18-05-2025

7001CMD303021250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) Three point charges are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle as shown in figure.
The statement which is true for net electric potential V and the net electric field intensity E at the

centre of the triangle is

(1) E = 0, V = 0
(2) V = 0, E ≠ 0
(3) V ≠ 0, E = 0
(4) V ≠ 0, E ≠ 0

2) Two charges – q and – 9q are seperated by some distance then which of the following is correct
variation of electric field along the line joining the charges :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Assertion : If we see along the axis of a charged ring, the magnitude of electric field is minimum
at centre and magnitude of electric potential is maximum.
Reason : Electric field a vector quantity while electric potential is scalar.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) The metallic plates of same areas shown in figure, with their charges. The final
charges on inner and outer surfaces of plate C are respectively :-

(1) +5Q, +5Q

(2) +7Q, +3Q
(3) +6Q, +4Q
(4) +8Q, +2Q

5)

The figure shows a charge q placed inside a cavity in an uncharged conductor. Now if an external
electric field is switched on then

(1) only induced charge on outer surface will redistribute.

(2) only induced charge on inner surface will redistribute
(3) Both induced charge on outer and inner surface will redistribute.
(4) force on charge q placed inside the cavity will change

6)

A uniformly charged sphere of radius R carries uniform surface charge density σ. It is made of two
hemispherical shells, held together by pressing the with force F. F is proportional to :-

(1) σ2R2
(2) σ2R

(3)
(4)

7) A charge metallic bob of mass m and charge Q is in equilibrium in presence of electric repulsion
by Q (fixed) as in figure. Find Tension (T) :

(1) T = mg
T=
(2)

T=
(3)

(4)

8) For what value of q system be in equilibrium:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Three concentric conducting spherical shells carry charges as follows + 4Q on the inner shell, – 2
Q on the middle shell and – 5 Q on the outer shell. The charge on the inner surface of the outer shell
is:

(1) 0
(2) 4 Q
(3) – Q
(4) – 2 Q

10) A and B are two concentric hollow spheres. If A is given a charge 'Q' while B is earthed as shown
in figure :-

(1) The charge density of A and B are same

(2) The electric field inside and out side A is zero
(3) The electric field between A and B is not zero
(4) The electric field inside and outside B is zero

11) Two negative charge, each of magnitude q are situated at 2r distance apart. A positive charge q
is lying at the centre betweeen them. The potential energy of the system is U1. If the two nearest

charges are mutually interchanged and the potential energy becomes U2, then will be :-

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 1

12)

Two identical charged ball of same mass and charge, each of 'q' are suspended from a common point
by equal strings, each of length 'ℓ'. In equilibrium distance between the balls is 'a' then tension in
string is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Four equal charges of magnitude q are arranged as shown in fig. Now the charge at center C is

taken to infinite, then work done by the external force will be:-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

A negative charge is moved by an external agent in the direction of electric field :-

Then

(1) Potential energy of the charge increases

(2) Potential energy of the charge decreases
(3) Positive work is done by the electric field
(4) Negative work is done by the external agent

15) A ring of radius R carries a charge + q A test charge – q0 is released on its axis at a distance
R from its centre. How much kinetic energy will be acquired by the test charge when it reaches the
centre of the ring :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Electric field of a charged ring (of radius R and charge Q) at its axis, very close to centre can be
approx equal to (x–distance from centre) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A positively charged thin metal ring of radius R is fixed in the x-y plane with its centre at the
origin O. At the point (0, 0, z0) where z0 > 0, a negative charge P is released. Then the motion of P is
:-

(1) simple harmonic, for all values of z0 satisfying 0 < z0 ≤ R

(2) approximately simple harmonic, provided z0 << R
(3) such that P crosses O and continues to move along the negative z-axis towards z = – ∞
(4) none of the above

18) An electric dipole is placed at origin and is directed along x-axis. At a point P, far away from the
dipole, the electric field is parallel to y axis OP makes an angle q with x axis :-

(1)
(2)
(3) θ = 45°

(4)

19) The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = –x2y – xz3 + 4. The electric field at that
point is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) The charge per unit length of the four quadrant of the ring is 2λ, +2λ, λ and λ respectively. The

electric field at the centre is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

21) The diagram shows a uniformly charged hemisphere of radius R. It has volume charge density ρ.
If the electric field at a point 2R distance above its center is E then what is the electric field at the
point which is 2R below its center?
(1) ρR/6ε0 + E
(2) ρR/12ε0 – E
(3) –ρR/6ε0 + E
(4) ρR/24ε0 + E

22) In the shown figure, the charge appears on the grounded conducting sphere is:

(1) q

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The electric potential in a region along the x-axis varies with x-according to the relation V(x) = 4
+ 5x2. The :- (i) Potential difference between the points x = 1 and x = – 2 is 15 V.
(ii) Force experienced by a one coulomb charge at x = – 1 m will be 10 N.
(iii) The force exprienced by the above charge will be towards +x-axis.
(iv) A uniform electric field exists in the region along the x-axis.

(1) i, ii, iii

(2) i, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iv
(4) ii, iii, iv

24) A point charge +Q is positioned at the centre of the base of a square pyramid as shown. The flux
through one of the four identical upper faces of the pyramid is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

25) Some equipotential surfaces are shown in the figure below. What can you say about the

magnitude of the electric field :-

(1) 200 V/m

(2) 100 V/m
(3) 50 V/m
(4) 400 V/m

26) Spherical equipotential surface is not possible :

(1) for a point charge

(2) for a dipole
(3) inside a uniformly charged sphere
(4) inside a spherical capacitor

27) A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is surrounded by an uncharged concentric

conducting hollow spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the solid
sphere and that of the outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the conducting sphere is now given a
charge of –3Q, the new potential difference between the same two surfaces is :-

(1) V
(2) 2V
(3) 4V
(4) –2V

28) A small sphere carrying a charge ‘q’ is hanging in between two parallel plates by a string of
length L. Time period of pendulum is T0. When parallel plates are charged, the time period changes
to T. The ratio T/T0 is equal to

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

29) A particle of mass 2 gm and charge 1µC is held at a distance of 1m from a fixed charge of 1 mC.
If the particle is released it will be repelled. The speed of the particle when it is at a distance of 10m
from the fixed charge is :-

(1) 100 m/s

(2) 90 m/s
(3) 60 m/s
(4) 45 m/s

30) An uncharged metal sphere is placed between two equal and oppositely charged metal plates.
The nature of lines of force will be :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

