chemicals such as mustard gas, carps, e.g. Calbasu (freshwater) and Hilsa (marine).
etc. • In fish production, India is the second largest nation.
• H J Muller (1927) first of induced mutation in • Fishes are used for oil with vitamin-A and D.
Drosophila melanogaster using X-rays. Base analogue
• Clarification of wine and beer can be done by isinglass
of thymine is 5-bromo uracil.
produced by gall bladder of fish.
(vi) Tissue Culture
• Tissue culture technique is based on the totipotency Poultry
(i.e. ability of a cell to give rise to whole plant) of • The term ‘poultry’ means rearing of fowls, ducks, geese,
plant cell. turkey and some varieties of pigeons, but most often for
• The concept of totipotency was given by Haberlandt fowls. Broilers are the poultry birds reared for meat and
(1902) and detailed practical applications of layers are the females birds raised for egg production.
totipotency was shown by Steward (1932), who • India ranks sixth nation in world for egg production.
developed a complete carrot plant from a root cell.
• The part of plant used to generate whole plant is
Poultry Diseases
explant. • Ranikhet disease (new castle disease) is the most common
• Callus is a mass of cell developed due to
disease affecting the fowls of all ages. In this mortality rate
redifferentiation in explant. is about 98-100%.
• Infectious coryza disease in poultry birds causes nasal and
• Auxin and cytokinin are important in tissue culture.
eye discharges with foul smell, acute respiratory problem
and inflammed and swollen eyes.
IMPORTANT POINTS
• Bird flu is an avian influenza, caused by H5N1 virus.
●
Dr. M S Swaminathan (Father of Green Revolution
in India) developed a high yielding wheat variety
Sharbati Sonora by induced mutation in Sonora-64.
Apiculture
●
Jaya and Ratna are two rice varieties developed for Apiculture (bee-keeping) includes the maintenance of hives
Green Revolution in India. of honey bees for the production of honey and bees wax.
●
In golden rice, a transgene has been introduced for Honey bees are colonial, socialy polymorphic insects, which
Vitamin-A production. shows division of labour.
●
Holstein-Friesin is the highest milk yielding variety of Honey bee Colony
cattle in world.
Queen Drone Workers
●
Ascariasis is a common disease of cattles. Single fertile female. Sterile females (many).
Few fertile male.
Biggest member of Have 1-2 months Develop from unfertilised
the colony. of lifespan and egg (16 chromosomes).
ECONOMIC ZOOLOGY Feeds on royal jelly
2.5 years of lifespan.
dies after
copulation.
Smallest members of
the colony.
The science of rearing, caring, feeding, breeding, Only function is to lay eggs. 6 weeks of lifespan.
improvement and utilisation of domesticated animals is Function is to produce
called animal husbandry. honey and bees wax.
The domesticated animals kept for use or profit are • In India, the commonly domesticated species are
collectively called live stock. Dog was the first domestic Apis mellifera (common European bee) and Apis indica
animal. The live stock of India can be categorised. (the small Indian bee).
(i) Milk yielding animals, e.g. cow, goat, buffalo, etc. • Honey is acidic in nature. It is composed of sugarcane
(ii) Egg yielding animals, e.g. hen, ducks, etc. (sucrose), which then converts into levulose (38.9%),
(iii) Drought animals, e.g. mule, donkey, etc. dextrose (21.28%), maltose and other sugars (8.81%).
(iv) General utility animals, e.g. dog, cat, buffalo, etc. • Bees wax is a secretory product of hypodermal glands of
worker bee’s abdomen. It is yellowish to greyish brown
Fisheries coloured insoluble in water and soluble in organic
solvents.
• Aquaculture involves the production of useful aquatic
• Honey bees are ecologically very important because they
plants and animals, such as fishes, prawns, crabs,
molluscs (edible and pearl oysters). act as pollinator for many of our crop plants.
