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MTLE March 2024 Recalls

Medical Technology (Far Eastern University)

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7. Which is not true about unconjugated bilirubin?

MTLE MARCH 2024 RECALLS A. Also known as direct bilirubin
PAPS, RMT (@mulanrmt) B. Water insoluble
C. Indirect bilirubin
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
8. Specimen for drug analysis, except:
A. Blood
1. Female born with XX chromosomes develops ambiguous B. Urine
genitalia or genitals that appear male. What is this C. Semen
condition? D. Oral Secretions
A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Turner syndrome 9. Which is preferred for blood glucose determination?
C. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia A. Serum
D. Down syndrome B. Plasma
C. EDTA
2. All conditions may be associated with type 3c diabetes D. Whole Blood
mellitus, except:
A. Pancreatitis 10. Glycogenolysis happens in these following organs,
B. Pancreatic cancer except?
C. Cystic Fibrosis A. Liver
D. Autoimmune Disease B. Bone
C. Kidney
3. The following amino acids are composition of creatine, D. Stomach
except:
A. Glycine 11. How many minutes does a sample needs to stand before
B. Methionine centrifugation?
C. Arginine A. 60 mins
D. Cysteine B. 30 mins
C. 20 mins
4. Relating a measurement result to a stated reference D. 45 mins
through an unbroken chain of calibrations:
A. Traceability 12. What is the most common substance abused?
B. Accuracy A. Cannabinoids
C. Precision B. Ecstasy
D. ----- C. Shabu
D. Alcohol
5. How to report liver enzymes in SI unit?
A. IU/L 13. Goal of POCT, except?
B. g/Dl A. Monitoring
C. mmol/L B. Reduce adherent to treatment
D. mmol/L C. Screen disease
D. Modify lifestyle
6. Which is not a function of the thyroid gland?
A. Protein synthesis
B. Development of fetal tissue
C. Waste excretion
D. Regulation of metabolism

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14. Scientist has a test with consistent results while using 21. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding steam
the same methods/ sample/environment/etc. This is an sterilization?
example of: A. Dry heat
A. Sensitivity B. 15 psi
B. Replicability C. Wet heat
C. Specificity D. 121 degrees Celsius
D. Reproducibility
22. What organ produces vasopressin?
15. What is used to neutralize alkaline spill? A. Posterior pituitary gland
A. Methanol B. Anterior pituitary gland
B. Ethanol C. Hypothalamus
C. NaOH D. Adrenal cortex
D. KOH
23. Which of the following is the best marker for risk in
16. Which
strategy is performed when POCT-QA issues arises? diabetic nephropathy?
[Link] from using POCT devices A. Glucose
[Link] only the doctor to perform POCT B. Creatinine
[Link]-laboratory personnel are not allowed to C. Microalbuminuria
perform POCT D. BUN
D. Train non-laboratory personnel
24. Which lipoprotein migrates farthest from the anode
17. What hormone is secreted when there is an increased during electrophoresis?
level of glucose? A. Chylomicron
A. Catecholamines B. VLDL
B. Insulin C. LDL
C. Glucagon D. HDL
D. Glucose
25. What is the purpose of caffeine in the Jendrassik-Grof
18. Considered as a liver function tests. Except? Method?
A. AST A. Wetting agent
B. ALT B. Accelerator
C. Amylase C. Mordant
D. Alkaline phosphatase D. -------

19. Convert 4 dL to L 26. One or two values exceeding the qc parameters not
A. 4 included in counting:
B. 0.04 A. Trend
C. 0.4 B. Shift
D. 40 C. Outlier
D. Drift
20. What formula is this Na+ + K+ –(Cl−+HCO3−)
A. Anion Gap 27. Duration of the disease
B. Osmolal Gap A. Mild and Severe
C. CO2 B. Benign and Malignant
D. O2 C. Acute and Chronic
D. Contagious and non-contagious

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28. Laboratory equipment hazard, except? 35. Mandatory westgard rule