31) An electric dipole ( dipole moment p) is placed at a radial distance r >> a (where a is dipole
length) from a infinite line of charge having linear charge density +λ. Dipole moment vector is
aligned along radial vector force experienced by dipole is :-

(1)
, attractive

(2)
, attractive

(3)
, repulsive

(4)
, repulsive

32) Two charge of equal mass m connect with two string of equal length ℓ and vertically hanged, at
equilibrium if separation between charges is x the correct relation between charge q and x is (if
angle between strings is very small) :-

(1) q ∝ x2
(2) q ∝ x3
(3) q ∝ x3/2
(4) q ∝ x1/2

33) A spherical cavity of radius r is made in a uniformly charged solid sphere of radius 2r. Find the
total electric field at (– r, 0, 0). (Volume charge density is ρ)
(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) In the figure shown, find the ratio of the linear charge densities λ1 (on semi-infinite straight wire)
and λ2
(on semi-circular part) that is, λ1/λ2 so that the field at O is along y direction :-

(1) 2
(2) 1.5
(3) 3
(4) 2.5

35) A point charge q is located at the centre O of a spherical uncharged conducting layer provided
with small orifice. The inside and outside radii of the layer are equal to a and b respectively. The
amount of work that has to be performed to slowly transfer the charge q from the point O through
the orifice and into infinity is :-

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Figure shows three points A, B and C in a region of uniform electric field . The line AB is
perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field lines. Then which of the following holds good. Where VA,

VB and represent the electric potential at points A, B and C respectively :-

(1) VA = VB = VC
(2) VA = VB > VC
(3) VA = VB < VC
(4) VA > VB = VC

37) Charge q on a small conducing sphere S1 is placed inside a large hollow metallic spheres S2
having a charge Q as shown in figure. The sphere is conneted to shell by a conducting wire. The

charge on S1 will then be :

(1) Q – q

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

38) The flux through the hemispherical surface in the figure shown below is :

(1) πR2E
(2) 2πR2E
(3) πRE
(4) Zero
39) Find electric field intensity at centre of the regular pentagon.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Column II corresponds to the graph of magnitude of electric field versus distance from centre of
charge distribution in Column I.

Column-I Column-II

Ring along
(A) (P)
its axis

Uniformly
(B) charged (Q)
solid sphere

Uniformly
(C) charged (R)
spherical shell

Combination of
charge +Q and
(D) –Q at the (S)
perpendicular
bisector
 (T)

(1) (A)→(Q); (B)→(S); (C)→(R); (D)→(P)

(2) (A)→(S); (B)→(R); (C)→(P); (D)→(S)
(3) (A)→(R); (B)→(P); (C)→(Q); (D)→(R)
(4) (A)→(P); (B)→(R); (C)→(S); (D)→(Q)

41) Consider a thin spherical shell of radius R with its centre at the origin, carrying uniform positive
surface charge density. The variation of the magnitude of the electric field | (r)| and the electric
potential V(r)with the distance r from the centre, is best represented by which graph doted lines
represents potential and continuous line represent electric field lines :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
42) A dipole of dipole moment ‘p’ is placed in a non-uniform electric field along x-axis. Electric field
is increasing at the rate of 2 V/m2 then the force on dipole is :-

(1) 0
(2) 2p
(3) p/2
(4) p

43) Two identical positive charges are placed at x = –a and x = a. The correct variation of potential V
along the x-axis is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Two particle A and B each having a charge Q, are placed a distance d apart. where should a
particle of charge q be placed on the perpendicular bisector of AB so that it experiences maximum
force :-

(1)
from mid point

(2)
from mid point

(3)
from mid point
(4) None of these

45) Two parallel charged plates have a charge density +σ and –σ. The resultant force on the proton
located outside the plates at some distance will be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Zero

CHEMISTRY

1) 6.0 g of urea (molecular weight = 60) is dissolved in 9.9 moles of water. If the vapour pressure of
pure water is P° then vapour pressure of solution is :

(1) 0.10 P°
(2) 1.10 P°
(3) 0.90 P°
(4) 0.99 P°

2) 1.5 g of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte is dissolved in 50 g benzene (Kb = 2.5 K kg mol–1). The

elevation of the boiling point of the solution is 0.75 K. The molecular weight of the solute in
g mol–1 is :-

(1) 200
(2) 50
(3) 75
(4) 100

3) Sprinkling of salt helps in clearing the snow covered roads in hills. The phenomenon involved in
the process is

(1) Lowering in vapour pressure of snow

(2) Depression in freezing point of snow
(3) Increase in freezing point of snow
(4) Melting of ice due to increase in temperature by putting salt

4) When 1 gm of non electrolyte solute is dissolved in 50 gm of benzene it lowers the freezing point
of benzene by 0.40 K. The freezing point depression constant of benzene is 5.12 K kg/mol. The molar
mass of the solute is :

(1) 128
(2) 256
(3) 48
(4) 240

5) Assertion : The depression in freezing point depend on the amount of solute dissolved and not on
the nature of solute and solvent.
Reason : For aqueous solutions of different electrolyte, molal depression constant will have
different value.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Consider the following statements and choose the appropriate answer

Statement I : When the osmotic pressure associated with fluid inside the blood cell is equivalent to
that of 0.9 % (mass/ volume) sodium chloride solution called normal saline solution and it is safe to
inject intravenously.
Statement II : Reverse osmosis is used in desalination of sea water.

(1) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

7) Statement I: Isotonic solutions must have the same molar concentration.

Statement II: Solutions which have the same osmotic pressure are known as isotonic solution.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

8) The osmotic pressure of a solution containing 40g of solute (MW = 246) per litre at 27°C is:
(R = 0.0822 atm L mol–1 K–1) is:

(1) 3.0 atm

(2) 4.0 atm
(3) 2.0 atm
(4) 1.0 atm

9) The van't Hoff factor of a 0.005 M aqueous solution of KCl is 1.95. The degree of ionisation of KCl
is:

(1) 0.95
(2) 0.97
(3) 0.94
(4) 0.96

10) Match the electrolytes with their van't hoff value

Column -
Column -I
II
 (i) NaCl (a) 2

(ii) K2SO4 (b) 4

(iii) AlCl3 (c) 3

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c
(2) i-a, ii-c, iii-b
(3) i-b, ii-a, iii-c
(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b

11) We have three, aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled as 'A', 'B' and 'C' with concentrations 0.1
M,0.01M and 0.001 M, respectively. The value of van't Hoff factor for these solutions will be in the
order ........... .

