Pharmaceutics

Q. 1. Conversion of new chemical entity NCE to proper dosage form is

a) Pharmacy b) Pharmacognosy c) Pharmaceutics d) Physiology
Q. 2. Pharmacist holds five years degree from Pakistan Pharmacy Council recognized Institute/
University
a) B – Pharm/ Pharm – D b) Pharmacy Technician c) Pharmacy Assist
Q. 3. Provincial council enter the name of pharmacist having five year degree in
a) Register – B b) Register – A c) Register – C d) BP
Q. 4. The person holds two years diploma in pharmacy is known as
a) Pharmacist b) Pharmacy Technician c) Dispenser d) Doctor
Q. 5. The provincial council enters the name of Pharmacy Technician in
a) Register – A b) Register – B c) Register – C d) BP
Q. 6. According to 1967 “Pharmacist” means a person who is registered under section 24 in
a) Register – A b) Register – B c) Register – C d) a&b
Q. 7. Pharmacy technician perform pharmacy related function under supervision of
a) Pharmacist b) Dispenser c) Doctor d) b & c
Q. 8. Pharmacy technician work in a variety of fields like
a) Community Pharmacy b) Hospital Pharmacy c) Pharma Mfg d) NGO e) All
Q. 9. A profession dedicated for the appropriate use of medication devices and services to achieve
optimal therapeutic outcome is known as
a) Pharmaceutics b) Pharmacy c) Physiology d) Pharmacognosy
Q. 10. The fundamental backbone of pharmacy is
a) Hospital Pharmacy b) Community Pharmacy c) Industrial Pharmacy
Q. 11. The department where raw material & finished products are stored
a) Production b) Q.C. c) Ware House d) Syrup Section
Q. 12. The section where the quality of raw & finished products checked
a) Ware House b) Q.C. c) Production d) Tablet Section
Q. 13. The section where medicine is formulated and manufactured is
a) QC b) Production c) Ware House d) Administration
Q. 14. The section where medicine is discovered, develops & synthesized or improved is
a) Production b) R&D c) Ware House d) QC
Q. 15. The type of pharmacy where medicine is taken from distributor or wholesaler and provided
to general public on fixed profit ratio
a) Hospital Pharmacy b) Retail Pharmacy c) whole sale Pharmacy d) Forensic Pharmacy
Q. 16. The type of pharmacy where medicine is taken from distributor or manufacturer and
provided to medical store on fixed profit
a) Retail Pharmacy b) whole sale Pharmacy c) Hospital Pharmacy d) Forensic Pharmacy
Q. 17. Branch of pharmacy which deals with the study of drugs/ medicine with respect to specific
disease is known as
a) Hospital Pharmacy b) Forensic Pharmacy c) Clinical Pharmacy d) Retail Pharmacy
Q. 18. The pharmacy that deals with the study of drug / medicine law is known as
a) Industrial Pharmacy b) Clinical Pharmacy c) Forensic Pharmacy

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Q. 19. The drugs which do not required prescription for sale are
a) OTC b) POM c) Placebo d) a & b
Q. 20. The drugs barbiturates are
a) OTC b) POM c) Dangerous d) Seductive
Q. 21. Reserpine Obtained from plant
a) Rauwolfia b) Digitalis c) Cinnamon d) Ginger
Q. 22. Digoxin is obtained from plant
a) Rauwolfia b) Digitalis c) Cinnamon d) Fennel
Q. 23. Thyroxin is obtained from
a) Plant Source b) Mineral Source c) Animal Source
Q. 24. Insuline are obtained from
a) Animal Source b) Plant Source c) Microbes d) A & C
Q. 25. Sex hormones are obtained from
a) Animal Source b) Plant Source c) Microbial Source
Q. 26. Amoxicillin is obtained from
a) Animal Source b) Synthetic Source c) Semi – Synthetic Source
Q. 27. Ciprofloxacin is obtained from
a) Synthetic Source b) Semi – Synthetic Source c) Animal Source
Q. 28. Paracetamol is
a) Brand Name b) Generic Name c) Nick Name d) Chemical Name
Q. 29. Acetyl Salicylic Acid is
a) Generic Name b) Brand Name c) Chemical Name
Q. 30. The force of attraction between the molecules of the same substance is known as
a) Adhesive Force b) Cohesive Force c) Gravity Force
Q. 31. Force of attraction between a liquid and a solid surface is known as
a) Cohesive Force b) Adhesive Force c) Weight d) Specific Gravity
Q. 32. The force action over the surface of the liquid per unit length of the surface is known as
a) Cohesive Force b) Surface Tension c) Adhesive Force d) Density
Q. 33. The unit of surface tension is
a) Newton per meter (N/m2) b) Kg c) Centigrade d) mg
Q. 34. Surface tension increase with ___________ in inter molecular forces
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Independent
Q. 35. Surface tension decrease with
a) Increase in temperature b) Decrease in temperature c) do not depend on temperature
Q. 36. Emulsifying agent work by
a) Decreasing the Surface tension b) Increasing the Surface tension c) Both
Q. 37. Digestion of lipids in duodenum is done by reducing the surface tension by
a) HCl b) Bile Salt c) Histamine
Q. 38. The internal resistance of the molecules of any liquid to flow is called
a) Surface Tension b) Viscosity c) Solubility d) All
Q. 39. The viscosity is measured with the help of
a) Visco Meter b) Thermometer c) Rheometer d) a & c
Q. 40. Following factors affecting viscosity
a) Temperature b) Size of molecule c) Shape of molecule d) adhesive & cohesive forces e) All

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Q:41 Atom is derived from
a) Greek word b) English word c) Latin word
Q:42 Atom means
a) Dividable b) Un- dividable c) Breakable
Q:43 Cations are the ions with
a) Net positive charge b) Net negative charge c) Neutral
Q:44 Anions are the ions with
a) Net Positive charge b) Net Negative charge c) Neutral
Q:45 The theory of ionization given by
a) Abu Ali Sina b) J.J Thomson c) Newton d) Al-Bironi
Q:46 The absorption, distribution and elimination of drug depends on its
a) Viscosity b) Temperature c) Ionization d) Solubility
Q:47 The negative (-log) of hydrogen ion concentration is
a) Temperature b) Viscosity c) pH d) Ionization
Q:48 The hydrogen ion concentration is expressed in
a) Kg b) Newton c) moles per letter d) mg
Q:49 If the pH range from 1 – 6.9, then compound is called
a) Basic b) Acidic c) Neutral d) Cation
Q:50 If the pH range from 7.1 – 14 then compound is called
a) Acidic b) Basic c) Neutral d) Anion
Q:51 If the pH of a compound is 7, then it is
a) Acidic b) Basic c) Neutral d) Cathode
Q:52 pH of water (H2O) is
a) 5 b) 7 c) 8.5 d) 13
Q:53 pH of a solution is measured by
a) pH meter b) pH paper c) pH indicator d) All
Q:54 The organic substance which have tendency to change its color with the change of pH of the solution
is called
a) pH paper b) pH indicator c) Acid d) Base
Q:55 Methyl orange is an example of
a) Redox indicator b) Acid base indicator c) Precipitation indicator
Q:56 Following is example of Redox indicator
a) Phenolphthalein b) KMnO4 c) Methyl orange d) K2CrO4
Q:57 Blood has specific pH of
a) 7 – 8 b) 6.4 – 7.4 c) 7.3 – 7.4 d) 9 – 8
Q:58 Mixture of compound that resist to changing pH of any solution on slight addition of acidic or basic
solution is called
a) Acid b) Buffer c) Base d) PH indicator
Q:59 HCl - Sodium citrate buffer mixture has pH range from
a) 1 – 5 b) 9.2 – 11 c) 2.5 – 5.6 d) 1 – 14
Q:60 Sodium hydroxide and borax buffer has pH range
a) 9.2 – 11 b) 1 – 14 c) 2.5 – 5.6 d) 1 – 5
Q:61 Citric acid and sodium citrate buffer has pH range
a) 1 – 5 b) 9.2 – 11 c) 2.5 – 5.6 d) 1 – 14

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Q:62 Solution have Osmotic pressure equal to that of 0.9% NaCl solution is called
a) Hypertonic solution b) Hypotonic solution c) Isotonic solution d) Emulsion
Q:63 Isotonic solution have osmotic pressure equal to osmotic pressure of
a) 0.9%NaCl b) 1.9%NaCl c) 0.9%NaOH d) 0.9% KmnO4
Q:64 Solution with the lower osmotic pressure than body fluid is called
a) Hypertonic solution b) Hypotonic solution c) Isotonic solution d) Suspension
Q:65 Solution with greater Osmotic pressure than 0.9% NaCl solution is called
a) Hypotonic solution b) Hypertonic solution c) Isotonic solution d) Surface tension
Q:66 Hypotonic solution added to body will cause
a) Heamolysis b) Shrinkage c) Swelling d) Redness
Q:67 Hypertonic solution added to the body will cause
a) Shrinkage b) Heamolysis c) Swelling d) Redness
Q:68 The homogenous liquid preparation that contain one or more chemical substance dissolved in
suitable solvent called
a) Emulsion b) Solution c) Suspension d) isotonic solution
Q:69 The adhesion of a gas, vapor, liquid or dissolved substance on the surface of a solid is called
a) Absorption b) Adsorption c) Solution d) Suspension
Q:70 The process in which a inorganic substance is heated strongly, they will loose their volatile or water
component is called
a) Adsorption b) Absorption c) Calcination d) Centrifugation
Q:71 The process by which solids are separated from liquid with the help of centrifugal force is called
a) Calcination b) Centrifugation c) Adsorption d) Solubility
Q:72 The process used to convert liquid into solid by using evaporation, cooling or precipitation is known
as
a) Centrifugation b) Crystallization c) Calcination d) Decantation
Q:73 The process used to separate impurities (solid) from the liquid portion of the solution is called
a) Calcination b) Evaporation c) Decantation d) Crystallization
Q:74 The process of separating of two immiscible liquid is called
a) Decantation b) Calcination c) Evaporation d) Absorption
Q:75 The process by which a substance absorb moisture from atmosphere and dissolve in the absorbed
water and form a solution
a) Calcination b) Deliquescence c) Evaporation d) Decantation
Q:76 Example of Deliquescence materials are
a) Magnesium chloride b) Zinc chloride c) Silica gel d) a&b
Q:77 The material that absorb water from air but not form a solution is called
a) Deliquesce cent b) Hygroscopic c) Solute d) Solvent
Q:78 Example of Hygroscopic substance are
a) Silica gel b) NaCl c) Magnesium chloride d) a&b
Q:79 The process used to remove water from a substance without using heat is
a) Calcination b) Decantation c) Desiccation process d) Drying
Q:80 The instrument used in desiccation process is called
a) Thermometer b) Desiccator c) Beaker d) Weighing balance
Q:81 The Distillation of a temperature sensitive compound is done by
a) Vacuum distillation b) Steam distillation c) Fractional distillation

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Q:82 The components of mixture with different boiling points are separated by
a) Simple distillation b) Fractional distillation c) Vacuum distillation
Q:83 The component with high boiling point a separated by
a) Steam distillation b) Fractional distillation c) Vacuum distillation d) Simple dist.
Q:84 A spontaneous loss of water by a compound is called
a) Evaporation b) Crystallization c) Efflorescence d) Surface tension
Q:85 The process of separating particles on the basis of their size, shape or density by using liquid or gas is
called
a) Sedimentation b) Separation c) Elutriation d) Decantation
Q:86 Conversion of substance from the liquid phase into the gaseous phase is called
a) Distillation b) Vaporization c) Sublimation d) Heating
Q:87 Vaporization of a liquid on the surface of liquid is called
a) Boiling b) Evaporation c) Sublimation d) Distillation
Q:88 Vaporization of a liquid below the boiling point is called
a) Boiling b) Evaporation c) Calcinations d) Sublimation
Q:89 The removal of a crystalline water from crystalline salt is called
a) Exsiccation b) Evaporation c) Sublimation d) Dessication
Q:90 The process of heating a solid until it melt’s is called
a) Heating b) Fusion c) Evaporation d) Melting
Q:91 The process in which a chemical substance is strongly heated organic part burns and inorganic
residue left as ash is called
a) Fusion b) Heating c) Ignition d) Melting
Q:92 The removal of water from product by freezing is called
a) Sublimation b) Evaporation c) Lyophilization d) Drying
Q:93 The process of changing solid directly into gas (vapor) without passing through intermediate liquid
phase is called
a) Evaporation b) Lyophilization c) Sublimation d) Melting
Q:94 The process to reduce particles with the help of pestle & mortar is called
a) Grinding b) Trituration c) Blending d) Mixing’
Q:95 Pharmacy derived from language
a) Latin b) Greek c) English d) Arabic
Q:96 Pharmacy is derived from Greek word
a) Phrmacognocy b) Pharmakon c) Pharmacology
Q:97 Pharmakon means
a) Health b) Snake c) Drug d) Knowledge
Q:98 Al-Kindi, Muslim Scientist was born in
a) Iraq b) Egypt c) Suadi Arabia d) Germany
Q:99 The first scientist who uses music for the treatment psychological problem is
a) Al- Beroni b) Al- Kindi c) Newton d) Micheal jakson
Q:100 Scientist who describe the isolation process of alcohol to pure wine is
a) Ibn-Zuhr b) Abul-Kalam c) Al Kindi d) Newton
Q:101 The scientist who describe how to make perfumes & cosmetic
a) Al kindi b) Bu-Ali Sena c) Ronaldo d) Ibn-Zuhr

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Q:102 The scientist who invented laboratory equipments is
a) Jaber Bin Hayyan b) Abu Ali sina c) Ibn-zuhr d) Ab-Biruni
Q:103 The scientist who describe the purification process of gold
a) Jaber Bin Hayyan b) Abu Ali sina c) Ibn-zuhr
Q:104 USP is example of
a) Official Book b) non- official Book c) pharmacology Book d) Yellow book
Q:105 Remington is a example of
a) Official Book b) non- official Book c) Pharmacognosy Book
Q:106 The official publication containing a list of medicinal drugs with their effect of direction for
their use is
a) Pharmacopoeia b) Good Book c) Yellow Book d) Formulary
Q:107 The fundamental responsibility of BP is on
a) General Medical Council (GMC) b) Royal pharmaceutical society c) WHO
Q:108 The responsibility of BP is given to GMC on
a) 1858 b) 1947 c) 1958 d) 1800 BC
Q:109 The book which is used as a text book for registration exam in UK & UAE is
a) BP b) BNF c) BPC d) NF
Q:110 The following book contains complete monographs of drugs is
a) BP b) BPC c) USP d) BNF
Q:111 The book which contain quality control & quality assurance test of dosage form is
a) BNF b) USP c) BP d) BPC
Q:112 The book which contain clinical & pharmacological aspects of drugs & medicine is
a) BP b) NF c) USP d) BNF
Q:113 The book which explain details note on prescription is
a) NF b) USP c) BP d) BNF
Q:114 The book which is specially made for medical practitioners and dispensing pharmacists is
a) BP b) USP c) BPC d) BNF
Q:115 The book which explain dispensing methods & techniques is
a) BP b) USP c) BNF d) BPC
Q:116 IP stand’s for
a) British Pharmacopoeia b) International Pharmacopoeia c) National Formulary
Q:117 The international pharmacopoeia is written , published and compiled by
a) GMC b) USP c) WHO d) UNF
Q:118 USP firstly written , compiled and published under the supervision of
a) WHO b) United State pharmaceutical convention c) GMC
Q:119 The book which can be used to determine the strength, quality, quantity, purity and labeling
of drugs is
a) UNF b) BP c) USP d) BPC
Q:120 UNF first published in year
a) 1947 b) 1888 c) 1858 d) 1857
Q:121 USP-NF was first published in year
a) 1888 b) 1858 c) 1980 d) 1857
Q:122 The rights of UNF were given to united state pharmaceutical convention in year
a) 1888 b) 1858 c) 1974 d) 1980
Q:123 The book contain detail knowledge regarding drug and their action on human (pharmacology)
a) Remington b) Katzung c) Tutorial pharmacy d) BP
Q:124 The book contain detail knowledge regarding physical pharmacy
a) Remington b) Katzung c) BP d) Tutorial pharmacy
Q:125 The branch of pharmacy that deal with conversion of new chemical Entity (NCE) to proper
dosage form is called________________?
a) Physical pharmacy b) Pharmacy c) Pharmaceutics d) Pharmacognosy

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Q:126 Any product which is ready for used to patient is called
a) Dose b) Drug c) Dosage form d) Tablet
Q:127 Any pharmaceutical product which has defined shape and amount of ______ is called
dosage form
a) Excipients b) API c) drug d) sugar
Q:128 The substance which don’t have pharmacological action are called
a) API b) Excipients c) drug d) Coating
Q:129 A substance in which the ingredients of formulation are dissolved, suspended or dispersed is
called
a) Excipients b) API c) Vehicle d) Carrier
Q:130 The example of vehicles are
a) Water b) Glycerin c) Propylene glycol d) All of them
Q:131 When semi-solid or solid is used as vehicle it is known as
a) Vehicle b) Base c) Solvent d) Solute
Q:132 Commonly used cream & ointment bases are
a) Soft paraffin b) liquid paraffin c) wool fat d) All of them
Q:133 The inert substance which is added in formulation to increase the bulk of drug formulation is
called
a) API b) Vehicle c) Diluent d) Binder
Q:134 The commonly used diluent in solid dosage forms is
a) Starch b) lactose c) Gelatin d) a & b
Q:135 The substance used to cause binding of powders in tablets is called
a) Diluent b) Binder c) Glident d) Lubricant
Q:136 Common example of binder use in pharmaceutical industry
a) Acacia b) Methyl cellulose c) Gelatin d) All of them
Q:137 The ingredient cause breakdown of tablet after administration is called
a) Binder b) Disintigrant c) Lubricant d) Diluent
Q:138 Example of disintegrating agent is
a) Gelatin b) Lactose c) Microcrystalline cellulose d) Talc
Q:139 The ingredient which improve flow of powder from hopper to dies & punches is called
a) Lubricant b) Binder c) Diluent d) Coating agent
Q:140 The ingredient which prevent sticking of powder to dies & punches is called
a) Binder b) Lubricant c) Diluent d) surfactant
Q:141 The example of Lubricant is
a) Magnesium stearate b) Talc c) Gelatin d) a & b
Q:142 The ingredient added in formulation to improve flow properties of powder is
a) Binder b) Lubricant c) Glident d) b & c
Q:143 The substance which lower’s or reduce the surface tension between two immiscible liquid is
called
a) Binder b) Lubricant c) Surfactant d) Diluent
Q:144 Viscosity increasing agents used to reduce sedimentation rate of particles in a vehicle are
known as
a) Suspending agents b) Surfactants c) Binders d) Lubricant
Q:145 Acacia, Taragacanth, Gelatin are example of _______________ suspending agents
a) Semi-synthetic b) Natural c) Synthetic d) Neutral
Q:146 Hydroxy propyl Methyl Cellulose (HPMC) is an example of ______ suspending agent.
a) Natural b) Synthetic c) Semi Synthetic d) Neutral
Q:147 Example of synthetic suspending agents is
a) Gum tragacanth b) carbopols c) HPMC d) Gelatin
Q:148 The capability of formulation in a container to remain within the specification is called
a) Efficacy b) Stability c) Solubility d) Energy

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Q:149 Example of Anti-Oxidant stabilizer is
a) HPMC b) Carbopol c) Ascorbic acid d) Gelatin
Q:150 Example of chelating agent is
a) Methyl cellulose b) Disodium Edetate c) corbopol d) Ascorbic acid
Q:151 The substance which prevent the growth of microorganism in formulation is called
a) Stabilizer b) Suspending agent c) Preservative d) Diluent
Q:152 Syrup, Elixirs, Lotion, Spray & Aerosols are example of ________ dosage form
a) Solid b) Semi-solid c) Liquid d) Air
Q:153 Ointment, creams, paste & gels are example of ______ dosage form
a) Semi-solid b) solid c) Liquid d) b & c
Q:154 The volume that can be injected through intra dermal route is
a) 1ml b) 0.1 - 0.2ml c) 1ml – 500ml d) 1 litter
Q:155 The volume that can be injected through intravenous route is
a) 2ml b) 500ml or more c) 0.1 – 0.2 ml d) less than 1ml
Q:156 Liquid containing one or more ingredients dissolved in a suitable solvent is called
a) Solute b) Solvent c) Solution d) Mixture
Q:157 The amount of substance that dissolved in solution at constant temperature to form a
saturated solution is called
a) Solvent b) Solute c) Solubility d) Solution
Q:158 The no of parts of solvent required to dissolve one part of solute is called
a) Solvent b) Solubility c) Stability d) Solution
Q:159 Number of parts of solvent require to dissolve 1 part of very soluble solute is
a) <1 b) >1 c) 1 – 10 d) 30 – 100
Q:160 If 30 – 100 parts of solvent are required to dissolve 1 part of solute then solute will be
a) Very soluble b) Soluble c) Sparingly soluble d) insoluble
Q:161 Number of parts of solvent required for very slightly soluble solute is
a) 30 – 100 b) 100 – 1000 c) 1000 – 10000 d) 1 – 10
Q:162 Number of parts of solvent required for insoluble solute
a) 100 – 1000 b) 1000 – 10000 c) 1 – 10 d) >10000
Q:163 The drugs (antibiotics) which have insufficient stability in aqueous solution are presented in
following dosage form _________
a) Tablet b) Dry powder for solution c) Syrup’s d) Creams
Q:164 According to BP the simple syrup contain ______ sugar
a) 67.7% w/w b) 66.7% w/w c) 66.7% w/v d) 85% w/v
Q:165 At amount of sugar ___________the syrup is self persevered
a) 65% w/w b) 60% w/w c) 50% d) 35%
Q:166 Commonly used preservative in syrup’s are
a) Benzoic acid b) Sod. Benzoate c) Methyl & propyl parabens d) All
Q:167 The preservative are added to formulation with effective concentration
a) 0.1 – 0.2% b) 1 – 2% c) 4 – 5% d) 50%
Q:168 A clear, sweetened hydro alcoholic solution intended for oral used is called
a) Syrup b) Suspension c) Elixir d) Emulsion
Q:169 The Elixir’s containing more than __________ of alcohol are usually self persevered
a) 5 – 10% b) 30 – 35% c) 10 – 12% d) 65%
Q:170 In pediatric elixir alcohol content’s are upto___________
a) 30% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%
Q:171 The alcoholic or hydro-alcoholic solution of non-volatile drug of natural or chemical origin is
called
a) Syrup b) Emulsion c) Tincture d) Elixir
Q:172 Belladona tincture is an example of
a) Oral tincture b) Topical tincture c) Elixir d) a & b

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Q:173 Iodine tincture is an example of
a) Oral tincture b) Elixir c) Topical tincture d) b & c
Q:174 The preparation contains finally divided drug particles dispersed throughout the vehicle with
the help of suspending agent
a) Emulsion b) syrup c) Suspension d) Elixir
Q:175 The particles size of dispersed phase in suspension is
a) 0.5 – 5 micron b) 0.5 – 10 micron c) 10 – 15 micron
Q:176 Emulsion are the biphasic liquid dosage form of medicament of two immiscible liquid are
made miscible by the addition of third substance known as
a) Suspending agent b) Diluent c) Emulsifying agents d) Binder
Q:177 In oil in water emulsion (o/w) the oil is
a) Dispersion medium b) Dispersed phase c) Emulsifying agent
Q:178 In water in oil emulsion (w/o) the water is
a) Internal phase b) External phase c) Dispersion medium
Q:179 Cream dosage form is an example of
a) Suspension b) Emulsion c) Gel d) Syrup
Q:180 Cold cream dosage is an example of
a) w/o emulsion b) o/w emulsion c) o/o emulsion d) suspension
Q:181 Vanishing cream is an example of
a) o/w emulsion b) w/o emulsion c) w/w emulsion
Q:182 The substance reduce the interfacial tension b/w two immiscible liquid is called
a) Suspending agent b) Emulsifying agent c) Lubricant d) Binder
Q:183 Dry Gum method of emulsion preparation is also known as
a) English method b) Conventional method c) continental method
Q:184 The ratio of oil, water & gum in dry gum method is
a) 4:4:1 b) 4:2:1 c) 4:2:2 d) 4:4:4
Q:185 Wet gum method of emulsion preparation is also known as
a) Continental method b) English method c) conventional method
Q:186 The ratio of oil, water & gum in bottle method is
a) 4:2:1 b) 4:4:2 c) 4:1:1 d) 2:2:1
Q:187 The bottle method is also known as
a) Continental method b) Forbes method c) English method
Q:188 When the disperse or internal phase fuse to form large globules is called
a) Creaming b) Cracking c) Coalescence d) Flocculation
Q:189 The formulation of thick layer of disperse phase at the surface of the emulsion is called
a) Cracking b) Coalescence c) Creaming d) flocculation
Q:190 The separation of internal phase from external phase in emulsion is called
a) Cracking b) Creaming c) Breaking d) a & c
Q:191 The particles of dispersed phase come in contact with each other and form loose aggregate is
called
a) Creaming b) Cracking c) Flocculation d) Coalescence
Q:192 The aqueous preparation intended for external use to skin without rubbing is called
a) Lotion b) Liniment c) Cream d) Suspension
Q:193 The alcoholic preparation intended for external use with rubbing or friction is called
a) Cream b) lotion c) liniment d) ointment
Q:194 The dosage form which upon actuation emit fine dispersion of active ingredient in form of
mist is called
a) Spray b) Aerosol c) Syrup d) cream
Q:195 The gas used in aerosol is known as
a) Oxygen b) Suspending agent c) Propellant d) CO2

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Q:196 The common propellants used in aerosol in past were
a) CO2 b) CFC c) Oxygen d) Hydrogen
Q:197 CFC propellant’s are now replaced with
a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) HFA d) CO2
Q:198 The drug or solution of drugs administration by the nasal or oral respiratory
Route is called
a) Parenterals b) Inhalation c) Cream d) Solutions
Q:199 Widely used instrument capable of production fine particles for inhalation is
a) Weighing b) Nebulizer c) Spray bottle d) None
Q:200 The device that delivers a specific amount of drug to lung’s
a) Nebulizer b) Meter dose inhaler (MDI) c) DPI
Q:201 The device that deliver medication to the lung’s in form of dry powder is called
a) Nebulizer b) MDI c) DPI d) None of them
Q:202 The injectable must be
a) Microbe free b) Pirogen free c) Particle free d) All of them
Q:203 The injectable must be ________ with body fluids
a) Soluble b) Isotonic c) Hypertonic d) Hypotonic
Q:204 The route is preferred when drug is not absorbed or inactivated by GIT
a) Topical b) Parenteral c) Inhalation d) Rectal
Q:205 When patient is non-cooperative or unconscious then preferred route is
a) Inhalation b) Oral c) Parenteral d) rectal
Q:206 Depending upon situation the max volume can be introduced to body through parenteral
route
a) 1ml – 4 liters b) 1ml – 20 liters c) 1ml – 5 liters
Q:207 The example of oily vehicle in parenteral route
a) Cotton seed oil b) Peanut oil c) Sesame oil d) All of them
Q:208 The following agent is strictly prohibited in injectable
a) Buffers b) Suspending agents c) Coloring agents d) Stabilizer
Q:209 The example of bulk powder intended for internal use is
a) Antacids b) Dusting powder c) Cooling powder d) Talcum powder
Q:210 The example of divided powder intended for internal use is
a) Antacids b) Dusting powder c) ORS d) Talcum powder
Q:211 The effervescent granules when added to water produce
a) O2 b) CO2 c) Nitrogen d) Hydrogen
Q:212 The enteric coated tablet intended to disintegrate in
a) Stomach b) Mouth c) Esophagus d) Intestine
Q:213 The enteric coated tablets intended to disintegrate in ______ medium
a) Acidic b) Alkaline c) Neutral d) All of them
Q:214 The tablets intended to placed below the tongue or in the side of cheek are called
a) Effervescent b) Sublingual / buccal c) Sugar coated d) Chewed
Q:215 The example of effervescent tablet is
a) CaC1000 b) Disprin c) Strepsils d) a & b
Q:216 The tablet which after administration have prolong duration of action
a) Effervescent b) Buccal tablet c) Sustained released d) Enteric
Q:217 The inert or pharmacologically inactive substance used in tablet formulation are called
a) API b) Buffering agents c) Excipients d) Surfactant
Q:218 The coating of tablet is done to
a) Mask the taste b) Give elegance c) for prolong action d) All of them
Q:219 The following material is used for sealing / water proofing in sugar coating
a) Gelatin b) Shellac c) Sugar d) Cellulose

