LINKING LAWS UNACADEMY

GJS MOCK 1

14 MINOR LAW SUBJECTS

1. Who among the following is the author of the famous work ‘Mitakshara'?
(a) Apararka
(b) Bhoja
(c) Vijnaneswara
(d) Parasara [c]

2. ‘Jimutavahana' is known for his work

(a) Nimaya Sindhu
(b) Dayabhag
(c) Dayatatva
(d) Dattak Mimansa
[b]

3. As a general rule, a petition for dissolution of Hindu marriage cannot be

presented within .......... of marriage.
(a) 2 Years
(b) 1 Year
(c) Six Months
(d) Two Months [b]

4. Section 14 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 imposes a ban for filing petition for
(a) Judicial Separation
(b) Divorce
(c) Voidable marriage
(d) Void marriage [b]

5. Ais a Hindu male. He dies intestate leaving a son B, two grand sons M and N
of deceased son C and three great grandsons X, Y and Z of deceased
grandson P of deceased son D. What will be share of M and X?
(a) 1/3, 1/6
(b) 1/6, 1/9
(c) 1/3,1/9
(d) None of these [b]

6. Marriage during Iddat period is

(a) Batil

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(b) Fasid
(c) Void
(d) Valid [b]

7. In a 'mubarat' divorce under Muslim Law

(a) aversion is on the side of husband only
(b) aversion is on the side of wife only
(c) aversion is mutual and on both the sides
(d) none of the above [c]

8. Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, a woman can seek divorce
from her husband:
(a) if he is impotent at the time of marriage
(b) if he continues to be impotent after marriage.
(c) both a and b
(d) impotency is not at all a ground for divorce under the said Act [c]

9. In which case it was held that it is the obligation of a muslim husband to

pay maintenance to his divorced wife even beyond iddat period:
a. Danial Latifi v. Union of India
b. Shamim Ara v. State of U.P.
c. Khursheed Begum v. Abdul Rasheed
d. Sikandar Ara v. Hussain Ara
Ans. A

10. In Talaq-i-Tafweez husband can delegate authority to take divorce to

a. Only wife
b. Wife of wife’s relatives
c. His own relatives
d. Any person
Ans. d

11. In which recent case it has been held by the Supreme Court that the
husband must have reasonable cause for taking talaq and he must attempt
reconciliation with wife before taking talaq
a. Shamim Ara v. State of U.P.
b. Ali Mohammad v. Hazara Bai
c. Zohra Khatoon v. Mohd. Jane Alam
d. Sikandar Ara v. Hussain Ara
Ans. a

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who can marry under Indian Christian Marriage Act

a. one or both party are Christian

b. both party must be Christian
c. any person of any religion can marry
d. none of them

Ans A

12. by whom marriage may be solemnized under Indian Christian Marriage Act
person
a. who has received Episcopal ordination
b. by any clergyman of church of Scotland
c. any minister of religion
d. marriage registrar
e. all of them

Ans E

13. Solemnization of marriage under Indian Christian Marriage Act shall take
place in the presence of at least
a. two witnesses
b. three witnesses
c. one witness
d. no witness required

Ans A

14. certificate issued by minister for solemnization of marriage under Indian

Christian Marriage Act shall become void if the marriage does not take
place within
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 3 months
d. 6 months

Ans B

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14. What is the default interest payable under section 63 and 63 A of the Transfer
of Property Act, 1882?
A. 8% per annum
B. 9% per annum
C. 10% per annum
D. Interest rate is not mentioned in the sections
Ans. B

15. Which of the following instruments have been excluded by the application of
section 137 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A. Shares
B. Bills of Exchange
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
Ans. C

16. Which of the following is a valid example of a vested interest as defined by the
Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A. B a deceased, in his will leaves a residential property to C, to be transferred on
the death of B’s daughter-in- law
B. B a deceased, in his will left Rs.65,000 to A, to be paid on A’s 50th birthday
C. both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Ans. A

17. Which of the following is a valid example of contingent interest as defined by

the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A. B gifted his property to his daughter-in-law, with a condition that the
possession of the property will transfer to her only after B’s death
B. B made a gift of Rs.15,000 to A, deposited in an account to be transferred to A
when he attains age of majority
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
Ans. B

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18. Which of the following is true regarding the ‘right of subrogation’ as

defined under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A. Any person redeeming the property under provisions of section 91 of the Act,
has the same rights as the mortgagor against the mortgagee
B. Any person redeeming the property under provisions of section 91 of the Act,
has the same right as the mortgagee against the mortgagor
C. either A or B depending on the facts of the case
D. neither A nor B
Ans. A