GENERAL SCIENCE Biology 815
• Castor, oak and teak leaves are commonly used for Lipase Aspergillus niger and Used in detergent
Candida lipolytica formulations, leather tanning
rearing silk worms. and cheese production
Pectinase Aspergillus niger and Clarifying bottled fruit juice
Lac Culture Byssochlamys fulva
Lac is obtained from Indian lac insect Tachardia lacca or Proteases Aspergillus oryzae Meat tenderiser, leather
Kerria lacca. It lives on trees like banyan, sal, palash, beri, tanning and clarifying-
etc., and feed on the sap of host trees. The females are bottled fruit juice
without wings, legs and eye. During unfavourable season Rennin Mucor and E. coli Cheese production
lac is secreted as a protective covering by females. (chymosin)
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Which of the following enzyme is 9. Bird flu is caused by 14. Clarification of wine and beer can
produced by Aspergillus? (a) H1N1 virus (b) H3N1 virus be done by the help of isinglass,
(a) d-amylase (b) Lipase (c) H1N3 virus (d) H5N1 virus which is mainly produced by
(c) Cellulase (d) Both (a) and (b) 10. Carotene is abundantly found in (a) liver of fish
(a) carrot (b) tomato (b) pancreas of fish
2. The enzyme produced by
(c) bitter gourd (d) radish (c) larva of silkworm
Aspergillus oryzae and used for (d) gall bladder of fish
leather tanning is 11. Bees wax, which is yellowish to
(a) pectinase (b) protease greyish brown coloured byproduct 15. Bombyx mori is a
(c) lactase (d) invertase of bee-keeping is (a) fish (b) silkworm
(a) soluble in water and partially (c) ringworm (d) moth
3. Vitamin-B12 is produced by
soluble in organic solvent 16. Which one of the following plants is
(a) Pseudomonas (b) Ashbya gossypii
(b) Insoluble in water and partially used for green manuring in India?
(c) Acetobacter (d) Chlorella
soluble in organic solvent (a) Wheat (b) Sunnhemp
4. An immuno suppressant is (c) insoluble in water and completely (c) Cotton (d) Rice
(a) cyclosporin-A (b) statin soluble in organic solvent
(c) penicillin (d) Both (a) and (c) (d) completely soluble in water as well 17. Highest milk yielding variety of
as organic solvent cattle in world is
5. Statins that lower bad cholesterol
12. The queen honey bee after mating (a) brown jersey (b) ongole
are produced by (c) holstein-friesin (d) hallikar
(a) a fungi (b) a bacteria lays down two types of eggs, i.e.
(c) algae (d) mycoplasma fertilised diploid (with 32 18. Which of the following disease is
chromosomes) and the other one is not found in cattle?
6. A microbe used as protein (a) unfertilised diploid (with 32 (a) Athlete’s foot
supplements is chromosomes) (b) Ranikhet
(a) Chlorella (b) Ashbya (b) ferilised haploid (with 32 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Spirulina (d) Both (a) and (c) chromosomes) (d) Ascariasis
7. β-amylase used in brewing (c) unfertilised haploid (with 16
19. Which of the statement is correct?
industry is obtained from chromosomes)
(a) Pulses contains 80% carbohydrates
(a) Bacillus subtilis (b) S. cerevisiae (d) larvae
(b) Rice contains 90% carbohydrates
(c) E. coli (d) A. niger 13. Chemically silk fibres are and 8-10% proteins
8. The female birds raised for egg predominantly (c) Rice contains 60% carbohydrates
production are called as (a) protein (b) carbohydrate and 35-40% proteins
(a) layers (b) broilers (c) complex lipid (d) Rice contains 70% carbohydrates
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (d) mixture of polysacchride and fat and 25-30% proteins
GENERAL SCIENCE > Biology 819
20. Which one of the following is a 30. Which part of saffron plant is 36. Match the following columns.
marine fish? used to obtain the spice ‘saffron’? Column I Column II
(a) Rohu (b) Hilsa (a) Dry stigma (b) Leaves
(c) Fruits (d) Petals A. Totipotency 1. Part of a plant grown in
(c) Catla (d) Common Carp vitro.
21. Plant breeding methods by which 31. Consider the following crops B. Callus 2. Undifferentiated tissue.
new and better varieties of plant 1. Cotton 2. Groundnut C. Explant 3. Capacity of a cell to
can be formed 3. Rice 4. Wheat produce whole plant.
(a) hybridisation (b) selection Which of these are cereal yielding Codes
(c) introduction (d) All of these crops? A B C A B C
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 (a) 2 1 3 (b) 1 2 3
22. Name the sugars present in (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 2
honey.
(a) Levulose (b) Maltose 32. Consider the following plants. 37. Match the following columns.
