07-09-2025

5301CMD303029250015 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two particles execute simple harmonic motion of the same amplitude and frequency along the
same straight line. They pass one another when going in opposite directions and each time their
displacement is half the amplitude. The phase difference between them is :–

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

2) Displacement-time equation of a particle executing SHM is x = A sin .Time taken by the

particle to go directly from x = – to x = + is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A particle is performing simple harmonic motion with angular frequency and amplitude 'A'. If
'a' is acceleration and 'v' is speed at any instant. Then the graph showing correct variation between
v2 and x2 is (where x is displacement)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The displacement-time graphs for two sound waves A and B are shown in the figure, then the ratio

of their intensities IA / IB is equal to :-

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : 16
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 1

5) Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of spring
constants k1 and k2, respectively. If the maximum velocities during oscillations are equal, the ratio of
amplitudes of A and B is-

(1)
(2) k1/k2
(3)
(4) k2/k1

6) Assertion (A) :- When a girl sitting on a swing stand up, the periodic time of the swing will
increase.
Reason (R) :- In standing position of a girl, the effective length of the swing will decrease.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

7) Assertion :- In SHM acceleration is always directed towards the mean position.

Reason :- The body in SHM stops momentary at the extreme positions and then moves back to mean
position.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

8) Three masses 700 g, 500 g, and 400 g are suspended at the end of a spring as shown and are in
equilibrium. When the 700 g mass is removed, the system oscillates with a period of 3 seconds, when

the 500 gm mass is also removed, it will oscillate with a period of :-

(1) 1s
(2) 2s
(3) 3s

(4)

9) Two graphs of the same harmonic wave are shown below. The graph (1) on the left shows the
displacement of wave y, as a function of position x for a given instant of time. The graph (2) on the
right shows the displacement of wave as a function to time 't' for a given position. The speed of the
wave is :

(1) 5.0 cms–1

(2) 0.5 cms–1
(3) 0.4 cms–1
(4) 4.0 cms–1

10) What will be the equation of velocity of oscillating particle, if oscillation starts from A/2 position
towards positive extreme?

(1) x = A sin [ωt + π/3]

(2) x = A sin [ωt + π/4]
(3) v = Aωcos [ωt + π/3]
(4) v = Aωcos [ωt + π/6]

11)

The amplitude of the two waves is in ratio 5:2. If all other conditions for the two waves are same,
then what is the ratio of their energy densities?

(1) 5 : 2
(2) 5 : 4
(3) 4 : 5
(4) 25 : 4

12)

On hanging the unknown mass of a body with the lower end of a light spring, it stretch vertically
upto 9.8 cm. Now the time period of vibration of the spring will be:

(1) 200 π sec

(2) 2π / 100
(3) (2π/10) sec
(4) 20π sec

13) The maximum displacement of a particle executing SHM is 1 cm and the maximum acceleration
is (1.57)2 cm/sec2. Then the time period is

(1) 0.25 s
(2) 4.00 s
(3) 1.57 s
(4) (0.157)2 s

14) A particle executing simple harmonic motion has an amplitude of 6 cm. Its acceleration at
distance of 2 cm from the mean position is 8 cm/s2. The maximum speed of the particle is :-

(1) 8 cm/s
(2) 16 cm/s
(3) 16 m/s
(4) 12 cm/s

15)
A uniform string of length 20 m is suspended from a rigid support. A short wave pulse is introduced
at its lowest end. It starts moving up the string. The time taken to reach the support is : (take g = 10
ms−2)

(1) 2s
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) The kinetic energy of SHM is 1/n times of its potential energy. If the amplitude of the SHM be A,
then what is the displacement of the particle ?

(1) nA

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by

y = A0 + A sin ωt + B cos ωt.
Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given by :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) A + B

18) A particle of mass 4kg moves simple harmonically such that its PE (U) varies with position x, as

shown. The period of oscillations is :-

(1)
s

(2)
s

(3)
s

(4)
s
19) Which of the following is correct about a SHM, along a straight line ?

(1) Ratio of acceleration to velocity is constant.

(2) Ratio of acceleration to potential energy is constant.
(3) Ratio of acceleration to displacement from the mean position is constant.
(4) Ratio of acceleration to kinetic energy is constant.

20) Two identical springs of constant k are connected in series and parallel as shown in figure. A
mass' m' is suspended from them. The ratio of their frequencies of vertical oscillations will be :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 4 : 1

21) The bob of a simple pendulum is a spherical hollow ball filled with water. A plugged hole near
the bottom of the oscillating bob gets suddenly unplugged. During observation, the time period of
oscillation would :-

(1) remain unchanged

(2) increase towards a saturation value
(3) first increase and then decrease to the original value
(4) first decrease and then increase to the original value

22) The time period of a simple pendulum in a stationary train is T. The time period of a mass
attached to a spring is also T. The train accelerates at the rate 5 m/s2. If the new time periods of the
pendulum and spring be TP and TS respectively, then :-

(1) TP = TS
(2) TP > TS
(3) TP < TS
(4) Cannot be predicted

23) A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1 : 2 : 3. They are connected in series
and new force constant is k'. Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is k". Then k' :
k" is :

(1) 1 : 9
(2) 1 : 11
(3) 1 : 14
(4) 1 : 16
24) In stationary wave on string when the particles are at their respective extremes :-

(1) amplitude is zero at all the points

(2) strain is maximum at antinodes
(3) strain is minimum at nodes
(4) strain is maximum at nodes

25) A transverse wave is travelling along a string from left to right. The adjoining figure represents
the shape of the string at a given instant. At this instant, among the following , choose the wrong

statement about particle velocity-

(1) Points D, E and F have upwards positive velocity.

(2) Points A, B and H have downwards negative velocity.
(3) Points C and G have zero velocity.
(4) Points A and B have upwards positive velocity.

26) The displacement y of a particle in a medium can be expressed as

y = 10–6 sin m, where t is in second and x in metre. The speed of the wave is :-

(1) 2000 m/s

(2) 5 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 5π m/s

27) Two waves represented by the following equations are travelling in the same medium y1 = 5 sin
2π (75t –0.25x), y2 = 10 sin 2π (150t – 0.50x). The intensity ratio I1/I2 of the two waves is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 16

28) When a wave travels in a medium, the particle displacement is given by : y = a sin 2π(bt – cx)
where a, b and c are constants. The maximum particle velocity will be twice the wave velocity if:

(1)

(2) c = πa
(3) b = ac
(4)
b=

29) For a given medium find intensity ratio I1 : I2 .

(1) 4 : 5
(2) 5 : 4
(3) 16 : 25
(4) 25 :16

30) For wave speed is :-

(1) 330 m/sec

(2) 660 m/sec
(3) 165 m/sec
(4) zero

31) Two waves represented by ;

and

,
are superposed. The resultant wave has an amplitude equal to :-

(1) zero
(2) 2a
(3) a
(4)

32) A string with a mass density of 4 × 10–3 kg/m is under tension of 360 N and is fixed at both ends.
One of its resonance frequencies is 375 Hz. The next higher resonance frequency is 450 Hz. The
mass of the string is -

(1) 2 × 10–3 kg
(2) 3 × 10–3 kg
(3) 4 × 10–3 kg
(4) 8 × 10–3 kg

33) In a gaseous medium, on increasing temperature by 800 K, speed of sound becomes times of
initial then initial temperature of medium in °C is:-
(1) 27°C
(2) 300°C
(3) –73°C
(4) 73°C

34)

Calculate the speed of sound in a liquid of density 2000 kg/m3 and bulk modulus 2 × 109 N/m2.

