JKPSC ASSISTANT REGISTRAR || TEST 6

1. NCCF was set up on ...... and is administered under 8. The Kerala State Handloom Weavers Co Operative
the Multi State Cooperative Societies Act 2002 Society Ltd is known by the sobriquet.............was
a) 16 October, 1965 formed in the beginning of 1961 for the Weavers in
b) 16 August, 1965 the Cooperative Sector of Kerala
c) 15 August, 1965 a) Silk Weave b) Hand Text
d) 25 December, 1965 c) Hantex d) Silky

2. The ..........................is the apex federation of the 9. National Co-operative Development Corporation
consumer cooperatives in India. (NCDC) was setup in 1963 by the Central
a) National Cooperative Consumers' Federation of Government by passing
India Limited a) NCDC Act in 1961 b) NCDC Act in 1962
b) Cooperative Consumers' Federation c) NCDC Act in 1963 d) NCDC Act in 1964
c) National Consumers' Federation of India Limited
d) None of the above 10. Committee to Review Arrangements For
Institutional Credit for Agricultural and Rural
3. Kerala Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation Development, under the chairmanship of Sri B
(KCMMF), popularly called 'MILMA’ was Sivaraman recommended the establishment of ..
established in ........... a) National Federation of State Cooperative Banks
a) January, 1950 Ltd
b) April, 1970 b) National Bank for Agricultural and Rural
c) April, 1980 Development
d) November, 1980 c) National Federation of Urban Cooperative Banks
4. .................... is the birth-place of land mortgage and Credit Societies Ltd
banking d) National Cooperative Agriculture & Rural
a) Japan b) Israel Development Banks' Federation Ltd
c) Germany d) India
11 The creation of 1965 was a major step towards the
5. Germany is the birth-place of ........ organisation of dairying on cooperative lines.
a) land mortgage banking a) National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)
b) commercial banks b) National Bank for Agricultural and Rural
c) Insurance companies Development
d) Cooperative agricultural marketing c) National Federation of Urban Cooperative Banks
and Credit Societies Ltd
6. When Agro processing companies enter into d) National Co-operative Development Corporation
contract with the farmers to provide the farmers
with the inputs like fertilizers, seeds, pesticides and 12. ........................ are now known as Cooperative
guidelines to grow crops and buy back the products Agriculture and Rural Development Banks
with a rate specified in advance, it is known as... a) Land development banks
a) Cooperative farming b) Primary Banks
b) Collective farming c) Urban Cooperative Banks
c) Contract farming d) NABARD
d) All of the above
13. The Registered Office of NAFCUB is at and the area
7. In 1969-70 NDDB introduced a scheme for the of operation is whole of the country.
development of dairy cooperatives known as ..... a) Mumbai b) Agra
a) White revolution c) Kolkata d) Delhi
b) Operation flood
c) Blue revolution
d) Silver river