A. Mechanical A. 1(2)s
B. Chemical vapors B. 1(3)s
C. Sharp C. R 4)s
D. Electric D. 10x

29. Gastric enzymes proteolysis: 36. Hormones produced by gonads?

A. Gastrin A. Vasopressin
B. Amylase B. Steroids
C. Lipase C. Dopamine
D. Trypsin
37. Which is not an administrative control?
30. Functional plasma enzyme: A. Fume hood
A. LD B. -------
B. ALP
C. Clotting factors 38. Outer region of an organ
D. CK A. Cortex
B. Capsule
31. Causes of excess cortisol? C. Serosa
A. Cushing syndrome
B. Addisons disease
C. Cohns syndrome
D. Acromegaly

32. How would 15.57 be rounded off to one less decimal

place?
A. 15.0
B. 15.5
C. 15.6
D. 16.0

33. In a person with normal glucose metabolism, the blood

glucose level usually increases rapidly after
carbohydrates are ingested but returns to normal after?
A. 30 mins
B. 60 mins
C. 120 mins

34. The chylomicrons must be transported through the _____

to the blood
A. Blood
B. Circulation
C. Lymphatic system
D. Liver

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MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

8. Best time to collect E. vermicularis?
1. All of the following are spiral-shaped, EXCEPT: A. Morning
A. Helicobacter pylori B. Afternoon
B. Clostridium botulinum C. Night
C. Treponema pallidum D. Midday
D. Vibrio cholerae
9. How Parasitism is expressed when malaria parasite is
2. The presence of residual chlorine in drinking water quantitated against RBC?
means: A. Parasite/uL of Blood
A. Sufficient amount of chlorine was added initially B. Ratio
to the water C. Average
B. Water is unsafe for drinking D. Mean
C. Additional treatment is required to remove
chlorine 10. Which type of organism is isolated if growth on MAC is
D. Water is contaminated with coliform pink?
A. Microaerophile
3. Acquired through ingestion/inhalation: B. Obligate anaerobe
A. Taenia spp C. Lactose fermenter
B. E. vermicularis D. Non-lactose fermenter
C. T. trichuria
D. T. spiralis 11. Method that uses heat to facilitate better staining of
bacterial cell walls
4. Identify the picture: A. Gram Stain
A. Cercaria B. Kinyoun
B. Miracidium C. Giemsa Stain
C. Sporocyst D. Ziehl neelsen
D. Egg
12. Specimen is obtained from an intravascular catheter.
5. How to validate the result of AST? Gram stain showed gram positive bacteria. Which of the
A. Parallel testing with new method following is the most probable cause?
B. Parallel testing with another personnel A. S. aureus
C. Testing with reference reagent B. E. coli
C. P. aeruginosa
6. What is the test employed in the differentiation of D. K. pneumoniae
Enterobacteriaceae family?
A. IMViC 13. Uses coagulase test, except?
B. Indole A. Salmonella
C. Glucose fermentation B. S. pyogenes
D. Capsule C. S. aureus
14. In a MacConkey Agar, what is the color of the lactose
7. What is the pre-analytical part of Microbiology testing? fermenting colonies?
A. Standardization of parasite naming A. Colorless
B. Slide smears B. White
C. Proper storage of reagents and stains C. Pink
D. Identify the patient D. Red

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15. Actinomyces are: 23. Color of gram negative after decolorization step
A. Gram negative bacilli, facultative anaerobe A. Purple
B. Gram positive bacilli, facultative anaerobe B. Red
C. Gram negative cocci C. Colorless
D. Gram positive cocci D. Pink

16. Babes-Ernst granules are the metachromatic granules 24. Protein coat of a virus?
produced by? A. Capsid
A. M. tuberculosis B. Capsomere
B. Y. pestis C. Virion
C. C. diphtheriae
D. E. aerogenes 25. Sample use for cultivating B. cereus in food poisoning?
A. Blood
17. McFarland standard is equivalent to: B. Stool
A. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/ml C. Food
B. 0.5 x 10^9 CFU/ml D. Saliva
C. 0.5 x 10^8 CFU/ml
D. 1.5 x 10^9 CFU/ml 26. Color of spirochetes in Warthin-Starry stain
A. Colorless
18. What is the characteristic odor of Proteus? B. Yellow
A. Grape-like/Corn tortilla-like odor C. Black
B. Bleach like odor D. Purple
C. Fruity odor resembling apples or strawberries
D. Burnt chocolate odor 27. Malarian gametocyte
A. P. malariae
19. What is the most sensitive test for Chlamydia? B. P. falciparum
A. Cell culture C. P. ovale
B. NAAT D. P. vivax
C. EIA
D. Microscopy
28. Identify:
20. Happens during microorganism resistance EXCEPT:
A. P. malariae
A. Penetration of membrane protein
B. P. falciparum
B. Reduced antimicrobial therapy
C. Ag-Ab Complex
29. Ingested by female anopheles during blood meal?
D. By passing the membrane protein
A. Sporozoites***
B. Gametocytes
21. Best in monitoring Malaria: NAAT
C. Oocyst