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Q:220 The following material is used for sub coating in sugar coating
a) Shellac b) Sugar c) Gelatin d) Dusting powder
Q:221 The following material is used for polishing in sugar coating
a) Shellac b) Carnauba wax c) Gelatin d) Dusting powder
Q:222 Following material are used for film coating of tablet
a) Shellac b) polyellylene glycol / carbowax c) Gelatin
Q:223 Hydroxypropyl methyl cellulose phthalate is used in
a) Sugar coating b) Film coating c) Enteric coating d) a & b
Q:224 The capsule shell made up of
a) Gelatin b) Sugar c) Plastic d) a & b
Q:225 In soft gelatin capsule shell in addition to gelatin following material is added to make it
elastic
a) Glycerin b) HPMC c) Cellulose d) b & c
Q:226 Soft gelatin capsule are intended to fill
a) Solids b) Liquids c) Semisolid d) b & c
Q:227 The powder material that absorb moisture from atmosphere is called
a) Isotonic b) Hypertonic c) Hygroscopic d) Lyophilic
Q:228 The solid dosage form of medicament intended for insertion into body cavity other than
mouth called
a) Powder b) Tablet c) Suppository d) Aerosol
Q:229 The vaginal suppositories are also known as
a) Pessaries b) Bougies c) Tablet d) None
Q:230 The urethral suppositories are also known as
a) Bougies b) Pessaries c) Tablets d) All of them
Q:231 The melting point of Cocoa butter base is
a) 30 – 35oc b) 50 –55oc c) 20 – 25oc d) 100oc
Q:232 The Cocoa butter base is used in following suppositories
a) Vaginal b) pessaries c) Rectal d) Bougies
Q:233 The best base used in vaginal suppository is
a) Glycrogelatin base b) Cocoa butter c) HPMC d) All
Q:234 The semi-solid preparation intended for application on skin with high concentration of
insoluble powdered substance is called
a) Cream b) Ointment c) Paste d) All
Q:235 The capacity of capsule size “00” is
a) 500mg b) 600mg c) 300mg d) 250mg
Q:236 200mg of Aspirin can be filled in capsule size
a) 000 b) 1 c) 5 d) 3
Q:237 The process of removal of one or more doses from bulk drug container and placing them
into another container for used is called
a) Compounding b) Dispensing c) Transforming d) Filling
Q:238 The preparation, mixing, labeling and packaging of a drug in response to prescription
according to need of a patient is called
a) Dispersing b) Compounding c) Filling d) Prescription
Q:239 The measure of gravitational force acting on body is expressed as
a) Density b) Volume c) Weight d) Speed
Q:240 The standard unit used to express the size, amount or degree of something is called
a) Weight b) Destiny c) Measure d) Kg
Q:241 The system of measurement originally developed in England is
a) The metric system b) Imperial system c) Sound system d) English system
Q:242 The unit of weight in imperial system is
a) Kg b) acres c) Pound d) Inches

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Q:243 The unit of weight in metric system is
a) Gram b) Liter c) Mililiter d) Pound
Q:244 1 Kg is equal to
a) 100mg b) 1000mg c) 1000g d) 1000mcg
Q:245 1 liter contain
a) 100ml b) 0.1ml c) 1000ml d) 10ml
Q:246 1 milliliter contain
a) 100 microliter b) 100dl c) 20 drops d) 100ml
Q:247 1 Tea spoon of liquid is equal to
a) 3ml b) 4.5ml c) 5ml d) 5 liter
Q:248 The freezing point of water in centigrade scale is
a) 32o b) 0o c) 100o d) 212o
Q:249 The centigrade scale is also known as
a) Fahrenheit scale b) Temperature scale c) Celsius scale
Q:250 The boiling point of water in Fahrenheit scale is
a) 32o b) 0o c) 212o d) 100o
Q:251 The 32oF is equal to _________oc
a) 100oc b) 212oc c) 0oc d) 37oc
Q:252 The mass of substance per unit volume is called
a) Weight b) Volume c) Destiny d) Kg
Q:253 The unit of density is
a) Kg b) Liter c) kg/m3 d) m3
Q:254 The unit of mass of an object is
a) Liter b) ml c) Kg d) cm3
Q:255 The measures of space occupied by an object is called
a) Destiny b) Space c) Volume d) Mass
Q:256 The unit of volume in metric system is
a) Kg b) Kg/cm3 c) Liter d) Gram
Q: 257 One liter is equal to
a) Cm3 b) m3 c) Kg / cm3 d) 10cm3
Q:258 10% w/v solution of Nacl contain
a) 10g Nacl in every 100ml of water b) 10kg in every 100ml of water
Q:259 70% v/v solution of alcohol contain 70ml of alcohol and ______ ml water
a) 100ml b) 30ml c) 70ml d) 10ml
Q:260 For light sensitive product following glass is used
a) Pink colored b) Black colored c) Amber colored d) White colored
Q:261 The packaging which has direct contact with product is called
a) Primary packaging b) Tertiary packaging c) Secondary packaging
Q:262 The set of instruction written by a qualified practitioner to a pharmacist is known as
a) Bill b) Prescription c) Medicine d) Letter
Q:263 The superscription is represented by symbol
a) $ b) ℞ c) µm d) nm
Q:264 The meaning of symbol ℞ is
a) Give b) You take c) Swallow d) Drink
Q:265 The part of prescription contain name, strength & quantity of medicine is called
a) Superscription b) Subscription c) Inscription d) Signature
Q:266 The subscription part contain
a) Name of drug b) Address of patient c) Instruction to pharmacist
Q:267 The signature means
a) Signature of Doctor b) Instruction to pharmacist c) Instruction to patient

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Q:268 The abbreviation bid stands for
a) Once a day b) Thrice a day c) Twice a day d) Emergency
Q:269 The technique used by pharmacist within pharmacy to prepare medicine from ingredient
when no commercial brand is available in market is called
a) Compounding b) Dispersing c) Extemporaneous d) Synthesis
Q:270 The preparation and supply of sterile medical products , which require some dilution before
administration is called
a) Aseptic dispersing b) Compounding c) Mixing d) Dispersing
Q:271 The process that eliminates (remove) or kill all form of microbes such as bacteria, fungi &
spores called
a) Dispersing b) Sterilization c) Mixing d) Percolation
Q:272 The method of sterilization in which the product sterilized after filling and sealing Is called
a) Aseptic Sterilization b) Terminal Sterilization c) Filtration
Q:273 The process in which sterilization is done before filling and sealing is called
a) Terminal Sterilization b) Aseptic process c) Filtration d)Sterilization
Q:274 The parenteral nutrition that contain glucose, amino, acids, lipids and added vitamins &
mineral’s is called
a) TPN b) HPMC c) IV infusion d) Injectable
Q:275 The interaction b/w two or more substance which lead to change in chemical, physical,
therapeutic properties pharmaceutical dosage form
a) Incompatibility b) Interaction c) Adverse effect
Q: 276 The incompatibility due to combination of drugs having antagonist or opposing properties is
called
a) Therapeutic incompatibility b) chemical incompatibility c) physical incompatibility
Q:277 The interaction b/w two or more drugs in which one drug blocks or reverse the action of
other drug is called
a) Antagonism b) Agonist c) Synergism d) All of them
Q.278 The disease epilepsy was first described by.
(a). Bu-Ali Sina (b). Beroni (c). Al kindi (d). Ibn-Nfis
Q:279 IBN-Al-Nafis Was born in.
(a). Syria (b). Egypt (c). Lahore (d). Iraq
Q. 280: The Scientist who described Pulmonary, Capillary & Coronary Circulation is.
(a). Al-Kindi (b). Ibn-Al-Nafis (c). Newton (d). Al-Beroni
Q. 281: The scientist who described the detailed anatomy & Physiology of respiratory & GIT system.
(a). Al-Kindi (b). Ibn-Al-Nafis (c). Ibn-Zuhr (d). Guyton
Q. 282: The first person who writes about pulse rate is
(a). Al-Beroni (b). Al-Kindi (c). Chartis Darwon (d). Ibn-Al-Nafis
Q. 283: Ibn-Zuhr was born in.
(a). Spain (b). Egypt (c). Iraq (d). Syria
Q. 284: The scientist who is considered to be father of surgery.
(a). Al-Kindi (b). Ibn-Zuhr (c). Darwon (d). Newton
Q. 285: The scientist who described the used of anesthetics.
(a). Al-Kindi (b). Ibn-Zuhr (c). Newton (d). Chatis
Q. 286: The scientist who wrote first pharmacopoeia.
(a). IBN ZUHR (b). Al-Kindi (c). Newton (d). Darwon
Q. 287: Abu-Ali Sina was born in.
(a). Uzbekistan (b). Syria (c). Egypt (d). Iraq

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Q. 288: Book “The cannon of medicine” was wrote by.
(a). Newton (b). Abu-Ali Sina (c). Beroni (d). Jupitor
Q. 289: The scientist who first described process of diagnosis is.
(a). Al-Beroni (b). Abu-Ali Sina (c). Beroni (d). Darwon
Q. 290: The scientist who describe the different psychiatric diseases.
(a). Al-Beroni (b). Newton (c). Abu-Ali Sina (d). Beroni
Q. 291: The scientist who described steam distillation.
(a). Al-Beroni (b). Abu-Ali Sina (c). Darwon (d). Ibn-Zuhr
Q. 292: Al-Biruni was born in.
(a). Egypt (b). Syria (c). Khwarzim (d). Uzbekistan
Q. 293: The Scientist who work in progress of pharmacy field.
(a). Al-Beruni (b). Abu-Ali Sina (c). Darwon (d). Ibn-Zuhr
Q. 294: The book Al-Saddana fil tibb wired by.
(a). Ibn-Zuhr (b). Al-Beruni (c). Newton (d). Ibne-Nafis
Q. 295: Jabir-Bin Hayyan was born in.
(a). Egypt (b). Iraq (c). Iran (d). Syria
Q. 296: The Scientist who invented laboratory equipment is
(a). Jabir-Bin Hayyan (b). Abu-Ali Sina (c). Ibn-Zuhr (d). Al-Beruni
Q. 297: The Scientist who described the purification process of gold
(a). Jabir-Bin Hayyan (b). Abu-Ali Sina (c). Ibn-Zuhr
Q. 298: USP is example of.
(a). Official Book (b). Non Official Book (c). Pharmacology Book
Q. 299: Remington is example of.
(a). Official Book (b). Non Official Book (c). Pharmacology Book
Q. 300: The official publication contain a list of medicinal drugs with their effects & direction
for their use is.
(a). pharmacopoeia (b). Good Book (c). Yellow Book

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 Answer Key ( Pharmaceutics)

Q# Ans Q# Ans Q# Ans Q# Ans Q# Ans Q# Ans Q# Ans

1 c 46 c 91 c 136 d 181 a 226 d 271 b
2 a 47 c 92 c 137 b 182 b 227 c 272 b
3 b 48 c 93 c 138 c 183 c 228 c 273 b
4 b 49 b 94 b 139 a 184 b 229 a 274 a
5 b 50 b 95 b 140 b 185 b 230 a 275 a
6 d 51 c 96 b 141 d 186 b 231 a 276 a
7 a 52 b 97 c 142 c 187 b 232 c 277 a
8 e 53 d 98 a 143 c 188 c 233 a 278 c
9 b 54 b 99 b 144 a 189 c 234 c 279 a
10 c 55 b 100 c 145 b 190 c 235 b 280 b
11 c 56 b 101 a 146 c 191 c 236 d 281 b
12 b 57 c 102 a 147 b 192 a 237 b 282 a
13 b 58 b 103 a 148 b 193 c 238 b 283 a
14 b 59 a 104 a 149 c 194 b 239 c 284 b
15 b 60 a 105 b 150 d 195 c 240 c 285 b
16 b 61 c 106 a 151 c 196 b 241 b 286 a
17 c 62 c 107 a 152 c 197 c 242 c 287 a
18 c 63 a 108 a 153 a 198 b 243 a 288 b
19 a 64 b 109 b 154 b 199 b 244 c 289 b
20 b 65 b 110 a 155 b 200 b 245 c 290 c
21 a 66 a 111 c 156 c 201 c 246 c 291 b
22 b 67 a 112 d 157 b 202 d 247 c 292 c
23 c 68 b 113 d 158 b 203 b 248 b 293 a
24 d 69 b 114 c 159 a 204 b 249 c 294 b
25 a 70 c 115 d 160 c 205 x 250 c 295 c
26 c 71 b 116 b 161 c 206 a 251 c 296 a
27 a 72 b 117 c 162 d 207 d 252 a 297 a
28 b 73 c 118 b 163 d 208 c 253 c 298 a
29 c 74 a 119 c 164 d 209 a 254 c 299 b
30 b 75 b 120 b 165 a 210 c 255 c 300 a
31 b 76 d 121 c 166 a 211 b 256 c 301
32 b 77 b 122 c 167 a 212 d 257 d 302
33 a 78 d 123 b 168 c 213 b 258 a 303
34 a 79 c 124 d 169 c 214 b 259 b 304
35 a 80 b 125 c 170 b 215 d 260 c 305
36 a 81 b 126 c 171 c 216 c 261 a 306
37 b 82 b 127 b 172 a 217 c 262 b 307
38 b 83 c 128 b 173 c 218 d 263 b 308
39 d 84 c 129 c 174 c 219 b 264 b 309
40 e 85 c 130 d 175 a 220 c 265 c 310
41 a 86 b 131 b 176 c 221 b 266 c 311

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 42 b 87 b 132 d 177 b 222 b 267 c 312
43 a 88 b 133 c 178 a 223 c 268 c 313
44 b 89 a 134 d 179 b 224 d 269 a 314
45 b 90 b 135 b 180 a 225 a 270 a 315

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 Pharmacognosy
Q:1 The study of medicine derived from natural source is called
a) Pharmacy b) Pharmaceutics c) Pharmacognosy d) Pharmacology
Q:2 Pharmacognosy derived from language
a) Latin b) Greek c) English d) French
Q:3 The word “pharmakon” which means
a) Drug b) Health c) Knowledge d) Cure
Q:4 The word “Gnosis” which means
a) Cure b) Knowledge c) Health d) Drug
Q:5 The word pharmacognosy was first time used by Australian physician
a) Schmidt b) Sydler c) Newton d) Al-Beruni
Q:6 The word Pharmacognosy was first time used by Scientist in
a) 1940 b) 1811 c) 1911 d) 1947
Q:7 The naturally occurring unrefined substance obtained from organic or inorganic source for
cure & treatments is called
a) Drug b) Medicine c) Tablet d) Crude drug
Q:8 A vegetable or animal drug that consist of natural substance that have undergone only the
process of collection & drying
a) Drug b) Medicine c) Tablet d) Crude drug
Q:9 The drugs obtained from direct parts of plants and containing cellular tissue are called as
a) Organised drugs b) unorganised drug c) oxide drugs
Q:10 The book follow the morphological method
a) By Wallis b) B.P c) Trease & Evans d) Tyler
Q:11 Following is the example of Bark drug
a) Cinchona b) Belladona c) Nux vomica d) Ginger
Q:12 The book which follow taxonomical method
a) Wallis b) B.P c) Trease & Evans d) Lipnicott
Q:13 The drug which has expectorant action is
a) Digitalis b) Glycerrhiza c) Belladona d) Senna
Q:14 The drug contain alkaloids
a) Belladona b) Ginger c) Aloe d) Senna
Q:15 The term Acerose means
a) Smooth b) Stem less c) Light d) Needle shape
Q:16 The flattened structure of a higher plants typically green & blade like attached to stem is
called
a) Flower b) Fruit c) Leaf d) Rhizome
Q:17 Following is the plumbing system of plants
a) Flower b) Leaf c) Root d) Stem
Q:18 Following is reproductive structure of plants
a) Leaf b) Fruit c) Flower d) Stem
Q:19 Following is example of fruit drug
a) Senna b) Fennel c) Ginger d) Glycerrihza
Q:20 The Embryonic part of plant is
a) Leaf b) Flower c) pulp d) Seed

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Q:21 The example of fibrous root is
a) Stinging nettle b) Ginsing c) Devil claw d) Glycrhiza
Q:22 The protective covering of tree trunk is
a) Stem b) Bark c) Root d) None
Q:23 The example of bark drugs is
a) Ginger b) Fennel c) Quinine d) Coffee
Q:24 The fleshy or woody elongated stem that usually grow horizontally below the ground is
called
a) Root b) Rhizome c) Stem d) Bark
Q:25 The gum are mixture of
a) Polysachrides b) Lipids c) Alkaloids d) Resins
Q:26 The mixture of essential oils and terpenes are called
a) Lipids b) Gums c) Resins d) Alkaloids
Q:27 The Frankincense is an example of
a) Alkaloid b) Lipids c) Resins d) Gums
Q:28 The evaluation of drug by using organ of sense is called
a) Organoleptic b) Biological c) Chemical d) Physical
Q:29 The organic substance produced by living cell to catalyses the biological reaction in living
organisms is called
a) Enzyme b) Catalyst c) Secretion d) None
Q:30 The substance on which enzyme can act is called
a) Substance b) Catalyst c) Substrate d) Food
Q:31 All the chemical that contain mainly carbon are called
a) Substrate b) Substance c) Organic d) Inorganic
Q:32 The substance that not contain carbon are called
a) Organic b) Inorganic c) Substance d) Substrate
Q:33 The enzyme that catalyze the hydrolytic reaction of sucrose is
a) Lipase b) Bromalain c) Sucrase d) Synthetase
Q:34 The enzyme are mostly soluble in water and _______
a) Dilute alcohol solution b) Alcohol pure c) Concentrated alcohol solution
Q:35 The trypsin is an enzyme secreted by
a) Stomach b) Liver c) Pancreas d) Spleen
Q:36 Trypsin enzyme act at PH
a) 7.5 b) 8.57 c) 4.0 d) 13
Q:37 Pepsin enzyme act at PH
a) 3 – 4 b) 1 – 2 c) 7.5 d) 8.57
Q:38 The enzyme which act at acidic PH , they will destroy at
a) Acidic b) Alkaline c) Neutral d) None of them
Q:39 The substance having PH range from 1 – 7 are
a) Alkaline b) Neutral c) Acidic d) All
Q:40 The optimum temperature for enzymatic actively is between
a) 20 – 25o b) 35 – 40o c) 50 – 60o d) a & c
Q:41 The enzyme Bromalain is obtained from
a) Papaya b) Pineapple c) Banana d) Orange

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Q:42 The Botanical name of pineapple is
a) Digitallis lanata b) Ananas comosus c) Ephedra sinica d) None
Q:43 The family name of pineapple is
a) Bromeliaceae b) Bromalena c) Lanata d) Molmol
Q:44 The molecular weight of bromalain is
a) 25710 mmol b) 33000 mmol c) 5000mmol d) All
Q:45 Which enzyme act as supporting agent in the treatment of inflammation and edema
a) Papain b) Bromalain c) Histamine d) a & c
Q:46 The source of enzyme papain is
a) Ananas b) Pineapple c) Papaya d) Apple
Q:47 The botanical name of papaya is
a) Ananas comosus b) Carica papaya c) Cariaceae d) Sinica
Q:48 The family of papaya
a) bromaliaceae b) Caricaceae c) Leguminoseae d) Sinica
Q:49 The molecular weight of papain is
a) 5700 mmol b) 2800 c) 23000 d) 1000
Q:50 The term allergy is first defined by
a) Einstine b) von pirquet c) Al-Beruni d) All
Q:51 The protein which enter into the body and detected harmful to the immune system is called
a) Antibody b) Antigen c) Histamin d) Predator
Q:52 The term allergic rhinitis refers to inflammation of
a) Bucccal cavity b) Nasal mucosa c) Skin d) Nose
Q:53 The term Conjunctivitis refers to inflammation of
a) Nasal mucosa b) Eye membrane c) Skin d) All of them
Q:54 Following antibodies are involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction
a) IgE b) IgG c) IgM d) IgI
Q:55 The mediators released after the allergic response
a) Histamin b) Bile secretion c) Gastric juice
Q:56 The most common cause of “Hay fever ” is
a) Pollen b) Smoke c) Dust d) Perfume
Q:57 The type I hypersensitivity is also known as
a) Anaphylactic shock b) Cytotxic allergic c) Dellayed allergy
Q:58 Bronchial asthma, allergic rhinitis are example of
a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Type IV
Q:59 The antibody involve in type II “Hypersensitivity” reaction
a) IgE b) IgM c) IgG d) b & c
Q:60 Type II hypersensitivity also known as
a) Antibody mediated cytotoxicily b) Anaphylaxis c) Immune complex disorder
Q:61 Hemolytic disease in newborn is an example of _______ hypersensitivity
a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Type IV
Q:62 The antibodies involve in type III hypersensitivity are
a) IgI b) IgM c) IgG d) IgE
Q:63 Type IV hypersensitivity is also known as
a) Delayed heypersenstivity b) Immune complex disorder d) Anaphylaxis

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Q:64 Serum sickness is an example of ________ Hypersensitivity
a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Type IV
Q:65 The following mediator involve in type- IV hypersensitivity reaction
a) IgE b) IgM c) IgG d) T-cells
Q:66 Following are the example of mediator involve in allergy
a) Histamin b) baradykinin c) Prostaglandin d) All
Q:67 Following test are to investigate Hypersensitivity
a) Scratch test b) patch test c) Interadermal test d) All
Q:68 In test where suspected allergic is injected beneath the skin is called
a) patch test b) Scratch test c) Interadermal test d) Widal test
Q:69 In which the enzyme is linked with antigen antibody complex
a) Rast b) ELISA c) Skin test d) Patch test
Q:70 The best way to treat allergic reaction is
a) Medication b) Vaccination c) Avoidance d) Injection
Q:71 Centrizine is the inhibitor of following mediator
a) Leukotrienes b) Histamin c) Bredykinin
Q:72 Montelukast is inhibitor of following mediator
a) Histamin b) Bredykinin c) Leukotrienes d) All
Q:73 The process in which mixture of different compound is separated on the basis of their
relative polarity
a) Separation b) Ionization c) Chromatography d) Surface tension
Q:74 The process in which mixture of compound is separated on the basis of solubility
a) Ionization b) Chromatography c) Extraction d) Separation
Q:75 The chromatography in which solvent move upward direction and compound of mixture are
separated in the form of spot is called
a) Descending chromatography b) Ascending chromatography c) Ionization
Q:76 The phase in chromatography which is fixed is called
a) Mobile phase b) Stationary phase c) Liquid phase d) None
Q:77 The phase in chromatography which has ability to move is called
a) Stationary phase b) mobile phase c) oil phase
Q:78 The example of stationary phase is
a) Paper b) Alcohol c) Activated charcoal d) a & c
Q:79 The example of mobile phase is
a) Ethanol b) Propanol c) Acetone d) All of them
Q:80 The ratio between the distance covered by substance to the distance covered by the mobile
phase is called
a) Speed b) RF value c) ℞ value d) Velocity
Q:81 The stationary phase is column chromatography is
a) Paper b) Silica gel c) Alumina d) b & c
Q:82 The liquid that is used in the pharmacy for extraction procedure is called
a) Mobile phase b) Solvent c) Marc d) Stationary phase
Q:83 The waste material that left after extraction is called
a) Menstrum b) Solvent c) Marc d) Stationary phase

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Q:84 The method in which hot menstrum is used to pour on drug & allow them for suitable time is
called
a) Infusion b) Decoction c) Soaking d) None of them
Q:85 The method in which crushed drug is boiled with menstrum for certain time is called
a) Infusion b) Percolation c) Decoction d) Boiling
Q:86 The method in which drug is packed in porous cloth and dipped in the menstrum of
2 – 14 day is called
a) Infusion b) Decoction c) Maceration d) Digestion
Q:87 The method in which drug is packed in porous cloth and dipped in the menstrum for certain
time with the aid of heat
a) Maceration b) Digestion c) Percolation d) infusion
Q:88 In continuous hot extraction following apparatus is used
a) Distillation apparatus b) soxhelt apparatus c) sphegmomenometer
Q:89 In fusion extraction menstrum is warmed upto ______ oc
a) 100oc b) 200 – 250oc c) 200 – 300oc d) 100 – 200 oc
Q:90 The family of cannabis sativa is
a) Araceace b) Solanaseae c) Cimbelliferae d) Cannabinacease
Q:91 cannabis sativa secreted resins called
a) Drugs b) CNS stimulant c) Cicutoxin d) Narcotic resin
Q:92 Family of nerium indicum is
a) Apocynaceae b) Solanaceae c) Araceae d) None
Q:93 The plant causing GIT toxicity is
a) Datura stramonium b) Digitalis lanata c) cannabis sativa
Q:94 Plant causing CVS disturbances
a) Digitalis lanta b) Nerium indicum c) Datura d) a & b
Q:95 The toxin present in plant nerium indicum is
a) Nerodine b) karabin c) Heroin d) a & b
Q:96 The plant causing CNS disturbance
a) Cannabis sativa b) Digitalis c) Datura d) a & b
Q:97 The toxin present in plant cicuta virosa is
a) Digoxin b) Narodine c) Cicutoxin d) a & b
Q:98 Following is cyanogentic plant
a) Digitalis b) Datura c) Manibot esculanta d) Cicuti virosa
Q:99 Prunus amygdalus related to plant s which cause
a) CNS disturbance b) GIT disturbance c) Cynogenetics d) Purgative
Q:100 the members of family umbelifereae contain
a) Volatile oils b) Alkaloids c) Glycosides d) Resins
Q:101 Solid roots are the following
a) Ginseng b) Stinging nettle c) Devil claw d) None
Q:102 Fibrous root are following
a) Stinging nettle b) Ginseng c) Devil claw d) All of them
Q:103 Fleshy roots are following
a) Devils claw b) Ginseng c) Stinging nettle d) None

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Q:104 Plant have no woody stem is called
a) Herb b) Tree c) Plant d) None
Q:105 Camphor & peppermint oil are the example of
a) Volatile oil b) Gums c) Resins d) All of them
Q:106 Oil extracted from plant using steam distillation is
a) Fixed oil b) Volatile oil c) Gums d) Resins
Q:107 Oil extracted after pressing fruits & seeds is
a) Volatile oil b) Fixed oil c) Resins d) Gums
Q:108 Myrrh, Mastic & Frankincense are example of
a) Gums b) Resins c) Volatile oil d) Fixed oil
Q:109 Cosmetics, detergent, fabric & dyes are
a) Inhallent allergen b) Contactant allergen c) Ingestant allergen d) All
Q:110 Insects venoms are _________ allergens
a) Ingestant b) Inhallants c) Injectant d) Contactant
Q:111 Organic catalyst produced by living organism are
a) Catalyst b) Enzymes c) Hormones d) Secretion
Q:112 Substance which in minute amount increase the velocity of reaction is called
a) Enzymes b) Catalyst c) Allergens d) Antibiotic
Q:113 Enzymes destroy at temperature
a) 30o b) 50o c) 60o d) 10o
Q:114 In solid form enzymes may stable at temperature
a) 30oc b) 60oc c) 100oc d) 0oc
Q:115 All enzymes are protein in nature except
a) Trypsin b) Pepsin c) Ribeozyme d) Lipase
Q:116 Some enzymes exist in inactive form called _____________?
a) Pre-enzymes b) zymogens c) Proteozyme d) All
Q:117 Enzymes involve in isomerization
a) Ligase b) Lyases c) Isomerase d) Hydrolysis
Q:118 Glucose is 72% sweeter then
a) Fructose b) Sucrose c) Both d) None
Q:119 Enzymes that join two substances called
a) Hydrolysis b) isomerases c) Ligases d) Lipases
Q:120 Plants toxic to gastric mucosa is
a) Atropa b) Belladona c) Arnaryllis d) None

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 Answer key (Pharmacognosy)
1) C 2) B 3) A 4) B 5) A
6) B 7) D 8) D 9) A 10) A
11) A 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) D
16) C 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) D
21) A 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) A
26) C 27) C 28) A 29) A 30) C
31) C 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) C
36) B 37) B 38) B 39) B 40) B
41) B 42) B 43) A 44) B 45) B
46) C 47) B 48) B 49) C 50) B
51) B 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) A
56) A 57) A 58) A 59) D 60) A
61) B 62) C 63) A 64)C 65) D
66) D 67) D 68) C 69) B 70) C
71) B 72) C 73) C 74) C 75) B
76) B 77) B 78) D 79) D 80) B
81) D 82) B 83) C 84) B 85) B
86) C 87) B 88) B 89) B 90) D
91) D 92) A 93) A 94) D 95) D
96) A 97) C 98) C 99) C 100) A
101) A 102) A 103) A 104) A 105) A
106) B 107) B 108)B 109)B 110)C
111) B 112) B 113) C 114) C 115) C
116) B 117) C 118)B 119)C 120)A

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 Anatomy
Q:1 The digestive system also called as
a) Respiratory system b) Elementary system c) Urogenital system d) Reproductive system
Q:2 GIT Extend from
a) Month to oesophagus b) Mouth to rectum c) Mouth to anal canal d) Mouth to stomach
Q:3 How much type of organs are present in body for the formation of GIT
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e) None
Q:4 Stomach belong to what type of organ of GIT
a) Primary digestive organ b) Accessory organs c) Primary and accessory organs d)None
Q:5 The accessory organs of GIT includes
a) Small intestine b) Large intestine,pancreases, liver
c) Liver gallbladder and pancreases d)gallblader , liver
Q:6 Generally wall of GIT is formed by
a) 3 layers b) 4 layers c) 2 layers d) 5 layers
Q:7 The innermost layer of GIT is called as
a) Gastrointestinal mucosa or mucus membrane b) Serous or fibrous layer
c) Sub muscular layer d) Muscular layer
Q:8 The inner surface of mouth , tongue, pharynx, and oesophagus have what type of cells
a) Stratified squamous epithelial cells b) Squamous epithelial
c) Columnar epithelial cells d) None
Q:9 Small intestine and large intestine have
a) Stratified epithelial cells b) Columnar epithelial cells
c) Squamous epithelial cells d) All are present
Q:10 What type of muscles are present in stomach
a) Smooth muscles b) Cardia muscles c) Skeletal muscles d) Cardiac muscles
Q:11 The first portion of stomach is
a) Fundus b) Cardia c) Pylorus d) Body
Q:12 GIT has two type of nerve supply
a) Intrinsic nerve supply and extrinsic nerve supply
b) Pons and motor nerve supply
c) Medulla and hypothalamus nerve supply
d) All are absent
e) All are absent
Q:13 The length of pharynx is
a) 5 – 6 inch b) 5 – 6 meter c) 5 – 6 cm d) 6 – 7 inch
Q:14 Laryngeal pharynx is the division from what part of GIT
a) Oesophagus b) Pharynx c) Larynx d) epiglottis
Q:15 Oesophagus is about
a) 26cm long and 2cm in diameter b) 24cm long and 3cm in diameter
c) 25cm long and 2cm in diameter d) 25cm long and 2cm in diameter
Q:16 Which one of the following structure joints the pharynx to stomach
a) Trachea b) Oesophagus c) Nasopharynx d) Cardiac Notch
Q:17 Shape of stomach is
a) Y shape b) J shape c) Pear shape d) Been shape