(1) 500 m/s

(2) 1000 m/s
(3) 125 m/s
(4) 250 m/s

35) According to newton, prapagation of sound in air is __________

(1) Isothermal process

(2) Adiabatic process
(3) Isobaric process
(4) Isochoric process

36) Find ratio of velocity of sound in H2 & O2 at same temperature :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Regarding speed of sound in gas match the following :-

speed
Temperature of gas is made 4
(A) (P) becomes t
times and pressure 2 times
imes

Only pressure is made 4 times speed become

(B) (Q)
without change in temperature 2 times

Only temperature is changed speed remains

(C) (R)
to 4 times unchanged

Molecular mass of the gas is speed become

(D) (S)
made 4 times half
(1) A – Q, B – R, C – Q, D – S
(2) A – Q, B – S, C – Q, D – S
(3) A – S, B –R, C – Q, D – S
(4) A – Q, B – R, C – Q, D – Q

38) Beats are produced by two waves

y1 = a sin (1000 πt) and y2 = a sin (998 πt)
The number of beats heard per second is

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

39) A tuning fork arrangement (pair) produces 4 beats/s with one fork of frequency 288 cps. A little
wax is placed on the unknown fork and it then produces
2 beats/s. The frequency of the unknown fork is-

(1) 286 cps

(2) 292 cps
(3) 294 cps
(4) 288 cps

40) If seventh harmonic is set up in a string fixed on both ends, number of nodes and antinodes
formed are :-

(1) 8, 7
(2) 9, 8
(3) 8, 8
(4) 9, 9

41)

An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first harmonic and another pipe P2 open at ends
vibrating in its third harmonic are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of P1
and P2 is:–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Stationary waves are produced in 10 m long stretched string. If the string vibrates in 5 segments
and wave velocity is 20 m/s, then the frequency is :-

(1) 10 Hz
(2) 5 Hz
(3) 4 Hz
(4) 2Hz

43) Two wires made up of the same material are of equal lengths but their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2.
On stretching each of these two strings by the same tension, the ratio between the fundamental
frequencies is :-

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

44) An open organ pipe has a fundamental frequency of 300 Hz. The first overtone of a closed organ
pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of the open pipe. Find the length of each pipe.
(velocity of sound = 330 m/s)

(1) 0.45 m and 0.3125 m

(2) 0.42 m and 0.7615 m
(3) 0.35 m and 0.85 m
(4) 0.55 m and 0.4125 m

45) In a resonance tube experiment, the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm of air column and the
second for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is–

(1) 0.5 cm
(2) 1.0 cm
(3) 1.5 cm
(4) 2 cm

CHEMISTRY

1) Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have the
highest ionization energy :-

(1) [Ne]3s23p1
(2) [Ne]3s23p3
(3) [Ne]3s23p2
(4) [Ar]3d104s24p3

2) In the process, Cl(g) + e– Cl–(g), ΔH is :-

(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) None of these
3) Among the Lanthanides the one obtained by synthetic method is :–

(1) Lu
(2) Pm
(3) Pr
(4) Ce

4)

Aluminium is diagonally related to

(1) Li
(2) Be
(3) C
(4) B

5)

Screening effect is not observed in –

(1) Li+
(2) Li+2
(3) He
(4) Be

6)

'M' form which chloride among the following

(1) MCl2
(2) MCl
(3) MCl3
(4) MCl4

7)

The element with atomic number z = 115 will be placed in -

(1) 7th period, 1 group

(2) 8th period, 14 group
(3) 7th period, 15 group
(4) 6th period, 5th group

8)

The increasing order of electron affinity of the electronic configurations of element is

I. 1s22s22p63s23p5
II. 1s22s22p3
III. 1s22s22p5
IV. 1s22s22p63s1

(1) II < IV < III < I

(2) I < II < III < IV
(3) I < III < II < IV
(4) IV < III < II < I

9) The correct increasing order of electron affinity is

(1) Be < B < C < N

(2) Be < N < B < C
(3) N < Be < C < B
(4) N < C < B < Be

10) The correct order of acidic strength of the following is :-

(1) Al2O3 > SiO2 > P2O3 > SO2

(2) P2O3 > SO2 > SiO2 > Al2O3
(3) P2O3 > Al2O3 > SO2 > SiO2
(4) SO2 > P2O3 > SiO2 > Al2O3

11) Assertion (A) : Flourine atom has less negative electron gain enthalpy than chlorine atom.
Reason (R) : Additional electrons are repelled more effectively by 3p-electrons in Cl than by 2p-
electron in flourine atom.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

12) Which of the following pair having almost same size ?

(1) Zr, Hf
(2) Cd, Hg
(3) Fe, Co
(4) All of the above

13) In mendeleev's periodic table, the short periods are

(1) 1st and 2nd
(2) 4th and 5th
(3) 2nd and 3rd
(4) 5th and 6th

14) Element X and Y have electronegativity values 3.8 and 1.8 respectively. What will be the %
covalent character of XY.

(1) 46
(2) 54
(3) 36
(4) 64

15) IP1 and IP2 of Mg are 178 and 348 k.cal mol-1. The enthalpy required for the reaction

(1) + 170 k.cal

(2) + 526 k.cal
(3) - 170 k.cal
(4) -526 k.cal

16) Which is not the correct order for the stated property.

(1) Ba > Sr > Mg; atomic radius

(2) F > O > N ; first ionization enthalpy
(3) Cl > F > I; electron affinity
(4) O > Se > Te; electronegativity

17) Which of the following processes involves absorption of energy ?

(1) S(g) + e– → S–(g)

(2) O–(g) + e– → O2–(g)
(3) Cl(g) + e– → Cl–(g)
(4) O(g) + e– → O–(g)

18) Aqueous solution of two compound M1–O–H and M2–O–H are prepared in two different beakers.
If EN of M1 = 3.4, M2 = 1.2, O = 3.5 and H = 2.1. Then nature of solution will be respectively.

(1) Acidic, Basic

(2) Acidic, Acidic
(3) Basic, Acidic
(4) Basic, Basic

19) Which of the following order is Incorrect :

(1) LiOH < NaOH < KOH < CsOH basic
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI Acidic
(3) LiH < NaH < KH < RbH < CsH basic
(4) SiO2 > P2O5 > SO3 > Cl2O7 Acidic

20) The correct order of second Ionisation potential of C, N, O and F is :-

(1) C > N > O > F

(2) O > N > F > C
(3) O > F > N > C
(4) F > O > N > C

21) Incorrect order of radius is :

(1) H- > Li+ > Be+2

(2) Ni > Cu > Zn
(3) Br- > S-2> Cl- > F-
(4) P-3 > S-2 > K+

22) Which among the following elements does not represent transition elements ?

(1) Fe, Co
(2) Sc, Ti
(3) V, Cr
(4) Zn, Cd

23) Atomic number which will have lowest electron affinity :-

(1) 17
(2) 9
(3) 5
(4) 10

24) Match the following lists and select the correct answer –

List -I List - II
A d-block clement I 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p6, 4s1
B Halogen II 1s2, 2s22p6,3s23p6
C Alkali metal III 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d6, 4s2
D Noble gas IV 1s2, 2s22p5
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
25) In the long form of the periodic table, the valence shell electronic configuration of 5s2 5p4
corresponds to the element present in :

(1) Group 16 and period 5

(2) Group 17 and period 6
(3) Group 17 and period 5
(4) Group 16 and period 6

26) What is group number of element Uuu in periodic table ?

(1) 10
(2) 11
(3) 12
(4) 14

27) Which of the following is not a Doeberiner triad -

(1) Li, Na, K

(2) Mg, Ca, Sr
(3) Cl, Br, I
(4) S, Se, Te

28) The alkaline earth metals Ba, Sr, Ca and Mg may be arranged in the order of their decreasing
first ionization potential as :-

(1) Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba

(2) Ca, Sr, Ba, Mg
(3) Sr, Ba, Mg, Ca
(4) Ba, Mg, Ca, Sr

29) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Nitrogen has higher ionisation energy than oxygen
Reason (R) : Oxygen has incompletely filled orbital.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

30) An element with atomic number 21 is a:

(1) halogen
(2) representative element
(3) transition element
(4) alkali metal
31) Elements which occupied position in the lother meyer curve, on the peaks, were

(1) Alkali metals

(2) Highly electro positive elements
(3) Elements having large atomic volume
(4) All

32) The IP of oxygen is less than nitrogen. Reason is :

(1) Nitrogen has stable fully filled configuration.

(2) Nitrogen has stable half filled configuration.
(3) Zeff of nitrogen is more.
(4) Oxygen has more stable electronic configuration.

33) Among the following oxyacids the correct decreasing order of acid strength is -

(1) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl

(2) HCl2 > HClO4 > HClO3 > HOCl
(3) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(4) HClO4 > HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3

34) The successive ionisation energies of an element (in eV/atom) are:-

IE1 IE2 IE3 IE4 IE5

11.2 24.3 57.4 77.4 392.0
The outer electronic configuration of the element may be :-
0
(1) ns2np
(2) ns2np3
(3) ns2np1
(4) ns2np2

35) For the second period elements the correct increasing order of Electron affinity is :-

(1) Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne < Li

(2) Ne < Be < N < B < Li < C < O < F
(3) Li < Be < N < Ne < B < C < O < F
(4) Be < Li < N < Ne < B < C < O < F

36) The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 114 is :

(1) unnilennium
(2) unununnium
(3) ununoctium
(4) ununquadium
37) Identify the incorrect match :

IUPAC Official
Name
Name

(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium

(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium

(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium

(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium

(1) (d), (iv)
(2) (a), (i)
(3) (b), (ii)
(4) (c), (iii)

38) Match the element in column I with that in column II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Copper (i) Non-metal

(b) Fluorine (ii) Transition metal

(c) Silicon (iii) Lanthanoid

(d) Cerium (iv) Metalloid

Identify the correct match :

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

39) Correct order of shielding effect is :-

(1) p > d > f

(2) d > p > s
(3) p > f > s
(4) s > d > p

40) Electronic configurations of four elements A, B, C and D are given below:

(i) 1s2 2s2 2p6
(ii) 1s2 2s2 2p4
(iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(iv) 1s2 2s2 2p5
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing tendency to gain electron?