(1) iA <iB <iC

(2) iA >iB >iC
(3) iA =iB =iC
(4) iA <iB >iC

12) Which solution will have least vapour pressure?

(1) 0.01 M BaCl2

(2) 0.1 M urea
(3) 0.1 M Na2SO4
(4) 0.1 M Na3PO4

13) Relative lowering in vapour pressure of a solution containing 1 mole K2SO4 in 54 g H2O is (K2SO4
in 100% ionised) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The molal elevation constant of water is 0.52K molality–1. The boiling point of 1.0 molal aqueous
KCl solution (assuming complete dissociation of KCl), should be :

(1) 100.520C
(2) 101.040C
(3) 99.480C
(4) 98.960C

15) 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionised. If Kf for water is1.86 K kg mol–1,
the lowering in freezing point of the solution is :

(1) –0.56 K
(2) –1.12 K
(3) 0.56 K
(4) 1.12 K

16) The differential rate law for the reaction,

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) In a reaction 2A → Products, the Concentration of A decreases from 0.8 molL–1 to 0.3 molL–1 in 5
minutes then what is the average rate during this interval ?

(1) 2.5 × 10–2 M.min–1

(2) 10–1 M.min–1
(3) 1.25 × 10–2 M.min–1
(4) 5 × 10–2 M.min–1

18)

For the reaction,

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

if + = 2 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

then find value of

(1) 1 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

(2) 3 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 4 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 6 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

19) Contact process is used in the formation of sulphur trioxide,

2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)
The rate of reaction can be expressed as

= 2.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1.

Then rate of disappearance of SO2 will be :

(1) 50.0 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1

(2) 3.75 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 2.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 4.12 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

20) For A(g) + B(g) → C(g) :

rate = K[A]1/2 [B]2. If initial concentration of A and B are increased by a factor of 4 and 2
respectively, the initial rate is changed by the factor.

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

21) For a certain reaction,

What will be the order of reaction ?

(1) 1
(2) 1.5
(3) 0.5
(4) 0

22) Which of the following rate law expression represent zero order reaction :-

(1) K(A)3/2 (B)–1 (C)1/2

(2) K(A)o (B)2
(3) K(A)1/2 (B)1/2 (C)–1
(4) K(A)2 (B)1

23) The following data pertain to reaction between A and B :-

Which of the following inference(s) can be drawn

from the above data
(a) Rate constant of the reaction 10–4
(b) Rate law of the reaction is k[A][B]
(c) Rate of reaction increases four times on doubling the concentration of both the reactant,
Select the correct answer

(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) c alone

24) Which of the following is the strongest base :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) When propionic acid is treated with aqueous sodium bicarbonate, CO2 is liberated. The 'C' of CO2
comes from :

(1) methyl group

(2) carboxylic acid group
(3) methylene group
(4) bicarbonate

26)

The decreasing order of acidity of following phenol derivatives is :-

(P) (Q)
(R) (S)

(1) P > S > Q > R

(2) S > Q > P > R
(3) R > Q > P > S
(4) P > Q > R > S

27) Which of the following has smallest heat of hydrogenation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) To convert given compound into aromatic best reagent is :

(1) HCl
(2) NaOH
(3) NaH
(4) NaHCO3
29) Which of the following will not react with Na metal?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30)

Stability order of following corbocation is ?

(1) IV > II > III > I

(2) I > III > II > IV
(3) II > I > IV > III
(4) I > III > IV > II

31) Arrange the stability at these carboanion in decreasing order :-

(1) II > IV > I > III

(2) III > I > IV > II
(3) IV > II > I > III
(4) I > II > III > IV

32) Arrange the following in correct order of acidic strength.

(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) I > II > IV > III
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) II > III > IV > I

33)
These are three canonical structures of naphthalene. Examine them and find correct statement
among the following :

(1) All C – C bonds are of same length

(2) C1 – C2 bond is shorter than C2 – C3 bond.
(3) C1 – C2 bond is longer than C2 – C3 bond
(4) None

34) Among these compounds in the correct order of C–N bond length
is :-

(1) IV > I > II > III

(2) III > I > II > IV
(3) III > II > I > IV
(4) III > I > IV > II

35) Which of the following compound can't have a meso stereo-isomer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

36) Total number of geometrical isomers possible of the following compound

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 2

37) Which of the following has plane of symmetry (POS) but not centre of symmetry (COS) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) If given fischer represents D-glucose then L-glucose will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The most stable conformer of 1,2 - diphenyl ethane is:-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

40) IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

(1) 3-Amino-4-cyano hexanoic acid

(2) 3-Cyano-4-amino hexanoic acid
(3) 3-Amino-4-ethyl-5-cyano pentanoic acid
(4) 3-Amino-5-cyano hexanoic acid

41) The number of hetero atoms and lone pair in given compound is/are :-

(1) 3 and 4
(2) 5 and 6
(3) 3 and 6
(4) 3 and 7

42) In which compound all 'C' are in sp2 hybridization:

(1) CH3–CH2–CH3
(2) H2C=CH–CHO
(3) CH3–CH2–CN

(4)

43) No. of 2° carbon are present in given compound:-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 2

44) Which of the following is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45)

In which of the following, –ve charge doesn't take part in resonance ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following statement correctly represent ovulation in humans.

(1) Triggered by high level of oxytocin

(2) Ovulation occurs approximately 14 days of menstrual cycle
(3) Ovulation is triggered by copulation
(4) Ovulation occurs approximate 24 hours after copulation

2) It is a diagrammatic presentation of developing follicle identify corpus luteum

(1) A
(2) D
(3) E
(4) F

3) Menstruation is initiated by

(1) A sudden release of FSH from the anterior pituitary

(2) A lack of estrogen and progesterone due to degeneration of the corpus luteum
(3) An increased release of estrogen and progesterone from the corpus luteum
(4) A sudden drop in FSH

4) Which phase of oogenesis runs during menstrual cycle in human ?

(1) Multiplication phase

(2) Yolk synthesis
(3) Maturation phase
(4) Growth phase

5) The figure below shows ovarian changes during a mestruation cycle (A, B, C, D). Select the
correct structure which secretes progesterone for maintenance of pregnancy.