(c) Dextrose (d) All of these 1. Lentil 2. Cowpea Column I Column II
23. Bombyx mori is a 3. Sunnhemp 4. Wheat
A. Chick pea 1. Cajanus cajan
(a) eri silkworm (b) mulberry silkworm Which of the plnats given above B. Pea 2. Pisum sativum
(c) tasar silkworm (d) muga silkworm is/are used as ‘green manure in
C. Soyabean 3. Glycine max
India’?
24. What is/are the characteristics of D. Pigeon peas 4. Cicer arietinum
(a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
honey bees? (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Codes
(a) Colonial A B C D A B C D
(b) Socially polymorphic 33. With references to human
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) Show division of labour nutrition, consider the following
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 3 1 2
(d) All of the above statements.
1. Milk is a source of phosphorus. 38. Match the following columns.
25. The man-made cereal made by 2. Groundnuts provide iron. Column I Column II
crossing Triticum with Secale is 3. Folic acid can be obtained
(a) Triticale (b) Triticum aestivum A. Mango 1. Thalamus
from sprouted pulses.
(c) Jaya (d) Ratna B. Apple 2. Mesocarp
4. Vitamin-E is available in
C. Litchi 3. Endosperm
26. The genetically engineered green leafy vegetables.
Which of these statements are D. Coconut 4. Fleshy aril
‘Golden rice’ is rich in which of
the following? corrects? Codes
(a) Vitamin-A (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 A B C D A B C D
(b) β-carotene and folic acid (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) β-carotene (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 1 2
34. Arrange the following in ascending
(d) Vitamin-A and niacin order of calorific content per 100 g
27. Which one of the following is an and choose the correct answer.
39. From which part of turmeric, is
example of legume? 1. Banana 2. Sugar
the turmeric powder obtained?
(a) Amla (b) Groundnut 3. Rice 4. Potato
e 2013 (II)
(c) Wheat (d) Brinjal (a) 2, 3, 1, 4 (b) 3, 2, 4, 1
(a) Dried rhizome (b) Dried root
28. Which of the following pairs is the (c) 2, 4, 3, 1 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) Dried fruit (d) Seed
source of vitamin-C? 35. Match the following columns.
(a) Milk, papaya (b) Tomato, cabbage 40. Leaves of which of the following
(c) Milk, carrot (d) Both (b) and (c) Column I Column II plants are not used for the rearing
A. Swiss cheese 1. Penicillium of silkworms? e 2014 (I)
29. What is the reason for India being
roquefortii (a) Mulberry (b) Castor
a major producer of different
B. Roquefort cheese 2. Propioni bacterium (c) Oak (d) Teak
varieties of fruits and vegetables? C. Curd 3. Yeast
(a) Its large population size 41. Which one of the following is
D. Bread 4. Lactobacillus
(b) Its large land area useful in paper manufacturing
(c) Variation in its agro-climatic Codes industry? e 2015 (II)
conditions A B C D A B C D
(a) Fibrous plants (b) Orchids
(d) Diversity in socio-cultural (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) Non-flowering plants
phenomenon (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 4 3 2
(d) Plants growing in high altitude
ANSWERS
1 d 2 b 3 a 4 a 5 a 6 d 7 a 8 a 9 d 10 a
11 c 12 c 13 a 14 d 15 b 16 a 17 c 18 c 19 b 20 b
21 d 22 d 23 b 24 d 25 a 26 a 27 b 28 b 29 c 30 a
31 b 32 b 33 c 34 b 35 c 36 c 37 c 38 c 39 a 40 a
41 a
10
ECOLOGY, BIODIVERSITY
AND ENVIRONMENT
Generally 1 to 2 questions are asked from this chapter. These questions are based upon pollution of
atmosphere.
• They can be of three types, i.e. primary In nature, three major types of food chains are
consumers consume mainly producers, (i) Grazing food chain starts with green plants, which are
secondary consumers consume mainly eaten by herbivores, which in turn are eaten by carnivores.
primary consumers, tertiary consumers (ii) Detritus food chain starts with dead organic matter acted
consume secondary consumers. upon by decomposers.
• Omnivores Those organisms that consume (iii) Parasitic food chain starts with big organisms, which in
both producers and other consumers. turn are eaten by small ones.
• Detritivores Those organisms that consume
detritus (the tissues of dead organisms, either Food Web
producers or consumers and organic wastes). • Various food chains are interconnected with each other
(iii) Decomposers (Reducers) These are organisms, forming an interlocked system, which is known as food web.
which feed on dead bodies of organisms and • Food webs are very important in maintaining equilibrium of
organic wastes of living organisms, e.g. termites, ecosystem.
beetles, becteria, saprophytic bacteria, fungi
(mushrooms), etc. Trophic Level
It is a specific position of an organism in the food chain,
Types of Ecosystem according to their feeding relationships with other organisms.