(1) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)

(2) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
(3) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)
(4) (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)

41) Statement I: Electron gain enthalpy can be exothermic and endothermic.

Statement II: Electron gain enthalpy provides a measure of the ease with which an electron can be
added in an atom to form anion.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

42) For the element X, student Mansi measured its radius at 102 nm, student Rohit as 203 nm and
Ankur as 100 nm. using same apparatus. Their teacher explained that measurements were correct
by saying that recorded values by three students were:-

(1) Crystal, van der Waal's and Covalent radii

(2) Covalent, crystal and van der Waal's radii
(3) van der Waal's, ionic and covalent radii
(4) None is correct

43) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : The formation of O–2 is endothermic
Statement-II : Ionisation energy of S¯ is more than O–.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement I & II both are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct.
(4) Both statement I & II are incorrect.

44) Which of the following oxide are amphoteric

(a) BeO
(b) SnO
(c) ZnO
(d) CaO

(1) If (a) (b) and (c) are correct.

(2) If (a) & (b) both options are correct.
(3) If (b) and (d) both options are correct.
(4) If (a) and (c) both options are correct.

45) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II Atomic

Element radius (Pm)
(1) Be (a) 88
(2) N (b) 70
(3) O (c) 111
(4) C (d) 74
(1) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b
(2) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – d
(3) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a
(4) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – c, 4 – d

BIOLOGY

1)

Choose the incorrect statement :-

(A) Cells in G0 stage are metabolically inactive.
(B) Meiosis involves two cycle of DNA replication
(C) Mitosis restores the nucleo–cytoplasmic ratio of cells
(D) Duration of cell cycle may vary from organism to organism and also from cell to cell.

Options :-
(1) A,C
(2) C,D
(3) B,C
(4) A,B

2) Read the following statements and select correct option that bears true statements :-
(i) During S-phase amount of DNA per cell doubles, but chromosome number remains same.
(ii) Cell division is a progressive process that shows the clear cut lines or distinct boundries
between various stages.
(iii) Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under the microscope, do not show golgi complexes,
endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope.

(1) i, ii and iii

(2) i and ii
(3) ii and iii
(4) i and iii

3) Read the following statements :

A. Bivalent chromosomes clearly appears as tetrads in pachytene
B. In plant cells cytokinesis occur by the appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane.
C. The X-shaped structures appears prominently during diplotene
D. The synaptonemal complex develops during leptotene
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) One

4) Identify the correct sequence of events during Prophase I of meiosis :

(a) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
(b) Chromosomes become gradually visible under microscope
(c) Crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(d) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(e) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (b), (c), (d), (e), (a)
(3) (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(4) (a), (c), (d), (e), (b)

5) Select the correct statement :-

(A) During metaphase, spindle fibre attaches to kinetochores of chromosomes.
(B) During Telophase, Nucleolus, Golgi complex & ER reforms
(C) The stage between the two mitotic divisions is called interkinesis
(D) Diakinesis represents transition to prophase
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :-

(1) A and D only

(2) A, B and D only
(3) A and B only
(4) C and D only

6) Read the following four statements (A - D) :-

(A) The interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle.
(B) In animal cells during the s-phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus and the centriole
duplicates in the nucleolus
(C) Since the number of chromosomes in the parent and progeny cells is the same so mitosis is also
called as equational division.
(D) Mitosis usually results in the production of diploid daughter cells with identical genetic
complement.
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

7) Read the following statements.

(A) The growth of multicellular organisms due to meiosis.
(B) In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which multinucleated
condition.
(C) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II.
(D) Conservation of specific chromosome number of each species is achieved by meiosis.
(E) Diplotene is recognised by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

8) Which statements are not correct for meiosis?

(A) It is called the reductional division
(B) Meiosis occurs in the diploid cells
(C) Meiosis II is similar to mitosis
(D) A very significant contribution of meiosis is cell repair
(E) It also increases the genetic variability

(1) Both (B) and (D)

(2) Only (D)
(3) (B), (C) and (E)
(4) Only (E)

9) Which of the following statement is/are correct?

(a) The compaction of chromosome continues throughout leptotene
(b) Pachytene is characterised by the appearance of recombination nodules
(c) In Anaphase-I homologous chromosomes separate
(d) There is no replication of DNA during interkinesis

(1) a, b, c only
(2) b, c, d only
(3) only d
(4) All of the above

10) Given diagram A, B, C and D represent the different stages of meiosis. Arrange them according
to their sequence and select the correct option:

A. B.

C. D.

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) B, A, D and C
(3) B, D, C and A
(4) D, A, B and C

11) Read the following character of C4 plants :-

A. Bundle sheath cell have large number of chloroplast, thick walls & no intercellular space.
B. Oxaloacetic acid formed in Bundle sheath cells.
C. Primary CO2 acceptor is PEP present in mesophyll cell.
D. Mesophyll cell lack RuBisCo enzyme.
Select correct statements :-

(1) A, B & C
(2) A, C & D
(3) B, C & D
(4) A, B & D

12) Which of the following statements are correct for chemiosmosis :

(a) Decrease of protons in stroma
(b) Decrease in pH in stroma
(c) Conformational change of F1 portion of ATP synthase
(d) Conformational change of F0 portion of ATP synthase (e) Facilitated diffusion of protons

(1) a, c, e
(2) a, b, c
(3) d,e
(4) b,d,e

13) Select the incorrect statements :-

(a) The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the lumen side of the membrane.
(b) Carbon dioxide is not the major limiting factor for photosynthesis.
(c) Rubisco has a much greater affinity for O2, when the CO2, : O2 is nearly equal.
(d) In photosynthesis, ATP synthesis is linked to development of a proton gradient across a
membrane.

(1) a,b and c

(2) b,c and d
(3) a,b and d
(4) a,c, and d

14) Identify the correct statements regarding calvin cycle :-

(a) Regeneration is most crucial step of calvin cycle.
(b) Carboxylation is catalysed by the enzyme RuBP carboxylase.
(c) Regeneration steps require 1 ATP for phosphorylation to form RUBP.
(d) First product of CO2 fixation is a C3 acid.
(e) The primary acceptor is a 2 - carbon compound.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (e)

(2) (c), (d) and (e)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (e)

15) Read the following four statements (A - D) :-

(A) There is a linear relationship between light and CO2 fixation rate at low light intensity but at high
light intensity it is not
(B) Current availability of CO2 is limiting to the C3 plants because they show CO2 saturation at 360
µlL–1 concentration.
(C) Light reactions of photosynthesis are less affected by temperature as compare to dark reactions
(D) As a factor water mainly show indirect effect on photosynthesis
How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

16) Identify the correct statements :

A. Photosynthesis is a physico - chemical process.
B. All living forms on earth not depend on sun light for energy.
C. Variegated leaf experiment proves that green parts of plant and sunlight is essential for
photosynthesis.
D. Joseph Priestley proved essential role of air in the growth of green plants.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A and D only

(2) A, C and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) A, B and C only

17) Given below the two statements :

Statement-I : The Calvin pathway occurs in all photosynthetic plants ; it does not matter whether
they have C3 or C4 (or any other) pathways.
Statement-II : Calvin pathway is the basic pathway that results in the formation of the sugars.
In light of the above statements. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

18) Identify the correct statements :

(A) Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristic feature of C4 plants.
(B) In C4 plants the primary CO2 acceptor is a 3-carbon molecule.
(C) Photorespiration occurs frequently in both C3 and C4 plants.
(D) The CO2 released in the bundle sheath cells enters the C3.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A, B and D only
(3) B & C only
(4) C & D only

19) Statement I :- Blue & red regions of light spectrum shows higher rate of photosynthesis.
Statement II :- Absorption spectrum & action spectrum show complete one–to–one overlapping.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

20) Statement I :- The pigments remain organised in to two discrete photochemical light harvesting
complexes with in the photosystem I & photosystem-II
Statement II :- These photosystems are named in the sequence of their function during light
reaction.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

21) Statement I :- In green plants H2O is the hydrogen donor and is oxidised to O2.
Statement II :- Van neel inferred that the O2 evolved by green plants comes from CO2.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

22) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion (A) :- In C4 plants photorespiration does not occur
Reason (R) :- In C4 plants they have a mechanism that increases the concentration of CO2 at the
enzyme site.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

23) How many of the following statements are correct?