19. A contract made by a trustee in excess of his powers or in breach of trust:

a. May be enforced.
b. May not be enforced.
c. Cannot be specifically enforced.
d. Can be specifically enforced.
Ans: C

20. How the preventive relief is granted under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 by the
court:

a. At the discretion of the court by perpetual injunction

b. At the discretion of the court by injunction temporary.
c. Both A and B are correct.
d. None of the above.
Ans C

21. In cases of specific performance of a contract, the rights of the parties are
governed by the principle of
a. law
b. equity
c. equity and law
d. None of the above
Ans C

22. Section 14 of THE SPECIFIC RELIEF ACT, 1963 deals with_______?

a. Personal bars to relief
b. Specific performance of part of contract
c. Contracts not specifically enforceable
d. Non-enforcement except with variation
Ans C

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23. Obligation under Specific Relief Act

a. is a right in rem
b. is a right in personam
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of the above
Ans C

24. Person named in the instrument to whom money is directed to be paid is

known as _______________.
a) Drawer
b) Acceptor
c) Maker
d) Payee
Ans D

25. Maker of a bill of exchange is called as ____________

a) Drawer
b) Drawee
c) Acceptor
d) Payee
Ans A

26. Days of grace provided to the Instruments at maturity is _______________

a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 3 days
d) 5 days
Ans C

27. Validity period for the presentment of cheque in bank is _______________

a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 1 year
d) 2 years
Ans A

28. Offences committed under the Negotiable Instruments Act can be

_______________
a) Compoundable
b) Non-compoundable
c) Non-compoundable and non-bailable
d) Bailable
Ans A

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29. DV act applies to

a. Only the victim of the violence
b. all women who are subject of 125 Cr.P.C
c. All women who are not staying with the husband
d. women who are victim of violence within the family
Ans D

30. Aggrieved Person includes

a. woman having domestic relationship
b. A woman in live- in relations
c. a mother whom the son not allowed to live with him
d. above all
Ans D

31. Monetary relief Can be given

a. if aggrieved woman suffer loss due to domestic violence
b. if subject of section 125 of Cr.P.C
c. If husband failed to maintain the woman
d. None of the above
Ans A

32. Who can be respondent

a. Only adult male having a domestic relationship
b. any person with whom domestic relationship could be established
c. relatives of the husband
d. none of the above
Ans B

33. An application u/s 12 of DV Act should be filed

a. at any time after the cause of action
b. within three years as per article 137 of the limitation act
c. Any limitation has not been prescribed in DV Act
d. no 1 and 3 are correct
Ans C

34. The term of member of child welfare committee under JJ act is

a. 1 year
b. 2 year
c. 3 year

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d. 4 year
Ans C

35. what is the minimum number of meeting the child welfare committee will
hold in a month under JJ Act
a. 5 sitting
b. 20 sitting
c. 25 sitting
d. 21 sitting
Ans B

36. as per JJ act what aspects should be considered for best interest of child
a. basic needs and rights of the child
b. identity and social well being of the child
c. physical emotional and intellectual development of child
d. all of the above
Ans D

37. Who of the following have powers to frame rules under Section 17 of the
Probation of Offenders Act, 1958?
a. State Government with the approval of Central Government.
b. Central Government with the consent of State Government.
c. High Court
d. All the above
Ans A

38. which provison provides obligation on probation officer to keep reports

confidential ?
a. Sec 4
b. Sec 5
c. Sec 6
d. Sec 7
Ans D

39. the police is required to perform the following duty under pocso act
1. arrange the safety of child
2. take the matter to CWC within 24 hours of report
a. only 1
b. only 2
c. both 1 and 2
d. none of the above

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Ans C

. Which of the following articles may not be a constitutional

background for the POCSO Act, 2012?
a) Art. 21 of the Constitution
b) Art. 15(3) of the Constitution
c) Art. 39(e) of the Constitution
d) None of the above
. Which of the following articles may not be a constitutional
background for the POCSO Act, 2012?
a) Art. 21 of the Constitution
b) Art. 15(3) of the Constitution
c) Art. 39(e) of the Constitution
d) None of the above
40. which of the following article may not be constituted by a ground for pocso
a. article 21 of constitution
b. article 15(3) of constitution
c. article 39e of constitution
d. none of the above
Ans D

41. which of the following statement is true with regard to POCSO

a. child victim shall we female and accused shall be male
b. child victims shall be male and accused person shall be female
c. child victim and accused person shall be irrespective of gender
d. none of the above
ans C