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Q:18 The length of stomach is
a) 10 inches b) 11 inches c) 10cm d) 9cm
Q:19 The mucosa of stomach is thrown into many folds called as
a) Gastric pits b) Canaliculi c) Oxyntic cells d) Rugae
Q:20 The glands open into stomach cavity via
a) Rugae b) Parietal cells c) Canaliculi d) Gastric pits
Q:21 How many types of gastric glands are present
a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 5
Q:22 Glands located in cardiac region of stomach called as
a) Pyloric glands b) Fundic glands c) Cardiac glands d) All are present
Q:23 Glands situated in body and fundus of stomach are
a) Oxyntic glands b) pyloric glands c) Cardiac glands d) Oily gland
Q:24 What type of network of nerve fibbers are present in stomach
a) Auerbach’s plexus b) Parasympathetic nerve fibber c) Meissner’s plexus d) a & c
Q:25 Meissner’s plexus are present
a) Between the muscular and submucosal layer b) Submucosal layer
c ) Muscular layer d ) Longitudinal layer
Q:26 What type of nervous system innervate the GIT tract
a) Peripheral nervous system b) Central nervous system
c) Autonomic nervous system d) Both a & b
Q:27 Nerve fibbers to oesophagus , stomach, small intestine and upper part of large intestine pass
through
a) Vestibular nerve `b) Optic nerve c ) Facial nerve d) Vagus nerve
Q:28 The part of stomach that is much thick and also circular is control the outflow of gastric
content into the duedenum is called as
a) Body b) Cardial notch c) Antrum d) Pyloric sphincter
Q:29 The part of GIT that extend from the pylorus of stomach to the ileocecal junction called
a) Large intestine b) Anus c) Rectum d) Small intestine
Q:30 The longest part of the alimentary canal is
a) Oesophagus b) Pharynx c) Large intestine d) Small intestine
Q:31 The duodenum is
a) ‘c’ shaped & 10 inches b) ‘Z’ shaped and 10cm
c) J shaped and 10m d) Y shaped and 9 inches
Q:32 The jejunum and ileum measures about
a) 20ft (6m) b) 20ft (20 inches ) c) 30ft (7m) d) 30ft (7 inches )
Q:33 Which one is the following a thin serous membrane that lines the walls of the abdominal and
pelvic cavities and clothes the viscera
a) Lesser curvature of stomach b) Greater curvature of stomach
c) Peritoneum d) All are present
Q:34 The large intestine extend from
a) Jejunum to nus b) Ileum to anus c) Ileum to rectum d) Duodenum
Q:35 The cecum and appendix and sigmoid colon are part of
a) Large intestine b) Small intestine c) Anus d ) Rectum

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Q:36 A rudimentary structure consist of two horizontal fold of mucous membrane that project
around the orifice of the ileum is called
a) Pyloric sphincter b) Tricuspid valve c) Bicuspid valve d) Ileocecal
valve
Q:37 A narrow muscular tube containing a large amount of lymphoid tissue and its base attached
the posteromedial surface of the cecum is called
a) Umbilicus b) Ileocecal sphincter c) Colic flexure d)
Appendix
Q:38 The length of large intestine is
a) 1.5 Inc. b) 1.6 Inc. c) 1.5 m d) 7.5m
Q:39 The length of jejunum is
a) 2.4 – 4.8m b) 2 – 4m c) 2.5 – 3.8m d) 2.5 – 6.5m d) 2.5 m
Q:40 The mucous membrane of small intestine has microscopic figure like projection called
a) Intestinal Pilli b) Flagella c) Intestinal villi d) Intestinal cilia
Q:41 Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs are parts of which system
a) Digestive system b) Peripheral system c) Urogenital system d) Respiratory system
Q:42 Trachea is a part of
a) Upper respiratory tract b) lower respiratory tract
c) upper and lower respiratory tract d) Epiglottis
Q:43 lowest part of pharynx is
a) Trachea b) Nose c) Bronchi d) larynx
Q:44 Larynx is also called
a) Windpipe b) voice box c) alveoli d) plura
Q:45 Thyroid cartilage is found in
a) Pharynx b) larynx c) trachea d) Bronchi
Q:46 Which on of following helps to close off the larynx during swallowing
a) Voice box b) Windpipe c) Lungs d) Epiglottis
Q:47 The vocal cords lies
a) Inside the larynx b) inside the pharynx c) outside the pharynxd) outside the larynx
Q:48 The length of trachea is
a) 10 inches b) 10cm c) 10m d) 11m
Q:49 The bronchi are formed by the bifurcation of trachea at the level of
a) 5th vertebrae b) 6th vertebrae c) 8th vertebrae d) 7th vertebrae
Q:50 The part of lungs where the blood is comes into almost in direct contact with air called
a) Bronchi b) trachea c) Alveoli d) Plura
Q:51 Each lung is enclosed by a bilayered serous membrane called
a) Peritoneum b) Prothorax c) Alveolar membrane d) Pleural sacorpleura
Q:52 The diameter of Alveoli is
a) 0.2 – 0.5cm b) 0.3 – 0.4cm c) 0.2 – 0.5mm d) 0.3 – 0.5 mm
Q:53 The exchange of gases occur through
a) Bronchi b) Respiratory membrane c) Alveoli d) Trachea
Q:54 A set of organs producing urine in human beings called
a) Excretory system b) Urinary system c) Renal system d) All of above
Q:55 The main organs of urinary system is
a) Kidney b) Bladder c) Urethra d) Ureter

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Q:56 Ureter, bladder, and urethra are part of
a) Urinary system b) reproductive system c) Digestive system d)
Respiratory system
Q:57 Kidney are located on
a) Superior abdominal wall b) Anterior abdominal wall
c) Posterior abdominal wall d) None
Q:58 Kidney are mainly located in the
a) Sacrum region b) Lumbar region c) cranial region d) Thoracic
region
Q:59 The outer zone of kidney is called
a) Medulla b) Glumerulli c) nephron d) Cortex
Q:60 The inner zone of kidney is called
a) Cortex b) medulla c) distal tubule d) collecting duct
Q:61 Pyramids containing
a) Cylendrical collecting tubules b)Short proximal tubules
c) Convulated collecting tubules d) straight collecting tubules
Q:62 The basic structural unit of kidney is
a) Glumerulli b) Loop of hanle c) nephron d) Medulla
Q:63 Basically kidney contain
a) 2.5 billion of neuron b) 2.5 trillion neuron c ) 2.5 millions of neuron d) none of these
Q:64 The reservoir of urine is
a) Nephron b) urethra c) Bladder d) Ureters
Q:65 The discharge of urine from bladder is due to
a) Ureter b) Collecting tubules c) Loop of hanle d) Urethra
Q:66 The right kidney lies slightly lower than the left kidney because large size of
a) Left lobe of liver b) right lobe of liver c) Due to diaphragm d) due to pelvic girdle
Q:67 The colour of kidney is
a) Brown b) Chocolate c ) Pinkish d) Reddish brown
Q:68 Fibrous capsule, perirenal flat, Renal fascia and pararenal flat are present in
a) Abdomen b) Chest c) Kidney d) Bladder
Q:69 A hallow conical muscular organ that is like a closed fist called
a) Kidney b) Nephron c) Brain d ) Heart
Q:70 The weight of heart in male is
a) 400gm b) 300 gm c) 300mg d) 400kg
Q:71 The weight of heart in female
a) 250gm b) 250mg c) 250kg d) 300mg
Q:72 The heart inclines more toward
a) Left side b) Right side c ) Lower side d) Upper side
Q:73 Which one layer of heart is tough double layered and cover the heart
a) Pericardium b) Myocardium c) Endocardium d) peritoneum
Q:74 How much chambers of the heart
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 3 e) 9
Q:75 The flow of heart wall is
a) Multidirectional b) Unidirectional c) toward only heart d) All of these
Q:76 How much values of the heart
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1 e) 5
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Q:77 The value between right atrium and right ventricle is
a) Bicuspid valve b) Tricuspid valve c) Pulmonary valve d) Aortic valve
Q:78 The valve b/w left atrium and left ventricle is
a) Tricuspid valve b) Pulmonary valve c) Bicuspid valve d) Aortic
valve
Q:79 The valve b/w the right ventricle and pulmonary artery is
a) Bicuspid valve b) Tricuspid valve c ) Aortic valve d)
Pulmonary valve
Q:80 The valve b/w left ventricle and aorta is called
a) Pulmonic valve b) Aorta valve c) Tricuspid valve d) Mitral valve
Q:81 The largest artery in human body is
a) Vena cava b) Aorta c) pericardium d) Myocardium
Q:82 Which part of the heart distribute oxygenated blood to all parts of body
a) Aorta b) Vena cava c) Capillaries d) Venules
Q:83 Arterioles are subdivision of
a) Veins b) Venules c) Capillaries d) Artery
Q:84 The fused network of blood vessel are
a) Arteries b) Capillaries c) Venules d) vein
Q:85 The deoxygenated blood carry towards the heart by
a) Veins b) Artery c) Aorta d) Vena cava
Q:86 The arteries supply the blood to heart are
a) Pulmonary arteries b) Coronary arteries
c) Pulmonary veins d) endotracheal arteries
Q:87 In male a narrow fibromuscular organ that conduct urine and semen from the bladder and
ejaculatory ducts called
a) Ureter b) Testes c) Penis d) Urethra
Q:88 The gland of male reproductive system and urinary system is
a) Prostate gland b) Sebaceous gland c) Sweat gland d) None of these
Q:89 Two lobulated sacs situated b/w the bladder and the rectum are
a) Epididymis b) Sctrotum c) Testes d) Seminal vesicle
Q:90 Which of statement is not true
a) Scrotum a thin external sac of skin b) Divided into two compartment
c) Contain one of the testes d) Made up of highly coiled tubes
Q:91 Epididymis is
a) Slightly coiled tube b) Highly coiled tube c) Helicle tube d) None of these
Q:92 Which of the statement is not true
a) Testes are male organs b) spermatozoa are formed in testes
c) testes form Male sex hormones ( testosterone ) d ) There are lobulated sacs
Q:93 Which of statement is true
a) Vagina is a muscular tube
b) It is well supplied with blood vessels
c) It extend from valve to uterus
d ) It is Situated behind the bladder and the urethra and in front of rectum and anal canal
e) All

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Q:94 A thin piece of skin that surround and partially cover the vaginal opening in the female is
a) Ovaries b) Hymen c ) Fallopian tube d) Labia minora
Q:95 uterine tube also known as
a) Collecting tubes b) Clitoris c) Fallopian tubes d)
Endometrium
Q:96 Each ovary weights
a) 4 – 6gm b) 4 – 8gm c) 8 – 12 gm d) 7 – 9gm
Q:97 How much ovaries are found in female
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 4
Q:98 Uterus is also known as
a) Fallopian tube b) Wombs c) Female gonad d) None of these
Q:99 The one of following statement is not true
a) Scrotum is a outpouching of the lower part of anterior abdominal valve
b) It not contain the testes
c) It contain epididymis
d) It contain lower end of spermatic lords

Anatomy
Q:100 The branches of biology that are concerned with the form and function of body called
a) Anatomy and physiology b) Anatomy and microbiology
c) Physiology and biochemistry d) Physiology and cytology
Q:101 The study of structure of body called
a) Physiology b) Anatomy c) Cytology d) Embryology
Q:102 Which branch of biology deals with body function
a) Histology b ) Embryology c) Physiology d) Microscopic
anatomy
Q:103 The word anatomy means
a) Up b) Down c) centre (middle ) d) Deep
Q:104 The word anatomy derived from
a) Two Greek words b) Two English word c) Two British word d) Two US words
Q:105 The word Tomos in anatomy means
a) Two behind b) To cut c) To slice d) To joint
Q:106 The process of cutting in anatomy also called
a) Slides b) Dissection c) Operation d) suturing
Q:107 Biology is the study of
a) Animal b) Life c) elements d ) cells e) fossils
Q:108 The study of diseased body structure called
a) Gross anatomy b) Systemic anatomy
c) Developmental anatomy d) Pathological anatomy
Q:109 Human anatomy concerned with
a) Different organs and body parts of human
b) Different organ and structure of human
c) Different organs and cells of human

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Q:110 Gross anatomy deals with the study of humans body parts by
a) Naked eye b) Light microscope c) Double lens microscope d) Single lens microscope
Q:111 Histology deals with the study of
a) Tissues b) Muscles c) Cells d) Organs
Q:112 Embryology is study of
a) Embryo b) Fetus c) Infant d) Child
Q:113 Regional anatomy deals with the study of
a) Specific part of the body b ) Nonspecific part of body
c) Systemic study d) Cell study
Q:114 The study of any system of the body is called
a) Gross anatomy b) Applied anatomy c) Systemic anatomy d)
Cross anatomy
Q:115 The study of structure of cell and its component called
a) Embryology b) Cycology c) Histology d) Microbiology
Q:116 The study of diagnosis of disease called
a) Gross section anatomy b) Applied anatomy
c) Cross section anatomy d) Systemic anatomy
Q:117 The study of cross sectional part of the body is called
a) Gross anatomy b) Systemic anatomy c) Applied anatomy d) Cross sectional anatomy
Q:118 The part of body which is in front or near to abdomen called as
a) Ventral/anterior b) Dorsal/anterior c) Ventral/posterior d) Dorsal/posterior
Q:119 The part of body which is present on upper side is called
a) Interior b) Dorsal c) Superior d) Ventral
Q:120 The part of body which is present toward lower side is called
a) Dorsal line b) Proximal line c) Medial line d) Distal line
Q:121 The line which cut/divides the body into two equal , right and left part is called
a) Dorsal line b) proximal line c) Medial line d) Distal line
Q:122 Medial line is near to
a) Middle line part of the body b) Dorsal part of the body
c) Superior part of the body d) Ventral part of the body
Q:123 The part of body which are present away from medial line called as
a) Ventral b) Superior c) Lateral d) Dorsal
Q:124 Any part which is away from surface of body is called
a) Near b) Close c) Deep d) Down
Q:125 Superficial parts are
a) Away from surface b) Near to the surface c) Deep to the surface d ) UP to the surface
Q:126 The part of body which is present near to the reference point called as
a) Distal part b) Proximal part c) Middle part d) Lateral part
Q:127 The body part which is away to the reference point
a) Proximal part b ) Distal part c) Lateral part d ) Ventral part
Q:128 Inferomedial means
a) Near to medial line and toward lower side
b) Near to dorsal side and toward upper side
c) Near to dorsal side and toward lower side
d) Near to dorsal side and toward upper side

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Q:129 Left ‘arm’ and left leg are
a) Ipsilateral to one another b) Dorsolateral to one another
c) Ventral lateral to one another d) Superficial to one another
Q:130 Left ‘arm’ and right leg are
a) Dorsolateral to one another b) Ipsilateral to one another
c) contralateral to an other d) Inferomedial to one another
Q:131 Bending movement in which angle b/w two decreases is called as
a) Extension b) Flexation c) Abduction d) Adduction
Q:132 Bending the elbow or clenching the hand into first are example of
a) Flexation b ) Abduction c) Extension d) Adduction
Q:133 The movement in which angle or distance s b/w two bones increase
a) Flexation b) Extension c ) Pronation d) Inversion
Q:134 Movement of limb away from medial line is
a) Pronation b) Flexation c) Abduction d) Eversion
Q:135 Movement towards the medial line of body is
a) Elevation b) Inversion c) Extension d) Pronation e) Adduction
Q:136 Movement of forearm in which the position of palm facing downward is
a) Supination b) Pronation c) Extension d) Inversion e) Elevation
Q:137 Movement of forearm in which position that palm facing upward is
a) Pronation b) Supination c) Extension d) Inversion
Q:138 Inversion is the movement of sole of foot
a) Toward the medial line b) Toward the dorsal line
c) Toward the ventral line d) Away the ventral line
Q:139 Eversion is the movement of sole of foot
a) Toward the lateral line b) Away form the lateral line c) Toward the ventral line
d) Away from the ventral line e) Away from the medial line
Q:140 Movement of bone toward upper side called as
a) Elevation b) Inversion c) Extension d) Eversion e) Pronation
Q:141 Movement of bone toward lower is called
a) Dorsiflexation b) Depression c) Planter flexation d) Elevation
Q:142 The movement of sole of foot in which distance or angle b/w foot and leg decrease is called
a) Dorsiflexation b) Planterflexation c) Extension d) Flextation
Q:143 Dorsiflextaion is distance b/w the leg and foot is
a) Increase b) Decrease c) To away form d) Near to
Q:144 Surface anatomy is the basis for
a) Physical examination of body b) Chemical examination of body
c) Physical examination of cell d) Chemical examination of cell
Q:145 Surface anatomy is the aim to visualize in the minds of the structure that lies
a) Near the skin b) close the skin c ) Up to the surface d ) Beneath the skin
Q:146 Skull is type of
a) Flat bone b) Irregular bone c) Clavicle bone d) Radius bone
Q:147 Frontal bone is the bone of
a) Skull b) Lower limb c ) Upper limb d) Vertebrae
Q:148 Zygomatic bone is the bone of
a) Lower limb b) Upper limb c) Lower jaw d) Upper jaw

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Q:149 Lacrimal bone is the bone of
a) Ribs b) Vertebrae c) Radius d) Ulna e) Pelvic griddle f) Skull
Q:150 Parietal, Ethmoids, Sphenoid bones are the bones of
a) Lower limb b) Upper limb c) Lower limb d) Pelvic limb e) Skull
Q:151 The upper jaw is also called as
a) Vomer b) Maxilla c) Mandible d) Zygomatic e) Temporal bone
Q:152 Which one of bone who covers the brain
a) Skull b) Mandible c) Maxilla d) Axilla e) Vomer
Q:153 Which of following bone is not fused with the skull
a) Maxilla b) Mandible c) Temporal bone d) Nasal bone e) Frontal bone
Q:154 The breast bone is called
a) Sternum b) Thorax c) Ribs d) Ulna e) Femur
Q:155 How much pairs of ribs are present human body
a) 13 pairs b) 14 pairs c) 15 pairs d) 11 pairs e) 12 pairs
Q:156 The neck bone is also called as
a) Clavicle b) Sternum c) Ribs d) Femur e) Tibia
Q:157 The upper extremities or upper limbs include
a) Humerus , Radius, Ulna, carpel, Meta carpels, Tarsal, phalanges
b) Humerus , Radius, Ulna, Metatarsal, Phalanges
c) Humerus , Radius, Ulna, carpel, Metatarsal
d) Tibia, Fibula , femur
Q:158 Arm consist of two bones
a) Radius and Humerus b) radius and Ulna
c) Ulna and Phalanges d) radius, Ulna, Tarsals
Q:159 Humerus is the largest bone of
a) Upper climb b) Lower climb c) Ribs d) Vertebrae e) Pelvic griddle
Q:160 Which of following bones are present in start of hand
a) Tarsals b) Phalanges c) Carpels d) Metatarsals e) Ulna
Q:161 Humerus is single long bone of
a) Ribs b) Lower climb c) Cervical vertebrae
d ) Thoracic vertebrae e) Upper climb
Q:162 The first part of small intestine is
a) Duodenum b) Pyloric antrum c) Body d) cardia
Q:163 Sub lingual glands are present in what parts of GIT
a) Buccal cavity b) Stomach c) Liver d) Large intestine e) Small intestine
Q:164 The opening part of pharynx that separate the oesophagus and larynx is as
a) Trachea b) Epiglottis c) Laryngeal membrane d) Tonsil pillars
Q:165 The lower limb of human body consist of following patterns
a) Thigh bone leg, knee and foot
b) Thigh bone leg, vertebrae
c) Vertebrae, pelvic griddle
d) Pelvic griddle, lumber vertebrae
e) Thigh bone leg, sacrum
Q:166 How much bones are present in thigh portion of upper limb
a) Single bone b) Three bones c) Two bones d) Four bones

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Q:167 Which one is bone of lower limb
a) Femur b) Radius c) Ulna d) Scapula
Q:168 From which portion the femur bone is start and end to
a) Pelvic griddle to knee b) Knee to foot
c ) pelvic griddle to foot d) Pelvic griddle to tibia
Q:169 Pelvic griddle to fibula
a) Technically leg start from and end to b) Knee ankle
c)Knee to foot d)Tibia to fibula e)Fibula to phalanges
Q:170 How much bones are present in legs
a) Two bones b) Three bones c ) Four bones d) Five bones e ) single bone
Q:171 Tibia and fibula are present in leg
a) Leg b ) Thig c ) Foot d) hand e) Pelvic griddle
Q:172 Tibia is a
a) Large bone of leg b ) Small bone of leg c) Large bone of pelvic griddle
d ) Small bone of pelvic griddle e) Large bone of thig
Q:173 Knee cap is also called a
a) Patella b ) Vomer c ) leg d) Scapula e) Radius
Q:174 Patella is somewhat like
a) Metatarsal b) Phalanges c ) Sesamoid bones d ) Tarsal e) Pelvic griddle
Q:175 The tarsal, metatarsal and phalanges are present in
a) Foot b) Knee c) Hand d ) Ribs e) Vertebrae
Q:176 Backbone is also called as
a) Vertebral column b) Spinal cord c ) Pelvic griddles
d) Upper limb e) Lower limb
Q:177 How much bones are present in vertebral
a) 33 irregular bones b ) 33 regular bones c ) 32 irregular bones
d) 32 regular bones e) 30 irregular bones
Q:178 The vertebral column is divided into
a) Five region b) Four region c) Three region d) Single region e) No region
Q:179 Which one is the first region of vertebral column in human body
a) Thoracic region b) Lumber region c ) Sacrum region
d) Coccyx region e) cervical region
Q:180 First seven vertebrae of vertebral column of human skeleton are called as
a) Cervical vertebrae b) Thoracic vertebrae c) Lumber vertebrae
d ) coccyx e) Sacrum vertebrae
Q:181 Twelve vertebrates are present in
a) Thoracic region b) Lumber region c ) Sacrum region
d) Coccyx region e) cervical region
Q:182 Which one of following is called as hipbone ?
a) Lumber region b) Pelvic region c ) Cervical region
d) Thoracic region e) Sacrum region
Q:183 The first part of pelvic griddle of human body is
a) Ileum b) Ischium c ) Pubic bone d) Sacrum

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Q:184 Which of the following bones in pelvic griddles are fused to form a single bone?
a) Ilium , ischium and pubic bone b) Ileum, and ischium
c)Ilium and pubic bone d) Ilium and coccyx
Q:185 The ileum crest in woman is
a) Soft b) Delicated c) hard d) Cartilaginous
Q:186 The distance b/w the ileum crest in woman is
a) Much narrow b) Wider c) Slightly narrower d) Somewhat wider more
Q:187 Ileum crest in man
a) Compact b) hard c) Brittle d) Elastic
Q:188 The distance b/w the ileum crest in man
a) Wider b) Slightly narrow c) Much narrower d) None
Q:189 Bronchi are present in
a) Right lung b) Left lung c) Right and left lung d) Sternum
Q:190 The length of each kidney is
a) 12 cm b) 13 cm c) 12 inc d) 15 inches
Q:191 The thickness of each kidney is
a) 2cm b) 3 cm c) 1 cm d) 4 cm
Q:192 The weight of each kidney is
a) 150 mg b) 150 gm c) 150 kg d) 140 mg
Q:193 Papilla is a part of
a) Pyramid b) Medulla c) Cortex d) nephron
Q:194 The weight of kidney in female
a) 135 gm b) 135 mg c ) 134 mg d) 133 gm
Q:195 The outermost layer of stomach is
a) Mucosa b) Serosa c) Rugae d ) Muscle layer
Q:196 The second name of serosa is
a) Mucosa b) Submucosa c) Adventitia d) Muscular propia
Q:197 Labia major is a part of
a) Male reproductive system b ) Female reproductive system
c) Respiratory system d) Urinary system
Q:198 Mammary glands are present in
a) Thorax b) Kidney c) pancreas d) Breast
Q:199 Testosterone are formed in
a) Scrotum b) prostate glands c) Urethra d) Penis e) Testes
Q:200 Alveolar sac consist of
a) Clustor of bronchi b) Clustor of alveoli c) Clustor of trachea d) All of them

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 Physiology: Introduction
Q:1 Physiology is the study of
a) Body structure b) Body function
c) Physiochemical properties d) Biopharmaceutics
Q:2 Physiology is derived from
a) Latin b) Greek c) French d) English
Q:3 Which statement is not true about physiology
a) It involved the type of organism like human physiology
b) Studied the type of organism like human physiology
c) Studied organizational like cellular physiology
d) It is a combination of Latin word

Cell
Q:4 Structural and functional unit of life is
a) Bone b) Organ c) Tissues d) Cells
Q:5 Who is self replicating organelle
a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Golgi apparatus d) ribosomes
Q:6 Which one is responsible for packing and formation of lysosome
a) Nucleus b) Ribosomes c) Golgi body d) Cytoplasm
Q:7 High energy phosphate compound are synthesized by
a) Cytoplasm b) Cell membrane
c) Rough endo plasmic reticulum d) Mitochondria
Q:8 Physiological, reproductive functions are governed by
a) Lysosomes b) Ribosomes c) Nucleus d) Golgi body e) Mitochondria
Q:9 Cell membrane is
a) Lipid bilayer b) Carbohydrate bilayer c) Protein bilayer d)Ribosomes bilayer
Q:10 Mitochondria wide as __________ and lengthy up to _________
a) 0.5 – 1μm(wide) , length up to 10μm b) 0.4 – 1μm(wide) , length up to 9μm
c) 0.5 – 2μm(wide) , length up to 7 μm d) 0.5 – 1um(wide) , length up to 10 um
Q:11 Power house of cell is
a) Nucleus b) Golgi body c) Ribosomes d) Cell membrane e) Mitochondria
Q:12 Chromosomes are enclosed in
a) Mitochondria b) Plasma membrane c) Nucleus d) Lysosome
Q:13 Transcription and translation processes are performed by
a) Ribosomes b) Lysosomes c) Golgi body d) Mitochondria
Q:14 pyruvic acid, amino acid and fatty acids are converted into
a) N – acetylcysteine b) Substance P c) Acety Co A d) Carboxylase
Q:15 The break down product of acetyl CoA is
a) Oxygen & hydrogen b) Hydrogen & CO2
c) Hydrogen & Nitrogen d ) CO2& Oxygen
Q:16 Lipids are biosynthesized by
a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
c) Golgi apparatus d) Mitochondria

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Q:17 Rough endoplasmic reticulum is
a) Smooth (a granular ) b) Rough c) Tough d) hard
Q:18 Endoplasm is near to
a) Mitochondria b) Cell membrane c) Nucleus d) Lysosomes
Q:19 Who is located in cytoplasm as a tubular portion
a) Endoplasmic Reticulum b ) Golgi body c) Nucleus d) Mitochondria
Q:20 N – Oligosaccharides are modified by
a) Lysosomes b ) Ribosomes c) Nucleus d ) Golgi body

Tissues
Q:21 A collection of cell and associated intercellular material specialized
a) Cells b) Tissue c) Bone d) Organs
Q:22 How much basics types of tissue are present in body
a) Four b) Three c) Five d) Six
Q:23 The large amount of intracellular substance and relatively few cells are present in what type
of tissue
a) Epithelial tissue b) Connective tissue c) Muscular tissue d) Nervous tissue
Q:24 The fibers and ground substance are collectively known as
a) Cell b) Bone c) Tissue d) Matrix
Q:25 Basic components present in connective tissue are
a) Three b) Two c) Four d) one
Q:26 Heparin and histamine are release by
a) Fibroblast b) Wondering cells c) Mast cells d) Histocytes
Q:27 Which type of cells play a key role in wound healing
a) Mast cells b) Wondering cells c) Fibroblast d) Fat cells
Q:28 The connective tissue are also have visitor cell are called
a) Wondering cells b) Fat cells c) Mast cells d) Plasma cells
Q:29 How much types of fibers are found in connective tissue
a) Three b) Two c) Five d) Six
Q:30 Cord or tap shaped structural proteins in connective tissue are called
a) Elastic fibber b) Reticular fibber c) Collagenous fibbers d) Ground substance
Q:31 The word reticular in reticular fibber is meant by
a) Thick fluid b) Thin fluid c) network d) Matrix
Q:32 The macromolecular protein polysaccharides complex are called
a) Proteoglycans b) olypeptides c) Glycerol d) Peptide
Q:33 The ground substance are composed mainly of
a) Proteoglycans b) Glycoprotein c) Salt d) Water
Q:34 Epithelial tissue are of
a) Two types b) Three types c) Six types d) Five types
Q:35 Epithelial tissue protect the underlying structure of body from
a) Dehydration b) Mechanical damage c) Chemical damage d) All
Q:36 The epithelial tissue are
a) loosely packed b) Closely packed
b) c) have Minimum intracellular substance d) b & c

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 Bone
Q:37 Bone is a type of
a) Epithelial tissue b) Connective tissue c) Muscle tissue d) Nervous tissue
Q:38 The rigidity of bone is due to its pregnancy with
a) Mineral salts b) Lymph c) Bone marrow d) All of above
Q:39 How much types of celsl are found in osseous tissue
a) Three b) Two c) Four d) Five
Q:40 osteoclasts are
a) Tissue b) Muscle c) Cell d) Fibers
Q:41 Who are responsible for toughness of bones
a) Minerals b) Vitamin c c) Phosphate d) Vitamin D e) All
Q:42 Who are constitute 65% of dry weight of bones
a) Organic component b) Follicular components
c) Inorganic components d) Glands
Q:43 Spongy bone can be seen by
a) Radiation b) Macroscopically c) Microscopically d) Chromatographically
Q:44 Which statement is not true for epithelial tissue
a) Protect the underlying structure b) Secretion
c) Absorption d) Cell are loosely packed in epithelial tissue
Q:45 Bone of vertebrae are example of
a) Short bone b) Irregular bone c) Flat bone d) Sesamoid bone
Q:46 Knee cap is also called
a) Sesamoid b) Patella c) Wrist d) Radioulnar bone e) a & b
Q:47 The lamella arranged as
a) Helical b) Spiral c) Rod d) Flat e) a & b
Q:48 The thickness of lamella is
a) 7 - 3μm b) 7 – 3 m c) 7μm d) 3 - 7μm
Q:49 In a long bone epiphysis (ends) covered by
a) Thick shell of spongy bone b) Thin shell of compact bone
c) Thick shell of compact bone d) None of the above
Q:50 The chief bone minerals are
a) Calcium b) phosphate c) sodium d) Chlorine e) a & b
Q:51 What type of joints move around one axis
a) Hing joints b) Condyloid joints c) Pivot joints d) Gliding joint
Q:52 The joint of wrist is example of
a) Condyloid joint b) Pivot joint c) Hing joint d) Gliding joint
Q:53 What type of joint allow only flexion an extension?
a) Gliding joint b) Hing joint c) Pivot joint d) Condyloid and saddle joints
Q:54 Where are any two or more bones articulated?
a) Tissue b) Joints c) Heart d) Kidney
Q:55 The joint between the bones of skull have
a) Ground substance b) Fibrous tissue c) Multinucleated cells d) Cartilage pads
Q:56 All statements are true about synovial joints ‘Except’
a)Classified according to movement b)Shape of bone involved
c) Caveated joints d) Immovable joints