(a) Cells differentiate and mature to perform specific functions is termed as differentiation.
(b) Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium formed from fully differentiated parenchyma cells.
(c) PGRs are small, simple molecules of diverse chemical composition.
(d) Auxin breaks seed and bud dormancy, initiates germination in peanut seeds.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

24) Which among the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Auxins like IAA and indole butyric acid (IBA) have been isolated from plants.
(2) Spraying juvenile conifers with GAs hastens the maturity period.
(3) Cytokinin promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice plants.
(4) Ethylene is one of the most widely used PGR in agriculture.

25) Read the following statement and select the correct option.
A. The increased growth per unit time is termed as growth rate
B. In arithmetic growth, sigmoid curve is obtained
C. The exponential growth can be expressed as w1 = w0 ert
D. Measurement and the comparison of total growth per unit time is called the absolute growth
rate.

(1) Only A and C are correct

(2) A, B and C are correct
(3) A, C and D are correct
(4) Only B and C are correct

26) Select the correct match :

(a) Root initiation on stem cutting = Auxin.
(b) Increase productivity of sugar cane = Gibberllin.
(c) Delay in senescence = Cytokinin
(d) Thinning of cherry, walnut & cotton = Ethylene

(1) only a, b, c are correct

(2) All are correct
(3) only a, b, d are correct
(4) only b, c, d are correct

27) Select the incorrect match from the following :

Composition Phytohormones

(1) Terpenes Gibberellins

(2) Adenine derivatives Kinetin

Derivative of
(3) Auxins
carotenoids
 (4) Indole compounds IBA
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

28) Identify the option having correct match of hormones with their respective function
(A) Apical dominance
(B) Xylem differentiation
(C) Increases malt yield
(D) Delayed ripening

(1) A and C – Cytokinin

(2) B and C – Gibberellins
(3) C and A – ABA
(4) A and B – Auxin

29) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Increased vacuolation is one of the characteristics of elongation phase of growth

Sigmoid growth curve is characteristic representation of organism's growth in natural
(2)
conditions
(3) Development is considered as the sum of growth and differentiation
(4) Plant growth regulators are extracellular factor for growth

30) Which of the following statements are correct?

a. Axillary bud inhibits the growth of apical buds. This phenomenon is called apical dominance.
b. Gibberellins extend the market period of fruits.
c. Abscisic acid helps seeds to withstand desiccation.
Options :

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c
(3) a and c only
(4) a,b and c

31) Which of the following features are correctly matched ?

(a) Cause elongation of apple and improve its shape
(b) Promote flowering in pineapple
(c) Increase length of sugarcane
(d) Cause lateral growth
(e) Promote bolting in beet
Options :

(1) b, d, e - Auxins
(2) a, c, e - Cytokinins
(3) a, c, e - Gibberellins
(4) a, b, c - Abscisic acid

32) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Kinetin is a naturally occurring cytokinin found in plants.
Statement II: Cytokinins promote nutrient mobilisation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

33) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs, especially of leaves and
flowers.
Statement II: Ethylene is known to inhibit the ripening of fruits and is not involved in the horizontal
growth of seedlings.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

34) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ethylene promotes root growth and root hair formation, which helps in increasing the
absorption surface of plants.
Statement II: Ethephon, being a source of ethylene, is used to delay fruit ripening in tomatoes and
apples and to prevent abscission in flowers and fruits.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

35) Assertion (A) : Plant growth is generally indeterminate.

Reason (R) : Plants have meristems at certain locations in their body.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

36) Select incorrect statement :-

+
(1) For each ATP, 4H passes through F0 by active transport
(2) Oxygen acts as a final hydrogen accepter.
(3) F0 is an integral membrane protein complex
Proton passes through intermembrane space to the matrix down the electrochemical proton
(4)
gradient.

37) Select the incorrect assumption for calculations on respiratory balance sheet-

(1) There is a sequential orderly pathway.

(2) NADH2 synthesised in glycolysis transferred in to the mitochondria.
(3) Intermediates in the pathway are utilised to synthesise any other compound.
(4) Only glucose is being respired.

38) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) All living organisms contain the enzymatic machinary to partially oxidise glucose to pyruvic
acid.
(B) The complete oxidation of pyruvate by stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms, results in
formation of 4 NADH.
(C) The number of ATP molecules synthesised in mitochondrial ETS depends on the nature of the
electron donor.
(D) Breakdown of pyruvic acid into CO2 and ethanol in cytoplasm is catalysed by enzyme pyruvate
dehydrogenase.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

39) Select the correct statement w.r.t. Respiratory Quotient.

(1) Pure proteins or fats are never used as respiratory substrates.

The ratio of the volume of O2 evolved to the volume of CO2 consumed in respiration is called the
(2)
respiratory quotient.
The respiratory quotient depends upon the type of respiratory substrate produced
(3)
during respiration.
(4) In living organisms respiratory substrates are often just one.

40) Which of the following statements is not correct about oxidative decarboxylation?

(1) It takes place in mitochondrial matrix.

(2) Two molecules of NADH are produced by one molecule of pyruvate.
(3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase is used as catalyst in this reaction.
(4) Two molecules of NADH are produced by two molecules of pyruvate.

41) Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle ?

+
(1) There is one point in the cycle where FAD is reduced to FADH2
(2) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric
(3)
acid
(4) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH+ H+

42) Read the statements carefully.

(a) Each plant part takes care of its own gas exchange needs
(b) Plants shows great gaseous demand for gas exchange
(c) In plants large volume of gases are exchanged only during respiration
(d) Plants show very little transport of gases from one part to another
How many of the above statement (a-d) are incorrect ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) Which of the following is associated to complex IV in mitochondrial ETS?

(1) Cyt bc1 complex

(2) Cyt a, cyt c, UQ
(3) cyt a, a3 and two copper centers
(4) FMN, UQ

44) Observe the figure. Choose the correct option for labels a, b, c, d and e.

(1) a—glycerol, b—fatty acid, c—DHAP, d—acetyl CoA, e—pyruvic acid

(2) a—fatty acid, b—glycerol, c—pyruvic acid, d—DHAP, e—acetyl CoA
(3) a—fatty acid, b—glycerol, c—DHAP, d—pyruvic acid, e—acetyl CoA
(4) a—fatty acid, b—glycerol, c—DHAP, d—acetyl CoA, e—pyruvic acid

45) Given below is the general representation of pathways of anaerobic respiration in which you
have to identify the compounds at A, B, and C.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) PEP CO2 Ethanol
(2) PEP Lactic acid Ethanol
(3) 1, 3-Bis PGA Lactic acid Acetyl CoA
Lactic
(4) 1, 3-Bis PGA Acetyl CoA
acid
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

46) Given below are four matching of an animal and its kind of respiratory organ :

(a) Insect Trachea

(b) Scorpion Book lung

(c) Fish Gills

(d) Dolphin Skin

The correct matching are :
(1) b and d only
(2) c and d only
(3) a and d only
(4) a, b and c only

47) Cartilagenous rings in trachea are not complete at which surface :-

(1) Dorsal
(2) Ventral
(3) Lateral
(4) Ventrolateral

48) 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver .....ml of O2 under strenous exercise condition:-
(1) 5
(2) 20
(3) 10
(4) 15

49)

Respiratory centre is situated in :-

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Cerebrum

50) Amount of oxygen transported by five gram of haemoglobin is :-

(1) 6.70 ml
(2) 13.4 ml
(3) 20 ml
(4) 3.7 ml

51) The major proteins of plasma are :-

(1) Albumin, Globulin and Haemoglobin

(2) Collagen, Elastin and Fibrinogen
(3) Fibrinogen, Globulin and Albumin
(4) Prothrombin, Fibrinogen and Collagen

52) "Histamine" is secreted by :-

(1) Monocytes
(2) Basophils
(3) Mast cell
(4) Both (2) and (3)

53) Cardiac output of an athlete during exercise is much higher than an ordinary man. It means that
human body has the ability to alter
a. Stroke volume
b. Heart rate
C. Duration of cardiac cycle
Choose the correct options

(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) a & b only
(4) a, b & c
54) In dire emergency, which group of blood can be transfused safely without cross matching ?