42. a person who has knowledge that an offence has been committed provide
such information to authorised person under pocso then he shall incure
a. civil liability
b. criminal liability
c. both Civil and criminal liability
d. neither civil or criminal liability
ans D

43. special court shall complete the trial under pocso act within a period of
___________from the date of taking cognizance
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. no time limit has been prescribed

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ANS C

44. Where is indecent representation of women defined under the Act

a. Section 2A
b. Section 2B
[Link] 2C
d. Section 2D
Ans C

45. which among the following section amounts to offence under indecent
representation act
a. section 3
b. Section 4
[Link] A and B
d. none of the above
Ans C

46. who is authorised to make Search under indecent representation act

a. any gazetted officer authorised by Central Government
b. any gazetted officer authorised by State Government
[Link] inspector
d. any magistrate
Ans b

47. under pcpndt at who is the president of Central supervisory board

a. information and broadcasting minister
b. minister of Human Resource Development
c. home minister
d. minister in charge of ministry of family welfare
Ans D

48. How much is the tenure of office of members of central board under PCPNPDT
Act ?
a. 2 year
b. 5 year
c. 3 year
d. 6 year
Ans C

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49. Under PCPNDT Act if any person either genetics counseling centre, or clinic
published prenatal gender retention relative advertisement , punished with how
much sentence ?
a. 5 years imprisonment & 10000 fine
b. 3 years imprisonment & 10000 fine
c. 7 years imprisonment & 10000 fine
d. 10 years imprisonment & 10000 fine
Ans B

50. If any registered medical practitioner (doctor) contravenes second time and
subsequently, any of the provisions of this pcpndt act, shall be punishable with
hoe many punishment ?
a. 5 year imprisonment & 50000 fine
b. 5 year imprisonment & 50000 fine
c. 5 year imprisonment & 50000 fine
d. 5 year imprisonment & 50000 fine
Ans A

51. the fetal death has been defined under which section of registration of birth
and death act
1. Section 2A
2. section 2B
3. section 2C
4. section 2D
Ans C

52. In respect of birth and death in a house who will give information to registrar
under section 16
1. head of the house
2. head of the household
3. nearest relative of the head
4. all of these
Ans D

53. Who will give information of birth and death in hospital Healthcare Maternity
home
1. local police station
2. person in charge of place
3. doctor present there
4. medical officer in charge
ans D

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54. Who has the power to inspect the registration office under registration of
birth and death act
1. district Registrar
2. chief Registrar
3. sub registrar
4. by such authority as may be specified by district registrar
Ans D

55. Under immoral traffic (prevention) act 1956, a trafficking police officer can
arrest ?
a. a suspect only with an arrest warrant
b. search premises of the accused her/himself, with a search warrant
c. search premises of the accused without any search warrant, but with two
respectable witnesses
d. remove any person found during the search from the premises of the
accused, only after permission from the accused
Ans C

56. According to the immoral traffic (prevention) act of 1956, which of the
following is not a punishable offence
a. keeping or allowing your premises to be used as brothel
b. an adult earning a living by means of prostitution
c. inducing a person into prostitution
d. prostitution in a private place and sufficiently far from any public place
Ans D

57. According to the immoral traffic (prevention) act of 1956, what is the
punishment for procuring, inducing or taking a child for the sake of prostitution
a. One to Three years imprisonment and fine
b. Rigorous imprisonment for Seven years to life and fine
c. Seven to Twelve years rigorous imprisonment and fine
d. ten to Twelve years rigorous imprisonment and fine
Ans B

58. How to presume that a person is living on the earnings of prostitution of

another person under Immoral traffic prevention act?
a) to be living with, or to be habitually in the company of, a prostitute
b) to have exercised control, direction or influence over the movements of a
prostitute
c) to be acting as a tout or pimp on behalf of a prostitute,
d) all of the above

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Ans D

59. . Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, "attached to earth" means:
(I) Routed in the earth, as in the case of trees and shrubs
(II) Imbedded in the earth as in the case of walls and buildings
(III) Attached to what is so imbedded for the permanent beneficial enjoyment of
that to which it is attached.

a. Only (I) and (II) are correct

b. Only (II) and (III) are correct
c. Only (I) and (III) are correct
d. all (I), (II) and (III) are correct.
Ans D
60. According to the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 any State Government may
from time to time exempt either any part of territories from all or any of sections
a. 54, paragraphs 2 and 3, 59,107 and 123
b. 54,107 and 123
c. 54, 107 and 120
d. 54,107 and 113.
Ans A

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