These are of two types Generally, green plants form the first trophic level, (the
(i) Natural Ecosystem The natural ecosystems are producers). Herbivores form the second trophic level, while
forests, deserts, grassland (terrestrial) and carnivores and omnivores form the third and even the fourth
ponds, lakes, wetland (aquatic), etc. The aquatic trophic levels.
ecosystems can be of three types
(a) Lentic, e.g. lake TEN PER CENT LAW
(b) Lotic, e.g. river, streams The Ten Per Cent Law for the transfer of energy from one
trophic level to the next was introduced by Lindeman and also
(c) Marine, e.g. oceans, sea
known as ‘Lindeman’s rule’. According to this law, during the
(ii) Artificial (Man-made) Ecosystem The transfer of energy as organic food from one trophic level to the
man-made ecosystems are gardens, aquariums, next, only about 10% of the energy is transferred to each
crop fields, etc. trophic level. The remaining is lost during transfer, respiration
or incomplete digestion, etc.
Energy Flow in Ecosystem
• In an ecosystem, energy is transferred in the form
of food and it leads to degradation and loss of a Ecological Pyramids
major part of food energy as heat during metabolic • Trophic structure of ecosystem is a type of
activities and very small fraction becomes stored as producer-consumer arrangement and the graphical
biomass. The flow of energy from the sun to representation of trophic structures of ecosystem constitute
producers and then to consumers is unidirectional. ecological pyramids.
• Lindeman (1942) proposed that energy flow in • The concept of ecological pyramid was given by Elton in
ecosystem follows 10% law. According to this law 1927.
10% energy is transferred from one level to
• Each food level is also called trophic level.
another. It is because when energy flows from a
particular trophic level to the next trophic level, Ecological pyramids are of three types
some energy is always lost as heat at each step. (i) Pyramid of Number Number of individuals at each
• Energy flow is also dependent upon laws of trophic level is shown in pyramid. Its pyramid may be
thermodynamics. upright in grassland and pond ecosystem, intermediate in
forest ecosystem and inverted in parasitic food chain.
Food Chain (ii) Pyramid of Biomass Where biomass of each trophic level
Process of transfer of energy from producers through is shown in pyramid. This pyramid may be upright in
a series of organisms to consumers. It includes a grassland and forest ecosystem, whereas inverted in pond
chain of organisms that feed upon each other. ecosystem.
Eaten by Eaten by (iii) Pyramid of Energy Where energy content or
Grass → Rabbit → Hawk productivity of different trophic levels is shown in
(Producer) ( Primary ( Secondary
c onsumer consumer pyramid. This pyramid is always upright in all ecosystems.
or herbivore) or carnivore)
822 NDA/NA Pathfinder
These layers are as follows indicated by lichens (the symbiosis plant between
(i) Troposphere It is the lowest layer of atmosphere, algae and fungi).
extending up to a height of 18 km. It is a turbulent and • Excess of sulphites is the cause of SO 2 injury in
dusty zone, which contains air ( N 2 , O 2 , CO 2 ) much plants.
water vapour and clouds. The temperature in this region • SO 2 above 1 ppm affects human beings in terms of
ranges from 15°C to 50°C. It is suitable for living irritation of eyes, respiratory tract, bronchitis, asthma,
systems like terrestrial plants and animals. etc.
(ii) Stratosphere It lies between 18-60 km above the sea • Maximum SO 2 pollution in India occurs in Kolkata.
level. In this region, temperature starts to rise from • Yellowing and blackening of Taj Mahal in Agra is
−50°C to about 10°C, therefore tropopause is the point,
due to SO 2 released by Mathura refinery. This type
at which temperature inversion occurs.
of pollution is called ‘stone cancer’.
In stratosphere, ozone layer is present, which absorbs
most of the ultraviolet radiation emitted by the sun and
• The mixing of SO 2 and NO 2 with rain water may
thus, protects the humans and other living things from cause acid rain.
it. • The term acid rain was coined by R August (1872).