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14. The. Apex Federation of Co-operative Societies 20. Consider the following passage with reference
engaged in the manufacture of coir and coir to a writ issued by Supreme Court under Article
products is entrusted with the task of marketing 32:
the product of the Cooperative Societies It is a command issued by a court to an
a) Kerala State Co-operative Coir Marketing authority directing it to perform a public duty
Federation imposed upon it by law. It can be issued when
b) Kerala State Co-operative Coir Federation an authority vested with a power improperly
c) Kerala State Co-operative Marketing Federation refuses to exercise it. It can be issued to any
d) All of the above kind of authority in respect of any type of
function – administrative, legislative, quasi-
15. The well-known sobriquet ‘MILMA’ refers to .. judicial, judicial. It is used to enforce the
a) AMUL Co-operative performance of public duties by public
b) Anand Dairy authorities.
c) Kerala Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation The above passage refers to which of the
d) None of the above following writ?
a) Prohibition
16. The…………..was established in 1969 as an apex b) Certiorari
organization for coordinating, guiding and c) Mandamus
promoting cooperative housing activities in India. d) Quo-Warranto
a) National Co-operative Housing Federation
b) National Co-operative Housing Society 21. Consider the following statements:
c) Cooperative Housing Society 1) 'Due process of Law' provides for judicial
d) National Housing Federation scrutiny against arbitrary action of executive
only.
17. Two or more single-purpose societies working 2) The procedure established by law provides
closely together without losing their identity is judicial scrutiny against arbitrary actions of
called both legislative and executive.
a) Horizontal Integration b) Link-up system 3) Article 21 of the Indian Constitution explicitly
c) Vertical Integration d) All of the above mentions the 'procedure established by law'.
Which of the statements given above is/are
18. MATSYAFED refers to correct?
a) Kerala State Cooperative Federation For a) 1 and 2 only
Fisheries Development Ltd b) 2 and 3 only
b) Agency for Development of Aquaculture, Kerala c) 3 only
c) Kerala Fishermen's Welfare Fund d) 1, 2 and 3
d) Fish Farmers Development Agency
22. The Fundamental rights ensures
19. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are
1. Individual Freedom
guaranteed by the Indian Constitution under the
2. Social Justice
Right to Freedom?
3. Community Based Rights
1. Right to assemble peacefully
2. Right to form associations Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Right to strike or effective bargaining below.
4. Right to life and personal liberty a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given b) 2 and 3 only
below. c) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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23. The Supreme Court is bound to declare a law as Select the correct answer using the code given
invalid if it violates: below.
1. Fundamental Rights a) 3 only
2. Directive Principles of State Policy b) 1 and 3 only
3. Fundamental Duties c) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using code given below. d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only 27. Which of the following can be included in the
c) 2 and 3 only definition of “State” used in different provisions
d) 1, 2 and 3 concerning the fundamental rights?
1. Public Sector Banks
2. Electricity Boards
24. Consider the following statements: 3. District Planning Boards
1. Only Parliament shall have the power to Select the correct answer using the code given
make laws restricting the application of below.
Fundamental Rights to members of armed a) 1 and 2 only
forces. b) 2 and 3 only
2. Both Parliament and State Legislature shall c) 1 and 3 only
have powers to make laws for prescribing d) 1, 2 and 3
punishment for offenses such as traffic in
human beings and forced labor. 28. Consider the following statements regarding
Which of the statements given above is/are Article 13 of the Indian Constitution:
correct? 1. The power of judicial review of the Supreme
a) 1 only Court and High court is derived from it.
b) 2 only 2. Article 13 exempts all Constitutional
c) Both 1 and 2 Amendment acts from Judicial Review.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
25. Which of the following cultural and educational
b) 2 only
rights are guaranteed by the constitution for the
c) Both 1 and 2
protection of the interest of minorities?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Right to establish and administer
educational institutions of their choice.
29. Which of the following is/are the features of
2. Right to conserve language, script or culture
Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian
of their own.
Constitution?
3. Right to impart education to their children
1. They are absolute and sacrosanct.
in their own language.
2. They are available against the arbitrary action
Select the correct answer using the code given
of state only.
below.
3. They are enforceable only in the High Courts
a) 1 and 2 only
and the Supreme Court.
b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
c) 1 and 3 only
below.
d) 1,2 and 3
a) 3 only
b) 1 and 3 only
26. Which of the following cases may be considered
c) 1 and 2 only
as a violation of Fundamental Rights guaranteed
d) None of the above
under Article 19?
1. Prohibiting women from opening up a new
IT office.
2. Forcing people from certain castes to
perform traditional occupations.
3. Denial of general information regarding the
administration of government.