(1) B
(2) D
(3) A
(4) C
6) Read the following four statements (A–D) and answer as asked next to them :-
(A) Oogonia are not formed after birth
(B) Each primary spermatocyte surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells is termed Oogonia
(C) At puberty only 60,000 – 80,000 secondary follicles are left in each ovary
(D) Tertiary follicle changes into Graafian follicle
Which of the above statements are incorrect :-

(1) Only A
(2) B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, C and D

7) 'Antrum' is a cavity present in :-

(1) Primary oocyte

(2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Secondary follicle
(4) Tertiary follicle

8) Refer the given schematic representation of menstrual cycle showing three phases I, II and III.
Select the option that correctly matches these phases with the following events :-

(i) FSH secreted by the anterior pituitary stimulates the ovarian follicle to secrete oestrogen which
stimulates the proliferation of endometrium.
(ii) LH secreted by the anterior pituitary stimulates the development of corpus luteum which
secretes progesterone
(iii) Reduced production of LH from anterior pituitary causes degeneration of corpus luteum,
thereby menustral flow starts.

Phase - I Phase - II Phase - III

(1)
(i) (ii) (iii)
Phase - I Phase - II Phase - III
(2)
(iii) (i) (ii)
Phase - I Phase - II Phase - III
(3)
(ii) (iii) (i)
Phase - I Phase - II Phase - III
(4)
(iii) (ii) (i)

9) Haploid number of chromosomes are found in:

(1) Germinal epithelium

(2) Sertoli cells
(3) Primary spermatocyte
(4) Secondary spermatocyte

10) How many structures in the list given below are haploid ?
Spermatozoa, Spermatogonia, Spermatid, Secondary spermatocyte, Sperm, Primary spermatocyte.

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

11) The final stage of spermatogenesis, in which there will be maturation of spermatids into mature,
motile spermatozoa :

(1) Maturation phase

(2) Growth phase
(3) Spermiogenesis
(4) Multiplication phase

12) Read the following statements carefully.

The .......(A)...... present on the boundary wall of .......(B)....... multiply by .....(C)...... division. A
......(D)....... completes the .......(E)....... division leading to formation of two equal, haploid cells called
.......(F)....... .
Which one of the following options gives the correct filling of A, B, C, D, E and F?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Secretary phase of menstrual cycle is also known as :-

(1) Follicular phase

(2) Estrogenic phase
(3) Luteal phase
(4) Menstrual phase

14) Select wrong statement :-

(1) One ovum is released during the middle of each menstrual cycle
(2) Mentruation only occurs if the released ovum is not fertilized
(3) Lack of menstruation is always an indicator of pregnancy
(4) The secretion of gonadotropins increase gradually during the follicular phase

15) Peak of LH & FSH production occur during :-

(1) The beginning of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle.

(2) The period just before ovulation
(3) The end of luteal phase
(4) The secretory phase of menstrual cycle

16) A secondary spermatocyte:

(1) Is a diploid cell

(2) Forms tertiary spermatocytes
(3) Forms spermatids
(4) Nourishes spermatozoa

17)

Find out correct sequence of menstrual cycle's phase ?

(1) Ovulation, Bleeding phase, Luteal phase

(2) Bleeding phase, ovulation, Postovulatory phase, Progesteronic phase
(3) Menstrual phase, Oestrogenic phase, Ovulation, Secretory phase
(4) Bleeding phase, Ovulation, Oestrogenic phase

18) Which hormone is needed for the maintenance of corpus luteum in a non-pregnant female ?

(1) Progesterone
(2) hCG
(3) hPL
(4) LH

19) Select the incorrect statement :

(1) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis

(2) LH triggers ovulation in ovary
(3) LH and FSH are produced by Hypothalamus
(4) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells
20) Match the column-A with column-B.

Column-A Column-B

A Menstrual phase i Corpus luteum

B Follicular phase ii Breakdown of endometrium

C Ovulatory phase iii Fully mature Graafian follicle

D Luteal phase iv Release of ovum

(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

21) Identify the correct match from the column-I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Follicular
A a 14th day i Formation of corpus luteum
phase

Luteal
B b 1st -4th day ii Development of Graafian follicle
phase

Menstruation
C c 15th -28th day iii Shedding of endometrium
phase

Ovulatory
D d 5th -13th day iv Release of Secondary oocyte
phase
(1) A→d→iii, B→c→i, C→b→iv, D→a→ii
(2) A→c→ii, B→b→iii, C→a→i, D→d→iv
(3) A→d→ii, B→c→i, C→b→iii, D→a→iv
(4) A→d→iii, B→b→iv, C→a→ii, D→c→i

22) Arrange the events in human female reproductive cycle :-

a-Secretion of FSH,
b-Growth of corpus luteum
c-Growth of follicle
d- ovulation
e- Sudden increases in level of LH

(1) a-d-c-e-b
(2) a-c-e-d-b
(3) c-a-d-b-e
(4) b-a-c-d-e
23)
Find out A, B, C & D for above graph

A B C D

(1) LH FSH Progesterone Estrogen

(2) LH FSH Estrogen Progesterone

(3) FSH LH Estrogen Progesterone

(4) FSH LH Progesterone Estrogen

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) The end of the _________ phase of the ovarian cycle coincides with the end of the _________ phase
of the uterine cycle.

(1) Luteal; secretory

(2) Luteal; menstrual
(3) Follicular; proliferative
(4) Follicular; secretory

25) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which include all correct ones
only :-
(a) Estrogen cause myometrial hypertrophy
(b) Progesteron decrease myometrial contraction.
(c) Pre-ovulatory phase also known as progesterogenic phase.
(d) Oestrogen is secreted by follicles only.

(1) Statement (a), (c) and (d)

(2) Statement (b), (d)
(3) Statement (a), (b)
(4) Statement (b), (c) and d

26) The second meiotic division in female gamete results :-

(1) Second polar body and haploid ovum

(2) First polar body and haploid ovum
(3) Second polar body and diploid ovum
(4) First polar body and diploid ovum
27) Menses during menstrual cycle are observed during :-

(1) Proliferative phase

(2) Luteal phase
(3) Menstruation phase
(4) Secretory phase

28) In human female, ovulation occurs during menstrual cycle

(1) At the end of proliferative phase

(2) In the middle of secretory phase
(3) Just before the end of secretory phase
(4) In the beginning of proliferative phase

29) In uterus, endometrium proliferates in /response to

(1) Relaxin
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Progesterone
(4) Oestrogen

30)

Identify A, B, C, D and E in the diagrammatic structure of sperm :

A B C D E

(1) Head Nucleus Acrosome Neck Mitochondria

(2) Head Acrosome Nucleus Neck Mitochondria

(3) Tail Acrosome Nucleus Neck Mitochondria

(4) Tail Acrosome Nucleus Middle piece Mitochondria

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) How many among following can be found in a ovary after attaining puberty. Primordial germ
cells, Primary Oocytes, Oogonia, Secondary Oocyte, Primary follicles, Graffian follicles, Atretic
follicle, Corpus luteum, Germinal epitheleum :-

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 7

32) If estrogen fails to attains its extreme high concentration during menstrual cycle then what will
be the consequence :-

(1) Termination of pregnancy

(2) Folliculer developement will not occur
(3) Ovulation will not occur
(4) All of the above

33) In human, spermatogenesis takes place in:

(1) Epididymis
(2) Ovary
(3) Seminiferous tubules
(4) Seminal vesicle

34) Assertion (A) : Ovaries are the primary sex organs of female.
Reason (R) : Ovaries produce gametes and no hormones.