(iii) Mesosphere This region extends from 60-85 km. In this • Acid rain have a pH of less than 5.
region, temperature decreases with height and reaches to • It is caused by large scale emission of nitrogen oxides
−90 to −100°C. That’s why, when any meteors enter in (NO 2 ), SO 2 and HCl from thermal power plants,
mesosphere, it burns up. industries and automobiles.
(iv) Ionosphere The ionosphere is a region of the upper • Bhopal gas tragedy It took place in Bhopal on 2nd
atmosphere, from about (85-600 km) altitude. December, 1984. It was a cause of case serious air
pollution that occurred due to release of MIC
(Methyl Isocyanate) from insecticide factory of
POLLUTION union carbide. It took the life of nearly 8200 people.
• Odum defined the term ‘pollution’, as undesirable change
• Diseases caused by air pollution are bronchitis,
in physical, chemical and biological properties of air, water
asthma, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary
and soil, which directly or indirectly affect human beings.
Disorder) lung cancer, allergy, etc.
• Pollution causing agents or substances are called pollutants.
Pollutants can be primary or secondary, PAN is a Water Pollution
secondary pollutant. • It is mainly caused by industrial waste, sewage and
Pollutants are of two types other wastes.
(i) Biodegradable, e.g. dung, plant debris, human dead • Degree of water pollution is measured in terms of
bodies, etc. BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand).
(ii) Non-biodegradable, e.g. DDT, BHC, plastics, glass, etc. • If BOD is less than 1500 mg/L it indicates less
pollution.
Types of Pollution • If BOD is 1500-4000 mg/L it indicates medium
Pollution can be classified into the following four groups; air pollution.
pollution, water pollution, soil or land pollution, and sound • If BOD is more than 4000 mg/L it indicates high
or noise pollution. pollution.
• Mercury (Hg) is very persistant effluent and causes
Air Pollution minamata disease.
• Air pollution is undesirable change in physical, chemical • Cadmium (Cd) accumulation in liver, kidney and
and biological property of air. thyroid causes itai-itai (ouch-ouch) disease.
• It occurs due to excess of different gases, smoke, particulate • Eutrophication is the phenomenon of aging of lake
matters, chemicals, allergens, etc. due to nutrient enrichment of a waterbody that
• Important primary air pollutants are CO, lead, benzene, initially supports a dense growth of plants and animal
SO 2 , NO 2 , HF, etc. life.
• Secondary air pollutants are Ozone (O 3 ) , Peroxy-Acetyl
Nitrate (PAN), etc. Soil Pollution
• Secondary air pollutants are main components of • Toxicity of soil increases as a result of chemical
photochemical smog. wastes, which has adverse effect on human beings.
• SO 2 is produced due to combustion of fossil fuels. • Excessive use of nitrogen fertilisers has increased
• Lichens are indicators of air pollution as they can only levels of nitrates in soil, which may cause ‘blue baby
grow in purified environment. Specifically SO 2 pollution is syndrome’.
826 NDA/NA Pathfinder
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. The primary cause of ozone 5. The concept of ecological pyramid (b) a group of green plants
depletion is was given by (c) a group of animals interacting with
(a) CFCs (b) CO 2 (c) O 3 (d) PAN (a) Elton (b) R August environment
(c) Reiter (d) Hatch and Slacks (d) a group of different plants and
2. In a food chain, energy transfer
animals only
occurs 6. Which of the following is always
(a) from river to earth upright in all ecosystems? 9. Primary productivity is the rate of
(b) lower lattitude to higher lattitude (a) Pyramid of number (a) formation of new organic matter by
(c) from one organism to other (b) Pyramid of energy consumers
organism (c) Pyramid of biomass (b) conversion of light into chemical
(d) None of the above (d) Both (b) and (c) energy in an ecosystem
(c) biomass production per unit area
3. The driving force of an ecosystem is 7. In which ecosystem grassland is
over a time period during
(a) biomass (b) producer included? photosynthesis
(c) carbohydrate in producers (a) Marine (b) Freshwater (d) None of the above
(d) solar energy (c) Terrestrial (d) Artificial
10. Energy storage at consumer level
4. Biodiversity is richer in 8. Ecosystem is
is called
(a) tropical regions (b) polar regions (a) any functional unit that includes the
(a) gross primary productivity
(c) temperate regions whole community in a given area
(b) secondary productivity
(d) oceans interacting with the abiotic factors
GENERAL SCIENCE > Biology 827
(c) net primary productivity 19. Disease aggravated by air pollution (a) the water vapour of the air and
(d) primary productivity is retains its heat
(a) Cholera (b) Rheumatism (b) the ultraviolet part of the solar
11. Which of the following ecosystem radiation
types has the highest (c) Bronchitis (d) None of the above
(c) all the solar radiations
biodiversity? 20. Which of the following is the most (d) the infrared part of the solar