30. Chromosome present in CML

22. The ff. is parasite: infective stage EXCEPT: A. ABL1
A. Strongyloides stercoralis: Rhabditiform larva B. Philadelphia chromosome
B. Ascaris lumbricoides: Embryonated egg C. ---------
C. Ancylostoma duodenale: Filariform larva
D. Trichuris trichuria: Embryonated egg

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CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 8. Ketones is seen in urine due to:

A. Incomplete fat metabolism
B. Fatty acid consumption
1. Maltese cross formation C. High carbohydrate diet
A. Cholesterol D. Low carbohydrate diet
B. Starch
C. Pollen grains 9. Which differentiates CSF Protein from Serum Protein:
D. WBCs A. Absence of fibrinogen
B. Presence of fibrinogen
2. High protein intake causes ______ urine C. Presence of IgG
A. Alkaline D. Presence of ceruloplasmin
B. Acidic
C. Concentrated 10. Amniotic fluid is a specimen of choice, except
D. Diluted A. Test for neural tube defect
B. Test for FLM
3. Correct evaluation of urine turbidity C. Test for Fetal lung distress
A. Against white background D. Test for Fetal liver
B. Against black background
C. Light source behind analyst 11. What is the best preservative for urine?
D. Light source in front of analyst A. Formalin
B. Boric acid
4. More representative measure of renal concentrating C. Toluidine
ability D. Thymol
A. SG
B. Osmolality 12. All are factors affecting the formation of urinary
C. pH crystals, EXCEPT:
D. Protein A. pH
B. Solute concentration
5. Each kidney contains approximately how many nephrons? C. Temperature
A. 0.5-1 million D. Protein concentration
B. 1-1.5 million
C. 1.6-1.8 million 13. Stain used for Hemosiderin?
D. 1-2 million A. Guiac stain
B. Giemsa stain
6. Correct way of adding reagents together C. Sternheimer Malbin
A. Mix water and acid at the same time D. Perl’s Prussian Blue
B. Add acid to water
C. Add water to acid 14. Which results needs to be rerun?
D. Do not mix acid and water A. pH 5.0, urate crystals
B. Ketones
7. Used for GFR. Except? C. Glucose
A. BUN D. pH 8.0, WBC casts**
B. BUA
C. Serum creatinine
D. eGFR

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15. Other term for mucin clot test? 22. Characteristics of cholesterol crystals
A. Strings test A. Plates with notched ends
B. Ropes test B. Pillow shape
C. Rivaltas test C. Hexagonal plates
D. Barbiero test D. Needle shape

16. Urine for chemistry shaken well for what analysis? 23. Tablet test for Bilirubin?
A. RBC and WBC A. Acetest
B. pH and SG B. Clinitest
C. Ketone and Glucose C. Ictotest
D. Bilirubin and Urobilinogen D. Bilitest

17. Black tarry stool is indicative of 24. Hexagonal plate crystals that are characterized by
A. Excessive fats greasy appearance
B. Lower GIT bleeding A. Leucine
C. Upper GIT bleeding B. Cysteine
D. Excessive carbohydrates C. Uric acid
D. Tyrosine
18. What urine sample is used to quantitate sediments?
A. MSCC 25. Mousy odor urine
B. First morning A. Alkaptonuria
C. Timed B. Phenylketonuria
D. 12-hour urine C. Homogentisic acid
D. MSUD
19. The integrity of urine specimen is important
because: 26. Affected when urine is unpreserved, except?
A. Accurate assessments A. SG
B. Monitor disease progress B. Bilirubin
C. Monitor treatment effectivity C. Protein
D. Glucose
20. How much diluent is needed to make a 1/2 dilution if
the solute is 1.5 (g?) 27. Instruction given for the collection of 24-hour urine
A. 0.5 specimen
B. 1.5 A. Patient empties bladder into toilet at the
C. 1.2 start time, then collect all the following
D. 0.05 urine until end time
B. Patient empties bladder into the container at
21. Not a shape of transitional epithelial cells. the start time until the end time
A. Caudate C. Patient empties bladder into toilet at start
B. Convoluted time and end time
C. Spherical D. ------------
D. Polyhedral
28. Use of catheterized urine specimen
A. Microscopy
B. Culture
C. ------