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the

(1)
correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(2)
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

35) …………..hormone is responsible for ovulation and ovulation takes place around………… of
menstruation cycle. Fill in the blanks with suitable option:

(1) FSH, 14th day

(2) LH, 21st day
(3) LH, 14th day
(4) Estrogen, 14th day

36) Match the columns :

 Column-I Column-II

Acts on mammary glands and

(a) FSH (1) stimulates the formation of
alveoli

Develops female secondary

(b) LH (2)
sexual characters

(c) Progesterone (3) Contraction of uterine wall

Development of corpus
(d) Estrogen (4)
luteum

Maturation of
(5)
Graafian follicle
(1) (a)—5, (b)—4, (c)—1, (d)—2
(2) (a)—4, (b)—5, (c)—2, (d)—1
(3) (a)—4, (b)—3, (c)—2, (d)—5
(4) (a)—5, (b)—1, (c)—2, (d)—4

37) See the schematic representation of menstrual cycle carefully and identify W, X, Y correctly from

given option :

W X Y
Secretory Proliferative Pre-ovulatory
(1)
phase phase phase
Proliferative Bleeding Post
(2)
phase phase ovulatory
Menstrual Post ovulatory Luteal
(3)
phase phase phase
Bleeding Secretory
(4) Proliferative
phase phase
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) Meiosis-II completes in ___A____ during _____B______ in human female oogenesis

(1) A-Graafian follicle, B-ovulation

(2) A-ovary, B-Tertiary follicle
(3) A-oviduct, B-Fertilization
(4) A-Oviduct, B-Ovulation
39) Oogenesis is the process in the ovary that results in the production of female gametes. Which
statement about oogenesis in human female is false :-

(1) Oogenesis begins at puberty

(2) In oogenesis unequal cytokinesis results in a large cell, which goes on to form the egg.
(3) At birth, an ovary already contains all the cells it will ever have that will develop into eggs.
(4) The process of oogenesis is completed, when the egg cell is penetrated by sperm

40) A scientist develops a drug that she thinks might inhibit the release of GnRH from the
hypothalamus. Some volunteer female subjected to take the drug. Which of the following results
obtained from the volunteers would support the scientist hypothesis ?

(1) Increased levels of estrogen in the blood

(2) Delay of menstruation
(3) Decreased level of LH in blood
(4) Enlargement of the breast

41) Secretary phase of the uterine event in a menstrual cycle is characterized by

(1) Rapid thickening of stratum functionalis called hyperplasia under the effects of progesterone
(2) Increment in thickness of endometrium called hypertrophy under the effects of estrogen
Enlargement and deepening of endometrial glands and increased secretion of endometrial fluid
(3)
under the effects of progesterone
(4) Regression and destruction of endometrial glands under the effects of prostaglandin

42) Energy source for swimming of sperm is located in :-

(1) Head
(2) Neck
(3) Middle piece
(4) Tail

43) In the given statements choose the correct statement/s :-

(a) Menstruation only occurs if the released ovum is not fertilised.
(b) Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
(c) During pregnancy all events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation.
(d) Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive phase and extends between menarche
and menopause.

(1) Only a
(2) Only a and b
(3) Only a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d

44) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) The menstrual phase is followed by the follicular phase.

(2) The secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increases gradually during the luteal phase.
(3) The ovulation (ovulatory phase) is followed by the luteal phase.
(4) The cycle starts with the menstrual phase.

45) Menarche is :-

(1) First menstruation

(2) Last menstruation
(3) Secondary phase in oogenesis
(4) Last phase in oogenesis

46) Read the following statements about the Structure of microsporangium :

(a) In a transverse section, a typical microsporangium appears near circular in outline.
(b)Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers – the epidermis, endothecium,
middle layers and the tapetum.
(c) The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence of anther to
release the pollen.
(d) The innermost wall layer is the tapetum. It nourishes the developing pollen grains.
(e) Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) - all are correct
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
(4) (e) only

47) Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
a. In Vallisneria, the male flower reach the surface of water by the long stalk which is always
attached to plant and pollen grains are released inside water to reach the female flowers.
b. In Sea grasses, the female flower reach the surface of water by the long stalk and the male
flowers or pollen grains are released on to the surface of water.
c. In most of the water-pollinated species, pollen grains are protected from wetting by a
proteinaceous covering.
d. In Vallisneria, female flowers remain submerged in water and the pollen grains are released
inside the water.

(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) all are incorrect.

48) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Endosperm development precedes embryo development
Statement II : Cells of Endosperm are filled with reserve food materials
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II also Explain Statement I
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

49) Identify the Correct statement related to Pollination:

(1) Pollination by Insects is more common amongst abiotic pollination

(2) Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated
(3) Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects
(4) Pollination by water is more common amongst abiotic pollination in flowering plants

50) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore mother cell (MMC) in
the micropylar region.
Statement II: In a majority of flowering plants only one of the megaspores situated towards
chalazal end remains functional while the other three degenerate.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

51)

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : When the Microspore divide, pollen grain contains two unequal Size cells, the Large
vegetative cell and Small generative cell.
Reason (R) : Spindle is positioned asymmetrically in a dividing microspore cell.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

52) Seed formation without fertilisation in flowering plants involves the process of:

(1) Sporulation
(2) Budding
(3) Somatic hybridisation
(4) Apomixis

53) Perisperm differs from endosperm in :

(1) Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms

(2) Being a haploid tissue
(3) Having no reserve food
(4) Being a diploid tissue

54) Coconut water from a tender coconut is

(1) Free nuclear endosperm

(2) Innermost layers of the seed coat
(3) Degenerated nucellus
(4) Immature embryo

55) Which one of the following statements regarding postfertilization development in flowering
plants is incorrect ?