(a) Tropical rainforest destructive enemy of ozone? radiation
(b) Tropical deciduous forest (a) Liquid NH 3 (b) SO 2
(c) Moist deciduous rainforest
29. What is the major role of a green
(c) CFCs (d) CO
(d) Temperate deciduous forest house gas that contributes to
21. Which pollution is caused by lead? temperature rise of the earth’s
12. Food chain refers to (a) Soil pollution (b) Air pollution surface?
(a) group of organisms, which eat the (c) Radioactive pollution (a) Transparents to both incoming sunlight
same type of food (d) Thermal pollution and outgoing infrared radiation
(b) animals eating the plants (b) Stops both incoming sunlight and
(c) series of plants or animals, which
22. Noise is measured in
(a) decibel (b) pikogram outgoing infrared radiation
are interrelated in the form of (c) Lets outgoing infrared radiation
organism being eaten as food by (c) microgram (d) hertz
pass through, but stops incoming
the other 23. Which of the following is secondary sunlight
(d) None of the above pollutant? (d) Lets incoming sunlight pass
13. Food chain is a series of (a) PAN (b) NO through, but stops outgoing infrared
population, which starts with (c) NO 2 (d) SO 2 radiation
producers. It is concerned with 24. Term ecosystem was first given by 30. Which of the following are green
(a) biotic components only (a) AG Tansley (b) Reiter house gases?
(b) energy flow and transfer of (c) R Misra (d) Haeckel (a) CO 2, O 2, NO 2, NH 3
nutrients (b) CFC, CO 2, NH 3, N 2
25. Which of the following flow is
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) CH 4 , N 2, CO 2, NH 3
correct about ascending level of
(d) physical conditions (d) CFC, CO 2, CH 4 , NO 2
organisms in environment?
14. Which one of the following is not (a) Organism → Community → Species 31. Rainwater collected after 30 to
a site for in situ method of → Population 40 minutes of raining is not
conservation of flora? (b) Community → Population → Species suitable for drinking because it
(a) Biosphere reserve → Organism (a) contains bacteria and dirt
(b) Botanical garden (c) Organism → Species → Population (b) contains dissolve toxic chemicals
(c) National park → Community (c) is deficient in minerals
(d) Wildlife sanctuary (d) Population → Species → Organism (d) is acidic
→ Community
15. The atmosphere around earth is 32. CFCs released from refrigerator
warmed because 26. Which of the following statements discharge may affect
(a) warm air cannot escape, as in is true about population (a) troposphere (b) stratosphere
greenhouse interaction? (c) lithosphere (d) hydrosphere
(b) molecules in the atmosphere are (a) Predation is beneficial to both 33. Nitric oxide pollution can lead to
warmed by radiation from earth interacting organisms all of the following, except
and retain that heat (b) Amensalism affects both interacting (a) leaf spotting in plants
(c) fossil fuels release heat organisms (b) bronchitic related respiratory
(d) plants absorb carbon dioxide (c) Competition gives harmful effect to problems in human
(CO 2 ) both participating organisms (c) production of corrosive gases
16. Which of the following is not a (d) Commensalism gives benefit to both through photochemical reaction
primary gas causing greenhouse interacting organisms (d) silicosis in human
effect? 27. Carbon monoxide, emitted by 34. Photochemical smog is a result of
(a) Carbon dioxide automobiles, prevents transport of the reaction among
(b) Carbon monoxide oxygen in the body due to (a) NO 2, O 3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in
(c) Argon (a) combining with oxygen to form the presence of sunlight
(d) Methane gas carbon dioxide (b) CO, O 2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in
(b) destruction of haemoglobin the presence of sunlight
17. Acid rain is formed due to
(c) preventing reaction between oxygen (c) CO, CO 2 and NO 2 at low temperature
contribution from the following (d) high concentration of NO 2, O 3 and
and haemoglobin
pair of gases CO in the evening
(d) forming stable compound with
(a) Methane and Ozone
haemoglobin 35. Acid rain is caused by the
(b) Oxygen and Nitrous oxide
(c) Methane and Sulphur dioxide 28. The increasing amount of carbon pollution of environment by
(d) Nitrogen oxides and Sulphur dioxide dioxide in the air is slowly raising (a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
the temperature of the atmosphere, (b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
18. Lichens indicate pollution by (c) ozone and carbon dioxide
(a) O 3 (b) SO 2 (c) NO 3 (d) CO because it absorbs
(d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
828 NDA/NA Pathfinder
36. The rapidly growing mass of 3. Protected sites for Previous Years’ Questions
phytoplankton covering the surface conservation of nature and
water of a lake or pond is known as natural resources in various 46. Consider the following layers of
(a) water pollution (b) water hyacinth countries. the atmosphere. e 2013 (II)
(c) eutrophication (d) water bloom Select the correct answer using 1. Troposphere 2. Stratosphere
37. Chloroflurocarbons are widely used in the codes given below. 3. Mesosphere 4. Thermosphere
(a) micro-ovens (b) solar heaters (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 Which one among the following is
(c) washing machines (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 3 the correct sequence of the layers
(d) refrigerators 43. Biodiversity forms the basis for with increasing altitude from the