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30. Which of the following are the rights of the 34. Consider the following statements with respect
accused (of a criminal offence) as guaranteed by to Fundamental Duties:
the Indian Constitution? 1. The Fundamental Duties were inspired by
1. No person would be punished for the same the Constitution of the USA.
offense more than once. 2. They can be enforced by a law made by the
2. No person shall be asked to give evidence Parliament.
against himself or herself. 3. The Fundamental Duties have been
3. No criminal law shall declare any action as amended only once since their incorporation
illegal from a backdate. in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are
below. correct?
a) 1 Only a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 Only b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 Only c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1,2 and 3 d) 2 and 3 only

31. Consider the following statements regarding Right 35. Which of the following provisions are stated in
to Equality guaranteed under Part III of the Indian the Fundamental Duties?
Constitution: 1. To protect and improve the natural
1. It aims at establishing social equality. environment.
2. It provides for reservation of seats for SC/ST in 2. To protect monuments which are declared
Parliament and State Legislature. to be of national importance.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity
correct? and integrity of India.
a) 1 only 4. To promote harmony and spirit of
b) 2 only brotherhood.
c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using code given below.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
32. Which of the following was considered as 'heart d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
and soul of the constitution' by Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar?
36. Which of the following were recommended by
a) Right to life and personal liberty
the Swaran Singh committee?
b) Right to equality
1. Penalty or punishment for non- compliance of
c) Right to freedom of religion
duties.
d) Right to constitutional remedies
2. Duty to pay taxes.
3. Compulsory voting by eligible citizens in the
33. Which of the following is not correct with
state and national-level elections.
reference to the rights guaranteed under the
Select the correct answer using the code given
Right to Freedom of Religion?
below.
a) It includes right not to follow any religion.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) It is subject to limitations in order to protect
b) 1 and 3 only
public order, morality and health.
c) 2 and 3 only
c) It also includes persuading people to
d) 1, 2 and 3
convert from one religion to another.
d) It provides for absolute protection from
37. The idea of a Constituent Assembly of India was
government interference in religious
first put forward by:
matters.
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Jawahar lal Nehru
c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
d) M. N. Roy

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38. Jawaharlal Nehru was the chairman of which of 41. With the commencement of the Constitution of
the following committees of the constituent India in 1950:
assembly? 1. All the provisions of citizenship came into
1. Union Powers Committee force.
2. States Committee 2. All the enactments amending the
3. Union Constitution Committee Government of India Act, 1935 were
4. Rules of Procedure Committee repealed.
Select the correct answer using the code given 3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act
below. (1949) was continued.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
b) 3 and 4 only below.
c) 2, 3 and 4 only a) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
39. Who among the following were the members of d) 1, 2 and 3
the Negotiating Committee appointed by the
Constituent Assembly to negotiate with the
42. Which of the following statements is/are correct
Chamber of Princes, and with other
with reference to Constituent Assembly?
representatives of Indian States?
1. The members of the Constituent Assembly
1. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
were indirectly elected by members of
2. Sardar Vallabhbhai J. Patel provincial legislative assemblies.
3. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 2. It acted as a legislative body for enacting
ordinary laws for the country.
4. B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
3. It adopted the national flag and national
Select the correct answer using the code given anthem of India.
below. Select the correct answer using the code given
a) 1 and 2 only below.
b) 1 and 4 only a) 1 only
c) 2 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

40. Consider the following statements with reference 43. Which of the following events may lead to the loss
to Objectives Resolution adopted by the of Indian citizenship for an individual?
Constituent Assembly in 1947:
1. It declared India as an Independent Sovereign 1. When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires
Socialist Republic country. the citizenship of another country
2. It guaranteed to all the people of India 2. If the citizen has shown disloyalty to the
equality of status of opportunity and freedom Constitution of India
of thought and expression. 3. If he is a minor whose parents have
3. It provided adequate safeguards for renounced Indian citizenship
minorities, depressed, and other backward Select the correct answer using the code given
classes. below.
Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 only
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

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44. With reference to Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) 47. Consider the following provisions in Directive
Cardholder, consider the following statements: Principles of State Policy:
1. A citizen of another country who was a citizen 1. To secure opportunities for healthy
of India at any time after the commencement development of children.
of the Constitution is eligible to become OCI 2. To promote equal justice and provide free
cardholder. legal aid to the poor.
2. OCI cardholders are entitled to multiple entry 3. To minimize inequalities in income, status,
lifelong visa for visiting India for any purpose. facilities and opportunities.
3. OCI cardholders enjoy the right to equality of 4. To protect and improve the environment
opportunity in matters of public employment. and to safeguard forests and wildlife.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the above given provisions were added
correct? by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act,1976?
a) 1 and 2 only a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