(1) Ovary develops into fruit

(2) Zygote develops into embryo
(3) Central cell develops into endosperm
(4) Ovules develop into embryo sac

56) In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis

(1) Form gametes without further divisions

(2) Involve meiosis
(3) Occur in ovule
(4) Occur in anther

57) How many of the following are incorrect

(A) Flowers are morphological and embryological marvels and the sites of asexual reproduction.
(B) Much before the actual flower is seen on a plant, the decision that the plant is going to flower
has taken place.
(C) Flowers have always been used as symbols for conveying important human feelings.
(D) Human beings have had a intimate relationship with flowers since time immemorial.
(E) Several hormonal and structural changes are not initiated which lead to the differentiation and
further
development of floral primordium.
(F) Flowers are object of aesthatic ornamental, social, religious and cultural value.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

58) In some angiosperms when, pollen grain shed at 3 celled stage, it contains :-

(1) One vegetative cell and 2 generative cells

(2) One vegetative cell and 2 male gametes
(3) 3 male gametes
(4) One vegetative cell, one generative cell and 1 male gamete
59) What will be ploidy of the cells of nucellus, megaspore mother cell, functional megaspore and
embryosac respectively

(1) n, 2n, 3n, 4n

(2) n, 3n, 4n, 2n
(3) 2n, 2n, n, n
(4) 3n, 4n, 2n, n

60) Which of the following is not nutritive ?

(1) Tapetum
(2) Endosperm
(3) Integument
(4) Nucellus

61) Given figure 'a' is transverse section of anther and diagram 'b' is enlarged view of one
microsporangium showing wall layers.

In which labelled structures A to F are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

62) Which of the following device prevents inbreeding.

(1) Self incompatibility

(2) Dicliny
(3) Dichogamy
(4) All of the above

63) How many times meiosis and mitosis required for production of embryo sac respectively.

(1) 1, 3
(2) 1, 2
(3) 1, 1
(4) 1, 4

64) The diagram represents enlarged view of an egg apparatus showing entry of pollen tube. Identify

labelled structures [A] and [B] of diagram.

(1) [A] Egg nucleus, [B] Male gametes

(2) [A] Egg nucleus, [B] Vegetative nucleus
(3) [A] Synergid, [B] Vegetative nucleus
(4) [A] Synergid, [B] Male gametes

65) In geitonogamy pollen grains are transferred to:-

(1) Genetically different flower

(2) Genetically similar flower
(3) Stigma of another flower of a different plant
(4) Stigma of the same flower

66) If there are 10 chromosomes in one male gamete then which of the following is correct for the

figure given below with respect to number of chromosomes ?

Pericarp Endosperm Scuttelleum Plumule Coleoptile

(1) 30 10 20 10 10

(2) 20 30 20 20 20

(3) 30 30 20 10 20

(4) 20 20 30 10 30
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Cleistogamous flowers always shows which type of pollination.

(1) Geitonogamy
(2) Xenogamy
(3) Autogamy
(4) Any of the above means

68) Identify the correct sequence for different stages of embryo development.

(1) Proembryo – Torpedo stage – globular embryo

(2) Zygote – Heart shaped embryo – Globular stage
(3) Globular embryo – Torpedo shaped embryo – Heart shaped embryo
(4) Globular embryo – Heart shaped embryo – Mature embryo

69) Select the incorrect statement from the following.

(A) Parthenium or carrot gases causes pollen allergy.
(B) Vegetative cell of pollen has abundant food reserve.
(C) All pollen’s cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions.
(D) Sporopollenin is the most resistant organic matter known.

(1) All are correct

(2) A only
(3) B only
(4) C only

70) In a fertilized embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures are

(1) Synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus.

(2) Synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei.
(3) Antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus.
(4) Synergid, polar nuclei and zygote.

71) In some plants pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised. Stigma becomes
receptive much before the release of pollen. This is known as

(1) Protoandry
(2) Protogyny
(3) Homogamy
(4) Dichogamy

72) The residual persistent nucellus in seed is known as

(1) Perisperm
(2) Scutellum
(3) Pericarp
(4) Endosperm

73) Pollen pistil interaction refers to

(1) Pistil’s ability to recognise the pollen.

(2) Acceptance of pollen to promote post pollination events.
(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct.
(4) Landing of pollen on stigma.

74) Select the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) In some cereals such as rice and wheat pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes.
(2) Multicarpellary syncarpous pistil is found in Papaver.
(3) The body of ovule fuses with funicle in the region called hilum.
(4) Each ovule has many protective envelopes called integuments.

75) How many plants in the list given below are pollinated by water.
Vallisineria, Zostera, Water Hyacinth, Water Lily, Coconut, Yucca, Hydrilla , Ficus

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 6

76) Formation of seed without fertilisation is known as …………. and observed in some apecies of
…………..

(1) Amphimixis, Mango

(2) Apomixis, Asteraceae and Grasses
(3) Apomixis, Citrus
(4) Polyembryony, Asteraceae and grasses.

77) At germ pore which layer is absent.

(1) Exine is present

(2) Both exine and intine is absent
(3) Only exine is absent
(4) Only intine is absent

78) An anther having 10 microsporocyte or microspore mother cell will produce how many pollen
grains.

(1) 24
(2) 12
(3) 40
(4) 16

79) Select the incorrect from the following statement.

(1) The cytoplasm of pollen grain is surrounded by a plasma membrane.

(2) The vegetative cell is bigger than generative cell.
(3) Generative cell is spindle shaped.
(4) Vegetative cell divides to form 2 male gametes.

80) Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where
none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?

(1) Hydrilla
(2) Banana
(3) Yucca
(4) Viola

81) Pollen grains can be stored for severl years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

(1) –120°C
(2) –80°C
(3) –196°C
(4) –196°C

82) How many meiotic divisions are required for the formation of 100 functional megaspores?