(1) A and Rh–ve

(2) O and Rh– ve
(3) A and Rh+ve
(4) O and Rh+ve

55) The part of kidney gateway for ureter, nerves and blood vessels is :-

(1) Hilus/Hilum
(2) Renal pore
(3) Minor calyx
(4) Major calyx

56) In counter current system :-

(1) Descending arm of loop of Henle exchange its material with descending arm of vasa recta.
(2) Ascending arm of loop of Henle exchange its material with descending arm of vasa recta.
(3) "NaCl is returned to interstitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta"
(4) Both (2) & (3)

57) In micturition, signal is initiated by :-

(1) CNS
(2) Stretching of urinary bladder
(3) Stretching of internal urethral sphincter
(4) Stretch receptors on urethra

58) Which one of the following is not a part of renal pyramid ?

(1) Vasa vecta

(2) Convoluted tubules
(3) Collecting ducts
(4) Loop of Henle

59) Which of the following option is incorrect :-

(1) Ulna do not participate in formation of elbow joint

(2) Glenoid cavity is present in scapula
(3) Palm bones are 5 in number
(4) Digital formula for phalanges is 23333

60) The foramen magnum is located in the ______ bone of the skull :-

(1) Frontal
(2) Parietal
(3) Occipital
(4) Temporal

61) Match column I and column II and choose correct option from followings :-

Column-I Column-II

Elastic fibre in I -
A H-Zone i
Band

Sarcoplasmic Light central area

B ii
Reticulum of A-band.

Part of meromyosin
C Z-line iii
protein.

Store house of Ca+2

D Cross Arm iv
ions
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

62) Which event does not happen during muscle contraction ?

(1) Actin filaments move towards H-zone

(2) Decreased length of myosin filament
(3) Decreased length of sarcomere
(4) Length of A-band remains unchanged.

63) Identify a, b, c?

a. Cervical c. Lumbar
(1) b. Coccyx
vertebrae vertebrae

a. Cervical c. Lumbar
(2) b. Sacrum
vertebrae vertebrae

a. Cervical b. Intervertebral c. Lumbar

(3)
vertebrae disc vertebrae
 a. Lumbar
(4) b. Sacrum c. Coccyx
vertebrae
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) "The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet __A__ to form the pubic symphysis containing __B__." A
and B in the above statement respectively are :-

(1) Dorsally, Fibrous connective tissue

(2) Ventrally, Fibrous cartilage
(3) Dorsally, Fibrous cartilage
(4) Ventrally, Fibrous connective tissue

65) What will happen, if there is a low Ca+2 concentration in body fluid ?

(1) Weakening and paralysis of muscle

(2) Rapid spasms in muscle
(3) Progressive degeneration of muscles
(4) Slow contraction in muscles

66) The axoplasm inside the axon contains high concentration of ....... and ...... :-

(1) K+ and Na+

(2) K+ and Negatively charged proteins
(3) Na+ and Cl–
(4) Na+ and Ca+2

67) Outer gray matter and inner white matter is present in which of the following :-

(1) Pons
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Spinal cord
(4) Cerebrum

68) Choose the correct one for each statement :-

(A) Neurons of cerebral cortex are ____
(B) ____ equalize pressure at both side of ear drum.
(C) Transmission of an impulse across ___ synapse is very similar to axon.
(D) Inner part of cerebral hemisphere consist of ___.

A B C D

Unipolar Cochlear Myelinated

1 Electricle
neuron duct neuron
 Bipolar Eustachian Myelinated
2 Chemical
neurons tube neuron

Multipolar Eustachian Myelinated

3 Electrical
neuron tube neuron

Multipolar Eustachian Nonmyelinoted

4 Electrical
neuron tube neuron
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) Which of the following statement is true ?

(a) Saltatory conduction is seen in non-myelinated nerve fibres
(b) Nissl's granules synthesize protein to generate damaged part of neuron
(c) Neurofibril helps in internal conduction
(d) Trigger zone, trigger nerve impules at base of dendron

(1) (a), (b)

(2) (a) (c)
(3) (b), (c)
(4) (c), (d)

70) Which of the following is responsible for repolarisation of nerve fibre:

(1) Opening of V.G. Na+ channel

(2) Closing of V.G. K+ Channel
(3) Closing of leaky channel
(4) Opening of V.G. K+ channel

71) The thermoregulatory centre in the body of human is found in :-

(1) Medulla
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Pituitary
(4) Skin

72) Crura cerebri is present in ....... and is concerned with controlling the muscles of .......

(1) Forebrain, limbs

(2) Midbrain, limbs
(3) Hindbrain, limbs
(4) Heart, limbs

73) Brain stem consist of :-

(1) Pons, cerebellum

(2) Pons, cerebellum, Cerebrum
(3) Pons, cerebellum, thalamus
(4) Midbrain, medulla oblongata, Pons

74) Due to bad ranking in medical examination teacher motivates student for improvement. Which
one of the following related with situation ?

(1) Corpus callosum

(2) Pons varoli
(3) Limbic system
(4) Medulla oblongata

75) (A) and (B) pairs of ribs are called floating ribs ?

(1) 11th and 12th

(2) 1st to 7th
(3) 8th, 9th and 10th
(4) 10th to 12th

76) A person with diabetes mellitus will not have:-

(1) Glycosuria
(2) Ketonuria
(3) Excessive urination
(4) Tasteless urine

77) Find out the correct labelling in the following diagram ?

(1) A = Nucleus, B = Genome, C = Surface receptor, D = Adrenaline

(2) A = Fats, B = DNA, C = Hormone Receptor complex, D = Insulin
(3) A = Proteins, B = DNA, C = Hormone Receptor complex, D = FSH
(4) A = Nucleus, B = Genome, C = Hormone Receptor complex, D = Oestrogen

78)
Identify letter in given figures :-

(1) x-parathyroid gland, a-adrenal gland

(2) y-PTH, b-Cortisol
(3) x-thyroid gland, b-thyroxine
(4) y-calcitonin, b-glucagon

79) Which of the following hormone is a derivative of amino acid?

(1) Estrogen
(2) Epinephrine
(3) Progesterone
(4) Prostaglandin

80) Which one is a group of steroid hormones:-

(1) Adrenaline and nor adrenaline

(2) Cortisol and Aldosterone
(3) Glucagon and insulin
(4) Thyroxine and cortisol

81)

I. GH II. PRL
III. TSH IV. ACTH
V. LH VI. Oxytocin

Which of the above hormones are secreted by anterior lobe of pituitary ?

(1) I, II, III , IV and V
(2) III, IV, V and VI
(3) I, II, V and VI
(4) I, II, III, IV and VI

82)

I. Sleep-wake cycle
II. Body temperature
III. Pigmentation
IV. Metabolism
V. Defence capability

All of the above written activities are influenced/regulated by :-

(1) Pineal gland
(2) Parathyroid gland
(3) Thymus gland
(4) Adrenal gland

83) Assertion : Catecholamines stimulates the glycogenolysis in response to stress situation.

Reason : Cortisol is the main glucocorticoid in our body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

84) Assertion: Glucagon & Insulin is the antagonist to each other.

Reason: Glucagon is hyperglycemic & insulin is the hypoglycemic.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

85) Assertion : On an average roughly 1/5th of the blood of cardiac output is filtered by both the
kidneys per min.
Reason : The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called podocytes are arranged in an intricate
manner so as to leave some minute spaces called slitpores.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

86) Consider the following volume or capacities. Vital capacity, Total lung capacity, Functional
residual capacity, Residual volume, Inspiratory capacity, Expiratory reserve volume. How many
above volume and capacity can not directly measure with the help of spirometer ?

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

87) Choose incorrect statements about Rh factor :-

(1) Donor must not have Rh antigen, if recepient is Rh (–ve).

(2) Recipient with Rh antigen can recieve Rh (+ve) and Rh(–ve) blood both.
(3) Rh antibody given to child if mother is Rh (–ve) and foetus is Rh (+ve).
(4) Person with Rh(–ve) blood donot have Rh antigen on their RBCs surface.

88) Which one of the following is a matching pair ?

(1) Lubb - closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systole

(2) Dup - sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole
(3) Pulsation of the radial artery-valves in the blood vessels
(4) Initiation of the heart beat Purkinje fibres

89)

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation ?