45. Who among the following is/are eligible to get 48. 'To provide early childhood care and education
registered as a citizen of India? for all children until they complete the age of six
1. A person of Indian origin who is ordinarily years' is a provision made in the
resident in any country or place outside a) Fundamental Duties
undivided India. b) Directive Principles of State Policy
2. A person who is married to a citizen of India c) Fundamental Rights
and is ordinarily resident in India for two d) Eleventh Schedule
years.
3. A person of full age and capacity who was 49. The term 'Co-operatives' can be found in which
earlier an Indian citizen, and is ordinarily of the following part/parts of the Constitution?
resident in India for twelve months. 1. Part III
Select the correct answer using the code given 2. Part IV
below. 3. Part IX-B
a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code given
b) 2 and 3 only below.
c) 1 and 3 only a) 1 only
d) 2 only b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
46. Consider the following statements with respect d) 1, 2 and 3
to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act 2019:
1. It provides Indian citizenship to minorities 50. Under the constitution of India, which of the
from all the neighbouring countries who following is not mentioned in the Directive
entered India illegally. Principles of State Policy?
2. It exempts the migrants from the adverse 1. To provide adequate facilities for
penal consequences of the Passport (Entry instruction in the mother- tongue at the
into India) Act, 1920.
primary stage of education
3. It provides for the creation of the National
2. To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating
Register of Indian Citizens (NRIC).
drinks
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 3. To promote the voluntary formation of co-
a) 1 only operative societies
b) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given
c) 2 only below.
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, and 2 only
d) 1, and 3 only
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51. Which of the following provisions of the Select the correct answer using the code given
Constitution of India have a direct bearing on below.
Education? a) 1 and 2 only
1. Directive Principles of State Policy b) 2 Only
2. Fundamental Rights c) 1 and 3 only
3. Preamble d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Fundamental Duties
55. Consider the following statements with
Select the correct answer using the code given reference to Public Accounts Committee:
below. 1. The committee was set up under the
a) 1 and 2 only provisions of Government of India Act 1919.
b) 1, 2 and 4 only 2. Speaker is the ex- officio chairman of the
c) 3 and 4 only committee
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. A minister cannot be a member of the
committee.
52. The maximum seats in the Lok Sabha are 552. Which of the statements given above is/are not
However, there are a total of 545 members. If only correct?
300 members are present at the time of voting, a) 1 only
then a constitutional amendment bill under Article b) 2 and 3 only
368 must be supported by a minimum of: c) 1 and 2 only
a) 273 members d) 2 only
b) 200 members
c) 276 members 56. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his/her
d) 368 members powers and duties from:
1. The Constitution of India
2. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of
53. Consider the following statements about Business of Lok Sabha
Members of Parliament Local Area Development
3. Parliamentary Conventions
Scheme (MPLADS):
Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Under MPLADS, Rs. 5 crore is transferred below.
directly to each Member of Parliament for a) 1 only
developmental work in his/her b) 2 only
constituency. c) 2 and 3 only
2. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha and d) 1, 2 and 3
Lok Sabha are not entitled under this
scheme. 57. Consider the following statements with respect
3. Ministry of Statistics & Programme to Vote of Credit:
implementation is the nodal ministry to
1. It is granted for meeting an unexpected
implement this Scheme.
demand upon the resources of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. It is an extraordinary grant and the details of
correct?
the demand are not ordinarily given in a
a) 1, 2 and 3
budget.
b) 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
c) 1 and 2 only
correct?
d) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
54. Which of the following are the features of
c) Both 1 and 2
Parliamentary Form of Government in India?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Sovereignty of Parliament
2. Collective responsibility of the executive to
the legislature
3. Periodic dissolution of Parliament