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29. Cause of yellow urine

A. Stercobilin
B. Urochrome
C. Urobilin

30. Principle of urine protein reagent strip

A. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the
indicator
B. Albumin accepts hydroxyl ions from the
indicator
C. -----

31. Component of copper reduction tablet test

A. Copper sulfate
B. Copper hydroxide?
C. ------

32. Fecal sample with diarrhea without WBC

A. Salmonella
B. Vibrio
C. Shigella
D. [Link]

33. Causes black color stool except

A. Charcoal
B. Bismuth?
C. Vegetables***

34. Round cells computation

35. Included in Expanded newborn screening except:

A. CAH
B. Congenital hypothyroidism
C. Neonatal diabetes
D. MSUD

36. Characterized with problem in a-glucocerebrosidase

A. Testes
B. Epididymis
C. Prostate gland

37. Sperms are produced in what region

A. Testes
B. Epididymis***
C. Prostate

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HEMATOLOGY 8. Which of the following is represented by the first peak

in this picture?
1. Most common acquired platelet dysfunction: A. Lymphocyte
A. HUS B. Neutrophils
B. DIC C. Eosinophils
C. Drug-induced D. Monocytes
D. Heparin-induced
9. Venipuncture sites EXCEPT:
2. Which of the following activates fibrinolysis? A. Palmar surface of the hand
A. Plasmin B. Ankle?
B. PAI-1
C. TAFI 10. What is the average diameter of RBCs? (Turgeon)
D. Tissue plasminogen activator A. 6 um
B. 5 um
3. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia C. 7.2 um
A. M3 D. 8.2 um
B. M4
11. Inflamed tissue; What contributes to show signs of
4. A reduction in thrombin generation in patients with inflammation:
Scott syndrome results from: (Rodaks) A. Prostaglandin
A. Defective granule secretion B. Serotonin
B. Altered platelet aggregation
C. Altered expression of phospholipids on the 12. Monocytes are often mistaken as:
platelet membrane A. Lymphocytes
D. Deficiency of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors B. WBCs
C. RTE
5. Fibrinogen/Fibrin fragments EXCEPT: D. RBCs
A. Fragment E
B. Fragment X 13. A blood sample with high titer agglutinins was tested in
C. Fragment Z room temperature with an electron particle scanner(?).
D. Fragment D What indices/count would be erroneous?
A. MCHC and WBC
6. C in VCS Hematology Coulter Technology means: B. MCV and HGB
A. Connectivity C. MCHC and MCV
B. Conductivity D. WBC and RBC
C. Current
D. Cells 14. Which is a characteristic of anemia of renal disease?
A. Severe hypochromatosis with microcytosis
7. Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may B. Normocytic, hypochromic
be accomplished by all of the following except: C. Presence of burr cells in the pbs
A. Observation of budding in yeast cells D. Normocytic, normochromic
B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid 15. Disadvantage of automated hematology analyzer, EXCEPT:
D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid A. Less work for the technologist
B. multiple test in one parameter
C. clumped platelets are counted as one

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D. comments on RBC morphology can’t be determined 23. Identify the abnormal RBC shown in the picture below.
A. Teardrop cell
16. Insufficient centrifuge how it affects hematocrit? B. Burr cell
A. False increase C. Drepanocyte
B. False decrease D. Acanthocyte
C. Increase
D. Decrease 24. What is the average liter of blood in humans:
A. 10L
17. The mononuclear cells seen in WBC Histogram include: B. 6L
A. Platelet
B. RBC 25. Peripheral blood cells involved in hemostasis
C. Blast A. Lymphocytes
D. Leukocytes B. Thrombocytes
C. Erythrocytes
18. Which of the following is the MAJOR post-analytical D. Monocytes
error?
A. Patient’s critical result 26. Pelger-Huet anomaly
B. Sample transport A. Hypersegmentation
C. Sample quality B. Hyposegmentation
D. Patient’s specific diagnosis C. Bilobed segmentation