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Q:57 The joints between the vertebral bodies and symphysis pubis are example of
a) Fibrous Joints b) slightly moveable joints c) Caveated joints d) None of above
Q:58 The word synovia means
a) Thin fluid b) Thick fluid c) Powder d) Gel
Q:59 Who is permitting, flexion, extension abduction, adduction and circumduction
a) Condyloid joints b) Fibrous joint c) Cartilaginous joints d) None

Lymph
Q:60 Lymph flows from tissues towards
a) Lower limb b) Upper limb c) Spinal cord d) blood
Q:61 Lymphatic system is
a) Close system b) Open system c) One way system d) a & c
Q:62 Lymph derived from
a) Blood & bone b) Blood & cell c) Blood & nodes
d) Muscle & tissue e) Blood & tissue
Q:63 The lymphatics means
a) Bone b) Tissue c) Muscle d) Vessel
Q:64 Lymph fluid is
a) Colourful b) Colourless c) Clear d) Turbid e) a & c
Q:65 The composition of lymph include
a) 96% H2O , 4% solid b) 90% solids, 4% H2O

c) 50% H2O, 2% solids d) 96% solids, 4% H2O

Q:66 The structural and functional integrity of tissue is maintained by

a) Cell b) Muscle c) Tissue d) Lymph
Q:67 Bacteria, toxin and foreign bodies are removed form tissue via
a) Erythrocytes b) Lymph c) Urine d) Bile juice
Q:68 Who is closely related with interstitial fluid
a) Lymph b) Blood plasma c) Blood sera d) None
Q:69 How much percentage of protein present in lymph
a) Lower b) Higher c) Intermediate d) No
Q:70 The nature of lymph is
a) Inotropic b) Isotonic c) Acidic d) Basic
Q:71 The protein accumulated in tissue spaces can return to blood only via
a) Bone b) Spinal fluid c) Vertebrae d) Lymphatics
Q:72 what is meant by lacteals
a) Lymph in the villi small intestine
b) Lymph in the Pilli of cell membrane
c) Lymph in the cilia of Nasal membrane
d) Lymph in the bronchi
Q:73 The main function of lymph are
a) Défense b) Haematopoiesis c) Secretion d) Absorption e) a&b

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Q:74 Filtration belongs to what type of function of lymph
a) Haematopoiesis b) Defense c) Secretion d) Absorption
Q:75 Blood is a type of
a) Epithelial tissue b) Connective tissue c) Muscle tissue d) Nervous tissue
Q:76 Non cellular elements of blood are called
a) plasma b) formed elements c) Erthyrocytes d) ground substances
Q:77 How much percentage of cellular elements are found in blood
a) 45% b) 50% c) 65% d) 60%
Q:78 The second name of RBCs is
a) sera b) Erythrocytes c) Platelets d) leukocytes
Q:79 The blood coagulating cells are called
a) Erythrocytes b) Platelets c) Sera d) leukocytes
Q:80 How much percentage of Non cellular part of blood is present
a) 45% b) 50% c) 55% d) 65%
Q:81 The fluid part (water) of plasma is
a) 90% b) 92% c) 100% d) 95% e) 91%
Q:82 The prothrombin present in plasma is
a) 0.1% b) 1% c) 0.5% d) 0.01%
Q:83 The complement system present in plasma is
a) 20 protein b) 20 carbohydrates c) 20 lipids d) 30 protein
Q:84 Urea , uric acid, creatinine, amino acids are
a) Non protein phosphorus substance b) Non protein Nitrogenous substance
b) c) Non-protein Sulphur substance d) None
Q:85 SGPT is
a) Non-Nitrogenous substance b) Pigment
c) Non-Protein nitrogenous substance d) Enzymes
Q:86 Bilirubin is
a) Enzymes b) Pigment c) Sulphur compound d) Non-Nitrogenous Substance
Q:87 The origin of RBCs is
a) Lymph nodes b) Red bone marrow c) Spleen d) Fragments
Q:88 The origin of WBCs is
a) Spleen b) Lymph nodes c) Megakaryocytes d) Red bone marrow e) a & b
Q:89 The life span of WBCs is
a) 120 days b) 12 – 13 days c) 120 hours d) 13 – 20 days
Q:90 The life span of platelets is
a) 13 – 20 days b) 5 – 9 days c) 120 days d) 4 – 5 days
Q:91 Erythrocytes are
a) Biconcave b) Regular shaped c) Irregular shaped d) flat e) a & d
Q:92 All the statements are true for RBCs’ EXCEPT’
a) Biconcave b) Non nucleated
3
b) c) 5 – 5.5 million sperm mm d) Red e) Two types
Q:93 The white blood cells are
a) Purple b) White c) Red d) Turbid

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Q:94 The colour of platelet is
a) Red b) Grey c) Purple d) White
Q:95 The types of WBCs are
a) Two b) One c ) Three d) Four
Q:96 The WBCs and platelet are
a) Irregular shaped b) Biconcave c) Concave d) Regular shaped
Q:97 The purple reddish colour of blood is due to
a) O2 b) CO2 c) Na d) PO2
Q:98 The bright red colour of blood is due to
a) CO2 b) PO2 c) Ca++ d) O2
Q:99 The average volume of blood is
a) 6 litters b) 5.6 litters c) 5 litters d) 4 litters
Q:100 In new born baby , the volume of blood is approximately
a) 450 litters b) 460 litters c) 450 litters d) 430 litters
Q:101 The volume of blood in female is approximately
a) 5 litters b) 4.5 litters c) 5 ml d) 4.5 ml
Q:102 The normal condition the PH of blood is
a) 7.5 b) 7.1 c) 7.4 d) 6.5
Q:103 The blood in 5 – times more viscous than
a) Honey b) Water c) Organic solvent d) Oil
Q:104 The blood is more viscous than water is due to the presence of
a) RBCs and plasma protein b) WBCs and RBCs
c) Platelet and RBCs d) WBCs and platelets
Q:105 Haemoglobin present in
a) WBCs b) RBCs c) Plasma protein d) Platelets
Q:106 The normal count of RBCs in female is
a) 4.4 million/cu mm b) 4.7 million/cu mm c)4.3 million/cu mm d)5.4 million/cu mm
Q:107 The normal count of RBCs in infants is
a) 7.0 million/ cu mm b) 7.8 million/cu mm
c) 6.0 million/cu mm d) 6.0 million/cu mm
Q:108 The normal count of RBCs in female is
a) 6.0 million/cu mm b) 4.5million/cu mm
c) 5.4 million/mm d) 5.4 million/cu mm
Q:109 Nature of RBCs do not contain
a) Mitochondria b) Ribosomes c) Nucleus d) Golgi bodies e) a&c
Q:110 The proportion of Hb in RBCs is
a) 35% b) 2% c) 65% d) 33%
Q:111 The proportion of water in RBCs is
a) 35% b) 2% c) 33% d) 65%
Q:112 The edge of the disk of RBCs is
a) Dum bell shaped b) Torus – shaped rim c) Screw shaped d) Cork shaped
Q:113 The distinctive biconcave shape of RBCs optimize
a) Flow properties of blood b) Maximization of laminar flow
c) Minimization of platelet scatter d) All of above

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Q:114 The neonatal, the life span of RBCs is
a) Large b) Short c) Intermediate d) None
Q:115 For energy requirements, the RBCs depend upon
a) Plasma protein b) Plasma glucose c) Fatty acid d) Minerals
st
Q:116 In 1 trimester , RBCs are produce from fetal life in
a) Bone marrow b) Lymph nods c) Yolk sac d) Liver
rd
Q:117 In 3 trimester of pregnancy and after birth, RBCs are produced from
a) Liver b) Spleen c) Lymph nods d) Bone marrow
nd
Q:118 In 2 trimester , RBCs are produced from
a) Liver b) Spleen c) Lymph nods d) Bone marrow e) a,b and c
Q:119 After the age of 25 years, RBCs are produced in
a) Sternum b) Ribs c) Vertebrae d ) Ilium e) All
Q:120 Which factor are needed for erythropoiesis
a) Fe b) Vitamin C c) Folic acid d) All
Q:121 Protein are necessary for the synthesis of __________ in RBCs
a) Albumin b) Globin c) Plasmin d) Keratin
Q:122 In RBCs, Vit. B12 is essential for the synthesis of
a) RNA b) Nucleus c) DNA d) Chromosomes
Q:123 When blood oxygen is decrease, then kidney released
a) Leukotriene b) Erythropoietin c) Albumin d) Globulin
Q:124 The count of blood is low during
a) Sleep b) Early morning c ) Evening d) a & b
Q:125 How much variation occurs in RBCs during 24 hours
a) 6% b) 1% c) 5% d) 2%
Q:126 The RBCs count highest during
a) Morning b) Evening c) Afternoon d) Noon
Q:127 When external temperature increase then
a) RBCs count increase b) RBCs count decrease
c) WBCs count increase d) Platelet count decrease
Q:128 At high altitude, the RBCs count increase due to
a) Lack of oxygen b) Higher of oxygen level
c) High level of CO2 d) Low level of CO2
Q:129 When RBCs count increase then this condition is called
a) Xerostomia b) Hypokalaemia c) Hypoxia d) Reduction
Q:130 Repeated X – Rays decrease RBCs count by
a) Increasing the bone marrow b) Depressing bone marrow
c) Depressing the plasma d) depressing the globulin
Q:131 The respiratory function of RBCs also contain an enzymes called
a) Carbonic anhydrase b) Lipase c) Acetyl CoA d) a – Amylase
Q:132 RBCs help to maintain and base balance by
a) Water b) CO2 c) O2 d) Buffering action
Q:133 A red, oxygen carrying pigment in RBCs called
a) Haemoglobin b) Globulin c) Plasmin d) Albumin

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Q:134 Haemoglobin contains haem in what quantity
a) 4% b) 1% c) 9% d) 2%
Q:135 The globin in haemoglobin is
a) 9% b) 65% c) 96% d) 45%
Q:136 The normal value of Hb in fetus and new born is
a) 3gm/10ml b) 14gm/100ml c) 23gm/100ml d) 14gm/10ml
Q:137 Regulation of Hb depends upon the regulation of
a) RBCs b) WBCs c) Platelets d) All
Q:138 The normal value of Hb in female is
a) 14 – 16mg/100ml b) 12 – 14gm/100ml
c) 23 – 25gm/100ml d) 12 – 14gm/100ml
Q:139 Which of following vitamin are necessary for the synthesis of Hb
a) Vit B12 b) VIt C c) Vit D d) Vit E d) a & b
Q:140 Which metal consists haemoglobin
a) Platinum b) Fe c) Hg d) Cu
Q:141 Which protein is necessary for the synthesis of Hb
a) Keratin b) Albumin c) Globin d) lactin
Q:142 Hb act as a strong buffer and helps to maintain th PH due to presence of
a) Fe b) Globin c) O2 d) All
Q:143 How much time is required by RBCs to circulate the body one time
a) 30 sec b) 5 sec c) 20 sec d) 10 sec
Q:144 The decrease level of Hb% in the blood below the reference level is called
a) Anemia b) Hypokalemia c) Hypoxia d) All of above
Q:145 Increase rate of destruction of RBC is called
a) Peptic Ulcer b) Trauma c) Haemolytic anemia d) Aplastic anemia
Q:146 Thalassemia is due to the deficiency of
a) Vit B12 b) Fe c) Globin d) O2
Q:147 Disturbance of proliferation and differentiation of stem cell cause
a) Aplastic anemia b) Pure red blood cell aplasia c) Anemia
due to renal failure
d) Anemia due to endocrine disorder e) All
Q:148 Abnormal form of Hb cause
a) Sickle cell anemia b) Iron deficiency anemia
b) c) Malignancy d) Megaloblastic anemia
Q:149 When the RBCs, WBCs and platelets count are decreased due to bone marrow aplasia is
called:
a) Megaloblastic anemia b) Aplastic anemia
c) Iron deficiency anemia d) haemolytic anemia
Q:150 Fanconi’s anemia is
a) Acquired b) Congenital c) Radiation d) Medicine
Q:151 Secondary aplastic anemia is
a) Congenital b) Acquired c) Passive d) Radiation
Q:152 Chloramphenicol and methotrexate cause
a)Plastic anemia b) Aplastic anemia c) Haemolytic anemia d) Iron deficiency anemia

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Q:153 The treatment of aplastic anemia includes
a) Bone marrow transplantation b) Regular red cell concentration transfusion
c) Platelet transfusion d) Use of antibiotic and steroids e) All
Q:154 When erythroblast are large then, this condition is called
a) Aplastic anemia b) Thalassemia
c) Haemolytic anemia d)Megaloblastic anemia
Q:155 The component of vit B12 are
a) Fish tap worm infestation b) Bacterial blind loop syndromes
c) Water born E.coli d) a & b
Q:156 Disorder of terminal ilium included granulomatous disorder, neoplasm are due to
a) Vit B12 deficiency b) Iron deficiency c) Oxygen deficiency d) Protein deficiency
Q:157 Pernicious anemia is due to
a) Iron deficiency b) Aplastic anemia c) Haemolytic deficiency
d) Vit B12 deficiency e) Intrinsic factor deficiency
Q:158 Which of following drugs that impair DNA metabolism folic acid anemia
a) Mercaptopurine b) Fluorouracil c) Cytocin d) Barbiturates e) a,b and c
Q:159 The pernicious anemia is treated with
a) Hydroxocobalamin b) Cyanocobalamin c) Hematopoetin d) All
Q:160 Hydroxocobalamin is injected through
a) Intramuscularly b) Intravenously c) Intrathecally d) Intradermally
Q:161 How much dose of Hydroxocobalamin is necessary for every three months for the rest of
patient life
a) 2000 microgram b) 2000g c) 1000 microgram d) 1000g
Q:162 Cheilosis is caused by
a) Folic acid deficiency anemia b) Vit B12 deficiency anemia
c) iron deficiency anemia e) All
Q:163 The daily dose of folic acid
a) 5mg b) 4mg c) 2mg d) 5g
Q:164 When inadequate amount of iron is present for haemoglobin synthesis, the condition is
called
a) Folic acid deficiency anemia b) Iron deficiency anemia
c) Vit B12 deficiency anemia d) Intrinsic factor deficiency anemia
Q:165 Koilonychias, glossitis and angular stomatitis, dysphagia are caused by
a) Iron deficiency anemia b) Vit B12 deficiency anemia
c) Folic acid deficiency anemia d) O2 deficiency
Q:166 Iron dextran can be given daily in doses of
a) 50 – 100mg b) 50 – 200g c) 50 – 250mg d) 50 – 85mg
Q:167 Iron dextran should be given
a) Deep IM b) IV c) Intradermal d) Intrathecal
Q:168 The daily dose of ferrous sulphate is
a) 600g b) 600mg c) 200mg d) 500mg
Q:169 Break down of RBCs is called
a) Aplastic anemia b) Megaloblastic anemia c) Haemolytic anemia d) Folic acid
deficiency anemia

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Q:170 In haemolytic anemia, RBCs are
a) Smooth b) Fragile c) Hard d) Tough
Q:171 The number of RBCs in haemolytic anemia in
a) Decrease b) Increase c) Normal d) None
Q:172 Hereditary spherocytosis caused
a) Metabolic defect in RBCs membrane b) Metabolic defect in RBCs cytoplasm
c) Metabolic defect in WBCs membrane d) Metabolic defect in RBCs DNA
Q:173 Treatment of hereditary spherocytosis is
a) Folic acid 5mg/day b) Blood transfusion
c) Splenectomy is advisable in all the mild cases d) All
Q:174 Sickle cell anemia is due to
a) Inherited genetic disorder b) Iron deficiency c) O2 deficiency d) RBCs destruction
Q:175 The sickle cell anemia , the Hb is
a) Less than 9% b) less than 8% c) More than 8% d) More than 9%
Q:176 In sickle cell anemia, the abnormal form of Hb called
a) Hb – C b) Hb – Fe c) Hb – S d) Hb – D
Q:177 Sickle cell is treated with
a) Silver nitrate b) Iron dextran c) Folic acid d) Methotrexate
Q:178 When RBCs are settle down during the presence of anticoagulant from blood specimen is
called
a) Creaming b) Suspension c) Emulsion d) Sedimentation
Q:179 The rate of setting of RBCs occurs is known as
a) Erythrocytes sedimentation b) Heam sedimentation rate
c)Globin sedimentation rate d) All
Q:180 The normal value of E.S for male by westergen method is
a) 5 – 6mm b) 6 – 10mm c) 5 – 10mm d) 4 – 10mm
Q:181 The normal value of E.S.R for female by Wintrob method is
a) 0 – 14mm b) 0 – 15m c) 0 – 13mm d) 0 – 15mm
o
Q:182 When temperature above 20 C, then E.S.R will
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Normal d) None
Q:183 Due to decrease viscosity , E.S.R is
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Moderately sink d) None
Q:184 The normal value of E.S.R for male by wintrobes method is
a) 0 – 8mm b) 0 – 10mm c) 0 – 12mm d) 0 – 15mm
Q:185 The normal value of E.S.R for female by westergren method is
a) 5 – 10mm b) 5 – 15mm c) 10 – 15mm d) 10 – 15m
Q:186 Condition in which E.S.R decreased
a) Cardiac failure b) Polycythemia
c) Afibrinogenaemia d) Malignancy e) a, b &c
Q:187 E.S.R reaches normal level after delivery at
a) 3 – 5 weeks b) 3 – 4 Weeks c) 1 Week d) 2 Weeks
Q:188 The mobile units of body protective system are
a) WBCs b) RBCs c) Platelets d) All

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Q:189 White blood are classified, in how much groups?
a) Two b) Four c) Three d) One
Q:190 How much types of granulocytes are present
a) Three b) Four c) Two d) One
Q:191 The neutrophils in granulocytes are
a) 60.2% b) 63% c) 62.0% d) 6.3%
Q:192 The cytoplasmic granules are present in
a) Granular leukocytes b) Erythrocytes c) Agranular leukocytes d) Plateletes
Q:193 The amount of lymphocytes present in leukocytes is
a) 40% b) 22% c) 30% d) 10%
Q:194 Granular leukocytes contain basophils are
a) 0.4% b) 0.1% c) 0.2% d) 0.3%
Q:195 Monocytes present in granular leukocytes are
a) 5% b) 5.2% c) 4.2% d) 5.3%
Q:196 The average number of WBCs is
a) 4000/mm3 b) 7000/mm3 c) 11000/m3 d) 11000/mm3
Q:197 Granular leukocytes contain eosinophils are
a) 3% b) 2.3% c) 1% d) 2%
Q:198 All WBCs are rich in
a) Nucleoprotein b) glycogen c) Cholesterol d) Lipids e) All
Q:199 The normal value of lymphocytes is
a) 500/mm3 b) 2750/mm3 c) 2650/mm3 d) 450/mm3
Q:200 The life span of monocytes is
a) 4 days in blood b) 10-12 hours in blood c) 15 hours in tissues d) 10 days in tissue
Q:201 The normal value of monocytes is
a) 35/mm3 b) 450/mm3 c) 2750/mm3 d) 1000/mm3
Q:202 The WBCs are developed during fetal life from
a) Mesoderm of yolk sac b) Endoderm of yolk sac
c) Ectoderm of yolk sac d) Bone marrow
Q:203 Granulocytes and monocytes are produced after birth by
a) Liver b) Spleen c) Bone marrow d) Lymph nodes
Q:204 Lymphocytes and plasma cells are mainly produced by
a) Spleen b) Tonsils c) Thymus d) Lymph nodes e) All
Q:205 The word phagocytes means
a) Engulf b) Destroy c) Digest d) Respire
Q:206 Which one of following form β and ɣ serum globulin
a) Neutrophils b) Monocytes c) Lymphocytes d) Eosinophils e) a & b
Q:207 Phagocytosis occurs by
a) Neutrophils b) Monocytes c) basophils d) Eosinophils
Q:208 Which one of following converted into fibroblast at site of inflammation
a) Monocytes b) Lymphocytes c) Neutrophils d) Basophils
Q:209 Who secretes heparin
a) Basophils b) Neutrophils c) Eosinophils d) Monocytes

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Q:210 The second name of platelete is
a) Leukocytes b) Erythrocytes c) Thrombocytes d) None
Q:211 All statement are true for platelet ‘Except’
a) Small b) Irregular c ) Round or oval d) Nucleated
Q:212 The diameter of platelet is
a) 2 – 4meter b) 4 meter c) 2 – 4 micron d) Micron
Q:213 The normal count of platelet in blood is
a) 150,000 to 30,000/cu mm b) 150,000 to 40,000/cu mm
c) 130,000 to 10,000/cu mm d) 10,000 to 20,000/cu mm
Q:214 The life span of platelet is
a) 8 Days b) 4 – 9Days c) 10 Days d) 9 – 11Days
Q:215 The formation of prothrombin activator is initiated by
a) Extrinsic pathway b) Intrinsic pathway c) Leukocytes d) a & b
Q:216 All the statement are true for blood coagulation ‘Except’
a) Formation of intrinsic and extrinsic factor b) Formation of thrombin
c) Formation of instable fibrin d) To form a clot
Q:217 The half lives of fibrinogen is
a) 3 days b) 4 days c) 2 hour d) 3 hours
Q:218 Factor II, VII, IX and X are dependent on
a) Vit B6 b) Vit B12 c) Vit K d) Vit E
Q:219 Factor XII and XIII are formed in
a) Liver b) Spleen c) Lymph d) Bone marrow
Q:220 All are true about blood group ‘Except’
a) Inherited character b) Transmitted from parent to their off springs
c) Transmitted through genes/chromosomes d) Not cause antigen – antibody reaction
Q:221 Commonly occurring antigens are
a) 30 b) 20 c ) 10 d) 50
Q:222 Antigens are present on surface of
a) Cytoplasm b) Nucleus c ) Cell membrane d ) DNA
Q:223 Classical blood group are
a) ABO b) Rh – factor c) KELL d) L
Q:224 Agglutination is caused by
a) Antigen b) Antibody c) Agglutinogen d) b & c
Q:225 Genotype OB or BB produced agglutinogen
a) O b) OB c) BB d) B
Q:226 Rh factor are
a) Antibody b) Antigen c) Chemical d) Fuels
Q:227 Th Rh blood group system is due to presence of
a) Chromosomes E b) Gene E c) Gene D d) Allele F
Q:228 How much type of blood circulation in body?
a) Two b ) Three c) One d) Five
Q:229 systemic circulation also known as
a) General circulation b) Peripheral circulation c) Local circulation d) a&b

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Q:230 General circulation supplies all, Except
a) Lower limb b) Upper limb c) Spinal cord d) lungs e) Brain
Q:231 Pulmonary circulation of blood is from
a) Brain b) Pelvic gridle c) Chest d) Lungs
Q:232 The hollow, conical, muscular organ situated in middle mediastinum is
a) Lungs b) Kidney c) Brain d) Heart
Q:233 The arteries are composed of three coats of
a) Tunica b) Pericardia c) Plura d) Sac
Q:234 Which one deliveres blood to capillaries
a) Venules b) Vein c) Artery d) Arterioles
Q:235 Diffuse networks of blood are
a) Artery b) Vein c) venules d) Capillaries
Q:236 There are blood vessel that connect capillaries with veins
a) Arterioles b) Artery c) Venules d) Vein
Q:237 Cardiac muscles are
a) Involuntary b) Striated c) Voluntary d) Non striated e ) a & b
Q:238 When number of cell function as a single unit, the whole function unit is called
a) Bradycardia b) Tachycardia c) Syncytium d) Rhythmicity
Q:239 Atomicity is the ability of cells to undergo
a) Depolarization b) Polarization c) Repolarization d) None
Q:240 The transfer of cardiac impulses from sinoatrial nodes to all the cardiac muscle is
a) Atomicity b) Pathway c) Conductivity d) Contractility
Q:241 Contractility enhanced by
a) ATP b) ADP c) Calcium ion b) NAD e) a&c
Q:242 An already excited cardiac muscle cannot re – excited by a normal stimulus is called
a) Pathway b) Refractory period c) Rhythmicity d) Nature
Q:243 The relaxation period of cardiac cycle is called
a) Diastole b) All or nothing law c) Systole d) Refractory period
Q:244 The contraction period of cardiac cycle is called
a) Diastole b) Systole c) Refractory period d) Murmurs
Q:245 According to Wigger, the cardiac cycle is devided into
a) 7 stages b) 8 stages c) 2 stages d) 6 stages
Q:246 The cardiac cycle occur In only
a) 7 seconds b) 10 seconds c) 0.5 seconds d) 0.8 seconds
Q:247 Maximum ejection phase in ventricular systole is
a) 0.05 seconds b ) 0.141 seconds c) 0.112 second d) 0.033 second
Q:248 The total time of ventricular systole is
a) 0.071 second b) 0.161 second c) 0.03 second d) 0.303 second
Q:249 The total time of ventricular systole is
a) 0.120 sec b) 0.495 second c) 0.303 second d) 0.71 second
Q:250 Rapid inflow in ventricular systole occurs in
a) 0.033 sec b) 0.161 sec c) 0.071 sec d) 0.110 sec
Q:251 Heart sound are heard with the help of
a) Amplifier b) Stethoscope c) Mercury d) None

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Q:252 The sound are made by the closure of
a) Heart valve b) Acceleration of heart c) Declaration of heart d) All
Q:253 The first sound due to closure of
a) A – v valve b) S – A valve c) Mitral valve d) Aortic valve
nd
Q:254 The 2 heart sound produced by vibration associated with the closure of
a) A – V valve b) S – A valve c) Semi lunar valve d) a & b
Q:255 The degree of turbulence of blood flow in heart chambers is
a) Lub b) Dub c) Murmurs d) All
Q:256 Murmurs are
a) Abnormal heart sounds b) Increase cardiac output
c) Normal heart sound d) Increase cardiac input
Q:257 The first ECG machine was designed by
a) Enithoven b) Wigger c) Mc karty d) Gringnard
Q:258 The normal ECG shows
a) Deflection or waves b) Isoelectric segment c) Different electric segment d) a&b
Q:259 Abnormal ECG is composed of
a) P waves b) QRS complex c) T waves d) All
Q:260 As the atria depolarize prior to contraction caused
a) T – wave b) P – wave c) R – wave d) QRS complex
Q:261 The duration of P – wave is
a) 1 second or less b) 2 second c) 0.1 second d) 0.01 second
Q:262 The voltage of P – wave is
a) 0.1 – 0.2 mv b) 0.2 mv c) 0.1 – 0.3 mv d) 0.3 – 0.4 mv
Q:263 As the ventricle depolarize prior to contraction caused
a) P – wave b) QRS complex c) T – wave d) All
Q:264 A negative S – wave follows the
a) Q – wave b) R – wave c) T – wave d) P – wave
Q:265 The duration of QRS complex is
a) 0.1 second b) 0.11 second c) 0.5 second d) 0.16 second
Q:266 The amplitude of QRS complex is
a) 5 – 1.6 mm b) 1.6 mm c) 4 – 1.6 m d) 5 – 1.6 m
Q:267 As the ventricle recovered from depolarization caused
a) Q – wave b) P – wave c) T – wave d) U – wave
Q:268 The voltage for T – wave is
a) 0.3 mv b) 0.2 mv c) 2 – 0.3 mv d) 1 – 0.2 mv
Q:269 A slight deflection seen after T – wave and preceding the next P – wave is
a) V – wave b) Q – wave c) R – wave d) S – wave
Q:270 The onset of P – wave to beginning of QRS complex
a) RR interval b) QT interval c) ST interval d) QRS interval
Q:271 The cardiac impulse travel from S A node to the ventricle in PR interval in duration of
a) 0.12 to 0.2 sec b) 0.13 – 0.20 second c) 0.12 to 0.50 sec d) 0.1 – 0.2 second
Q:272 This is occur during ventricular depolarizing and atrial repolarization
a) QRS interval b) QT interval c) SR interval d) PR interval