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58. Consider the following statements regarding the 61. Which of the following types of bills need the
office of Speaker in the Lok Sabha: prior recommendation of the president before
introduction in the Parliament?
1. The date of the election of the Speaker is
fixed by the Pro-tem Speaker. 1. Money bill
2. The Speaker being a member of the ruling 2. Constitution Amendment bill
party vacates his office as soon as the Lok 3. Alteration of boundaries of State
Sabha is dissolved.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are
below.
correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2

62. Consider the following statements with respect

59. The Indian Constitution has not adopted the
to Appropriation Bill:
system of proportional representation for the
election of members of Lok Sabha and Legislative 1. The government cannot withdraw money
Assemblies because: from the Consolidated Fund of India till the
enactment of the appropriation bill.
1. Difficult for the voters to understand the
2. It is introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
complexity of the system.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Multiple political parties in India will lead to
correct?
instability in government.
a) 1 only
3. It decreases the significance of the party
b) 2 only
system.
c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code given
d) Neither 1 nor 2
below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only 63. Consider the following statements with respect
c) 1 and 2 only to the collective privileges of the Houses of
d) 1, 2 and 3 Parliament:
1. Parliament has the right to publish its
reports, debates, and proceedings and also
60. Which of the following circumstances may lead
the right to prohibit others from publishing
to the resignation of the Council of Ministers?
the same.
1. Passage of No-Confidence Motion in Lok 2. Parliament can punish any individual for
Sabha breach of its privileges.
2. Motion of Thanks is not passed by the House 3. Parliament has the right to receive
in Lok Sabha immediate information about the arrest,
3. Money bill gets defeated in Lok sabha detention, conviction, imprisonment, and
Select the correct answer using the code given release of a member of the House.
below. Which of the statements given above is/are
a) 1 and 2 only correct?
b) 1 and 3 only a) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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64. With respect to the representation of Union Which of the statements given above is/ are
Territories in the Lok Sabha, the Constitution of correct?
India a) 1 and 3 only
a) Provides for direct Election b) 1 and 2 only
b) provides for indirect Election
c) 3 only
c) Empowers the Parliament to enact a law.
d) provides for nomination by the Speaker d) 1, 2 and 3

65. Consider the following statement with reference 68. Consider the following statements with regard
to President of India: to the Office of President:
1. He should be qualified as a member of 1. When a vacancy occurs in the office of the
either house of Parliament. President due to his resignation, removal,
2. The constitution empowers the parliament death, or expiry of the term, the Vice-
to determine the allowances, emoluments President acts as the President until a new
and privileges of the president. President is elected.
Which of the statements given above is/ are 2. Any resignation addressed to the Vice-
correct? President by the President shall be
a) 1 only communicated by him to the Speaker of the
b) 2 only House of the People.
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
66. Consider the following statements with regard c) Both 1 and 2
to Vice-President’s role as Chairman of the d) Neither 1 nor 2
Rajya Sabha:
1. He is the final authority on the
interpretation of the Constitution and the 69. With reference to the election of President of
Rules of Procedure for all house-related India, consider the following statements:
matters. 1. A person to be eligible for election as
2. His rulings constitute precedents which are President should be qualified for election as
of a binding nature. a member of either house of the Parliament.
3. He determines whether a Rajya Sabha 2. The nomination of a candidate for election to
member stands to be disqualified on the office of President must be subscribed by
grounds of defection. at least 20 electors as proposers and 20
Which of the statements given above is/are electors as seconders.
correct? 3. Every candidate has to make a security
a) 1 only deposit of ₹15,000 only to the Government.
b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
c) 1 and 3 only correct?
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
67. With reference to the Vice President of India, d) None of the above
consider the following statements:
1. Vice president can be removed from his 70. The new Ministries/Departments of the
office by the process of impeachment. Government of India are created by:
2. The resolution for removal must be a) President
passed by a special majority by both the b) Parliament
Houses of the Parliament separately c) Prime Minister
3. The Constitution has not mentioned any d) Cabinet Secretary
ground for the removal of the Vice
president.