19. In Protime effect if tube is NOT filled: 27. Meaning of R in Control flags
A. No effect A. Red
B. Normal B. Region
C. Shortened C. Reactive
D. Prolonged D. Repeat

20. What is the morphology of the echinocyte? 28. RU flag in automation is found in the following, except
A. Small, round, rbc A. Cold agglutination
B. Scooped out part of an rbc B. RBC fragmentation
C. Short, scallop or spike like C. Rouleaux
D. Fragmented RBCs D. Autoagglutination

21. Part of flow cytometry EXCEPT: 29. Bite cells is associated with what disease?
A. Digital A. G6PD deficiency
B. Optical B. PK deficiency
C. Fluidics C. Rh null
D. Electronics D. McLeod

22. A hemoglobin molecule is composed of: 30. PT and TT is Normal; APTT is Prolonged
A. One heme molecule and four globin chains A. IX
B. Ferrous iron, protoporphyrin IX, and a globin B. XIII
chain C. VII
C. Protoporphyrin IX and four globin chains D. Tissue factor
D. Four heme molecules and four globin chains
31. WBC Count computation

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ISBB 8. Improvement methodology referring to non-value-added

activities considered as waste.
1. Cryoprecipitate AHF contains all of the following, A. Scrum
EXCEPT: B. Agile
A. Red Blood Cells C. Lean
B. Fibrinogen D. Six Sigma
C. vWF
D. Fibronectin 9. Possible mother-fetus incompatibility if father is Rh +,
mother is Rh -. They have their first child without
2. Phenotype of D negative undergoing treatment.
A. (+/+) A. 0%
B. (-) B. Less than 50%
C. (+) C. 50%
D. (-/-) D. 100%

3. sDA can be neutralized by? 10. ABO discrepancies between forward or reverse blood
A. Milk typing with weak reacting or missing antibodies.
B. Hydatid cyst fluid A. Patient with antibody to the weak Antigen
C. Plasma B. Patient is very young or very old
D. Urine C. Patient with subgroup of Group
D. Patient with acquired B phenomenon
4. The ability of a single cytokine to alter the expression
of several genes is called 11. Lectin Dolichos biflorus expresses what antigen?
A. Autocrine stimulation A. A1
B. Endocrine B. P
C. Pleiotropy C. B
D. Redundancy D. K

5. Which minor blood group system can cause HDN? 12. The following are correct for storage and transport of
A. Vel blood components EXCEPT:
B. Gerbich A. Blood must not be hemolyzed
C. Gregory B. Blood must be stored at -20C
D. Holley C. Blood must in a hygienic environment
D. Blood must be protected from breakdown products of
6. Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion reaction EXCEPT: glycerol
A. Hemolytic
B. PTP 13. An IF test with antibodies to detect CD3 will detect
C. TA-GVHD which cell?
D. Hemosiderosis A. Circulating T cells
B. T helper lymphocytes only
7. Rh group: C. T. Suppressor lymphocytes only
A. Glycosylated proteins D. NK cells
B. Non-glycosylated proteins

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14. How is the patient who is RH negative in a RBC written. 21. Which cluster of differentiation marker appears during
A. (+/-) the first stage of T cell development and remains
B. (-) present as an identifying marker for T cells?
C. (+) A. CD1
D. (-/-) B. CD2
C. CD3
15. Red cell immune antibody D. CD4 or CD8
A. IgG
B. IgA 22. Answer: IgM alloantibody
C. IgM

16. CD8+ cell is also known as:

A. T helper
B. Cytotoxic
C. Killer
D. Null 23. Storage temperature of cryoprecipitate?
A. 20-23 C
17. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune B. -18 C
complexes? C. 37 C
A. Type 1 D. -65 C
B. Type 2
C. Type 3 24. Sabin Feldman dye test for toxoplasmosis uses ____
D. Type 4 toxoplasma
A. Live (tachyzoites)
18. The red cell phenotype of an individual in routine B. Killed
forward and reverse grouping with the genotypes hh, AB C. Neutralized
A. O D. Sensitive/Specific
B. AB
C. A 25. What to check during blood donation, except:
D. B A. Donor hyperventilating
B. Change in blood flow
19. FFP is used to treat the following, EXCEPT: C. Hematoma formation
A. DIC D. Wounds in the arms and legs of donor***
B. Liver disease
C. Vitamin K Def9 26. Blood group enhanced by enzymes
D. Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura A. Kell
B. Kidd
20. Anti-G will not react to the following, except C. MN
A. D+C+ D. Duffy
B. D-C-
C. D+C- 27. Most common form of autoimmune hemolytic anemia and
D. D-C+ involves IgG autoantibodies with opt reactivity at 37%
A. WAIHA
B. CAIHA
C. Aplastic anemia

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HTMLE +++ RANDOM MOLBIO 9. Reference laboratory for HIV testing?