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Q:273 The duration of QRS interval is
a) 0.7 second b) 0.8 – 0.10 second c) 0.7 – 0.10 second d) 0.8 – 0.12 second
Q:274 Which one is measure from the onset of the Q wave to the end of T – wave
a) St interval b) QT – interval c) SR – interval d) PR – interval
Q:275 The duration of QT interval is
a) 0.40 – 0.41 second b) 0.40 – 0.43 second
c) 0.40 – 0.3 second d) 0.40 – 0.4 second
Q:276 The normal value of systolic blood pressure is
a) 110 mg Hg b) 110 mm Hg c) 120 mm Hg d) 120 mg H
Q:277 The normal value of diastolic blood pressure is
a) 90 mm Hg b) 80 mg Hg c ) 80 mm Hg d) 85 mm Hg
Q:278 Systolic pressure develop at the peak of
a) Ventricular systole b) Ventricular diastole
c) Arterial systole d) Arterial diastole
Q:279 Diastolic blood develop at the peak of
a) Ventricular systole b) Arterial systole
c) Arterial diastole d) Ventricular diastole
Q:280 sphygomamometer is either of
a) Mercury b) Cupper c) Aneroid d) Gold e) a & c
Q:281 Which of following method are used to measure the blood pressure
a) Palpatory b) Wentrobes c) Westergen d) Auscultatory e) a&d
Q:282 When blood pressure is lowest
a) Early morning b) Noon c) After noon d) Evening
Q:283 The systolic blood pressure at the age of elderly is
a) 110 – 120 mm Hg b) 80 – 90 mm Hg c) 140 – 150 mm Hg d) 90 – 110 mm Hg
Q:284 Which one of factor that slightly lower the both systolic and diastolic B.P in female than
male
a) Age b) Menopause c) Puberty d) All
Q:285 The blood pressure is calculated by the following formula
a) Stroke volume × heart rate = B.P b) Cardiac output × peripheral resistance = B.P
c) EDV - ESV = B.P d) None
Q:286 Pulse of wrist often measured by feeling
a) Artery of wrist b) Vein of the wrist c ) Artery of ankle d) Vein of neck
Q:287 The rhythmic contraction and expression of an artery called
a) Blood pressure b) Sound c) Pulse d) Wave
Q:288 Pulse rate is
a) Heart beats / per minute b) Heart beat per second
c) Heart beat per hour d) Heart beat per day
Q:289 The multiplying factor for heart beat to calculated is
a) Six b) Five c) Two d) One
Q:290 TO determine the heart rate, one feel the pulse inside the wrist for
a) 20 second b) 30 second c) 10 second d) 15 second
Q:291 Bleeding or abnormal blood flow called
a) Anemia b) Haemorrhage c) Hypertension d) diabetes

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Q:292 The term haemorrhage derived from
a) Greek b) English c) Latin d) French
Q:293 The meaning of haima is
a) Serum b) Plasma c) Blood d) Lymph
Q:294 Th transient expansion of veins due to pressure changes is called
a) Arterial pulse b) Radial pulse c) Venous pulse d)Heart rate
Q:295 The transient expansion of arteries due to internal pressure changes in
a) Arterial pulse b) Venous pulse c) Radial pulse d) Heart rate
Q:296 Internal haemorrhage is the bleeding of
a) Viscera b) Brain c) Bone d) a & b
Q:297 Which of following factor where chronic haemorrhage occur
a) Purpura b) Haemophilia c ) Menorrhagia d) All
Q:298 Hg is a symbol of
a) Mercury b) Cupper c) Zinc d) Gold

Respiratory System
Q:299 The respiratory system is divided into
a) 2 tracts b) 3 tracts c) 4 tracts d) One tracts
Q:300 Bronchi and trachea are a part of
a) Lower respiratory tracts b) Upper respiratory tracts
c) Lower abdomen d) Upper part of GIT
Q:301 The principal purpose of respiration to supply
a) O2 to tissue b) Removal CO2 from tissue c) Kill the toxin d) a & b
Q:302 Which type of function performed by/through respiration
a) Pulmonary ventilation b) Diffusion Of O2 andCO2 b/w the alveoli and blood

b) c) Transport of O2 and CO2 in blood d) Regulation pf ventilation

Q:303 The word pulmo means

a) Brain b) Lung c) Bronchi d) Trachea
Q:304 When the pressure inside the lungs is less then atmospheric pressure, then important factor
develop is called
a) Osmosis b) Diffusion c) Pressure gradient d) Transportation
Q:305 The principal muscle of inspiration is
a) Diaphragm b) Scalene c) Serratus anterior d) Pectoral minor
Q:306 The mechanism of respiration, the ribs move
a) Upward b) Downward c) Backward d) Forward
Q:307 When air moves from lung alveoli toward atmosphere is called
a) Inspiration b) Expiration c) Respiratory collapse d) Cardiac
arrest
Q:308 When air moves from atmosphere toward lungs then it is called
a) Expiration b) Respiratory arrest c) Inspiration d) Diffusion

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Q:309 The value of volume of air expired or inspired in each normal breath is
a) 400ml b) 50ml c) 500ml d) 40ml
Q:310 The extra volume of air that can be inspired forcefully beyond the normal is
a) 300ml b) 30ml c) 3000ml d) 300L
Q:311 The extra volume than can be expired forcefully, beyond the normal is called
a) Tidal volume b) Inspiratory reserve volume
c) Expiratory reserve volume d) Residual volume
Q:312 The value of residual volume is
a) 110ml b) 1200L c) 120L d) 1200ml
Q:313 Force expiratory volume in one second is
a) 3680 ml b) 2500 ml c) 5800ml d) 6000 ml
Q:314 The sum of all pulmonary volume is called
a) Vital capacity b) Total lung capacity c) Minute respiratory volume d) FEUI
Q:315 The vital capacity is sum of
a) Tidal volume b) Inspiratory volume c) Expiratory reserve volume d) All
Q:316 In female, the vital capacity of respiration is less than male of
a) 30% b) 20% c) 40% d) 10%
Q:317 The average diameter of each alveoli is
a) 0.2 mm b) 0.3 m c) 0.1 mm d) 0.01 mm
Q:318 How much alveoli are present in both lungs
a) 30 million b) 30 billion c) 300 million d) 40 million
Q:319 The average thickness of respiratory membrane is
a) 0.3 μm b) 0.6 μm c) 0.1 μm d) 0.4 μm
Q:320 The pressure difference in respiration is directly proportional to
a) Respiratory membrane b) Digestive membrane
c) Cardiac membrane d) Neural membrane
Q:321 The thickness of respiratory membrane is inversely proportional to
a) Diffusion of gasses b) Diffusion of lymph
c) Transport of lymph d) Transport of blood
Q:322 How much oxygen is transported from lungs to the tissue in combination with haemoglobin
a) 3% b) 90% c) 97% d) 98%
Q:323 Which gas is combined with haemoglobin to form oxyhaemoglobin
a) Neon b) Oxygen c) CO2 d) H2
Q:324 70% CO2 is transported in the form of
a) Carbohydrates b) Bicarbonates c) Citrates d) CO
Q:325 Carbino haemoglobin contain the amount of CO2 is
a) 20% b) 23% c) 10% d) 7%
Q:326 Which type of ions enter the plasma to maintain the negativity of RBCs
a) HCO3 b) Cl- c) Ca++ d) K+
Q:327 Regulation of respiration is controlled by
a) Nervous regulation b) Chemical regulation c) Peripheral chemoreceptor
control system d) All
Q:328 Respiratory areas in the brain are located as
a) Horizontally b) Vertically c) Distal d) Bilaterally

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Q:329 The dorsal respiratory group of neurons are located bilaterally in dorsal portion of
a) Pons b) Cerebellum c) Medullaoblongata d) Chalimus
Q:330 In ventral respiratory group of neuron, the neuron extend through
a) Hypothalamus b) Mid brain
c) Nucleus ambigus d)Nucleus retroambigus e) c&d
Q:331 Which one centre stimulate and limit the period of inspiration
a) Apneustic centre b) Pneumotaxic centre c) Nervous controlled centre d) All
Q:332 The inspiratory ramp signals are present to switch off by
a) neumotaxic centre b) Neural centre c) Apneustic centre d) All
Q:333 Which type of ions cannot cross the blood brain barrier and C.S.F barrier
a) Cl- b) HCO3- c) Na++ d) H+

Skin
Q:334 Who is formed self repairing and protective boundary between the internal and
environment of body
a) Bone b) Brain c) Keratin d) Skin
Q:335 The thickest areas of skin are
a) Palms b) Soles c) Eyelids d) Lips e) a & b
Q:336 The superficial layer of skin called
a) Epithelium b) Dermis c) Epidermis d) Endodermis
Q:337 An underlying layer of fatty tissue of skin is
a) Dermis b) Epidermis c) Endodermis d) None
Q:338 The horny layer of epidermis is called
a) Stratum granulosum b) Stratum corneum c) Stratum spinisum d) Stratum lucidum
Q:339 Langerhans cells are a type of
a) Dermis b) Endodermis c) Epidermis d) None
nd
Q:340 The 2 name of dermis is
a) Corneum b) Spinosum c) Conium d) Lucidum
Q:341 Reticular layer in dermis is
a) Thick b) Thin c) Elastic d) Rigid
Q:342 What type of fibbers are found in dermis
a) Reticular fibers b) Papillary fibers c) Collagenous fibers
d) Elastic fibbers e) c&d

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 Digestive system
Q:343 The process in which food passed from mouth to oropharynx then to oesophagus lastly to
stomach called
a) Mastication b) Swallowing c) Digestion d) Absorption
Q:344 The first portion of stomach is
a) Fundus b) Cardia c) Rugae d) Pylorus
Q:345 The most internal layer of GIT is
a) Serosa b) Epithelium c) Longitudinal d) Muscle e) Mucosa
Q:346 The wall of GIT is composed of
a) 3 layers b) 4 layers c) 2 layers d) 6 layers
Q:347 GIT extend from
a) Mouth to oesophagus b) Mouth to rectum
c) Mouth to anal canal d) Mouth to stomach
Q:348 The digestive system also called
a) Respiratory tract b) elementary canal c) Urogenital tract d) Accessory organ
Q:349 The reflexes in secondary peristalsis are transmitted through
a) Autonomic nerve fiber b) Vagal nerve fiber
c) Tissue nerve fiber d) Muscle nerve fiber
Q:350 Retained food in oesophagus cause
a) Contraction b) Relaxation c) Concentration d) Distension
Q:351 When a person swallow a bolus in standing position the bolus moves rapidly through
a) Velocity b) Energy c) Propulsion d) Gravity
Q:352 The peristaltic wave passes from the pharynx to stomach with in
a) 9 – 10 sec b) 4 – 8 sec c) 8 – 10 sec d) 8 – 9 sec
Q:353 The oesophagus shows the type of movements
a) 2 types b) 4 types c) 3 types d) 1 type
Q:354 Pharyngeal stage is
a) Regular stage b) Irregular stage c) Voluntary stage d) Involuntary stage
Q:355 The swallowing centre are
a) Medulla oblongata and cerebellum b) Medulla oblongata and owner pons
c) Medulla oblongata and cerebrum d) Medulla oblongata and upper pons
Q:356 Th parietal cells secrete following which is necessary for absorption of Vitamin B12:
a) Extrinsic factor b) Enzyme c) Intrinsic factor d) Carbohydrates
Q:357 Hcl secreted by
a) Oxyntic cell b) precursor cell c) Chief cell d) Surface mucous cell
Q:358 The chyme pyloric sphincter pushed to duodenum in small amount of
a) 2.7 ml b) 3.7 ml c) 5.7 ml d) 6.7 ml
Q:359 The basic electric rhythm produced once every second
a) 30 sec b) 40 sec c) 50 sec d) 20 sec
Q:360 When stomach filled with food mixing waves moves toward following parts of stomach
a) Pylorus b) Fundus c) Antrum d) Cardia
Q:361 The wall of stomach can bulge outwards to concentrate a quantity of
a) 1.7 lit of food b) 1.4 lit of food c) 1.5 lit of food
d) 1.7 lit of food e) 1.8 lit of food
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Q:362 The segmentation contraction move the chyme to entire length of colon
a) 45 – 48 hrs b) 48 – 46 hrs c) 45 – 46 hrs d) 45 – 49 hrs
Q:363 The haustral contraction usually reach peak intensity in about
a) 20 sec b) 30 sec c) 40 sec d) 50 sec
Q:364 The circular and longitudinal muscle contraction at stimulated point of
a) 2.3 cm b) 2.5 cm c) 2.4 cm d) 5.2 cm
Q:365 Mixing movements in large intestine called
a) Haustration b) Segmentation c) Contraction d) Relaxation
Q:366 Peristaltic rush may cause
a) Loose motion b) Vomiting c) Diarrhoea d) Nausea
Q:367 Propulsive movement of small intestine usually move at a velocity of
a) 0.5 – 2 cm/sec b) 0.4 – 2 cm/sec c) 0.5 – 3 cm/sec d) 0.5 – 1 cm/sec
Q:368 The intestinal wall contraction forcing the chyme towards the
a) Rectum b) Anus c) Ilium d) Colon
Q:369 The longitudinal length of each of intestinal contraction
a) 1 – 2 cm b) 1 – 3 cm c) 2 – 2 cm d) 1-4 cm
Q:370 The stretching of the intestinal wall elicits localized
a) Longitudinal contraction b) Muscular contraction
c) Concentric contraction d) Horizontal contraction
Q:371 The stomach excretes certain alkaloids
a) Codeine b) Morphine c) Epinephrine d) Nor epinephrine

Digestion of carbohydrates + Protein + Lipids

Q:372 Which one of the enzyme of saliva that hydrolyses the starch into disaccharides
a) Ptyalin b) Lactase c) Surase d) Isomaltase e) Maltase
Q:373 Alpha Amylase is secreted by
a) Adrenal gland b) Parotid gland c) Submandibular gland
d) Lingual gland e) Sublingual gland
Q:374 Starch is as
a) Monosaccharides b) Disaccharides c) Poly saccharides
d) Oligosaccharides e) Amino glycerides
Q:375 In the presence of a catalyst (α - amylase) starch is converted into which of the product
a) Glucose b) Sucrose c) Maltose d) Lactose e) Maltotriose
Q:376 How much starch hydrolysed in the mouth
a) 2 – 3% b) 1 – 2% c) 3 – 5% d) 3 -6% e)3-4%
Q:377 Which of location in GIT, the activity of α – amylase is blocked
a) Pharynx b) Oesophagus c) Stomach d) Large intestine e) Small intestine
Q:378 The optimum PH for the activity of α – amylase is
a) 6 – 5 b) 6 – 7 c) 7 – 6 d) 6 – 8 e) 7 – 8
Q:379 Which one of the monosaccharides is a resulting product of sucrose
a) Fructose b) Galactose c) Saccarine f) Lactose e) Maltose

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Q:380 The function of pancreatic amylase is similar to as
a) Gastric enzyme b) Pancreatic enzymes c) Intestinal juice
d) Kidney harmones e) Bile juice
Q:381 Which one of the part of GIT the starch is completely digested by the pancreatic amylase
a) Ilium b) Pylorus c) Duodenum d) Jejenum e) Colon
Q:382 Which of following enzymes are intestinal epithelial
a) Maltase & dextrinase b) dixtrinase & trypsin
c) maltase and trypsin d) a and b e) All of above
Q:383 Microvilli are found in as
a) Small intestinal wall b) Large intestinal wall
c) Lumen of small intestine d) Stomach wall e) Lumen of colon
++
Q:384 Glucose and galactose is coupled with Na by
a) Passive transport b) Active transport c) Diffusion
d)Carrier proteins e)Potassium ions
Q:385 Which one is transported by facilitated diffusion
a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Galactose d) All of above
Q:386 What is meant by endogenous protein
a) Secretory protein b) Dietery protein c) Carrier protein
++
d) Na coupled protein e) All
Q:387 The dietary proteins are taken in diet as
a) 75 – 90gm/day b) 75 – 80gm/day c) 100 – 110gm/day
d) 75 – 100gm/day e)75–85gm/day
Q:388 Pepsin converted the proteins into as
a) Polypeptide b) Peptides c) Proteoses d) Peptones e) All
Q:389 Which of following enzyme is important enzymes of stomach
a) Trypsin b) chymotrysin c) α – amylase d) Pepsin e) Lactase
Q:390 The protein are almost digested in
a) Small intestine b) Stomach c) Large intestine d) Kidney e) All
Q:391 Pepsin is completely inactive at PH about
a) 5 b) 6 c) 4 d) 5.5 e) 5.6
Q:392 The breakdown of protein into peptide is due to
a) Stomach enzyme b) Bile juice c) HCl d) Pancreatic enzymes e) Glucose
Q:393 Trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxytrypsin are enzymes of
a) Stomach b) Intestine c) Colon d) Pancrease e) Liver
Q:394 Amino acid are absorbed in colon by the action of
a) Liver juice b) Electrolytes c) Hcl d) Pepsin and trypsin e) Bacteria
+
Q:395 Na ions are moved and pull the peptide by
a) Concentration gradient b) Facilitated diffusion
c) Passive transport d) Electrochemical gradient
Q:396 Most peptide and amino acids are bind with specific protein which require Na+ binding is
called
a) Co-transport or secondary active transport b) Co-transport and primary active transport
c) Facilitated transport d) Co-transport and facilitated diffusion

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Q:397 Serous glands of tonque are called as
a) Ebner gland b) Parotid gland c) Mandibular gland d) adrenal gland
Q: 398 The triglycerides can digested in mouth and stomach
a) 20 – 30% b) 25 – 35% c) 30 – 35% d) 35 – 40% e) 25 – 26%
Q:399 Which one of the process is necessary for the digestion of fats
a) Emulsion b) Suspension c) Solution d) Flocculation e) Cream formation
Q:400 Small fats globules are formed by the action of
a) Gastric juice b) Pancreatic juice c) Bile juice
d) Bacterial action e) None
Q:401 The fatty acids from the micelles enter the mucosal cell by
a) Active diffusion b) Passive diffusion
c) Carrier protein d) Na+ ions e) None

Saliva / Gastric / Bile juice

Q:402 When the patient has deficient salivation then this condition is called as
a) Diarrhea b) Constipation c ) Vomiting d) Xerostomia e) Insomnia
Q:403 Saliva helps to maintain the oral PH at about what of range?
a) 6.0 b) 4.0 c) 8.0 d) 7.0
Q:404 Which type of secretion or solution helps to neutralizing gastric environment
a) Nacl b) Pepsin c ) Trypsin d) Saliva e) Glucose
Q:405 From which centre of brain, the sensation of thirst stimulated
a) Cerebellum b) Medulla c) Hypothalamus d) Thalamus e) Metathalamus
Q:406 Taste is a
a) Mechanical sensation b) Chemical sensation
c) Electrical stimulation d) electrical sensation
Q:407 Saliva act as a
a) Solute b) Solution c) Solvent d) Taste bud
Q:408 Lysozyme is an
a) Virus killing enzyme b) Bacterolytic enzyme
c) Maleriolytic enzyme d) Fungal killing
Q:409 Which type of antibody present in saliva
a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgE e) IgT
Q:410 Gastric secretion are regulated by
a) Nervous system b) hormonal system c) nervous + hormonal system
d) Hormones + vitamin e) Antibiotics + hormone
Q:411 Gastrin is a
a) Hormones b) Enzyme c) Neurone d) None
Q:412 Enteroendocrine cells are also called
a) ADH b) Parietal cell c) Chief cell d) APUD
Q:413 Mucous secretion have the following factor
a) Ptyalin b) Mucin c) Pepsin d) Trypsin e) Chymotrypsin

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Q:414 Which type of gland is major gland of mouth
a) Pituitary gland b) Thyroid gland
c) Parotid gland d) Follicle stimulating hormones(FSH)
Q:415 The PH of saliva is
a) Neutral b) Acidic c) Basic d) Slightly basic
Q:416 Antiseptic function is performed by
a) Nacl b) Hcl c) Kcl d) NH2 e) cacl
Q:417 Casinogen is co-agulated by
a) Pepsin b) Papain c) Fibrin d) Thrombin e) Renin
Q:418 Casinogen is found as in
a) Fruits b) Vegetables c) Grains d) Milk
Q:419 Intrinsic factor helps in absorption of what product
a) Vit. C b) Vit B c) Starch d) Glucose e) Glycine
Q:420 What type of element is absorbed by Hcl
a) Sulphur b) Phosphorus c) Vit D d) iron
Q:421 Which type of enzyme is responsible for the Formation peptones from protein and also for
curdle milk
a) Pepane b) Pepsin c) Casine d) Trypsin
Q:422 The Exocrine and endocrine type function is found In what type of gland
a) Parotid gland b) Thyroid gland
c) Mandibular gland d) Pancreatic gland e) None
Q:423 The PH of Pancreatic secretion is lies b/w
a) 8.2 – 9 b) 8.2 – 10 c) 7.1 – 8.2 d) 7.2 – 8.2 e) None
Q:424 The endocrine glands produced
a) GH b) ADH c) TSH d) FSH e) Insulin
Q:425 Pancreatic secretion digest the following molecules
a) Protein + fats b) Protein + Carbohydrates
c) Protein + Fats + Carbohydrates d) Carbohydrates + Fats
Q:426 What is ment by hepatocytes
a) Cardiac cells b) Muscle cells
c) Brain Cells d) Liver cells e) Stomach cells
Q:427 The colour of bile juice
a) Pale yellow b) Yellow c) Amber d) Yellow wish green
Q:428 The juice stored and concentrated in
a) Kidney b) Small intestine c) Colon d) Gall bladder
Q:429 The laxative action is a property of
a) Saliva b) Pancreatic secretion c) Bile juice d) Stomach Hcl
Q:430 Which of the source is necessary/important source for neutralizing the Hcl of in small
intestinal stomach
a) Ribonuclease b) Elastase c) Bile juice d) Amylase e) Mucin
Q:431 The bile juice has the following property
a) Increase the surface tension b) Increase the peristaltic activity
c) Decrease/reduce the surface tension d) Converting the fats into suspension

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Q:432 The chief excretory product of bile juice are
a) Cholesterol + fatty acids b) Fatty acids + bacteria
c) lecithin + cholesterol d) Lecithin + creatine

Liver / Urinary system

Q:433 when body needs to conserve water, how much water excreted by urine
a) Large concentration b) Low concentration c) Intermidiate d) Not excreted
Q:434 Which principal regulator of urine composition
a) TSH b) FSH c) ADH d) Somatostatin
Q:435 When ADH release in low concentration than what happened, either kidney excrete urine
a) Low/small volume b) Large volume
c) Not excrete urine d) Intermediate excreted
Q:436 When the urine is concentrated than what condition occur
a) Hypo-osmotic b) Diffusion c) Passive transport d) Hyper-osmotic
Q:437 The formation of urine either diluted or concentrated is achieved by
a) Pepsin b) Pancrease c) Liver d) Gall bladder e) Nephron
Q:438 Nephron is microscopic structure/cell of
a) Liver b) Brain c) Heart d) Kidney
Q:439 The fluid which is filtered by glomerular capillary into bowman’s capsule is called
a) Bowman’s filtrate b) Glomerular filtrate
c) Filtrate of collecting duct d) None of the above
Q:440 What of content is abnormal constituent of urine
a) Sodium b) Iodine c) Mg d) Ketone bodies
Q:441 Creatinine is belong to what class of compounds
a) Organic b) Non-organic c) Halogens d) None of above
Q:442 The nature of urine is
a) Acidic b) Basic c) Slightly acidic d) Slightly basic
Q:443 Ambe or pale yellow colour of urine depends upon the pigment called
a) Cytochrome b) Hypo chrome c) Hyper chrome d) Urochrome
Q:444 The basic function of kidney is to perform or work as clear or clean as
a) Blood serum b) Water c) Proteins d) Blood plasma
Q:445 Glomerulus act as arterial end of
a) Vein b) Artery c) Capillary d) Venules
Q:446 The amount/strength of nephron is cortical region of kidney is
a) 58% b) 56% c) 85% d) 75%
e) 80%
Q:447 The inner zone of kidney is
a) Cortex b) Medulla c) Cortex and medulla d) None of above
Q:448 Mainly the kidney are located in what region
a) Epigestrium b) vertebral column c) Peritoneum d) Lumber region
Q:449 Bean shape structure in human body is called as
a) Liver b) Gall bladder c) Pancreas d) Kidney
Q:450 The Wt. of each kidney in male is about
a) 160gm b) 150mg c ) 155mg d) 150gm
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Q:451 Ureter is an organ part of
a) Excretory system b) Digestive system c) Respiratory system d) Cardia system
Q:452 Bile enters the gall bladder through the following canal
a) Cystic and collecting duct b) Collecting and hepatic ducts
c) cystic and hepatic duct d) None of them
Q:453 The length ofgall bladder is
a) 3 – 7 cm b) 7 – 10 m c) 7 – 9 cm d) 7 – 10 cm
Q:454 How much volume of bile store in gall bladder
a) 30 – 40 ml b) 50 – 60 ml c) 30 – 50 ml d) 30 – 50 L
Q:455 The wall of gall bladder in which mucosal lining arranged in folds is similar to structure of
a) Intestine b) Kidney c) Spleen d) Stomach
Q:456 Liver serves as a site of hematopoiesis during what stage of human life
a) Embryo development b) Fatal development
c) Infant development d) Zygote formation
Q:457 The largest gland of human body is
a) Gall bladder b) Pituitary c) Pancreas d) Liver e) Stomach
Q:458 The Wt. of liver is
a) 3.5Kg b) 1.4 Kg c) 3 – 4Lb d) 4 – 5Lb
Q:459 The secretion of bilirubin is aided by
a) Pancreatic juice b) Gastric juice c) Bacteria d) Bile juice

Classification of Neuron
Q:460 What type of the neuron, where dendrites and axon arise from a common stem and divided
into two process
a) Unipolar neuron b) Pseudo polar neuron c) Bipolar neuron d) Neuron without
axon
Q:461 The most commonly found neuron in CNS are
a) Pseudo polar neuron b) Bipolar neuron c ) Multipolar neuron d) Unipolar neuron
Q:462 Amacrine cell in retina is example of what type of neuron
a) Unipolar b) Bipolar c) Multipolar
d) Pseudo polar e) neuron without axon
Q:463 The transmission of impulse according to physiological is based on
a) Shape b) Location c) Size d) Direction
Q:464 What type of movement found in glands and muscles
a) Sensory b) Locomotion c) Motor d) a & c

Muscle
Q:465 Muscle are
a) Contractile tissue b) fragile tissue c) Paralysis tissue d) None
Q:466 The forces necessary for contraction of muscle are generated by
a) Contractile protein b) fats c) ground substances d) Monosaccharides

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Q:467 The muscle constitute total body weight of
a) 40 – 80% b) 40 – 50% c) 40 – 45% d) 60 – 70%
Q:468 The meaning of myocytes is
a) Muscle cell b) Muscle tissue c) Muscle fiber d) Muscle orgnan e) a & c
Q:469 The proteins found in muscle tissue cause contraction and change
a) Length b) Shape c) Composion d) a & b
Q:470 Muscle are responsible for
a) Maintain the posture b) Change the posture c) Locomotion
d) Movement of internal organ e) All
Q:471 The smooth muscle do not show under microscope
a) Cross striation b) No striation c) Striation d) Granules
Q:472 The smooth muscle are mainly found in
a) Blood muscle b) Hollow viscera c) Brain d)bones e) a & b
Q:473 Smooth muscle run as
a) In different direction b) Regularly organised
c) Parallel to long axis of cell d) Slow e) a & d
Q:474 Skeletal muscle show
a) Intracellular Z – disk b) Motor fibber c) Large no. of nuclei d) a & c
Q:475 The nuclei found One per cell in
a) Skeletal muscle b) Smooth muscle c) Cardiac muscle d) b & c
Q:476 The cell size of skeletal muscle is
a) 10 – 20μm diameter b) 2 – 5μm diameter
c) 50 - 100μm long d) 10 – 100μm diameter
Q:477 The innervation is cardiac muscle is
a) Autonomic b) Motor c) Sympathetic d) a & c
Q:478 The general structure of cardiac muscle is
a) Smooth b) Syncytium c) Bundles of cell d) All
Q:479 The nature of skeletal muscle is
a) Voluntary b) Striated c) Non striated d) a & b
Q:480 The contraction speed of smooth muscle is
a) Fast b) Slow c) Both fast and slow d) No
Q:481 What type of muscle can function independent ly
a) Smooth muscle b) Cardiac muscle c) Skeletal muscle d) All

Neuromuscular junction
Q:482 Cerebrum is a part of
a) Mid brain b) Fore brain c) Hind brain d) Synaptic cleft
Q:483 Hind brain consist of
a) Hypothalamus b) Ponds c) medulla d) b & c
Q:484 Tectum and tegmentum are a part of
a) Mid brain b) Fore brain c) Hind brain d) All
Q:485 The inner layer of spinal cord is composed of
a) White matter b) Purple matter c) Grey matter d) Red colour

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Q:486 How much propective membrane are found in region of spinal cord
a) Three b) Two c) One d) Six
Q:487 All the three protective layers of spinal cord are collectively called as
a) Arachnoid b) menagies c) Myelin sheathed d) Fissure
Q:488 The outside layer of spinal cord is
a) Arachnoid b) Dura matter c) Pia meter d) Cord
Q:489 Spinal cord consist of white matter that in
a) Myelin sheathed nerve fiber b) Dense bands
b) c) Syncytial network d) Cross beams
Q:490 Cerebro spinal fluid circulated in
a) Pia meter b) Dura matter
c) Subarachnoid spaces d) Cerebellum
Q:491 The word synapses means
a) Union b) Flat c) Axon d) Dendrite
Q:492 Anatomical classification of synapses
a) Axo -axonic b) Dendro-synapses c) Somato-somatic d) All
Q:493 Cerebrospinal fluid present in
a) Cerebral ventricles b) Spinal canal
c) Subarachnoid space d) Pia matter e) a , b & c
Q:494 Who are sensitive for internal and external condition of nervous tissue
a) Receptor b) Proton c) CSF d) ECF
Q:495 Excitatory amino acid are
a) Glutamate b) Aspartate c) Glycine d) a & b
Q:496 Histamine and serotonin are
a) Imines b) Amines c) Polypeptides d) All
Q:497 Nitric acid and carbon monoxide are
a) Soluble gases b) Soluble solids c) Insoluble gases d) Insoluble metal
Q:498 Alzheimer’s disease is due to malfunctions of
a) Nor-epinephrine b) GABA c) Glutamate
d) Serotonin e) Acetylcholine
Q:499 Seizures, trenrors and insomnia are due to undersupply of
a) Glumate b) Serotonin c) GABA d) Dopamine
Q:500 Cat cholamines are
a) Dopamine b) Epinephrine c) Nor-epinephrine d) All
Q:501 Depressed mood due to under supply of
a) Nor-epinephrine b) Acetylcholine c) Glutamate d) Glycine
Q:502 Prozac is
a) Anti-hypertensive b) Anti-depressant c) Anti-malarial d) Antibiotic
Q:503 Synapse is a junctional point between
a) Two neurons b) Impulses c) Two ATP molecules d) Syncytium
Q:504 Flight and fight controlled by
a) Sympathetic nerve b) Parasympathetic c) Somatic d) All