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71. The Windows sound file has the

extension___________. 78. With respect to CRT, the horizontal retrace is
a) .wav defined as :
b) .sit a) The path an electron beam takes when
c) .wpd returning to the left side of the CRT.
d) .dif b) The path an electron beam takes when
returning to the right side of the CRT.
72. Which one of the following is not a condition for c) The technique of turning the electron beam
process state transition from running state to wait off while retracing.
state? d) The technique of turning the electron beam
a) If a process request an input / Output on/off while retracing.
operation
b) If a process waits for some action performed 79. Identify the IP address from the following:
by another process a) 300 ∙ 215 ∙ 317 ∙ 3
c) If a lower priority process arrived b) 302 ∙ 215@ 417 ∙ 5
d) If a higher priority process arrived c) 202 ∙ 50 ∙ 20 ∙ 148
d) 202—50—20— 148

73. The following list indicates different types of 80. Which of the following is NOT an anti-virus
computer file formats. Which of them is devoted software?
exclusively to graphic file formats? a) Kaspersky
a) PNG, GIF, JPEG b) Norton
b) TIFF, XLS, PNG c) Linux
c) GIF, JPEG, DOC d) Avast
d) JPEG, TIFF, HTML
81. What is the size of the physical address space in a
74. SQL query and modification commands are paging system which has a page table containing
represented in which of the following? 64 entries of 11 bit each (including valid/invalid
a) DDL bit) and a page size of 512 bytes?
b) DML a) 211
c) HTML b) 215
d) XML c) 219
d) 220
75. In MS-Word document, the last line of a
paragraph left at the top of a page is called 82. A cookie _____________.
_____________ and the first line of a paragraph a) Stores information about the user's web
left at the bottom of a page is called___________. activity
a) Widow, Orphan b) Stores software developed by the user
b) Orphan, Widow c) Stores the password of the user
c) Outline, Top-line d) Stores the commands used by the user
d) Fix-line, In-line
83. The following list indicates different types of
76. Which of the following elements is used to define computer networks. Arrange them in an
rows of a table? ascending order on the basis of geographical
a) TD space implied.
b) TS a) LAN, < WAN, < MAN
c) TR b) WAN, < LAN, > MAN
d) TH c) MAN, > LAN, < WAN
d) LAN, < MAN, < WAN
77. Principle of locality is used in____________.
a) Registers
b) DMA
c) Cache Memory
d) Interrupt

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84. If a computer provides database services to other,

then it will be known as. 92. Which one of the following is not a storage
a) Web server device?
b) Application server a) Magnetic Tape
c) Database server b) Modem
d) None of these c) Flash Driver
d) Hard Drives
85. Which key enables you to repeat the last action
performed in excel 93. Match List-I with List-II in the context of computer
a) F1 networking:
b) F4 List – I List – II
c) F5 A) VOIP i) Makes use of
d) F7 light pulses to
transmit data
86. The DNS maps the IP addresses to B) Fiber-optic cable ii) Use of internet
a) A binary address as strings to make phone
b) An alphanumeric address calls
c) A hierarchy of domain names C) URL iii) Most
d) A hexadecimal address appropriate to
connect
87. The group of digits stored at each address in computers in a
memory is generally referred as small building
a) memory bit D) UTP cable iv) Text used by
b) memory byte web browsers
c) memory word to locate a web
d) memory block address on the
internet.
88. Which of the following is used transform an object Choose the correct option:
shapes from one from one to another a) A-iv, B-I, C-ii, D-iii
a) animation b) A-ii, B-I, C-iv, D-iii
b) morphing c) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
c) tweaking d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
d) sharing
94. The information stored in the catalog of a
89. In which of the following topology every node is database is called
connected to two other nodes? a) Distributed data
a) Ring Topology b) Raw data
b) Tree Topology c) Encapsulated data
c) Mesh Topology d) Meta data
d) Star Topology
95. Other than Ctrl + F which Key combination is used
90. IPv6 addresses have a size of: to find and replace dialog box quickly
a) 64 bits a) Shift + F5
b) 128 bits b) Ctrl + G
c) 256 bits c) Ctrl + I
d) 512 bits d) Ctrl + K