(1) 100
(2) 50
(3) 75
(4) 25

83) Synergid cell is the part of

(1) Egg apparatus

(2) Antipodal cells
(3) Central cell
(4) Funicle

84) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Seeds of maize and wheat are endospermic

(2) In maize, aleurone layer is proteinaceous
(3) Caster and maize prevent geitonogamy but not autogamy
(4) Cleistogamy is a condition in which flower does not open
85) Milky water of green coconut is:

(1) Liquid nucellus

(2) Liquid of female gametophyte
(3) Liquid endosperm
(4) Liquid embryo

86) Wind pollinated flowers are:

(1) Small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains

(2) Small, producing large number of dry pollens
(3) Large, producing abundant nectar and pollens
(4) Small, producing nectar and dry pollens

87) In the diagram given, parts labelled as a, b, c, d, e and f are respectively identified as:

(1) Synergids, polar nuclei, central cell, antipodals, filliform apparatus and egg
(2) Polar nuclei, egg, antipodals, central cell, filiform apparatus and synergids
(3) Filliform apparatus, polar nuclei, egg, antipodals synergids and central cell
(4) Central cell, polar nuclei, filiform apparatus, antipodals, synergids and eggs

88) The cell that divides to form two male gametes in angiosperms is:

(1) Vegetative cell

(2) Generative cell
(3) Tube cell
(4) Antheridial cell

89) Some angiosperm produces more than one embryo in their seed. This phenomenon is
called………..discovered by …………………

(1) Apomixis, Nawaschin

(2) Polyembryony, Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
(3) Diplospory, Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
(4) Aril, Amici

90) Statement I: If hybrid seeds are made into apomicts, there is no segregation of character.
Statement II: Fruit production without fertilization is called parthenocarpy.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is not correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 1 2 1 1 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 1 3 1 2 4 3 2 2 1 3 3 1 3 2 4 1 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 3 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 2 2 4 3 3 2 1 2 1 4 4 2 4 4 4 2 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 1 4 1 2 1 3 4 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 3 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 2 3 4 2 4 3 4 2 3 1 3 3 2 3 3 4 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 3 3 3 1 3 1 4 2 4 3 3 3 3 1 1 3 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 4 2 1 1 4 3 2 4 3 4 4 1 4 2 3 2 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 1 4 2 2 3 4 4 1 2 1 3 4 1 2 3 3 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 1 3 3 2 1 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

4)

Charge on Outer surface

= = 3Q

5)

The distribution of charge on the outer surface, depends only on the charges outside, and it
distributes itself such that the net electric field inside the outer surface due to the charge on
outer surface and all the outer charges is zero. Similarly the distribution of charge on the
inner surface, depends only on the charges inside the inner surface, and it distributes itself
such that the net, electric field outside the inner surface due to the charge on inner surface
and all the inner charges is zero. Also the force on charge inside the cavity is due to the
charge on the inner surface. Hence answer is option (A).

7)

Using

here θ is 30°

so, T = Mg (For any value of θ)

11)

U1 = –

U1 =

U2 = –

18)

θ + α = 90°

θ + tan–1 tanq = 90°

= tan(90 – θ)
tan θ = 2
2

tanθ =
θ=

21) Erem = Etotal – Euse

= =E

28) ...(1)

T⇒ ...(2)
31)

Force on dipole in Non-uniform electic field

F = rcosθ =

F=

F= (attractive)

32) for small angle

tanθ sinθ =

=
so q2 ∝ x3 or q ∝ x3/2

33)

At C2 :

Here So
CHEMISTRY

49) A. Question Explanation:

The question asks to calculate the molar mass of a non-electrolyte solute given the mass of the
solute, the mass of the solvent (benzene), the freezing point depression, and the freezing point
depression constant of benzene.
B. Given Data:

A. Mass of solute = 1 g
B. Mass of benzene = 50 g = 0.05 kg (converted to kg)
C. ΔTF (Depression in freezing point) = 0.40 K
D. Kf (Freezing point depression constant of benzene) = 5.12 K kg/mol

C. Concept:

A. Freezing Point Depression: , where m is the molality of the solution.

B. Molality (m):

C. Molar Mass:

D. Calculation:

A. Calculate molality (m):

B. Calculate moles of solute:

Moles of solute = molality × mass of solvent (in kg)

.

C. Calculate molar mass of solute:

E. Final Answer:
The molar mass of the solute is approximately 256 g/mol.

51) Ncert, Class12th , Part-1 , Article No:1.6.4, 1.6.5 , Pg.No:22,23. Edition-2023-24.

52)

Let's analyze each statement to determine their correctness regarding isotonic solutions.

A. Question Explanation: We need to evaluate the relationship between isotonic solutions,

molar concentration, and osmotic pressure.

B. Given Data:

A. Statement I: Isotonic solutions must have the same molar concentration.

B. Statement II: Solutions which have the same osmotic pressure are known as isotonic
solutions.
C. Concept:

A. Isotonic Solutions: Solutions that have the same osmotic pressure.

B. Osmotic Pressure (π): The pressure that needs to be applied to a solution to prevent the
inward flow of solvent across a semipermeable membrane.

C. Osmotic Pressure Equation: π = iMRT, where

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. There are no direct mathematical calculations needed.

B. Statement I:

A. For isotonic solutions to have the same osmotic pressure (π), they must have the
same iMRT value.

B. If the solutions have different van't Hoff factors (i), they can have different molar
concentrations (M) and still have the same osmotic pressure.

C. Therefore, Statement I is not always correct.

C. Statement II:

A. By definition, isotonic solutions have the same osmotic pressure.

B. Therefore, Statement II is correct.

E. Final Answer: 3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

60)

A. Question Explanation:

The question provides the molality of a weak acid solution, its degree of ionization, and asks us
to calculate the lowering in freezing point (ΔTf).

B. Given Data:

A. Molality (m) = 0.5 molal

 B. Degree of ionization (α) = 20% = 0.2

C. Kf (water) = 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹

C. Concepts:

A. Freezing Point Depression: ΔTf = i × Kf × m

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Calculate the van't Hoff factor (i): i = 1 + α = 1 + 0.2 = 1.2

B. Calculate the lowering in freezing point (ΔTf): ΔTf = i × Kf × m = 1.2 × 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹
× 0.5 mol kg⁻¹ = 1.116 K ≈ 1.12 K

E. Final Answer:

The lowering in freezing point of the solution is approximately 1.12 K.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4: 1.12 K

62)

M.min–1
NCERT Pg. # 98

64)

∴ = 2 × 2.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

= 5.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
= 50.0 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1

69)

Duo to localized lone pair is the strongest base

77) - ORDER of R
INORGANIC ACID > ORGANIC ACID > PENOL > ALLOHOL
 - ACIDIC STRENGTH [Ka] × - M effect
× - I effect
- More is the stability of ANION [Formed after donation of H+] more is Ka

80)

A. Meso compound is optically inactive compound atleast two chiral carbon atoms.

Answer 3

A. I & II are enantiomers.

B. Meso form does not exist for option 3rd.

As there are 'O' chiral carbons.

81) Solution:

Molecule is symmetrical.
∴ Total number of geometrical isomers = 2n–1 + 2n/2–1 (n = 2)
= 22–1 + 22/2–1
0
= 21 + 2 = 3

Final Answer: The correct option is (3).