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 Cell / Tissue / Bone / Joints
Q:505 What type of joint move around one axis
a) Hing joints b) Condyloid joints c) Pivot joints d) Gliding joints
Q:506 The joint of wrist is example of
a) Condyloid joint b) Pivot joint c) Hing joint d) Gliding joint
Q:507 What type of joint allow only flexion and extension
a) Gliding joint b) Hing joint c) Pivot joint d) Condyloid and saddle joint
Q:508 Where the any two or more bones articulate
a) Tissue b) Joint c) Heart d) Kidney
Q:509 The joint between the bones of skull have
a) Ground substance b) Fibrous tissue
c) Multinucleated cells d) Cartilage pads
Q:510 All statement are true about synovial joints ‘Except’
a) Classified according to movement b) Shape of bone involved
c) Caviated joints d) Immovable joints
Q:511 The joint b/w the vertebral bodies and symphysis pubis are example of
a) Fibrous joint b) Slightly moveable joints
c) Caviated joints d) None of above
Q:512 The word synovia means
a) Thin fluid b) Thick fluid c) Bone d) Muscle
Q:513 The lamella are arranged as
a) Helical b) Spiral c) Rod d) Flat e) a & b
Q:514 The thickness of lamella is
a) 7 – 3μm b) 7 – 3 m c) 7μm d) 3– 7μm
Q:515 In a long bone epiphysis covered by
a) Thin shell of spongy bone b) Thick shell of compact bone
c) Thin shell of compact bone d) None of above
Q:516 Bones of vertebrae are example of
a) Short bone b) Irregular bone c) Flat bone d) Sesamoid bone
Q:517 How much type of cells are found in osseous tissue
a) Three b) Two c) Single d) Five
Q:518 Osteoclast are
a) Tissue b) Muscle c) Cell d) Fiber
Q:519 Who are responsible for the toughness of bone
a) Mineral b) Vit. C c) Phosphate d) Vit.D e) All
Q:520 Who are constitute 65% of dry weight of bone
a) Organic component b) Follicular component
c) Inorganic component d) Glands
Q:521 Spongy bone can be seen by
a) Radiation b) Macroscopically c) Microscopically d) Chromatography
Q:522 Bone Is a type of
a) Epithelium b) Connective tissue c) Muscle tissue d) Nervous tissue
Q:523 The rigidity of bone is due to impregnancy with
a) Mineral salt b) Lymph c) Bone marrow d) All of above
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Q:524 Epithelial tissue are of
a) Two types b) Three types c) Single type d) Six types
Q:525 Ground substance are made up of
a) Proteoglycans b) Glycoproteins c) Water d) Salt e) All
Q:526 In macromolecular complexes of proteins and carbohydrates are called
a) Glycoprotein b) Proteoglycans
c) Polypeptides d) Peptides e) a & b
Q:527 Which statement is not true for Epithelial tissue
a) Protect the underlying structure b) Secretion
c) Absorption d) Cells are loosely packed
Q:528 Heparin and histamine release by
a) Fibroblast b) Wandering cells c) Mast cells d) Histocytes
Q:529 Who self-replicating organelle
a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Golgi apparatus d) Ribosomes
Q:530 Which one of following is responsible for packing and formation of lysozyme
a) Nucleus b) Ribosome c) Golgi body d) Cytoplasm
Q:531 High energy phosphate compound synthesized by
a) Cytoplasm b) Cell membrane c) RER d) Mitochondria
Q:532 Physiological, reproductive function are governed by
a) Lysozyme b) Ribosome c) Nucleus
d) Golgi body e) Mitochondria
Q:533 Cell membrane is
a) Lipid bilayer b) Protein bilayer c) Carbohydrate bilayer d) None

Special Senses
Q:534 How much type of special senses found in body
a) Five b) Six c) Four d) Seven
Q:535 The most dominant sense of body is
a) Taste b) Eye c) Ear d) Smell
Q:536 Photoreceptor are
a) Rods b) Cones c) Pinna d) a&b
Q:537 The eye ball is surrounded by
a) Three circular layer b) Three longitudinal layer
c) Two circular layer d) Single circular layer
Q:538 The diameter of eye ball is
a) 2.4 cm b) 2.3 cm c) 2.5 cm d) 1.5 cm
Q:539 Avascular layer of eye ball consist of
a) Choroid b) Sclera c) Retina d) Iris e) a & d
Q:540 The contents of eye ball are
a) Lens b) vitreous body c) Arachrnoid d) Condyloid e) a&b
Q:541 Lens lies between
a) Iris and cortex b) Vitreous and nucleus
c) Vitreous and iris d) nucleus and iris
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Q:542 lense refracts and focus light on
a) Vitreous b) Cornea c) iris d) Retina
Q:543 vestibular cochlear apparatus present in
a) Tongue b) Ear c) Nose d) Throat
Q:544 How much parts of ear are present
a) Three b) Four c) Two d) One
Q:545 Middle ear consist of
a) Ligaments b) Malleus c) Cochlea d) semi-circular canal e) a & b
Q:546 Ossicles are
a) Malleus b) Incus c) Stapes d) All
Q:547 Tensor tympani is
a) Ossicle b) Muscle c) Ligament d) All
Q:548 Middle located in petrous part of
a) Zygomatic bone b) Temporal bone c) Occipital bone d) Mandible bone
Q:549 Acoustic meatus is present in
a) Middle ear b) Inner ear c) Out ear d) None
Q:550 Body lyrinth is a network of
a) Capillaries b) cavities c) Neuron d) Receptors
Q:551 Body lyrinth consist of
a) Cochlea b) Vestibule c) Vertebrae d) a & b
Q:552 Primary sensation of taste are
a) Four b) Three c) Two d) One
Q:553 The bitter taste is due to containing
a) N2 and alkaloids b) N2 and halides
c) Alkaloids and Glycoside d) N2 and glycoside
Q:554 The sour taste is caused by
a) Electrolytes b) Halogens c) Alkaloids d) Glycoside
Q:555 The bitter taste is detected by which part of tongue
a) Front b) Back c) Posterior half of each side d) Anterior half of each side
Q:556 The salty taste is detected by
a) Posterior half b) Back c) Anterior half d) Front
Q:557 The sweet taste is associated with
a) Inorganic compound b) Organic compound c) Tissue d) Receptor
Q:558 Filiform and circumvallate are a part of
a) Lingual papilla b) Mucosa c) Turbinate d) Olfactory bulb
Q:559 The sensery of modality of smell is mediated by
a) Papilla b) Olfactory mucosa c) Optic nerve d) Choroid
Q:560 The sense of smell is more active in time than taste of
a) 20,000 b) 30,000 c) 10,000 d) 5000
Q:561 The olfactory receptor are located in the roof of
a) Nasal cavity b) Larynx c) Pharynx d) Nostrils
Q:562 Olfactory adaption in due to
a) Decreased sensation b) Increase sensation c) No sensation d) None

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Q:563 According to chemical theory the odorant molecules should be bind with
a) Specific protein receptors b) Specific lipid receptor
c) Non specific protein receptor d) Specific glycogen receptor
Q:664 Smell producing substance should have following characters
a) Volatile b) H2O soluble c) Lipid soluble d) All
Q:565 The ability to distinguished odour is depending upon
a) Receptor b) Taste c) Fragrance d) All
Endocrinology
Q:566 Endocrinology concerned with the structure and function of ________
a) Endocrinology gland b) Sweat glands
c) Sabecious glands d) All of the above
Q:567 Hormones have control effect on other cell of body
a) Physiological b) Biochemical c) chemical d) Physiochemical
Q:568 Cholecystokinin have effect on body
a) Local effect b) General effect c) Adverse effect d) No effect
Q:569 The hormone effect the body cell for away from their point of secretion are
a) Local hormone b) Systematic hormones c) Dependent hormones d) None
Q:570 estrogen is the example of
a) General hormones b) Local hormone
c) Local + General hormone d) All of the above
Q:571 Second name of somatotropin
a) Growth hormones b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) ACTH
Q:572 Second name of ADH
a) Vassopressin b) Somatotropin c) Oxytocin d) Cortisol
Q:573 Oxytocin released from
a) Anterior pituitary b) Posterior pituitary
c) Adrenal medulla d) Adrenal cortex
Q:574 Second name of sex hormones
a) Aldosterone b) Cortisol c) Adrenal androgen d) FSH
Q:575 T4 stand for
a) Triidothyronine b) Thyroxin c) Calcitonin d) Cortisol
Q:576 Parathormone is
a) Thyroid hormones b) Pituitary hormones
c) Parathyroid hormones d) Islets of Langerhans
Q:577 Glucagon release from
a) Delta cells b) Beta cells c) Alpha cells d) All of the above
Q:578 Ovaries release
a) Testosterone b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) b & c
Q:579 Relaxin release from
a) Placenta b) Pituitary c) Cortex d) medulla
Q:580 Nature of substance P
a) Peptides b) Steroids c) Imine d) Amines
Q:581 Epinephrine belongs to
a) Amines b) Imine c) Posterior pituitary d) Glycoprotein
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Q:582 Growth hormones is _____
a) Polypeptide b) Peptides c) Small protein d) All of the above
Q:583 Growth hormones cause
a) Hypertension b) Hyper glycemia c) Hypotension d) Nausea
Q:584 Growth harmones increase the retention of ions
a) Ca++ b) K++ c) Na++ d) Cl-
Q:585 Excessive ‘Urine’ RETENSION due to
a) Vasopressin b) Somatotropin c) Oxytocin d) Relaxin
Q:586 ADH secretion inhibiting ‘Harmone’
a) Cortisol b) Estrogen c) Oxytocin d) ACTH
Q:587 Hormone increase osteoblastic activity
a) Oxytocin b) vasopressin c) growth hormone d)
Calcitonin
Q:588 Causative agent of hypokalaemia
a) Progesterone b) Testosterone c) Estrogen d) Aldosterone
Q:589 Which one of following hormones have main function to maintain balance of electrolyte
content of body fluid
a) Cortisol b) Oxytocin c) Insulin d) Glycogen e) Aldosterone
Q:590 Principle physiological action of glycogen
a) ↑es blood glucose b) ↓es blood glucose
c) ↑es blood in urine d) ↓es glucose in urine
Q:591 Linear polypeptide containing 29 amino acid is
a) Insulin b) Vasopressin c) Relaxin d) Glucagon
Q:592 Hormones have anti – allergic effect
a) Glucagon b) Cortisol c) Insulin d) Calcitonin
Q:593 Glycogen storage increase by
a) Glucagon b) Insulin c) ADH d) LH
Q:594 Low cortisol level cause
a) Restlessness b) Insomnia c) Inability to concentrate d) All of above
Q:595 Cortisol Is also known as
a) Co-factor b) Hydrocortisone c) Testosterone d) Calcitonin
Q:596 what type of muscle cells are fusiform
a) Smooth muscle b) cardia muscle c) skeletal muscle d) all of these
Q:597 what type of origin of blood
a) Endoderm b) mesoderm c) ectoderm d) all of these
Q:598 80% or more of transfer of heat occurs in body through
a) Muscles b) bone c) skin d) all
Q :599 heat cross by the skin is control by
a) Negative feed back loop b) pressure grediant c) positive feed back loop d) all
Q :600 somato- somatic is the type of
a) Axon b) dentrites c) synapse d) all

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 Ans Key Anatomy of digestive system
1) B 2) C 3) A 4) A 5) C
6) B 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) A
11) B 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) D
16) B 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) D
21) A 22) C 23) A 24) D 25) A
26) C 27) D 28) D 29) D 30) D
31) A 32) A 33) C 34) B 35) A
36) D 37) D 38) 39) E 40) B

Respiratory System
41) 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) B
46) 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) C
51) D 52) c 53) D 54) D 55) A
56) A 57) C 58) B 59) D 60) B
61) 62) C 63) C 64) C 65) D
66) B 67) D 68) C

Anatomy of heart
69) D 70) B
71) A 72) A 73) A 74) A 75) B
76) A 77) B 78) C 79) D 80) B
81) B 82) A 83) D 84) B 85) A
86) B 87) D 88) A 89) D 90) D
91) B 92) D 93) C 94) B 95) C
96) B 97) A 98) B 99) B

Anatomy
100) A 101) B 102) C 103) A 104) A
105) B 106) B 107) B 108) D 109) A

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 110) A 111) A 112) A 113) A 114) C
115) B 116) B 117) D 118) A 119) C
120) B 121) C 122) A 123) C 124) C
125) B 126) B 127) B 128) A 129) A
130) C 131) B 132) A 133) B 134) C
135) E 136) B 137) B 138) A 139) E
140) A 141) B 142) B 143) B

Surface anatomy
144) A 145) D 146) A 147) A 148) E
149) F 150) E 151) B 152) A 153) B
154) A 155) E 156) A 157) B 158) B
159) A 160) C 161) 162) A 163) A
164) 165) A 166) A 167) A 168) A
169) A 170) A 171) A 172) A 173) A
174) C 175) A 176) A 177) A 178) A
179) E 180) A 181) A 182) B 183) A
184) A 185) 186) B 187) A 188) B
189) C 190) A 191) B 192) B 193) A
194) A 195) B 196) C 197) B 198) D
199) E 200) B

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 Mcqs Key (Physiology)

1 B 47 E 93 B 139 E 185 C 231 D 277 C

2 B 48 D 94 C 140 B 186 E 232 D 278 A
3 D 49 B 95 A 141 C 187 B 233 A 279 D
4 D 50 E 96 A 142 B 188 A 234 D 280 E
5 B 51 C 97 B 143 C 189 A 235 D 281 E
6 C 52 A 98 D 144 A 190 A 236 C 282 A
7 D 53 B 99 C 145 C 191 C 237 E 283 C
8 C 54 B 100 C 146 C 192 A 238 C 284 B
9 A 55 B 101 B 147 E 193 C 239 A 285 B
10 A 56 D 102 C 148 A 194 A 240 C 286 A
11 E 57 B 103 B 149 B 195 D 241 E 287 C
12 C 58 B 104 A 150 A 196 B 242 B 288 A
13 A 59 A 105 B 151 B 197 B 243 A 289 A
14 C 60 D 106 B 152 B 198 E 244 B 290 C
15 B 61 D 107 C 153 E 199 B 245 B 291 B
16 A 62 E 108 D 154 D 200 B 246 D 292 A
17 A 63 D 109 E 155 D 201 B 247 C 293 C
18 C 64 E 110 D 156 A 202 A 248 D 294 C
19 A 65 A 111 D 157 E 203 C 249 B 295 A
20 D 66 D 112 B 158 E 204 E 250 D 296 A
21 B 67 B 113 D 159 A 205 A 251 B 297 D
22 A 68 B 114 B 160 A 206 C 252 D 298 A
23 B 69 A 115 B 161 C 207 E 253 A 299 A
24 D 70 B 116 C 162 A 208 B 254 C 300 A
25 A 71 D 117 D 163 A 209 A 255 C 301 D
26 C 72 A 118 E 164 B 210 C 256 A 302 E
27 C 73 E 119 E 165 A 211 D 257 A 303 B
28 A 74 B 120 D 166 C 212 C 258 D 304 C
29 A 75 B 121 B 167 A 213 A 259 D 305 A
30 C 76 A 122 C 168 B 214 B 260 B 306 A
31 C 77 A 123 B 169 C 215 D 261 A 307 B
32 A 78 B 124 D 170 B 216 C 262 C 308 C
33 E 79 B 125 C 171 C 217 B 263 B 309 C
34 A 80 C 126 B 172 A 218 C 264 B 310 C
35 D 81 E 127 A 173 D 219 A 265 B 311 C
36 D 82 A 128 A 174 A 220 D 266 A 312 D
37 B 83 A 129 C 175 B 221 A 267 C 313 A
38 A 84 B 130 B 176 C 222 C 268 C 314 B
39 A 85 D 131 A 177 C 223 A 269 A 315 B
40 C 86 B 132 D 178 D 224 D 270 A 316 B

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41 E 87 B 133 A 179 A 225 D 271 A 317 A
42 C 88 E 134 A 180 C 226 B 272 A 318 C
43 B 89 D 135 C 181 D 227 C 273 B 319 B
44 D 90 B 136 C 182 A 228 A 274 B 320 A
45 B 91 E 137 A 183 A 229 D 275 B 321 A
46 E 92 E 138 B 184 B 230 D 276 C 322 C
323 B 369 D 415 A 461 C 507 B 553 A 599 A
324 B 370 A 416 B 462 E 508 B 554 A 600 C
325 B 371 C 417 E 463 D 509 B 555 B
326 B 372 A 418 D 464 C 510 D 556 C
327 D 373 B 419 B 465 A 511 B 557 B
328 D 374 C 420 D 466 A 512 B 558 A
329 C 375 C 421 B 467 B 513 E 559 B
330 E 376 C 422 D 468 E 514 D 560 A
331 B 377 C 423 C 469 D 515 C 561 A
332 C 378 B 424 E 470 E 516 B 562 A
333 D 379 A 425 C 471 A 517 A 563 A
334 D 380 A 426 D 472 E 518 C 564 D
335 E 381 C 427 D 473 E 519 E 565 A
336 C 382 A 428 D 474 D 520 C 566 C
337 A 383 C 429 C 475 D 521 B 567 A
338 B 384 B 430 C 476 D 522 B 568 A
339 A 385 D 431 C 477 D 523 A 569 B
340 C 386 A 432 C 478 B 524 A 570 A
341 A 387 D 433 B 479 D 525 A 571 A
342 E 388 B 434 C 480 C 526 B 572 A
343 B 389 D 435 B 481 C 527 D 573 B
344 B 390 A 436 B 482 B 528 C 574 C
345 D 391 A 437 E 483 D 529 B 575 B
346 B 392 D 438 D 484 A 530 C 576 C
347 C 393 D 439 B 485 C 531 D 577 C
348 B 394 E 440 D 486 A 532 C 578 D
349 B 395 D 441 A 487 B 533 A 579 A
350 D 396 A 442 A 488 B 534 A 580 A
351 D 397 A 443 D 489 A 535 B 581 A
352 C 398 B 444 D 490 C 536 D 582 D
353 A 399 A 445 C 491 A 537 A 583 B
354 D 400 B 446 C 492 D 538 C 584 A
355 B 401 B 447 B 493 E 539 D 585 C
356 C 402 D 448 D 494 A 540 E 586 A
357 A 403 D 449 D 495 D 541 C 587 D
358 A 404 D 450 D 496 B 542 D 588 B
359 D 405 C 451 A 497 A 543 B 589 E
360 C 406 B 452 C 498 E 544 A 590 A
361 C 407 C 453 D 499 C 545 E 591 D

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362 A 408 B 454 C 500 D 546 D 592 B
363 B 409 A 455 D 501 A 547 B 593 A
364 B 410 C 456 B 502 B 548 B 594 D
365 A 411 C 457 C 503 A 549 C 595 B
366 C 412 D 458 504 A 550 B 596 A
367 B 413 B 459 D 505 C 551 D 597 B
368 D 414 C 460 B 506 A 552 A 598 C

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 The introduction of Microbiology
Q:1 The word microbiology is derived from the following words
a) Two Greek words b) Three Greek words c) Two french words d) Two Latin words
Q:2 The word “micron” means
a) Small b) Large c) spherical d) Medium
Q:3 Biologia means
a) Studying the animal b) Studying plant
c) Studying virus d) studying all form of life
Q:4 The branch of biology that deals with micro organisms and their effects on other living
organisms called as
a) Biochemistry b) Microbiology c) Anatomy d) Cytology
Q:5 “Microbe” is term for
a) Large creature b) Tiny creature c) Virus creature D) Bacteria creature
Q:6 Rickettsia are
a) Animals b) Plant c) Microbes d) None
Q:7 Robert Hook is
a) English scientist b) French Scientist c) Latin scientist d) Greek Scientist
Q:8 Who was the scientist gave deception of microscope and its uses
a) Robert Hook b) Wetson and crik c) Leven Hook d) srJoroj
Q:9 Robert Hook described about
a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Tobacco d) Slice of cork
Q:10 Cork was composed of compartment called
a) Tissue b) Muscle c) Cell d) Organ
Q:11 Which one is the important tool for discover the secret of life
a) Autoclave b) Oven c) Microscope d) Desiccator
Q:12 Leven Hook revealed his description of microscope in what country
a) 1670s b) 1680s c) 1760s d) 1570s
Q:13 Leven Hook invent
a) Simple and double lens microscopes b) Simple and single lens microscope
c) double lens microscopes d) Photospectrometer
Q:14 In what century, He called the micro organism as animalcules
a) 1675s b) 1676s c) 1674 s d) 1774s
Q:15 Leven Hook died in:
a) 1722s b) 1723s c) 1744s d) 1757s
Q:16 ‘Pyrogens’ cause
a) Lower the body temperature b) Rise the body temperature
c) Viral infection d) Vomiting
Q:17 The Geologist frequently uses information about micro organism in his search for
a) Nitrogen b) Coal c) Metals d) Oil
Q:18 Who was the scientist which discovered bacteria
a) Robert Hook b) Leevven Van Hook c) Fredrick Muller d) Casimir
Q:19 CasimirBavaine was
a) Denish scientist b) French Scientist c) Russian Scientist d) Latin Scientist
Q:20 In what century French Biologist Casimir Bavain named ‘ little animals’ bacteria
a) 1860s b) 1750s c) 1850s d) 1870s

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Q:21 Which one of the following statement is not true for becteria
a) Multicellular b) Prokaryotic
c) Microscopes d) Lack of membrane bound nucleus
Q:22 The bacteria are _____________ of the earliest form of the life
a) Ascendants b) Descendants c) Dominant d) None
Q:23 In general bacteria are classified into following groups
a) 3 b) 2 c)4 d) 1
Q:24 Coccus are
a) Ovals b) Round c) Spherical d) Helical
Q:25 Bacillus are
a) Coiled b) Rod c) Hook shape d) Oval
Q:26 As suggested by Muller , the rod shape bacteria is known as
a) Spirillum b) Bacilli c) coccus d) None
Q:27 The cylindrical form of Bacilli may be as long as ___________ and as short as
a) 30μm – 0.5μm b) 20mm – 0.5mm c) 0.3μm – 1.0μm d) 0.5μm – 0.1μm
Q:28 The diameter of cocci is ________
a) 0.5μm to 1.0μm b) 0.5μm to 1.2μm c) 0.3um to 1.0μm d) 0.5μm – 0.1μm
Q:29 Those cocci that remain in pairs after reproduction are called
a) Streptococci b) Diplococci c) Staphylococci d) None
Q:30 Neisseria gonorrholea is an example of
a) Diplococci b) Bacilli c) Spirilla d) Streptococci
Q:31 Bacteria remain in chains called
a) Staphylococci b) Basilli c) Streptococci d) Diplococci
Q:32 Which type of streptococci involved in dairy products such as yogurt
a) S. matus b) S. pyogen c) S – lactis d) None
Q:33 Irregular grapes like clustors of bacteria are
a) Streptococci b) Staphylococci c) Coccus d) Diplococci
Q:34 Spirals form of bacteria exist in how much forms
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 1
Q:35 Curved Rods like commas are present in __________
a) Vibrio b) Spirilla c) Spirochetes d ) None
Q:36 Spirals shaped with a thin cell wall are called
a) Vibrio b) Spirilla c) Spirochetes d) Bacilli
Q:37 The most widely used staining method in microbiology
a) Gram staining b) Acid fast staining
c) Quantitative analysis d) Qualitative analysis
Q:38 Spirillum volutan is an example of _______
a) Vibrio b) Spirochetes c) Spirilla d) None
Q:39 The function of cell wall
a) Protect cell and determine its shape b) Only protect the cell
c) Determine its shape d) causes disease
Q:40 The important component of bacterial cell wall
a) Carbohydrates b ) Protein c) sulfer d) Peptidoglycan
Q:41 Peptidoglycan contains
a) Two amino containing lipids b) Two amino containing carbohydrates
c) Three amino containing carbohydrates d) Four amino containing carbohydrate
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Q:42 Additional polysaccharide in gram – positive bacteria is called
a) Lactic acid b) teichoic acid c) Formic acid d) None
ve
Q:43 The diameter of peptidoglycan in G + , bacteria
a) 25mm b) 25nm c) 25m d ) 25cm
Q:44 The thickness of cell wall in Gram -ve bacteria is
a) 10 - 15μm b) 10 – 15mm c) 10 – 15 cm d) 10 – 15 m
Q:45 The cell wall of G -ve , bacteria contains
a) Protein , lipids , carbohydrates b) Protein and lipids
c) Lipids and carbohydrates d) Protein , Carbohydrates
Q:46 The space between the membrane and cell wall in G-ve , bacteria
a) Endoplasmic space b) Protoplasmic space
c) Periplasmic space d ) Meroplasmic space
Q:47 Cocci and Bacilli bacteria secrets sticky , gelatinous layer of polysaccharides and protein
around the cell wall called
a) Capsid b) Capsule c ) Cell membrane d) Periplasm
Q:48 Capsule not found in ______
a) Cocci b) Bacilli c) Spirilla d) None
Q:49 The loose layer of capsule is called
a) Glycolipids b) Glycoprotein c) Glycocalyx d) Glycolysis
Q:50 Dextrin in Glycocalyx of capsule is
a) Polysaccharides b) Protein c) Polypeptides d ) Lipids
Q:51 Cytoplasm in bacteria is
a) Translucent b) Transparent c) Semitransparent d ) semi fluid – semi transparent
Q:52 The chromosomal region in bacteria is called
a) Chromatin b) Nucloid c) Deoxyribonucleic acid d) Ribonucleic acid
Q:53 Plasmids are
a) Extrachromosal rings of DNA b) Extrachromosal ring of protein
c) Extrachromosal ring of polypeptide d) None of these
Q:54 Plasmid contain ‘ Genes ‘ for drug resistance called
a) H – Factor b) R – Factor c ) Rf – Factor d) Extrinsic factor
Q:55 Ribosomes are bodies of RNA and ____________
a) DNA b) Protein c) Lipids d ) Carbohydrates
Q:56 Inclusion bodies are
a) Glycogen or lipids b) Glycogen or protein
c) Glycogen , protein or lipids d) Glycogen
Q:57 Who store the nutrients for period of starvation in bacteria
a) Ribosomes b) Plasmids c) Inclusion bodies d) Volutin
Q:58 Depot of phosphate in bacteria called
a) Plasmids b) Inclusion bodies c) Chromosomes d)
Protein
Q:59 Combined form of cell wall, cell membrane and capsule in bacteria called
a) Envelop b) Protein coat c ) Prion d) Lipid coat
Q:60 Cell membrane of bacteria contains protein approximately
a) 65% b) 60% c) 63% d) 46% e) 60%

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Q:61 Binary fission is the spilliting of cell into
a) Three daughter cells b) Four daughter cell
c) two daughter cell d) Single daughter cell

Infection and disease

Q:62 Any change from the general state of good heath is called
a) Pathogenicity b) Virulency c) Disease d ) Allergy
Q:63 In some cases symbiosis is beneficial to both the body and microorganisms called as
a) Commensalism b) Mutualism c) Pathogen d) Virulent
Q:64 The symbiosis only beneficial to microorganism
a) Commensalism b) Virulent c) Mutualism d) Parasitism
Q:65 A well known microbe observe in intestine is
a) Kiebsiella b) E. coli c) Mycoplasma d) H. influenza
Q:66 Lactobacillus is a notable component of
a) Uterus b) Vagina c) Colon d) Rectum
Q:67 The stomach in human is generally without a normal flora is mainly due to
a) Low PH b) High PH c) Hcl d) Pepsin
Q:68 An organism having pathogenicity called
a) Pathogen b ) Virulent c) A virulent d) opportunistic
Q:69 Typhoid bacillus that in variably cause disease said to be
a) High virulent b) Slightly virulent c) A virulent d ) None
Q:70 The term to express the degree of pathogenicity of paracites is called
a) Disease b) Virulent c) Commensalis d) paracitism
Q:71 The organism that are not regarded as disease agents called as
a) A virulent b) Opportunistic c) Virulent d) moderately virulent
Q:72 When transduction occurs
a) Bacteriophages transfer portion of bacterial DNA
b) Bacteriophages transfer portion of bacterial RNA
c) Bacteriophages transfer portion of bacterial cell wall
d) Bacteriophages transfer portion of viral DNA

Culture Media
Q:73 The media which one cannot be contain exact quantity of components is
a) Natural media b) Synthetic media c ) Semisynthetic media d ) Solid media
Q:74 The modern form of natural media is
a) Blood ager b) Beef borth c) Mannitolsaltager
d) Chocolate ager e) Nutrient broth
Q:75 Agar is
a) Monosaccharide b) Polysaccharide c) Protien d) Oligosaccharides
Q:76 The source of agar
a) Marine water b) Protozoa c) Marine algae d)
Fungi