(1) During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed
(2) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II
(3) When some one drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed
(4) Exposure to the cold weather stimulates ADH release

90) An increase in pulmonary volume:

(1) Decreases intra-pulmonary pressure

(2) Increases intra-pulmonary pressure
(3) Forces air from outside to move into the lungs
(4) Both (1) and (3)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 3 4 3 4 2 2 1 4 4 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 2 2 4 2 4 1 3 1 4 4 3 2 1 2 1 3 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 1 2 4 3 4 3 2 2 2 2 1 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 4 2 1 2 2 1 1 3 4 2 1 4 2 4 1 2 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 1 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 2 3 3 1 2 2 4 3 2 1 1 3 1 2 4 2 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 2 3 3 2 3 4 4 2 3 4 4 4 4 1 3 4 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 3 3 2 4 1 4 2 1 3 4 4 2 1 4 2 2 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 1 2 2 2 4 3 3 4 2 2 4 3 1 4 4 3 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 2 1 2 2 3 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 1. Problem Explanation
Two particles performing SHM with the same amplitude and frequency pass each other at half
their amplitude in opposite directions.

2. Concept Used

The SHM equation is . Given that displacement is , we determine the

phase values and their difference.
3. Formulas Used
• SHM equation:

• Given :

4. Calculation (Minimum Steps)

1. Phase values:
• One particle:
• Other particle:
2. Phase difference:

Other Solution

Phase difference
 2)

Time period of SHM =

∴ Time for traveling 60° is =

3) (1) Asking About:

We need to determine which graph correctly represents the relationship between V2 (square of
velocity) and x2 (square of displacement) for a particle undergoing simple harmonic motion
(SHM).
(2) Concept:
Relation between v and x in SHN
(3) Formula:
The total energy E in SHM is given by:

Solution:
Since total energy is conserved.

Substituting the expressions for KE and PE:

⇒
Rearranging:

(4) Calculation / Explanation:

A. The equation shows a linear relationship between V2 and x2 where V2

2
decreases as x increases.
B. This equation is of the form y = c - mx which represents a straight line with a negative slope
when plotting V2 versus x2.

(5) Final Answer:

The correct graph should be a straight line with a negative slope, intercepting the vertical axis at
and the horizontal axis at A2 (maximum x2)
(6) Correct Option:
Option 3: A straight line with a negative slope, intersecting both axes at maximum V2 and maximum
x2.

4)

I ∝ A2n2
5)

6)

When a girl on a swing stands up, the periodic time will decrease as leff decreases.

7)

Due to restoring force, acceleration in SHM is always directed towards the mean position and
at extreme position the body momentary comes to rest, but son does not explain assertion

8) When mass 700 gm is removed, the left out mass (500+400)gm oscillates with a period of 3
sec

∴ 3 = t = 2π (i)
When 500 gm mass is also removed, the left out mass is 400 gm.

∴ t’ = 2π (ii)

⇒ ⇒

9) λ = 4 cm
T = 0.8 sec.
λ = vT

10) so

11)

Energy density of wave is given by

u = 2 π² n² ρ a²
Or u ∝ a² ( as n and ρ are constant )

12)
also mg = kx
13)

A = 1 cm
amax = (1.57)2
Aω2 = (1.57)2
ω = 1.57

T= = 4 sec

14)

vmax = Aω = 6 × 2 = 12 cm/s

15)

16)

17)

18)

K=
ω=

19)
a = – ω2x,

KE =
Ratio of acceleration to displacement

= (consant)

20)
21)
As initially centre of mass goes down and then comes to its original position, therefore,
effective length of pendulum first increases and then decreases to the original value. So, will
be the time period.

22) TP =

TS =

23) Explanation :- to find spring constant

Concept :- (1) spring constant when spring is cut it's spring constant in cresses

(2) Series combination of spring.

(3) Parallel combination of spring
K = K1 + K2 + K3

Formula :- Series combination :-

Parallel combination :- Keq = K1 + K2 + K3
Calculation :- Spring is cut into length of ratio
1:2:3
so the spring constants of small parts will be

K1 : K2 : K3 : =
K1 : K2 : K3 = 6 : 3 : 2

for series combination :

K1 = 1
for parallel combination: K11 = K1 + K2 + K3 = + 6 + 3 + 2 = 11
so K1/K11 = 1/11

24) At node A extension is max.

25)

Particle velocity,

or = – wave velocity × slope of the wave

 (a) For upward velocity, vpa = + ve, so slope must negative which is at the points D, E and F.

(b) For downward velocity, vpa = –ve, so slope must be positive which
is at the points A, B and H.
(c) For zero velocity, slope must be zero which is at C and G.
(d) For maximum magnitude of velocity, |slope| = maximum, which is at A and E. Hence, the given
(d) alternative is wrong.

26) Question Explanation :

The displacement equation of a particle in a medium is given. find the speed of the wave.

Concept:
This question is based on Wave Speed.

Formula :

Calculation :

Hence,
Option (2) is correct

Difficulty level : Easy

27) Question Explanation :

Two waves with different amplitudes are traveling in the same medium. The ratio of their
intensities needs to be determined using the relationship between intensity and amplitude.

Concept Based :
This question is based on progressive wave.

Formula :
Intensity of a wave:
I µ A2ω2
Intensity ratio:

Calculation :
Given wave equations:
y1 = 5sin 2π(75t – 0.25x)
y2 = 10sin 2π(150t – 0.5x)
Identifying amplitudes:
A1 = 5, A2 = 10
Using intensity formula:

Hence,
Option (4) is correct : I1 : I2 = 1 : 16 Ans.

28)

(Vp)max = 2V

k = 2πc

29) Solution
(1) Asking About :
Finding the intensity ratio I1; I2 given the amplitudes of two waves.
(2) Concept:
Intensity and Amplitude Relationship:

(Intensity is proportional to the square of amplitude.)

(3) Formula:

(4) Calculation / Explanation:

1. Identify Amplitudes: Given that A1 = 4 and A2 = 5
2. Calculate the Intensity Ratio :

(5) Final Answer :

I1 : I2 = 16 : 25
(6) Correct Option: (3) 16:25

30) Solution
1. Asking About :
The wave speed for the given wave equation:
2. Concept:
The standard wave equation is :

3. Formula :

4. Calculation / Explanation :
Comparing with y = A sin2(wt–kx), we identify :

Substituting into the formula :

30π π/11 30 x 11330 m/s

5. Final Answer:
v = 330m / s

6. Correct Option: (1) 330 m/sec

31) A =
A=
A=

32)

f1 = = 450 – 375 = 75

= × = =2m
–3
m = µ × 2 = 8 × 10 kg

33)

⇒ ⇒ T = 200 K = – 73°C

34) Here, ρ = 8000 kg/m3

and B = 2 × 109 N/m2
Thus,

35) Question Explain :

The question asks about the nature of the process during the propagation of sound in air
according to Newton's theory.

Concept / Solution :
Newton initially assumed that sound propagates as an isothermal process (constant
temperature). However, later Laplace corrected this assumption and showed that sound
propagation is actually an adiabatic process due to the rapid compression and rarefaction in
the air.

Correct Answer According to Newton :

Newton assumed isothermal process (option 1).
But in reality, the correct process is adiabatic, as shown by Laplace.

Final Answer :
As per Newton's assumption : Option 1 (Isothermal process) is correct.

Level : Easy

36)

Question Asking About:

The question asks for the ratio of the velocity of sound in hydrogen (H2) and oxygen(O2) at the
same temperature. The speed of sound in a gas depends on molecular mass.

Key Concept:
Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportion to the square root of its molar mass at
constant temperature.

Formula

Since γ, R and T are constant,

where M is the molar mass of gas.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
For H2, M1 = 2, and for O2 M2 = 32

=4

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.
37)

Speed of sound,
T → absolute temperature
Mw → Molecular mass

38) Comparing each wave equation with the standard equation

y = a sin ωt = a sin 2πnt
the frequencies of the two waves are

n1 = 500 Hz and n2 = = 499 Hz

∴ Beat frequency = n1 – n2 = 500 – 499 = 1 beat/sec.

39) ∵ Produce 4 beats ∴ f = 288 ± 4 = 292 or 284 cps

By waxing beats ↓ so f = 292 cps.

40) Question Explanation : To find the number of nodes and antinodes in stretched string for
given number of harmonic.
Concept : VIBRATION OF STRETCHED STRING
Formula : If a string vibrates in P coops then number of harmonic = P.

Solution : When a string vibrate in P loops

Then number of harmonic = (P)

Number of node = P + 1
Number of Antinode = P
according to siven question Number of harmonic = 7
Number of Node = 8
Number of antinode = 7
Answer - (1) 8, 7 correct

41) Question Explanation : The problem involves determining the ratio of the lengths of two
organ pipes, P1 and P2 vibration in different harmonics but resonating with the same tuning
fork, P1 is closed at one end (first harmonica), and P2 open at both ends (third harmonic).
Concept :
Resonance and Harmonics in organ pipes: A pipe closed at one end has a fundamental
frequency with a quarter of the wavelength fitting inside the pipe (λ/4,λ/4, etc for higher
harmonics). A pipe open at both ends has its fundamental frequency with half the wavelength
fitting inside the pipe (λ/2,λ/2 etc for higher harmonics)
Formula :
For a closed-end pipe vibrating in its first harmonic:

(where λ1 is the wavelength of the fundamental frequency for P1).