84) Concept -
Conformational isomers and their stability.

Answer Explanation -
 (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Let's analyze each Newman projection:

A. Option 1: The two phenyl (C6H5) groups are gauche (60° apart). This leads to significant
steric strain between the large phenyl groups.

B. Option 2: The two phenyl (C6H5) groups are gauche (60° apart). This leads to significant
steric strain between the large phenyl groups.

C. Option 3: The two phenyl (C6H5) groups are eclipsed (0° apart). This leads to maximum
torsional and steric strain, making it highly unstable.

D. Option 4:The two phenyl (C6H5) groups are anti (180° apart). This minimizes steric strain
between the phenyl groups.
Now, let's consider the specific interactions:

A. Steric Strain: Phenyl groups are large and bulky, so minimizing steric strain is crucial for
stability.
B. Torsional Strain: Eclipsed conformations have high torsional strain.

Therefore, the most stable conformation is the one where the two phenyl groups are anti.

Final Answer:

Option 4

Question Level:

Moderate

85) A. Question - The question about the correct the IUPAC name of the given compound.
B. Concept:

A. IUPAC nomenclature for organic compounds with multiple functional groups

C. Answer Explanation:
3-Amino-4-cyano hexanoic acid

D. Final Answer: (Option 1).

86)

Atoms different from carbon present in ring are called as Heteroatoms. & compound is said to
Heterocyclic.
→ Here in the given structure

Number of Heteroatoms & Lone pair are therefore 3 & 6 respectively.

87) Question Explanation :-

The question asks in which compound all 'c' atoms are in sp2 hybridization.

Concept :-
Hybridization :- Intermixing of orbitals.
Hybridization can be determined by following.

Formula :- n = no. of δ bond + ℓp

if n = 4 means sp3, n = 3 means sp2 n = 2 means sp hybridization take place.

Answer Explanation :-

(1) CH3–CH2–CH3
sp3 sp3 sp3

(2) O
||
H2C=CH–C–H
sp2 sp2 sp2

(3) CH3 – CH2 ≡ N

sp3 sp3 sp

(4) sp2

sp2 sp2 sp3

Therefore option (2) compound have all 'c' atom in sp2 hybridization state.

Final Answer : Option (2)

88)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

Number of 2º (secondary) carbon in given structure

Key Concept:
Carbon atom attached to two carbon is called as 2º/secondary carbon.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

∴ Number of 2º carbon are :- 8

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

90)
Breadt's rule - Bridge head atom can not be sp2 hybridized untill ring become 8-membered.
BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT XII, Pg # 51

92)

NCERT XII, Pg # 50

93)

NCERT Pg. 50

95)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 33

97)

Question Explanation: 'Antrum' is cavity present in ?

Concept : Gametofenens

Solution : The secondary follicle soon transforms into a terbiary tollicle which is
characeterised by a fluid filled cavity called Antrum.

Final Answer : option (4). Tertiary follicle

101)

NCERT - XII Pg. No 33

103)

NCERT Pg # 49

105) Spermiation is the specific term for the process where mature sperm cells are released
from the Sertoli cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules. This is the final step in the
process of spermatogenesis.

The correct answer is 1. spermiation.

106) NCERT-XII Pg. # 31

 107) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 34, para–2.4(E),
Pg. # 37, para–2.4(H)

108) NCERT XII Pg. # 50-51

109) NCERT–XII, Ist line, Pg. # 51

110) NCERT Pg. No. 34

111)

Follicular phase (A): This phase typeically lasts from day 1 to day 13, where the graafian
follicle develops. So A should match with d (5th - 13th day) and ii (Development of graafian
follicle)
Luteal phase (B) : This phase occurs after ovulation, from day 15 to day 28, and involves the
formation of the corpus luteum. So, B should match with c (15th - 28th day) and i (formation of
corpus luterum)
Menstruation phase (C) : This phase involves the shedding of the endometrium, typically
occurring from day 1 to day 4. So, C so, C should match with b (1 st - 4 th day) and iii
(shedding of endometrium)
ovulatory phase (D) : This phase is when the secondary oocyte is released, typically on the
14th day of the cycle. So, D dhould match with a (14th day) and iv (release of secondary
oocyte.)
So, the correct answer is option 3

112) NCERT Pg. # 54, Para- 3.6

113) NCERT Pg. # 50

116)

NCERT XII Page # 32,33

117)

NCERT (XIIth) (Eng), Fig.-3.9, Pg. # 50

NCERT (XIIth) (Hindi), Fig.-3.9, Pg. # 54

120)

The correct labeling is:

A: Head B: Acrosome C: Nucleus D: Neck E: Mitochondria.

This corresponds to Option 2.

 124)

The correct answer is 3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

A. Assertion (A): Ovaries are the primary sex organs of female.

A. This is true. Ovaries are indeed the primary sex organs in females.
B. Reason (R): Ovaries produce gametes and no hormones.
A. This is false. While ovaries do produce gametes (eggs), they also produce hormones like
estrogen and progesterone. These hormones play crucial roles in the female
reproductive system, including regulating the menstrual cycle and preparing the body
for pregnancy.

125)

The correct option is 3 LH, 14th day

Luteinizing hormone (LH) is responsible for triggering ovulation, which typically oocurs
around the 14th day of the menstrual cycle.

129) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 48, 49

132) Energy Source: The middle piece is packed with mitochondria, which are the organelles
responsible for producing energy (ATP) through cellular respiration. This energy is essential
for the sperm to swim and reach the egg.

The correct answer is 3. Middle piece.

133) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 34, 35

134) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 51, para 1

135) NCERT (XII) Page # 49, Para 2

136) NCERT 12th Class (Chapter-2) Page No. 21

137) NCERT 12th Class (Chapter-2) Page No. 29

138) NCERT 12th Class : 2.4.1 Endosperm

139) NCERT 12th Class : 2.2.3 Pollination

140) NCERT 12th Class : 2.2.2 The Pistil, Megasporangium (ovule) and Embryo sac

141) NCERT 12th Class (Chapter-2) Page No. 23 : Part : 2.2.1 Stamen, Microsporangium and
Pollen Grain : Diagram : When a spindle is positioned asymmetrically in a dividing cell, the
resulting daughter cells are unequal in size

142)

NCERT Page no. 22

143)

NCERT Page no. 20

144)

NCERT Page no. 19

145)

NCERT Page no. 19

146)

NCERT Page no. 6, 9