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Q:77 Agar only serves to make the media
a) Solid b) Liquefy c ) Gel d) None
Q:78 Chocolate agar is a type of ________
a) Nutrient media b ) Differential media c) Selective media d) Enriched media
Q:79 Chocolate used to encourage the growth of
a) Neisseria species b) staphylococcic) Enterococci d) Lactobacilli
Q:80 Eosin and methylene blue used to inhibit
a) G +ve bacteria b) Gram – Negative bacteria
c) Edeno Virus d) Bacteriophages
Q:81 The bacteria that ferment lactose take up the dyes and form
a) Blue colonies b) Red colonies c) Pink colonies d) Colourless colonies
Q:82 Mannitol is
a) Alcoholic carbohydrate b) Phenolic carbohydrates c) protein ester d) Phenolic ether
Q:83 Which one type of media used both as selective as well as differential media
a) Eosin methylene blue agar b) Chocolate agar c) Nutrient agar
d) Mannitol salt agar e) Macconkey agar
Q:84 Sulphur from magnesium sulphate is synthetic media is valuable for
a) DNA and RNA synthesis b) Enzyme formation
c) Nucleic acid formation d) Supply energy to the cell
Q:85 Bacteria or other microorganism grow on a laboratory are referred to as
a) Media b) Culture c) Agar d) Broth
Q:86 Pure culture consists of population of cells
a) From a single cell b) From multiple cells
c) From broth media d) From chocolate broth
Q:87 Which type of technique in bacteria culture represents the “colony forming unit “
a) Spread plate technique b) Pour late technique
c) Streak plate technique d) Enriched plate technique
Q:88 Which type of technique is mostly used to quantify how many bacteria are present in sample
a) Spread plate technique b) Pour late technique
c) Streak plate technique d) Serial plate technique
Q:89 Gram staining differentiates the bacteria by detecting physical and chemical properties of
their cell wall is
a) Carbohydrates b) Peptidoglycan c) DNA d) None
Q:90 Gram – positive organism retain which one of colour after decolorization
a) Red b) Pink c) Blue d) Crystal violet
Q:91 Gram – negative organism retain what colour after decolorization
a) Pink b) Blue c) Red d) Grey
Q:92 How much water required to counter stain according to quantity of 1g neutral red and 2ml%
acitic acid
a) 100ml b) 1000ml c) 500ml d ) 250ml
Q:93 Safranin contain
a) 30ml alcohol b) 50ml alcohol c) 100ml alcohol d) 50ml H20
Q:94 Ziehl – Nelesn stain also called
a) Counter staining b) Acid fast staining c) Gram – staining d) None

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 Virus
Q:95 The word virus derived from
a) Russian b) Latin c) English d) Greak
Q:96 Virus replicate themselves only
a) Inside the living things b) Outside the non living things
c ) Inside the non living things d) Both inside and outside the living things
Q:97 Are the viruses obtain and use energy to grow an replicate themselves
a) Yes b) No c) Survive in both condition d) None
Q:98 Virus are
a) Cellular b) non cellular c) Multicellular d) All the above
Q:99 Who contain the viral genome and transfer to other cells
a) Capsid b) Virion c) Pirion d) Envelope
Q:100 Helix in virus is
a) Tightly wound coil b) loosely wound coil c) Slightly loose coil d) Slightly tight coil
Q:101 Rabies and tobacco mosaic viruses have
a) Helical symmetry b) Triangular symmetry
c) Tetrahedral symmetry d) Icosahedral symmetry
Q:102 Icosahedron is polyhedron with
a) 20 triangular faces and 20 corners b) 30 triangular faces and 6 corner
c) 10 triangular faces and 6 corner d) 30 triangular faces 18 corner
Q:103 A combination of helical and icosahedron symmetry is described as
a) Compound b) Complex c) Simple d) Com. Polyhedron
Q:104 Two basic component of viruses are
a) Genome and capsid b) Genome + envelope
c) Genome and virion d) Virion and pirion
Q:105 Capsid is formed by
a) Carbohydrate b) Peptidoglycan c ) Protein d) Glycoprotein
Q:106 Which of the following statement is not true for genome
a) Protect the genome b) Gives the shape to the virus
c) Responsible for the helical , icosahedral or complex symmetry d) Capsid is DNA or RNA
Q:107 Capsomers are
a) Carbohydrates subunits b) Protein subunits c) mRNA d) tRNA
Q:108 Adenovirus is made up of
a) 252 CApsomers b) 162 capsomers c) 152 capsomers d) 262 capsomers
Q:109 Many viruses contain flexible membrane and also contain protein and lipids are
a) Capsid b) Virion c) Capsomers d) envelope
Q:110 A completely assembled virus outside its host cell is known as
a) Pirion b) Virion c) Genom d) Envelope
Q:111 Disease causing fragments of viruses called as
a) Virion b) Pirion c) Viriod d) Capsid
Q:112 RNA viruses usually replicated as in ___________
a) Golgi apparatus b) Cytoplasm c) Nucleic acid d) DNA

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Q:113 Which statement is not true for negative sense viral RNA
a) Immediately translated the host cell b) Complementary to mRNA
c) It must be converted to positive sense ANA d) Used RNA polymerase
Q:114 The first scientist who develops a viral classification
a) Elexender b) Robert Hook c) Fredric and crick d) Paul Tournier
Q:115 Which of the classification that continue to the present day
a) Baltimore b) ICTV c) Linnaean hierarchical system d) None of above
Q:116 How much orders for virus were established by ICTV
a) Five orders b) Six orders c) 8 orders d) 7 orders
Q:117 Which one type of viruses that infect the insect , plants and animals
a) Caudovirus b) Picornavirus c) Nidovirus d) Tymovirus
Q:118 Which one of virales is composed of (+)strand SS RNA
a) Herpersviral b) Picornavirals c) Nidovirales d) Mononegavirales
Q:119 Baltimore classification based on
a) t RNA production b) rRNA production c) mRNA production d) RNA production
Q:120 Retroviruses have
a) + sense RNA with DNA intermediate b (+) SS RNA viruses
c) ds DNA viruses d) SS DNA viruses
Q:121 Rotaviruses have
a) ds – stranded RNA b) SS – stranded RNA
c) ds – stranded DNA d) SS – stranded DNA
Q:122 Polio virus , hepatitis A virus , foot and mouth virus belong to family
a) SARS virus b) Yellow virus c) Rubellavirus d) Picornavirus

Fungi
Q:123 Thallus is a plant body that has
a) Roots b) NO distinct roots c) No shoots and stems d) no distinct root, shoots, stem
Q:124 How much species of fungi may exist
a) 1.5 billion b) 1.4 billion c) 1.5 million d) 1.5 trillion
Q:125 How much species of fungi have been described
a) 80,000 b) 70,000 c) 90,000 d) 10,000
Q:126 Which type of fungi commonly known as sac fingi
a) Prisidiomyceles b) Ascomycetes c) Chtridiomycetes d) Zygometes
Q:127 Bread mold is very common member of
a) Ascomycetes b) Zygomycete c) Basidiomycete d) Chtradiomycetes
Q:128 Which one division of fungi have club shape
a) Basidiomycete b) Zygomycete c) Chtradiomycetes d)
Ascomycete
Q:129 Fungi are primarily _________ organisms
a) See shore b) Terrestrial c) Marine d) Shallow water
Q:130 The fungi formed symbiotic association with roots of vascular plants are termed as
a) Lichen b) Mycorrhiza c) Conidi d) Spores
Q:131 The vegetative structure of fungi is called
a) Thallus b) Mashroom c) Puffball d) Yeast

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Q:132 Yeast is
a) Unicellular bacteria b) Unicellular plant c) Multicellular fungi d) Unicellular algae
Q:133 Yeast have no
a) Cilia b) Flagella c) Pilli d) Villi e) All
Q:134 Yeast can vary in size but typically measured diameter of yeast is
a) 4 – 3μm b) 3 - 2μm c) 3 – 4mm d) 3 - 4μm
Q:135 How much species of yeast have been described
a) 15000 b) 16000 c) 1500 d) 150
Q:136 Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in
a) Research b) Fermentation c) fuel industry d) Spoilage of wine
Q:137 Yeast is commonly found in what part of human and other warm blooded animals
a) Bones b) Teeth c) Hair d) Mucus membrane
Q:138 Which one type of yeast severly damage the immune system of human body
a) Saccharomyces b) Candida albicans c) Brettanomyces d) Zygosaccharomyces
Q:139 Which one of strain is used to detect the presence of live yeast
a) Eosin b) Methylene c) Safranin d) Methyl orange
Q:140 Which of following statement is not true for molds
a) Multicellular fungi b) Molds are small c) Branched d) Thread like flaments
Q:141 The Hyphae that are not derived into cells by cross wall called
a) Septate b ) Coenlytic c) Mycelial d) Mycorrhiza
Q:142 The cell wall of fungi is composed of
a) Cell wall b) Glycoprotein c) Peptidoglycan d) Chitin
Q:143 What type of mold termed as chemo – organoheterotrophs
a) Mycorrhiza b) Saprotrophs c) Parasites d) Heterotrophs
Q:144 Lichen is a symbiotic association between
a) Fungus and bacteria b) fungus and virus c) Virus and algae d) Fungus and algae
Q:145 Obligatory anaerobic fungi are found in
a) Intestine of human b) Mouth of animals c) Cellulose d) Rumen of cattle
Q:146 Facultatively anaerobic fungi yield by fermentation of glucose
a) Ethyl phenol b) Alcohol c) Phenol d) Ethyl alcohol
Q:147 Spores, conidia and fragmentation in molds involved
a) Sexual reproduction b) Asexual reproduction c) Symbiosis d) Ym shift
Q:148 Slime molds and water molds are resemble with fungi only in
a) Life style b) Appearance c) Reproduction d) a&b
Q:149 Plasmodium means
a) Lack of protoplasm b ) Lack of nucleus c) Lack of nutrients d) Lack of cell wall
Q:150 Slime mold is feeding by
a) Parasitism b ) Phagocytosis c ) Protozoa d ) Alga
Q:151 oomycota are collectively known as
a) Slim molds b) Water molds c ) Myxamoeba d) All of the above
Q:152 Which type of slime molds are termed as myxamoebae
a) Myxomycota b) A crasiomycota c ) oomycota d) All of these
Q:153 Which one currently responsible for the trouble some of tobacco plants throughout the
world
a) Tobacco mosaic virus b) Blue mold c) Edenoviruse d) All of above

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Q:154 slime molds exist as streem in masses of
a) Colorfull nucleus b) Colourful cell wall
c) Colorfull protoplasm d ) All of these
Q:155 Late blight of potatoes and grape downy mildew caused by
a) Myxomycota b) A crasiomycota c) Oomycota d)
Basidiomycota

Microbiology of Water
Q:156 Water originates from deep wells and subterranean springs called as
a) Surface water b ) Ground water c ) Rain water d) a + b
Q:157 Which one is most familiar virus cause water born disease
a) Edinovirus b) Poliovirus c) Rotavirus d) Tobacco virus
Q:158 Photosynthetic algae and bacteria that use light thrive in what zone of water
a) Limmitic zone b) Banethic zone c) Littoral zone d) Salt water
Q:159 Bacteria that can survive in the absence of oxygen and sunlight thrive in what zone of water
a) Limmitic zone b) Littoral zone c) Salt water d) Banethic zone
Q:160 The microorganism that turned colour of water red are
a) Dinoflagellates b ) Halophilic c) Vibrio d) Pseudomonas
Q:161 Dinoflagellates are
a) Fungi b) Algae c) Virus d) Protozoa
Q:162 Which microorganism cause life threating diarrhoea in humans
a) Lactobacilli b) Staphylococci c) Escherichia coli d) Vibrio cholera
Q:163 The bacteria killing treatments that are increasingly become popular include the use of gas
called
a) H2 gas b) Ozone c) Sulphur gas d) Nitrogen gas
Q:164 So tiny that even practicles are miniscule as virus can be trapped by
a) Chlorine or chlorine derivatives b ) Ozone c) Modern fitters d) Boiled water
Q:165 The turbidity of water due to soil also indicates the presence of
a) Acids b ) Minerals c) Metals d ) Microorganism
Q:166 Escherichia coli have been used as an indicator of
a) Soil pollution b) fecal pollution c) Air pollution d)b&c
Q:167 Which of the statement is not true for air born microorganism
a) Rain b) Sunlight c) Temperature
d) Size of the particle bearing the microorganism
Q:168 Which type of microbial flora is variable and transient
a) Water microbial b) Soil microbial flora c) Air microbial flora d ) None
Q:169 Air is used for microbial flora as
a) Medium b) Nutrient c) Reproduction d ) Carrier
Q:170 All the statement are true for microbial contamination of indoor Except
a) Crowding b ) Ventilation rates
c) Nature and degree of activity of individual occupying quarters d ) Humidity
Q:171 All the statement are true for the transmission of air born micro – organism except
a) Carried on dust particles b ) Droplets expelled from nose and mouth
c) During sneezing , coughing or even taking d) hand washing contaminated with microbes

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Q:172 In north Atlantic the viable bacteria and fungi occur at an altitude of
a) 2,000 b) 1,000 c) 3,000 d) 4,000
Q:173 Tubercle bacilli have been isolated from the dust of
a) Floor b ) Water c ) Sanatoria d) Soil
Q:174 Diphtheria bacilli and haemolytic streptococci have been isolated from
a) Sanitoria b) Floor dust c) Contaminated water d) Soil
Q:175 The most abundant fungi over land as well as in sea is
a) Alternaria b) Botrytis c) Pullularia d) Cladosporium
Q:176 Membrane filter are used to analysis the microorganism of
a) Water b) Air c) Soil d ) b and c
Q:177 Tuberculosis , pneumonia and measles are
a) Water born disease b) Soil born disease c) Air born disease d ) All of above
Q:178 All of method are used to controlled microorganism of air except
a) Ultraviolet radiation b) Chemical agents c ) Filtration d ) Ozone gas
Q:179 The method used to control the microbial in closed space is
a) Direct radiation b) laminar – Airflow system c ) Filtration d) Chemical agents
Q:180 The region of earth where geology and biology meat called as
a) Space b) Soil c) Marine d) River
Q:181 The more dominant mineral particles are
a) Alumina iron silicon b) iron, Silicon, Calcium
c) Magnesium iron calcium d) Potassium sodium nitrogen
Q:182 Soil of marshes have
a) Very less organic solids b) Very less organic solids
c ) Much of organic materials d) Much of organic materials
Q:183 Which one of microbial flora is highest in both number and variety in soil than all other
microbes
a) Virus b) Fungi c) Bacteria d) Algae
Q:184 Fungi are involved in decomposition of
a) Cellulose and lignin of plants b) Lignin and parenchyma of plants
c) Auxin of plants d) Chlorophyll of plants
Q:185 Which one of following fungi involved in formation crumb structure of soil
a) Mild mycelium b) Systemic mycosis c) Histoplasmosis d) Cryptococcus’s
Q:186 Which one fix the Nitrogen in paddy soil for cultivation of rice
a) Green algae , diatoms b) Mycelium c) mycorrhiza d) Lichen
Q:187 Who is maintain some equilibrium of bacterial flora of soil
a) Fungi b) Algae c) Bacteria d) Protozoa
Q:188 The types of protozoa found in outnumber in soil are
a) Flagellates b) Amoebae c) Sporozoa d) Ciliates e) a & b
Q:189 All the statement are true for humus except
a) Improve water holding capacity
b) Inhibit the transformation of plants and animals residues into carbon dioxide
c) Supplies the plants nutrients
d) Contribute to soil aggregation
Q:190 In atmosphere Nitrogen is approximately
a) 70% b) 100% c) 80% d) 20%

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Q:191 The Nitrogen available to plants only when it is transferred to
a) Urea b) Ammonia c) Ammonium Nitrate d) Ammonium phosphate
Q:192 Azote means
a) Phosphate in French b) Nitrogen in Greek
c) Sulphur in Latin d) Nitrogen in Frenc
Q:193 Rizo means
a) Plants in French b) Roots in Greek c) Shoots in Latin d) Roots in English
Q:194 Cycling similarity is found in
a) Carbon and sulphur cycle b) Carbon and Nitrogen cycle
c) Nitrogen and Sulphur cycle d) Sulphur and carbon cycle

Sterilization
Q:195 The method of killing and removing the bacteria and all other form of living organism called
a) Hybridization b) Sterilization c) Lyophilisation d) chromatography
Q:196 Stenlization by filtration is
a) Physical method b) Chemical method c) Mechanical method d) None
Q:197 Sterilization by disinfectant is
a) Physical method b) Mechanical method c) Chemical method d) All of above
Q:198 Substance which are destroyed by moisture are sterilized by
a) Radiation b) moist heat c) Filtration d) Tyndallisation
Q:199 The standard setting for a hot air oven is at least
a) Two hours at 160oC(320oF) b) One hour at 80oC(110oF)
o o
c) 3 hour at 230 cC(420 F) d) None
Q:200 Volatile oil and surgical dressing cannot be sterilized by
a) Moist Heat b) Dry heat c) radiation d) Uv light
Q:201 Dry Heat sterilization killed Mioorganism and bacterial spore by
a) Moisture b) Reduction c) Oxidation d) Suction
Q:202 The simplest method of dry heat sterilization which is immediately used to microbes
a) Hot air oven b) Flaming c) Incineration d) Ignition
Q:203 A metallic chamber which is the thermostatically controlled and heated electrically is called
a) Hepa filter b) Incubator c) Hot air oven d) Bunsen burner
Q:204 The method of sterilization by which essential protein of microorganism are denaturized and
cogulated is
a) Radiation b) Filtration c) Incineration d) flaming e) Moist Heat
Q:205 The ointments and thermolablie cannot be sterilized by
a) Hepa filter b) Tyndallisation c) Chemical sterilization
d) Mechanical sterilization e) Moist heat
Q:206 Autoclaving is a type of
a) Radiation b) Incineration c) Heat sterilization d) Moist heat sterilization
Q:207 The time and temperature that is required to saturated steam under pressure to penetrate
through material is
a) 15 – 12C b) 20min – 12C c) 15sec – 12C d) 20sec – 12C
Q:208 When the time of autoclave adjusted for their minutes then temperature is
a) 130oC b) 131oC c) 132oC d) 134oC

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Q:209 Commonly used bactericides are
a) Benzalkornium chloride and clorocresol b) Chlorine, ozon
c) Bromine, clorocresol d) Banzalkornium , Starch
Q:210 The time required to sterilized the instrument by boiling water is
a) 30min b) 10 min c) 15 – 20min d) 20 min
Q:211 How much incubation periods are allowed to heat resistant spore by tyndallisation method
a) Two b) Three c) One d) None
Q:212 Tyndallisation is ineffective against
a) Capsid b) Capsomers c) Pirion d) Virion
Q:213 Which method of sterilization also called cooled sterilization
a) Autoclaving b) Filtration c) Chlorine d) Radiation
Q:214 Which part of microbes is destroyed by radiation
a) Cytoplasm b) Cell membrane c) Envelopes d) Nucleoprotein
Q:215 In which method no aseptic handling is required because sterilization can be done packing
after
a) Tyndallisation b) Radiation c) Flaming d) Hot air ove
Q:216 Which type of radiation have less penetrating capacity
a) X – rays b) Gamma – rays c) Electro beam d) Uv rays
Q:217 Which type of radiation is only used for surface and some transparent objects
a) UV b) X – rays c) Gamma d) Electron beam
Q:218 Ethylene oxide and hydrogen peroxide are example of
a) Heating with bactericides b) Chemical sterilization
c) Mechanical sterilization d) All
Q:219 The disadvantage of chlorine bleach is
a) High cost b) Harmful the person operating
c) Highly corrosive d) All of these
Q:220 The side effects / disadvantages of ozone are
a) Toxic , unstable b) Toxic, high cost c) Corrosive d) less penetrative
Q:221 Ozone is used to sterilized the
a) Air, soil b) Soil, water c) Water, Minerals d) Air, water
Q:222 Ozone is a
a) Liquid b) Solid c) Gas d) None
Q:223 Which type of method is important for sterilization of solution
a) Chlorine Bleach b) Ozone c) Tyndallization d) Filtration
Q:224 What is meant by static agent
a) To kill Microbes b) To inhibit growth of microbes
c) To preserved the microbes d) As nutrient for microbes
Q:225 Which type of antimicrobial should not be taken internaly
a) Antiseptics b) Disinfectants c) Sensitizer d) preservatives
Q:226 Alcohol iodine , detergents are example of
a) Preservatives b) Antiseptics c) Disinfectants d) All of above
Q:227 Formaldehyde and phenolic compound are
a) Detergents b) Static agents c) Antiseptic d) None
Q:228 Millipore filter, Seitz filter are may be filter by
a) Heat b) Steam c) Filtration d) Chemical

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Q:229 Sharp edges instrument should not be sterilized by
a) Hot air b) Steam c) Chemical d) Radiation
Q:230 Which type of Rubbers be sterilized either by dry heat or moist heat
a) Polystyrene b) polyethylene c) PVC d) Silicon rubber
Q:231 Which type Of material may be sterilized by dry heat , moist heat , ethylene oxide or ionizing
radiation
a) Surgical dressing and fabrics b) Rubber and plastic
c) Metal Equipment d) Aqueous and non aqueous solution
Q:232 The chemical process of fermentation is a type of
a) Aerobic respiration b) Anaerobic respiration c ) Antiseptic d) Disinfectants
Q:233 The enzymatic reaction converts the pyruvic acid into
a) Lactic acid b) Glutamic c ) Acetic acid d) Glucose
Q:234 In yeast the pyruvic acid by the process of fermentation firstly converted to acetaldehyde
then
a) Alcohol b) Phenolic aldehyde c) Ethyl alcohol d) Ether
Q:235 The liquor industry uses the ethyl alcohol to make
a) Pesticides b) Bactericides c) Wine, bear d) Chemical
Q:236 Vinegar is a fermentation product of
a) Streptococcus b) Acetobacto species
c) Staphylococcus d) Saccharomyces
Q:237 Streptokinase, GCSF ,HBV are
a) Recombinant product b) human enzymes
c) Microbial enzymes d) Recombinant
Q:238 The police force of our body is
a) Medicines b) Allergy c) Immune system d) Disease
Q:239 Vitamins and polysaccharides are
a) Secondary metabolites b) Primary metabolites
c) Microbial enzymes d) Recombinants
Q:240 The corner stone of immune system are
a) RBCs b) Carbohydrates c) Enzymes d) Lymphougtes
Q:241 When immune system makes a mistake and attack the body own tissues or organs then
called
a) Active immunity b) Autoimmunity c) Passive immunity d) None
Q:242 The example of autoimmune disease is
a) Nausea b) TB c) Vomiting d) Type 1 diabetes
Q:243 How much type of immunity
a) Two b) One c) Three d) None
Q:244 Lack of natural immunity called as
a) Disease b) Allergy c ) Susceptibility d ) Virulence
Q:245 Chemical substance capable of provoking the immune system are called as
a) Antibodies b) Pirion c) Antigens d) Medicines
Q:246 The ability to stimulate cell of the immune system is
a) Autoimmunity b) Immunogenicity c) Reactivity d) Tolerance
Q:247 How much amino acid or monosaccharides are contain by antigen determinants or epitope
a) Six b) Eight c) Two d) Three

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Q:248 The acquired resistance to foreign particles or drugs called
a) Reactivity b) Dependency c) Tolerance d) Synergism
Q:249 When ones own chemicals do not stimulate an immune response is termed as
a) Reactivity b) Antigens c) Self d) Autoimmunity
Q:250 When self-tolerance breakdown then persons own chemical substance stimulate an
immune response is termed as
a) Allo- antigen b) Anti antigens c ) Antibody d ) Disinfectants
Q:251 A,B and Rh antigens of humans are typical examples of
a) Autoimmunity b ) Allergens c) Antibodies d) Allo – antigens
Q:252 Erythrocytes horses and viruses that cause mononucleosis are examples of
a) Hetrophills b) Monocytes c ) Allergens d) Antibodies
Q:253 The body formed specific substance in response to specific foreign particle / antigen called
a) Vitamins b) Antibodies c) Protein binding d) Antigen
Q:254 Antibodies are
a) Carbohydrates b) Protein c) Lipids d) Chemicals
Q:255 Antibodies composed of
a) Albumin b) Plasminogen c) Rennin d) Gamma globulins
Q:256 Antibody mediated immunity is called
a) Allergy b) Humoral immunity c) Autoimmunity d) Reactivity
Q:257 Variable regions of each immunoglobulin molecules in monoclonal antibodies are
a) Different b) Same c) Intermediates d) None
Q:258 Antibody are classified on the basis of
a) Reactivity b) Light chain in constant region
c) Heavy chains in constant region d) All
Q:259 After stimulation of B – lymphocytes , which one of the antibody response firstly
a) Ig G b) Ig M c) Ig A d) Ig E
Q:260 Classical gamma globulin is
a) Ig M b) Ig G c) Ig A d) Ig E
Q:261 Ig G produced antigenic stimulation after
a) 24 hours b) 48 hours c) 24 – 48 hours d) 12 hours
Q:262 Serum Ig A is similar to
a) Ig E b) Ig D c) Ig G d) Ig M
Q:263 Secretory Ig A comes form
a) Epithelium b) Mesothelium c) Endothelium d) All of the above
Q:264 Colostrum are
a) Water secretion b) Blood c) First milk of nursing mother d) Antigens
Q:265 Surface receptor antibody is
a) Ig M b) Ig E c) Ig A d) Ig D
Q:266 Complement fixation and precipitation test are
a) Agglutination test b) Serological test c) Dissolution test d) Friability test
Q:267 Weil – felix test and COOMB’S test are used for
a) Treatment b) Diagnose c) Prescription d) Finishing
Q:268 Agar – diffusion method and ring test are
a) Prescription test b) Disintegration test c) Diagnostic test d) Compatibility test

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Q:269 ASCOLI test is important for
a) Precipitation point of view b) Diagnostic point of view
c) Treatment point of view d) Dissolution test
Q:270 specific hyper sensitivity of an individual to foreign particle is
a) Virulency b) Allergy c) Disease d) Pathogenicity
Q:271 Gell and Coombs are
Disinfectant b) Antigens c) Chemicals d) Anticeptics
Q:272 Increase sensitivity to an antigen from the previous exposure to that antigen is called
a) Allergy b) Hypersensitivity c) Immunity d) Tolerance
Q:273 How much types of hypersensitivity reaction are classified by Gell and coombs
a) Three b) Four c) Five d) Six
Q:274 Anaphylactic hypersensitivity is mediated by
a) Ig M b) Ig D c) Ig E d) Ig G
Q:275 Pencillines caused
a) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity b) Complex mediated Hypersensitivity
c) Cell mediated hypersensitivity d) Anaphylactic hypersensitivity
Q:276 Ig G and Ig M typically involved.
a) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity b) Anaphylactic hypersensitivity
c) Cell mediated hypersensitivity d) Complex mediated Hypersensitivity
Q:277 Rheumatoid arthritis is example of
a) Immune complex Hypersensitivity b) Anaphylactic hypersensitivity
c) Cell mediated hypersensitivity d) Complex mediated Hypersensitivity
Q:278 Type – iv hypersensitivity reached the peak level in
a) 2 – 3 days b) 3 – 4 days c ) 24 – 48 days d) 15 min
Q:279 The major forms of type –iv allergy are
a) Infection allergy b) Arthus reaction c) Contact dermatitis d) A & C
Q:280 A suspension of living or killed pathogenic microorganism called as
a) Antibody b) Vaccine c) Antigen d) Antimicrobial
Q:281 The term vaccine derived from
a) Edward Jenner’s b) Lois pasture c) Francis Crick d) Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek
Q:282 Vacca means
a) Cow b) Befallow c ) Crow d) Ox
Q:283 The process of distribution and administrating vaccine is reffered to as
a) Vaccination b) Suspension c ) Emulsion d) Solution
Q:284 Small pox in osculation was eventually banned in England in
a) 1840 b) 1848 c) 1748 d) 1648
Q:285 vaccine can be prophylactically prevent the future infections by any
a) Chemical agents b) Pesticides c ) Insecticides d) Nature or wild pathogen
Q:286 Vaccine may be purified products from
a) Dead or inactivated organism b) Living organism
c) Chemical agents d) All of the above
Q:287 The primary aim of vaccination is
a) Eliminate the disease b) Advancement in medicine
c) Remove the table formulation d) Replace the tablet formulation

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Q:288 The efficacy of vaccine greater than
a) 80% b) 100% c ) 90% d) 95%
Q:289 Vaccines should have
a) High cost b) Low cost c ) Stable genetically and thermally d) B & C
Q:290 Conventionally used vaccines are
a) BCG b) Insulin c) Interferon d) All of the above
Q:291 Vaccine contain one or more pure or semi pure part or subunits of microorganism called
a) Killed vaccines b) Heterologous vaccines c) Subunits vaccines d) None
Q:292 Vaccines used a diagnostic test to differentiate a vaccinated animal from a carrier animal
a) Vectored vaccine b) Marker vaccine
c) Killed vaccines d) Convention vaccines
Q:293 Third generation vaccines are
a) Marker vaccines b) DNA vaccines
c) Heterologous vaccine d) Conventional vaccine
Q:294 Adenovirus is used as
a) Vector b) Inducer c ) Reservoir d) Vihicle
Q:295 One short vaccine are used for
a) All type of disease b ) Only for virus
c) For bacterial used d) For fungal infection
Q:296 Anti – idiotype is successfully used against
a) Staphylococci b) Saccharomyces c) Streptococci d ) Lactobacilli
Q:297 In anti – ideotype antibodies , the antigen are
a) Copy of antibodies b) Foreign particles c) Interferon d) Interleukin
Q:298 The removal or mutation of virulence gene of pathogen caused by
a) Gene deleted vaccines b) peptide vaccine c) One short vaccine d) None
Q:299 Which statement is not true for non specific antisera
a) There are referred as Y – globulin b)Consist of three distinct components Ig A , Ig M, Ig G
c) There are given intramuscularly d) There are not prepared from human
Q:300 Antibacterial sera are used to provide
a) Active immunity b) Passive immunity c) Tolerance d) Reactivity
Q:301 Which one of the route is used for antibacterial sera
a) Intramuscular b) Intravenous c) Subcutaneous d) Intradermal
Q:302 BPC lactospira is an example of
a) Non specific antisera b) specific antisera antitoxin
c) Antibacterial sera d) Antiviral sera
Q:303 Who was opened a new chapter of science that would evolve into study of microscopic
organism and discipline of microbiology
a) Antony van Leeuwenhoek b) Lois pasture c) Francis crick d) Edward jenners
Q:304 When Antony van Leeuwen hoek sent letter to royal society of London the study and
disciplined of microorganism
a) 1676 b) 1776 c) 1677 d) 1661
Q;305 Rabies antisera are prepared in
a) Cow b) OX c) Tobacco d) Horses
Q:306 Which type of vaccine used for both prophylactically and therapeutically
a) Gene deleted vaccine b) Antisera c ) Killed vaccine d) Vectored vaccine