For an open-end pipe vibrating in its third harmonic:
 (where λ2 is the wavelength of the third harmonic for P2).
Since both pipes are resonation with the same tuning fork, their frequencies are equal, so f1 =
f2 which gives the relationship between the wavelengths.

Calculation : From the resonance condition, we know that the frequencies of the two pipes

must be equal. Using the relationship between frequency. wavelength, and velocity :

For pipe p1 (closed at one end):

For pipe p2 (open at both ends): :

Since both frequencies are the same, we set

Equating the lengths:

Thus, the ratio of the length of P1 to the length of P2 is 1:6

Final Answer:
The ration of the length of P1 to the length of P2 is 1 : 6.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct

42) n = P n=
n = 5 Hz

43) Question Explanation :

Two wires of the same material and length have different radii in a 1 : 2 ratio. The
fundamental frequency depends on tension, length, and linear mass density. We determine
their frequency ratio.

Concept Based :
This question is based on Fundamental Frequency of a Stretched String.

Formula :
Linear mass density:

Fundamental frequency:

Taking ratio:
 Calculation :
Given r1 : r2 = 1 : 2, we have:

Hence,
Option (3) is correct

44) 300 = ×v ℓ=

600 = , v=3 ℓ' = = 0.4125

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) so maximum 3s23p3

47) Cl(g) + e– → Cl–(g) ; ΔH = –ve

48)

Ans. (2)
112 → Copernicium

49)

All show diagonal relation with Be.

50)
Screening effect is not observed in single e– species.

51)

In Lothar Meyer’s classification, 1st group elements occupy peak positions on curve.
So, ‘M’ valency = 1

52)

Atomic no 115 will placed in 15th group and 7th period and belong to p-Block.

53)

Order of E.A.
I > III > IV > II

54)

Electron affinity of element Zeff of element

Elements with stable half filled electronic configuration and stable completely filled electronic
configuration have less electron affinity.

55)

Acidic strength order :

SO2 > P2O3 > SiO2 > Al2O3

56)

Additional electron is repelled more effectively by 2p-electron in F than 3p - electrons in Cl.

57) Lanthanoid Contraction

58) 8 elements in each

59) % covalent character = 100 - % Ionic character

= 100 - [16(2) + 3.5 (2)2]
=100 - [32+14]
=100 - 46
= 54%

60) Conceptual

61)
Due to half filled orbitals of nitrogen

62) 2nd electron addition is considered as endothermic process.

63) (M1)EN = 3.4 Close to EN of non-metal

(M2)EN =1.2 Close to EN of metal

64)

For oxides & hydroxides

Acidic strength ∝ (EN) of central atom
∴ Acidic strength correct order should be
SiO2 < P2O5 < SO2 < Cl2O7

65)

66) Ni > Cu > Zn

67)

transition element :- having incomplete d orbital.

Zn, Cd have completely filled d orbital.

68) Noble gas have minimum. Electron affinity.

69) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

70)

5s2 5p4
p block group :- 12 + 4 = 16th group
5th period

71) UUU → 111 → 11th group

72) Difference atomic number is not same

 73) On moving down in a group size increases. So IP decreases Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba.

74) IP :- N > O (due to half filled stable configuration)

75) Z = 21 Scandium

76) All

77) Nitrogen has stable half filled configuration.

78) Acidic strength ∝ oxidation state on central atom.

Acid Oxidation state of Cl

HClO4 +7
HClO3 +5
HClO2 +3
HOCl +1

79) Difference between IE4 and IE5 is maximum means outermost shell contain 4 electrons.

80)

For same shell

Ne < Be < N < B < Li < C < O < F

2p⁶ 2s² 2p³ 2p¹ 2s¹

81)

114 = un + un + quad + ium

82)

Ans. (1)
Unununium(III) → Roentgenium (Uuu)

83)
 Ans. (2)
Cu → Transition metal
F → Non-metal
Si → Metalloid
58Ce → Lanthanoid (58-71)

84)

The ability of nucleus to hold the electrons towards itself is known as shielding effect. So,
correct order is p > d > f

85) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)

86) Depending on the element, the process of adding an electron to the atom can be either
endothermic or exothermic.

87) van der Waal radii > Metallic radii > Covalent radii.

88) S - 1 : Formation of polynegative anion like O–2, N–3, C–4 is always an endothermic process.
S - 2 : As we know that

89)
CaO → Basic oxide (metal oxide)

90)

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121-124

92) Module # 01 Pg. # 121, 122, 123

93)

SOLUTION—

Two of the statements are correct:

Statement A is correct:
Bivalent chromosomes clearly appear as tetrads in pachytene, a stage of prophase I in meiosis.

Statement B is correct:
In plant cells, cytokinesis occurs through the formation of a cell plate that grows centrifugally
(from the center outwards).

The correct answer is: OPTION(2)Two

94)

SOLUTION—

(b) Chromosomes become gradually visible under microscope

→ This marks the leptotene stage where chromatin condenses.

(a) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes

→ Happens during zygotene, where homologous chromosomes pair up.

(c) Crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

→ Occurs during pachytene via formation of chiasmata.

(e) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

→ Happens in diplotene, where the synaptonemal complex breaks down.

(d) Terminalisation of chiasmata

→ Seen in diakinesis, as chiasmata move toward chromosome ends.

The correct answer is:OPTION(3)(b), (a), (c), (e), (d)

95) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123-126

96) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 163, 164, 167

97) NCERT (XI) Page No. # 166, 167, 168

98) NCERT-XI, Pg # 127, 128

99) NCERT (XI) Pg # 168,169

100) NCERT-XI, Pg.#169

101)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 218, 219

102)

Ncert Pg No: 215, 2021-2022

103) NCERT XII Pg. # 213,214,220,223

104) NCERT XI Pg # 216,217

105)

NCERT XI Pg.# 149, 150

[A, C and D]

106)

NCERT XI, Page No. 206, 207

107)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 216, 220

108) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 218, 219

109) XI NCERT Page. No :- 210, 13.4

110) XI NCERT Page. No :- 211, 13.5

111) XI NCERT Page. No :- 207-208

112)

NCERT XI, Page No. 220

113) NCERT XI Pg. # 245, 247, 250

114) NCERT XI Pg. # 248, 249, 250

115)
NCERT XI Pg. No :- 242, 243, 244

116) NCERT Pg. # 175-177

117) Auxins are chemically Indole compounds.

Fact NCERT Page No: 247

118) Increase malt yield and delayed ripening are GA effects.

Fact NCERT Page No: 248

119)

NCERT XI Pg.# 169, 170, 174

120)

NCERT pg no.175,176,178

121) NCERT XI Page 248, 249, 250

122)

Statement I: Incorrect. Kinetin was discovered from autoclaved herring sperm DNA and does
not occur naturally in plants. Natural cytokinins like zeatin were later isolated from corn-
kernels and coconut milk. Statement II: Correct. Cytokinins help in promoting nutrient
mobilisation which aids in delaying leaf senescence, among other functions such as promoting
cell division, new leaf growth, and overcoming apical dominance.

123)

Statement I: Correct. Ethylene does promote senescence and abscission of plant organs such
as leaves and flowers. Statement II: Incorrect. Ethylene is actually highly effective in
promoting the ripening of fruits and also influences horizontal growth of seedlings, not
inhibiting these processes.

124)

Statement I: Correct. Ethylene indeed promotes root growth and root hair formation, which
helps plants increase their absorption surface. Statement II: Incorrect. Ethephon, as a source
of ethylene, is used to hasten fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples, not to delay it. It also
accelerates abscission in flowers and fruits, not prevent it.

125) NCERT 240

 126)

Let's evaluate each statement to determine which one is incorrect:

1. "For each ATP, 4H passes through Fo by active transport":

A. This statement is incorrect. ATP synthesis via ATP synthase (which is composed of F and Fo
1

subunits) does not require 4 protons (H+) to be actively transported for each ATP. Rather,
protons flow through the Fo complex via facilitated diffusion down the electrochemical
gradient, not active transport, and typically, around 3 or 4 protons are required to synthesize
one ATP molecule.

2. "Oxygen acts as a final hydrogen acceptor":

A. This statement is correct. Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain
(ETC). It combines with electrons and protons to form water (H2O).