38. Greenhouse effect is the heating up human existence in the earth’s surface?
of the earth’s atmosphere, which is following ways (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
1. Soil formation (c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1
due to
(a) the ultraviolet rays 2. Preservation of soil erosion 47. Which of the following groups of
(b) γ-rays (c) the infra-red rays 3. Recycling of waste plants can be used as indicators of
(d) X-rays 4. Pollination of crops SO 2 pollution of air? e 2014 (II)
39. ‘Bhopal gas tragedy’ 1984 is Select the correct answer using (a) Ferns (b) Mentha
related to the codes given below. (c) Lichens (d) Hornworts
(a) aluminium phosphide (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 48. Which one of the following is not a
(b) methyl bromide (c) methyl isocyanate (c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these greenhouse gas? e 2015 (II)
(d) carbon dioxide
44. Consider the following (a) Water vapour (b) Methane
40. Which of the following pairs of an statements. (c) Ozone (d) Carbon monoxide
animal and a plant represents 1. Biodiversity hotspots are 49. ‘Sal’ tree is a e 2016 (I)
endangered organisms in India? located only in tropical
(a) Banyan and black duck (a) tropical evergreen tree
regions. (b) tropical semi-evergreen tree
(b) Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda 2. India has four biodiversity
(c) Tamarind rhesus monkey (c) dry deciduous tree
hotspots, i.e. Eastern (d) moist deciduous tree
(d) Cinchona and leopard
Himalayas, Western
41. Consider the following statements 50. Spruce and cedar are tree varieties
Himalayas, Western Ghats
of e 2016 (I)
1. Any undesirable change in and Andaman and Nicobar
physical, chemical or biological Islands. (a) equatorial forest
(b) temperate coniferous forest
characteristics of air, land or Which of the statements given (c) monsoon forest
soil and water is called above is correct? (d) temperate deciduous forest
pollution. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
2. Term biodiversity is given by (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 51. One of the main causes of air
Edward Wilson. pollution in cities is emissions
45. Consider the following
Which of the above statements from vehicles like cars and trucks.
statements regarding ecological
is/are incorrect? pyramids. Cars emit various pollutants,
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 which are bad for human health
1. Pyramid of energy is always
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 upright, can never be when inhaled, like e 2016 (I)
42. The red data books published by inverted. 1. nitrogen oxides (NO x )
the International Union for 2. When energy flows from a 2. carbon monoxide (CO)
Conservation of Nature and particular tropic level to the 3. carbon dioxide (CO 2)
Natural Resources contains list of next tropic level, some 4. benzene
1. Endemic plant and animal energy is always lost as Which of the above pollutants are
species present in the heat at each step. not tolerated by human being even
biodiversity hotspots. Choose the correct option. at very low level?
2. Threatened plant and animal (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
species. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
ANSWERS
1 a 2 c 3 d 4 a 5 a 6 b 7 c 8 a 9 c 10 b
11 a 12 c 13 b 14 b 15 b 16 c 17 d 18 b 19 c 20 c
21 b 22 a 23 a 24 a 25 c 26 c 27 d 28 d 29 d 30 d
31 d 32 b 33 d 34 a 35 d 36 c 37 d 38 c 39 c 40 b
41 d 42 b 43 d 44 d 45 c 46 a 47 c 48 a 49 d 50 b
51 c