91. Which of the following is not an optimization 96. LDAP works on the ____________ layer of OSI
criterion in the design of a CPU scheduling Model.
algorithm? a) Physical
a) Minimum CPU utilization b) Network
b) Maximum throughput c) Application
c) Minimum turnaround time d) Transport
d) Minimum waiting time

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 JKPSC ASSISTANT REGISTRAR || TEST 6

97. Which of the following component of CPU 104. The number of ‘rows’ in a relation is
temporarily stores data for ALU operations? called____________.
a) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU) a) Domain
b) Control Unit (CU) b) Cardinality
c) Registers c) Range
d) Random Access Memory (RAM) d) Degree

98. Which of the following is not a phase for 105. Which of the following increases the font size by
developing multimedia application: + 1pts up to 12pt thereafter increases by + 2pts.
a) planning a) Ctrl + Shift + L
b) designing b) Ctrl + Shift + >
c) developing c) Ctrl + Shift + <
d) testing d) Ctrl + Shift + *:

99. _ is a connectionless, unreliable transport 106. Which of the following protocol is used to
protocol convert the IP address to MAC address?
a) User Datagram Protocol (UDP) a) Dynamic Host Routing Protocol
b) Transmission Control Protocol (TOP) b) Address Resolution Protocol
c) Both (A) and (B) c) Border Gateway protocol
d) None of these d) Reverse Address Resolution Protocol

100. The domain name int in the Domain Name 107. Which component of the computer is used to
System (DNS) is used in resolve the difference between CPU and the
a) commercial peripheral device?
b) educational institutions a) Arithmetic Logic Unit
c) international organizations b) Control unit
d) the U.S. armed forces c) Interface unit
d) Memory unit
101. Fork() is a function used in a
a) Procedure call of OS 108. Which of the format is used for raster digital
b) Process of OS images:
c) Child process of the memory a) BMP
d) OS system call b) TIFF
c) HTML
102. Which of the following is an earliest machine d) GIF
used for computation?
a) Abacus 109. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which
b) Torquetum a) One automatically gets one's mail everyday
c) Equatorium b) One has to be connected to the server to read
d) Turing Machine or write one's mail
c) One only has to be connected to the server to
103. Which of the following services use UDP? send and receive e-mail
1. DHCP 2. SMTP 3. SNMP d) One does not need any telephone lines
4. FTP 5. HTTP 6. TFTP
a) 2 and 4 110. Which of the following groups consists of only
b) 1, 2 and 4 output devices?
c) Only 5 a) Scanner, Printer, Monitor
d) 1, 3 and 6 b) Keyboard, Printer, Monitor
c) Mouse, Printer, Monitor
d) Plotter, Printer, Monitor

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 JKPSC ASSISTANT REGISTRAR || TEST 6

111. In context of Operating System File Management 116. A web browser is an example of
Function what is the full form of FAT? ______________.
a) File Attribute Table a) Protocol
b) File Allocation Table b) Cookies
c) Format All Tabs c) Client
d) File Attribute Type d) Server

112. Name the memory of the smallest unit from the 117. A name or number used to identify a storage
following. location devices?
a) Yottabyte a) A byte
b) Zettabyte b) A record
c) Exabyte c) An address
d) Terabyte d) All of above

113. In the context of internet what is the full form of 118. Which of the following file can be saved in
URL ‘? various color formats
a) User Requested Link a) GIF
b) Ultimate Response Location b) TIFF
c) Unique Request Locator c) BMP
d) Uniform Resource Locator d) HTML

114. Which one is not a database management 119. The communication line between the CPU,
software? memory and peripherals is called a___________.
a) Oracle a) Bus
b) Drupal b) Line
c) MySQL c) Media
d) MS Access d) None of these

115. Which function takes in at least one cell range 120. Which of the following programmes/software is
and returns the total counts if criteria are fulfilled. NOT used for creating a word document?
a) Count Function a) Microsoft Word
b) CountlF Function b) WordPad
c) CountlFs Function c) Notepad
d) CountlF else Function d) Adobe Acrobat Reader

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