3. "Fo is an integral membrane protein complex":

A. This statement is correct. Fo is part of the ATP synthase complex embedded in the inner
mitochondrial membrane. It is involved in proton transport from the intermembrane space to
the mitochondrial matrix.

4. "Protons pass through intermembrane space to the matrix down the electrochemical
proton gradient":

A. This statement is correct. Protons (H+) are pumped into the intermembrane space during the
electron transport chain, creating a proton gradient. They then pass through ATP synthase (Fo
complex) back into the matrix, driven by the electrochemical proton gradient, providing the
energy for ATP synthesis.

Conclusion:
The incorrect statement is:
"For each ATP, 4H passes through Fo by active transport."

127) The incorrect assumption for calculations on the respiratory balance sheet is:
Intermediates in the pathway are utilized to synthesize any other compound.
This assumption is incorrect because in reality, intermediates in the metabolic pathways can
be diverted to synthesize other compounds, such as amino acids or fatty acids. This would
reduce the net ATP yield calculated from the respiratory balance sheet.
The other assumptions are generally considered valid for theoretical calculations:

A. There is a sequential orderly pathway: This assumes that the metabolic pathways follow a
linear sequence without any significant side reactions.
B. NADH2 synthesized in glycolysis transferred into the mitochondria: This assumes that
the NADH produced in the cytoplasm during glycolysis is transported to the mitochondria for
oxidative phosphorylation.
C. Only glucose is being respired: This assumes that glucose is the sole substrate for
respiration, and no other substrates like fatty acids or amino acids are being oxidized.

However, it's important to remember that these assumptions are simplifications and do not perfectly
reflect the complex metabolic reality of living cells.

128)

NCERT XI, Pg.# 155, 157, 158, 159, 160

 [A, B & C]

129) The ratio of the volume of O2 CONSUMED to the volume of CO2 EVOLVED in respiration
is called the respiratory quotient.
The respiratory quotient depends upon the type of respiratory substrate USED during
respiration.
In living organisms respiratory substrates are often MORE THAN one.
NCERT Pg163-4 12.7 Respiratory Quotient.

130)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 158

131)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 232

132) NCERT Pg.# 227

133) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 227,228 para-3, para-1

134) NCERT Pg.163

135)

NCERT Page No. 230

137)

Dorsal

138)

The correct answer is 1) 5.

A. Oxygen Delivery: Each 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers approximately 5 ml of oxygen to

the tissues under normal physiological conditions. This means that while the blood carries a lot
of oxygen, only about 5% of it is released to the tissues during each circulation.

139)

Explain Question : Respiratory centre is situated in ?

Concept : This question is based on Regulation of Respiration.

Solution : Respiration centre is situated in Medulla oblongata.

 Final Answer : option (2)

140)

Explanation :

Each gram of hemoglobin (Hb) can bind to 1.34 ml of oxygen (O₂).

In a normal healthy adult, there are about 15 grams of Hb per 100 ml of blood.

So, the total oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is:

1.34 ml/g × 15 g/100 ml = ~20.1 ml O₂ per 100 ml of blood

Final Answer : (1)

141)

Fibrinogen, Globulin and Albumin

142)

Mast cell
Basophils

143)

a, b & c

144)

O and Rh– ve

145) Explanation:
The hilum (hilus) is the concave part of the kidney where the ureter, blood vessels, lymphatic
vessels, and nerves enter or exit the kidney. It serves as the gateway for these structures.
Correct Answer: Option (1) Hilus/Hilum

146) The correct answer is: Option (4) Both (2) & (3)

Solution/Explanation:

A. Incorrect: The descending limb of the loop of Henle primarily loses water, not NaCl. Also, the
exchange isn't with the descending vasa recta.
B. Correct: The ascending limb of the loop of Henle loses NaCl, which is picked up by the
descending vasa recta. This is a key part of the countercurrent exchange.
C. Correct: As the vasa recta ascends back toward the cortex, it loses water (which went into the
descending limb of the loop of Henle) and returns the NaCl to the interstitium (the space
 surrounding the loop of Henle), maintaining the high salt concentration in the medulla.

Hence, option (4) is correct.

147)

Explain Question : In micturition, signal is initiated by ?

Concept : This question is based on micturition

Solution : In micturition, signal is initiated by Stretching of urinary Bladder.

Final Answer : option (2)

148)

Question Explanation:
Asks you to identify which of the given structures is not located within the renal pyramids of
the kidney.
Solution/Explanation:
Convoluted tubules: The convoluted tubules, specifically the proximal (PCT) and distal (DCT)
convoluted tubules, are located in the renal cortex, not the renal pyramid (medulla)
Final Answer:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

149) Module 8 Pg. # 139

150)

Explain Question: The foramen magnum is located in _________ Bone of skull?

Concept: This question is based on Skull.

Solution: The foramen magnum is located in occipital bone of Skull.

Final Answer: (3)

151)

Explanation :
The question asking about match Column I and Column II and choose the correct option.

Concept :
The question based on Structural organisation of muscle fibre.

Solution :

A. A. H-Zone — ii. Light central area of A-band

B. B. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum — iv. Store house of Ca²⁺ ions

 C. C. Z-line — i. Elastic fibre in I-band

D. D. Cross Arm — iii. Part of meromyosin protein

Final Answer : (3)

152)

During muscle contraction, the following events occur:

A. Actin filaments move towards the H-zone: This is a key feature of the sliding filament
theory. Actin filaments slide past myosin filaments, pulling them towards the center of
the sarcomere.

B. Decreased length of sarcomere: As the actin and myosin filaments slide past each other,
the distance between the Z-lines (the boundaries of the sarcomere) decreases, resulting
in a shorter sarcomere.

C. Length of A-band remains unchanged: The A-band is the region of the sarcomere that
contains the myosin filaments. During contraction, the A-band does not change in length
because the myosin filaments themselves do not shorten.

Therefore, the length of the myosin filament does not decrease during muscle contraction.

So,the correct answer is 2.

153) Pg. # 310, Fig. 20.7

154)

Explain Question : Fill in the Blanks.

Concept : "The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet __A__ to form the pubic symphysis
containing __B__."

Solution : A – Ventrally, B – fibrous cartilage

Final Answer : option (2)

155) NCERT Pg. # 312, para = 20.5

156) K+ and Negatively charged proteins

157)

158)

Ans. 3

159)

(b), (c)

160)

Opening of V.G. K+ channel

161)

Hypothalamus

162)

Midbrain, limbs

163)

Midbrain, medulla oblongata, Pons

164)

Limbic system

165)

Floating ribs are the last two pairs of ribs in the human rib cage. These ribs (11th and 12th) are
called floating ribs because they are only attached to the vertebrae at the back and not to the
sternum in the front.

Therefore, the correct answer is : (1) 11th and 12th.

166)

Explain Question : A person with diabetes mellitus will not have ?

Concept : This question is based on Pancreas

Solution : Option (4) A person with Diabetes mellitus have glycosuria Tasteless urine taste
little bit sweaty.
Final Answer : option (4)

167) Question Explanation :

The question is asking for correct labeling of a diagram related to the mechanism of hormone
action, specifically involving intracellular receptors.

Concept :
Question is based on Mechanism of hormone action.

Solution :
The diagram shows the mechanism of action of lipid-soluble hormone like oestrogen:
Therefore : A = Nucles, B = Genome, C = Hormone Receptor complex, D = Oestrogen.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

168)

x-thyroid gland, b-thyroxine

169)

Explain Question : Which of the following hormone is a derivative of amino acid?

Concept : This question is based on Chemical Nature of Hormones

Solution : Epinephrine Hormone is derivative of Amino acid.

Final Answer : option (2)

170)

Explain Question : Which one is a group of steroid hormones

Concept : This question is based on Classification of hormones.

Solution : Cortisol and Aldosterone is Steroid hormone.

Final Answer : option (2)

171)

I, II, III , IV and V

172)

NCERT Page # 242

173) NCERT - 337

174) NCERT Pg. # 338

175)

Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

176) The Correct Answer : 2. 3

Vital Capacity (VC) Can be measured using spirometer
Total Lung Capacity (TLC) TLC = VC + RV → RV cannot be measured directly
Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) FRC = ERV + RV → contains RV
Residual Volume (RV) Directly not measurable
Inspiratory Capacity (IC) Can be measured: IC = TV + IRV
Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) Can be measured directly
Not Measurable via Spirometer:
Residual Volume (RV)
Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)
Total Lung Capacity (TLC)

So, 3 volumes/capacities cannot be measured directly.

177)

Rh antibody given to child if mother is Rh (–ve) and foetus is Rh (+ve).

178)

Lubb - closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systole

179)

NCERT Pg. No. 212

180) Both (1) and (3)