A. EAMC
1. Which of the following is correct? B. NKTI
A. Northern Blot: DNA C. San Lazaro Hospital/SACCL
B. Southern Blot: DNA D. RITM
C. Northern Blot: RNA
D. Southern Blot: RNA 10. Caused by friction against a rough surface:
A. Laceration
2. Correct base pairs: A;T G;C B. Hematoma
C. Abrasion
3. Where should Acknowledgement be placed in a research D. Contusion
paper?
A. Before title page 11. Transition between dehydration and infiltration of
B. After title page embedding medium:
C. Table of contents A. Clearing
D. End of paper B. Impregnation
C. Rehydration
4. Which of the following components of the Papanicolau D. Dehydration
stain stains nothing?
A. Hematoxylin 12. Key factors of embedding, except
B. OG-6 A. Thickness of tissue
C. Eosin Azure B. Duration of fixation
D. Bismarck Brown Y C. Orientation of tissue
D. Composition of embedding medium
5. Perls' Prussian blue reaction for Ferric Iron:
A. 1% aqueous potassium ferrocyanide & 2% aqueous 13. The following are violation of RA 5527, EXCEPT:
hydrochloric acid A. Refusal to display COR inside the laboratory
B. --------- B. Release of fraudulent result
C. Using expired or invalid COR
6. What does Z-score represent? D. Refusal to identify gender identity
A. Measures how many standard deviations above or
below the mean a data point is 14. Best way to communicate patient result to provider?
A. Writing
7. All of the following are components of Bouin's solution, B. Telephone
EXCEPT: C. Verbal
A. Glacial acetic acid D. Electronic
B. Saturated picric acid
C. Ethanol 15. Formaldehyde fixation temperature.
D. Formaldehyde A. 28 C
B. 32 C
8. Filing for the MTLE opens ______ before the board exam C. Ambient temperature
starts D. Room temperature
A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 6 months

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16. Physical preservation of tissue EXCEPT: 24. What does n mean in the Mean formula?
A. Heat A. Sum of all data points
B. Vapor B. Number of data points
C. Microwave C. Sum of all data sets
D. Freeze drying D. Number of all data sets

17. All of the following can be for frozen section, except: 25. GWA to passed the board exam is at least:
A. Ovary A. 60%
B. Tongue*** B. 75%
C. Fats C. 70%
D. 80%
18. First step before purchasing a new machine/equipment
A. Identify the cost of the test 26. Which stains glycogen and mucopolysaccharides?
B. Do machine evaluation A. PAS
C. Conduct a needs assessment survey*** B. Giemsa
C. Gram
19. Validity of drug test result:
A. 6 months 27. Which of the following best describes an e-signature?
B. 1 year A. Equivalent to physical sign
C. 3 months

20. Paraffin wax should be miscible with

28. New curriculum of BSMT involves _____ of internship
A. Water
program
B. Acetone
A. 6 months
C. Xylene
B. 12 months
D. Alcohol
29. All of the following are Romanovsky’s Stain, except:
21. Temperature that paraffin wax will turn to its liquid
A. Hematoxylin
state
B. Leishman
A. 80***
C. May-Grunwald
B. 100
D. Giemsa
C. 50
D. 60
30. Who performs autopsy?
A. Coroner
22. Clearing agent should be:
B. Pathologist
A. Low refractive index
C. Diener
B. High refractive index
D. Investigator
23. Reference laboratory for infectious diseases other that
31. Substitute for 95% Ethanol for cytology except:
sexually transmitted diseases?
A. Corn syrup
A. NKTI
B. Distilled water***
B. SACCL
C. Absolute alcohol
C. RITM
D. Hair spray
D. EAMC

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