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 Ans Key of Microbiology
1) A 2) B 3) D 4) B 5) B
6) C 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) C
11) C 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) B
16) B 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) B
21) A 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) B
26) B 27) D 28) A 29) B 30) A
31) C 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) A
36) C 37) A 38) C 39) A 40) D
41) B 42) B 43) B 44) A 45) A
46) C 47) B 48) C 49) C 50) A
51) D 52) B 53) A 54) B 55) B
56) C 57) C 58) E 59) A 60) E
61) C

Infection and disease

62) C 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) B
67) A 68) A 69) A 70) B 71) A
72)

Culture and media

73) A 74) E 75) B 76) C 77) A
78) D 79) A 80) A 81) B 82) A
83) E 84) B 85) B 86) A 87) B
88) A 89) B 90) D 91) A 92)
93) B 94) B
Virus
95) B 96) 97) 98) B 99) B

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 100) A 101) A 102) 103) B 104) A
105) C 106) D 107) B 108) A 109) D
110) B 111) C 112) B 113) A 114) D
115) B 116) B 117) B 118) C 119) C
120) A 121) A 122) D

Fungi
123) D 124) C 125) C 126) B 127) B
128) A 129) B 130) B 131) A 132) B
133) E 134) D 135) C 136) B 137) D
138) B 139) B 140) B 141) B 142) D
143) B 144) D 145) D 146) D 147) B
148) D 149) 150) B 151) B 152) B
153) B 154) C 155) C

Microbiology of water
156) B 157) B 158) C 159) D 160) A
161) B 162) D 163) B 164) C 165) D
166) B 167) A 168) C 169) D 170) D
171) D 172) C 173) C 174) A 175) D
176) B 177) C 178) E 179) B 180) B
181) A 182) C 183) C 184) A 185) A
186) A 187) D 188) E 189) B 190) C
191) B 192) D 193) B 194) B 195) B
196) C 197) C 198) B 199) A 200) B
201) C 202) B 203) C 204) E 205) E
206) D 207) B 208) D 209) A 210) D
211) B 212) C 213) D 214) D 215) B
216) C 217) A 218) B 219) C 220) A
221) D 222) C 223) D 224) B 225) A
226) B 227) B 228) B 229) A 230) D
231) A 232) B 233) A 234) C 235) C

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 236) B 237) A 238) C 239) B 240) D
241) B 242) D 243) A 244) C 245) C
246) B 247) A 248) C 249) B 250) A
251) D 252) A 253) D 254) B 255) D
256) B 257) B 258) C 259) B 260) B
261) C 262) C 263) A 264) C 265) D
266) B 267) B 268) A 269) B 270) B
271) A 272) B 273) B 274) C 275) D
276) A 277) D 278) A 279) D 280) B
281) A 282) A 283) A 284) B 285) D
286) A 287) A 288) C 289) D 290) A
291) C 292) B 293) B 294) A 295) A
296) C 297) A 298) A 299) D 300) B
301) B 302) C 303) A 304) A 305) D
306) B

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 Biochemistry Carbohydrates
Q: 1 Carbohydrate are organic compounds and are made up of
a) Carbon b) Hydrogen c) Oxygen d) All of these
Q:2 Number of carbon and water molecules attach to carbon are:
a) Equal in number b) Differ in number
c) Carbon in greater than water d) water is greater in no.
Q:3 “CHO” is the
a) Keto group b) Aldehyde c) Function group d) Both b&c
Q:4 The chief source of carbohydrate is
a) Beams b) cereals c) Pulses d) Nuts
Q:5 Carbohydrate exists in
a) Chain forms b) Cyclic forms c) Both a & b
Q:6 Cell wall of all plants are made up of
a) Cellulose b) Starch c) Proteins d) Sucrose
Q:7 The carbohydrate are prepared by the plants by process of
a) Respiration b) Photosynthetic c) Glycolysis d) All of these
Q:8 Carbohydrate are the macronutrients as __________ of our calories comes from it
a) 45% b) 55% c) 65% d) 75%
Q:9 1g of carbohydrate provides
a) 10 calories b) 5 calories c) 20 calories d) 4 calories
Q:10 Function of carbohydrates includes
a) Construction of body organs b)Helps in lowering Cholesterol
c) Helps in body absorption d) All of these
Q:11 Carbohydrate who has lower molecular mass are
a) Sweetest in taste b) Less sweet c) sour d) Bitter
Q:12 Carbohydrate having one sugar molecules and cannot hydrolyses to smaller unit
a) Monosaccharide b) Disaccharide c) Oligosaccharide d) Polysaccharides
Q:13 Normal blood glucose level of human in fasting is
a) 50 – 80mg% b) 110 – 120mg% c) 80 – 100mg% d) 100 – 150mg%
Q:14 Glucose is also called
a) Ribulose b) Dextrose c) Erythrulose d) Sedoheptulose
Q:15 Common sources of fructose is
a) Glucose b) Ribose c) Sucrose d) Maltose
Q:16 C6H12O6 is molecular formula of
a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Lactose d) Both a & b
Q:17 If all sugar molecules in disaccharides are same it is called
a) Homogeneous b) Heterogeneous c) oligosaccharides d) Polysaccharides
Q:18 Sucrose , lactose and maltose are example of
a) Monosaccharides b) Disaccharides c) oligosaccharides d) Polysaccharides
Q:19 On hydrolysis , oligosaccharides yield
a) Two monosaccharides units b) Ten – Fifteen monosaccharides
c) Three – Ten monosaccharides d) Four – Five mono saccharides units

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Q:20 Starch and Glycogen are
a) Homopolysaccharides b) Heteropolysaccharides
c) oligosaccharides d) Monosaccharides
Q:21 The polysaccharides which yield different types monosaccharides on hydrolysis are called
a) Homopolysaccharides b) Heteropolysaccharides
c) Both a & b d) simple saccharides
Q:22 Cellulose , starch , Glycogen are example of
a) Monosaccharides b) Disaccharides c) Polysaccharides d) oligosaccharides
Q:23 Amylose and amylopectin are example /types of
a) Sucrose b) Starch c) Glucose d) Glycogen
Q:24 White solids , sparingly soluble in organic liquids are
a) Carbohydrate b) Lipids c) Proteins d) Fats

Lipids
Q:1 Lipids includes
a) Fats b) Oils and waxes c) Steroids d) All of these
Q:2 Lipids are stores energy because of high proportion of
a) C – H bonds b) oxygen c) C – N binds d) All of these
Q:3 The class of lipids , includes fats , oil and waxes
a) Compound lipids b) Derived lipids c) Simple lipids d) Complex lipids
Q:4 These are esters of fatty acids with glycerol
a) Waxes b) Fats and Oils c) Steroids d) Lipoproteins
Q:5 A fat in liquid state is called
a) Wax b) Steroid c) Phospholipid d) Oil
Q:6 fats and oils have specific gravity of about
a) 8 b) 0.8 c) 8.5 d) 0.08
Q:7 Glycerol with carboxylic acid yield
a) Glycolipids b) Glycosphingolipids c) Triglycerides d) Steroids
Q:8 There are esters of fatty acids with long chain monohydric alcohol
a) Fats b) Waxes c) oils d) Steroids
Q:9 Plants and waxes present in ____________ of plant cell
a) Cell membrane b) Vacuoles c) Cuticle d) Chitin
Q:10 These are esters of fatty acids containing groups in addition to an alcohol and fatty acids
a) Compound lipids b) Complex lipids c) Derived lipids d) Both a & b
Q:11 Class of compound lipids containing sphingosine , fatty acids , sugar and phosphate group
a) Glycolipids b) Sulphosides c) Phospholipids d) Lipoproteins
Q:12 They are aliphatic monocarboxylic acids
a) Phosphoric acids b) Carboxylic acids c) Fatty acids d) All of above
Q:13 They do not contain double bonds
a) Saturated fatty acids b) unsaturated fatty acids c) Monounsaturated d)
Polyunsaturated
Q:14 Fats containing unsaturated fatty acids are at room temperature
a) Solids b) Liquids c) Gas d) Semi – solids

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Q:15 oleic acid is
a) Monounsaturated fatty acids b) polyunsaturated fatty acids
c) saturated fatty acid d) none
Q:16 Fats containing saturated fatty acids are
a) Liquid at room temperature b) solids at room temperature
c) Semi solids d) Gas
Q:17 A large number of compound found in nature occurring in nonsaponifiable fraction of lipids
a) Oils b) Waxes c) Steroids d) Fatty acids
Q:18 Steroids are
a) Cholesterol b) Male and female c) Adrenal cortex hormones d) All of these
Q:19 Most abundant animal sterol is
a) Ergo sterol b) Cholesterol c) Estradiol d) Estriol
Q:20 Normal plasma level ranges
a) 100 – 200mg/dl b) 10 – 20 mg/dl c) 150 – 220mg/dl d) 15 – 22mg/dl
Q:21 Functions of lipids includes
a) Energy source b) Carrier of fat-soluble vitamin
c) as deitary lipids d) all of above
Q:22 Lipids are integral part of
a) Cell protoplasm b) Cell membrane c) Both a & b Cell wall
Q:23 Amount of Cholesterol may be present in an adult human being is
a) 50g b) 10g c) 100g d) 140g

Proteins
Q:1 In protein , amino acids joined to each other by specific type of _________ bond
a) Peptide bond b) glycoside bond c) ionic bond d) All of these
Q:2 Amino acid have functional group
a) Amino group b) Carboxylic group c) Both a & b d) Keto group
Q:3 There are ___________ amino acids which have been found to occur in all proteins
a) 30 b) 10 c) 20 d) 22
Q:4 In amino acid structure : if R is Ch3 , then the structure formed is of
a) Glycine b) Alanine c) leucine d) Guanine
Q:5 Blood plasma contains proteins
a) 20% b) 7% c) 3.5% d) 12%
Q:6 Which of the following is the function of proteins
a) Forms structural element of body b) Important food constituent
c) Are present in daily use articles d) All are function of proteins
Q:7 In the structure of amino acid the carboxylic group is present
a) Left hand side b) Top left c) Right hand side d) Bottom left
Q:8 In primary structure of proteins the bonding present is
a) Hydrogen bonding b) Covalent bond
c) Sulphite linkage d) Additional H .bonding

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Q:9 The regular arrangement of amino acid that are located near to each other in linear
sequence is
a) Primary structure b) Secondary c) Tertiary structure d) Quaternary
Q:10 If the chain of myoglobin could be extended the length of its molecule would be
a) 20 times its width b) 25 times its width c) 30 times its width d) 2 times
its width
Q:11 Which of the following is an example of quaternary structure
a) Insulin b) Fibrin c) Haemoglobin d) Keratin
Q:12 Proteins are major part of _______
a) Meat b) Nucleus c) membrane d) All
Q:13 Proteins take essential part in the formation of
a) Protoplasm b) Cytoplasm c) Cytosol d) Sol.
Q:14 Each one gram of dietary proteins furnishes calories
a) 3900cal b) 400cal c) 4150cal d) 4100cal
Q:15 Most of food and vegetables are composed of
a) Proteins b) Lipids c) Fats d) Fibres
Q:16 __________ contain antifreeze protein which protect their blood form freezing
a) Sharks b) Sea horse c) Antarctic fish d) Cartilaginous
Q:17 Transportation of O2 and Co2 is by
a) Haemoglobin b) Insulin c) Collagen d) Fibrin
Q:18 Which protein helps in blood clotting
a) Fibrinogen b) Collagen c) Histones d) Albumin
Q:19 Movement of organs in plant cell is due to movement of ____________
a) Blood b) DNA c) Nucleus d) Chromosomes
Q:20 How many types of proteins
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five
Q:21 Water soluble proteins is
a) Albumin b) Globulin c) Histone d) Globin’s

Amino Acids
Q:1 There are rich in histidine but are not basic
a) Globulin’s b) Globin’s c) Prolamine d) Protamines
Q:2 Gliadin of wheat and zein of maize is an example of
a) Prolamines b) Globins c) Histone d) Protamines
Q:3 In combination of histone with DNA , they form
a) Nucleic acid b) Nucleohistone c) Nucleoalbumin d) All
Q:4 Aluminoides includes
a) Collagen b) Elastin c) Keratin d) All
Q:5 There are also called scleroprotein
a) Albumin b) Albuminoids c) Protamine’s d) Prolamines
Q:6 Non protein group is
a) Functional b) Cofactor c) Coenzyme d) prosthetic group
Q:7 Conjugate protein include
a) Carbohydrate b) Chromo protein c) Melloprotein d) All of these

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Q:8 This class of protein includes substances which are derived from simple protein
a) Carbohydrates b) Chromoprotein c) Derived protein d) Conjugate
Q:9 The bond b/w amino acids is
a) Peptide bond b) Glycosidic bond c) Covalent bond d) Hydrogen bond
Q:10 The central “C” carbon atom is amino acid is
a) Simple carbon b) Alpha carbon c) Beta carbon d) Delta carbon
Q:11 Naturally occurring amino acids are known are
a) 285 b) 295 c) 300 d) 360
Q:12 It is side chain which gives distinct properties to amino acid
a) R – group b) Carboxylic group c) Amino group d) Alpha carbon
Q:13 Amino acid with non-polar aliphatic side chain includes
a) Glycine b) Alanine c) Valine d) All
Q:14 Amino acids with side chain containing hydroxyl group include
a) Serine b) Tyrosine c) Tryptophan d) Valine
Q:15 Lysine, arginine , histidine are example of
a) Basic amino acids b) Acidic amnion acidic c) Neutral amino acid d) All
Q:16 These amino acids do not take part in protein synthetic
a) Basic amino acids b) Standard amino acid
c) Non standard amino acid d) Neutral amino acid
Q;17 It is a part of the molecules of vitamin namely pantothenic acid
a) α-alanine b) β-alanine c) ɣ-alanine d) Citratine
Q:18 ___________ is being used in treating parkinsonism
a) Nicotine b) Penicillin c) L-∆opa d) All
Q:19 The thyroid hormones are
a) Diiodotyrosine b) Tri-iodotyrosine c) Tera-iodotyrosine d) Both b&c
Q:20 Amino acids have function as]
a) Lipids b) Acids c) Protein d) Fats
Q:21 Amino acids play role as
a) Hormone biosynthesis b) N2 metabolism c) Tolerance of certain stresses d) All
Q:22 Beans , Nuts, pulses contain ________ % protein
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 50

Biochemistry
Q:1 Nucleic acids were first demonstrated by
a) Hardy Weinberg b) Mendeleve c) Friedrich Miescher d) Watson and crick
Q:2 Nucleic acids are
a) Nucleotide b) mononucleotide c) polynucleotide d) nucleosides
Q:3 Purines includes
a) Adenine & guanine b) Adenine & guanine
c) Cytosine & uracil d) Uracil & thymine
Q:4 Pyrimidines includes
a) Cytosine , uracil , guanine b) Cytosine , uracil , thymine
c) Adenine , cytosine , uracil d) Adenine , thymine , cytosine
Q:5 Nucleoside is a
a) Nitrogen base b) 5- carbon sugar c) Both a & b d) Phosphate group

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Q:6 ATP has _____________ high energy phosphate bonds
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
Q:7 Adenine is always equal to
a) Thyamine b) Guanine c) Cytosine d) Uracil
Q:8 Which statement is not true about RNA ?
a) Purines includes adenine and guanine b) Pyrimidines includes cytosine and
thymine
c) It has ribose sugar d) It is much smaller than DNA
Q:9 DNA is present in
a) Nucleus only b) Cytoplasm
c) Mitochondria d) Nucleus and cytoplasm of mitochondria
Q:10 ATP, ADP, AMP, NADP, FAD are derivatives of
a) Adenine b) Guanine c) Cytosine d) Thymine
Q:11 Which statement is correct regarding RNA
a) tRNA forms 30% of total RNA of cell b) mRNA forms 50% of total RNA
c) rRNA forms 75% to 80% of total RNA cell d) tRNA forms 20% of total RNA of cell
Q:12 function of rRNA includes
a) Encodes amino acid sequence b) Transfer amino acid to a growing polypeptide
c) Reads information coded in RNA d) Constituents of ribosome’s that synthesize protein
Q:13 The nucleotides forming RNA consist of
a) Purines/ Pyrimidine b) D-ribose c) Phosphoric acid d) All of above
Q:14 Watson and Crick , hypothesized that DNA is a double helix in
a) 1963 b) 1953 c) 1973 d) 1983
Q:15 The helix is _________ in diameter
a) 34nm b) 20nm c) 2nm d) 10nm
Q:16 DNA is carries of heredity in all eukaryotes and prokaryotes except
a) Virus and phages b) Bacteria c) Blue – green algae d) Virus only
Q:17 properties of DNA includes
a) To store genetic information b) To replicate
c) Both a & b d) Has ribose sugar
Q:18 There are chemical substance which are secreted into body fluids by cell tissues and have
effect on other cells
a) Vitamins b) Enzymes c) Nucleic acid d) Hormones
Q:19 Which one is not a function of hormones
a) Help to control internal environment b) Used as sweetness
c) Transport substance through cell membrane
d) Regulates metabolism and energy balance
Q:20 All of these are local hormones except
a) Acetyl choline b) Secretin c) Cholecystokinin d) ACTH

Classification of Hormones
Q:1 Which hormones is released by anterior pituitary gland
a) ADH b) Oxytocin c) GH d) MSH
Q:2 Thyroid gland released by
a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Somatostatin d) Calcitonin

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Q:3 Insulin is released by
a) Ovaries b) Kidney c) Islets of Langerhans d) Thyroid
gland
Q:4 Human Chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) is
a) Glycoprotein b ) Steroids c) Amino acid d) Amine
Q:5 Steroids is
a) Cholesterol derivatives b) Enzymes c) Peptides d) Lipid derivatives
Q:6 Adrenal cortex releases
a) Aldosterones b) Cortisol adrenal androgens c) Both a & b d) Androgen
Q:7 Erythropoietin is ____________ in nature
a) Peptide b) Glycoprotein c) Steroid d) Amino acid
Q:8 Tyrosine derivatives are
a) Amino acids b) Amines c) Glycoproteins d) Both a & b
Q:9 Melatonin belongs to
a) Amino acid b) Amines c) Glycoprotein d) Both a & b
Q:10 Human growth hormones is also known as
a) STH b) TSH c) FSH d) LH
Q:11 GH has predominately anabolic affects on
a) Skelelal muscle b) Cardiac muscle c) Smooth muscle d) Both a & b
Q:12 Function of growth hormones is
a) Causes cell to ruplure b) causes cell to grow
c) Causes cell to shrink d) Causes cell to divide
Q:13 GH ________ the catabolism of protein
a) Decreases b) Increases c) Enhance d) First increases then decreases
Q:14 GH has tendency to cause
a) Hypoglycaemia b) Hyperglycaemia c) Hyperaemia d) Hypoanemia
Q:15 What6 is the effect of GH on metabolism ?
a) It stimulate the metabolism of fatty acid b) It inhibits the metabolism of fatty acid
c) It increases fat deposition d) None of above
Q:16 GH ___________the retention of phosphorus and Ca++ in body fluid
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Maintain d) dec. and then inc.
Q:17 This hormones released by posterior pituitary gland
a) Oxytocin b) Endrogen c) GH d) MSH
Q:18 Just prior to delivery oxytocin is released in _______ quantity
a) Large b) Small c) Very small d) Do not release
Q:19 Oxytocin accelerates transport of seminal fluid toward
a) Ovaries b) Cequiri c) Fallopian tubes d) vogue
Q:20 In large doses oxytocin lowers
a) Vasoconstriction and decrease B.P b) Vasodilation and increase B.P
c) Vasoconstriction and increase B.P d) Vasodilation and decrease B.P
Q:21 What is the effect of oxytocin on pituitary gland
a) Causes prolactin secretion b) Causes ADH secretion
c) Cause FSH secretion d) Inhibits prolactin secretion

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 Insulin + Testosterone
Q:1 Hormone which lowers the blood glucose level is
a) ACTH b) Insulin c) Somatotrophic hormones d) Aldosterone
Q:2 Insulin is secreted by
a) Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans b) Beta cells of islets of Langerhans
c ) Interstitial cells d) Corpus Latium
Q:3 Insulin contains ________ Amino acids and is small soluble protein
a) 41 b) 50 c) 51 d) 61
Q:4 Insulin increases entry of glucose into calls by
a) Facilitated diffusion b) Active transport c) Osmosis d) All of these
Q:5 Insulin increases conversion of glucose into fat to be stored in
a) Heart tissues b) Epithetical tissues c) Adipose tissues d) Glandular tissues
Q:6 Insulin forms fatty acid form excess luier glucose by activating
a) Acetyl – CoA carboxylase b) Pyruvate carboxylase
c) Acetophenone carboxylase d) All of these
Q:7 Insulin promotes translation of mRNA to form new
a) Fats b ) carbohydrate c) Lipids d) Protein
Q:8 Which hormones is essential for growth , as it increase protein formation?
a) Insulin b) ACTH c) Aldosterone d) progesterone
Q:9 All are true about insulin except
a) It causes active transport of amino acid into cells b) It inhibits protein catabolism
c) It promotes gluconeogenesis from amino acid d) Inhibit hydrolysis of triglycerides
Q:10 Hormones , consists of 19 carbon atoms
a) Insulin b) Testosterone c ) Estrogen d) Progesterone
b) Q:11 Nature of testosterone is
a) Protein b) Carbohydrate c) Steroids d) Amino acids
Q:12 Testosterone is secreted by
a) Β – cells of Langerhans b) Pancreas c) Laydig cells of testes d) None
Q:13 Testosterone is responsible for
a) Baldness b) Deposition of melanin in skin c) Behavior and body changes d)
All
Q:14 Effect / Effects of testosterone includes
a) Increase protein synthesis b) Increase bone matrices
c) Both a & b d) Decrease the BMR
Q:15 Testosterone can increase the reabsorption of
a) Sodium b) Water c) Potassium d) Both a & b

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 Estrogen + Progesterone
Q:1 What is the effect of estrogen on the size of vagina ?
a) Increase b ) Becomes shorter c) Remains same d) Becomes narrono
Q:2 The vaginal PH becomes more ____________ due to conversion of glycogen into lactic acid
by loacteria
a) Acidic b) Basic c) Neutral d) Alkaline
Q:3 Which one of the following is not the type of (naturally occurring ) estrogen
a) 17 α- estradiol b) 17 β- estradiol c) Estrone d) Estriol
Q:4 Estrogen is
a) Male sex hormone b) Female sex hormone c) Enzymes d) None of above
Q:5 Estrogen cause the proliferation of
a) Epithelial tissues b) Endothelium tissues c) Glandular tissues d) None
Q:6 Estrogen inhibits ________ and ______ section by negative feedback
a) LH and TSH b) FSH and TSH c) LH and FSH d) FSH and GH
Q:7 Which one of the following is also used in soaps and creams
a) Progesterone b) Estrogen c) Testosterone d) Oxytocin
Q:8 This hormone sis responsible for the proliferative phase of menstrual cycle
a) Progesterone b) Testosterone c) Estrogen d) Oxytocin
Q:9 Effect of estrogen on pelvis cause
a) Broadness b) Thickness c) Becomes narrow d) have no effect
Q:10 Esterogen cause the deposition of faults in
a) Foot b) Abdomen c) Shoulder c) Breast
Q:11 Esterogen _________ fibrinogen level
a) Raises b) Protein c) Polypeptide d) Acidic
Q:12 Progesterone promotes secretory changes during
a) Proliferating promotes b) Secretory phase
c) Menstruation phase d) Menopause
Q:13 What is the nature of progesterone
a) Steroid b) Protein c) Polypeptide d) Acidic
Q:14 Which hormones acts of progesterone on vagina
a) FSH b) LH c) Relaxin d) Insulin
Q:15 What is the effect of progesterone on vagina
a) Increase cellular proliferation , decrease mucous secretion
b) Decrease cellular proliferation ,Increase mucous secretion
c) Increase cellular proliferation , decrease mucous secretion
d) Decrease cellular proliferation , Increase mucous secretion
Q:16 Which statement is not true about progesterone ?
a) Mobilize protein during pregnancy b) Causes relaxation of cervix
c) Inhibit Secretion of sebum d) Both a & b
Q:17 Which statement is true about estrogen ?
a) It raises cholesterol level b) Have no effect on voice
c) Have effect on fat metabolism d) All of above
Q:18 Large doses of causes __________ natriuresis
a) Progesterone b) Estrogen c) Testosterone d) Insulin

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Q:19 Natriuresis is
a) Excretion of K (potassium ) in blood b) Excretion of Na (potassium) in blood
c) Excretion of K in urine d) Excretion of Na in urine
Q:20 Natriuresis occur by blocking action of
a) Testosterone b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) Aldosterone
Q:21 After 24 hours of ovulation , the body temperature increase due to
a) Secretion of progesterone b) Inhibition of progesterone
c) Secretion of estrogen d) Secretion of testosterone
Q:22 Identity the correct statement
a) Progesterone cause contraction of cervix
b) Relaxin can act independently
c) Progesterone decrease frequency of uterine contraction
d) Progesterone increase frequency of uterine contraction
Q:23 Estrogen increase the
a) Deposition of fats b) deposition of protein
c) Deposition of carbohydrate d) Both a & b
Q:24 The larynx of female retains its prepubertal so voice remains
a) High pitched b) Ion pitched c) Deeper d) Both a & b
Q:25 Corpus leuteum secretes
a) Estrogen b ) Progesterone c) oxytocin d) Aldosterone

Enzymes
Q:1 All enzymes are
a) Organic catalysts b) Biological catalysts c) Protein in nature d) All of these
Q:2 Molecules on which enzymes can act
a) Cofactor b) Prosthetic group c) Substrate d) Product
Q:3 Small amount of enzymes can catalysed ___________ amount of substrate in a biological
reaction
a) Large b) Small c) Limited d) Minimum
Q:4 Enzymes are soluble in
a) Water and dilute alcohol solution b) Concentrated alcohol
c) Ammonium sulphate d) Trichloro acetic acid
Q:5 Enzymes are insoluble / precipitate in following
a) Concentrated alcohol b) Ammonium Sulphate
c) Trichloro acetic acid d) All
Q:6 The velocity of enzymes reaction increase as concentration of substrate
a) Increase continuously b) Increase up to certain maximum
c) Decreases d) decrease upto certain limits
Q:7 Trypsin act at PH
a) 4.5 b) 5.5 c) 6.5 d) 8.5
Q:8 Bases deactivates the enzymes that acts at _________ PH
a) Basic b) Alkaline c ) Acidic d ) neutral
Q:9 Pepsin act at PH
a) 7 – 8 b) 5 – 6 c) 13 – 14 d) 1 – 2

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Q:10 Optimum temperature for enzymes activity
a) 00 C b) 350 C – 400C c) 500C d) 600C
Q:11 In solid condition , enzymes may be stable upto
a) 500C b) 1500C c) 2000C d) 1000C
Q:12 General reaction for enzymes activity is
a) E + S → E + S → ES → Ep b) E + S → ES → EP → E + P
c) E + S → E + S → EP → ES d) EP → ES → E + P → E + S
Q:13 Protein component of enzymes are
a) Apo enzymes b) Holoenzymes c) Cofactor d) Coenzymes
Q:14 Apo enzymes and non – protein parts together called
a) Apo enzymes b) Holoenzymes c) Cofactor d) Co – enzymes
Q:15 There are inorganic ions
a) Enzymes b) Holoenzymes c) Co – enzymes d) Co – factors
Q:16 There are either organic or metallo – organic molecules
a) Co – enzymes b) Holoenzymes c) Co – factors d) apo-enzymes
Q:17 Oxidoreductases includes
a) Oxidases b) DE hydrogen c) Hydro peroxidases d) All of these
Q:18 These enzymes brings about transfer of functional group from one molecules to other
a) Hydrolyses b) Isomerases c) Transferases d) Ligases
Q:19 Proteases and carbohydrases are subgroup
a) Oxidoreductases b) Transferases c) Hydrolyses d) Lyase
Q:20 factors effecting enzymes activity is / are
a) Enzymes concentration b) substrate concentration
c) effect of temperature d) All
Q:21 Due to enzymes , activation energy
a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remain same d) first increase then decreases
Q:23 Enzymes can be used in
a) Cheese making b) To cure disease c) Detergent d) All of above
Q:24 Following enzymes can be used for cancer treatment
a) Chemosin b) L . asparaginase c) Trypsin d) Both a & b
Q:25 In alcohol beverages , enzymes used in
a) Trypsin b) Amylase c) Pepsin d) Glycosidase

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 Vitamins
Vitamin A
Q:1 Naturally occurring organic compound of the diet which helps to maintain normal metabolic
activities
a) Vitamins b) Enzymes c) Hormones d) Nucleic acid
Q:2 Fat soluble vitamins are
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D C) Vitamin E + K d) All of these
Q:3 Water soluble vitamin includes
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B complex c) Vitamin C d) Both a & c
Q:4 Thermo labile vitamin are
a) Thiamine (vitamin - B1) b) Antithetic acid(vitamin – B3)
c) Both a & b d) Folic acid
Q:5 Vitamin A is important for
a) Eye function b) Hormones function c) Reproduction d) All of these
Q:6 Retinol is another name for
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin B
Q:7 Vitamin A is a complex alcohol and found as
a) Vitamin A1 b) Vitamin A2 c) Both a & b d) Vitamin A3
Q:8 Carotenoid can be obtained from
a) Animal origin b) Plant origin c) Microorganism d) All of these
Q:9 Retinoid can be obtained from
a) Animal origins b) Plant origin c) microorganisms d) All of these
Q:10 Vitamin A is not occur in
a) Carrot b) vegetables oils c) Yellow corn d) Sweet potato
Q:11 Form/Forms of vitamin A , concerned with normal reproduction
a) Retinol b) retinal c) Retinoic acid d) Both a & b
Q:12 These trap organic peroxide free radical
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D
Q:13 Essential vitamin for bones and teeth is
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D
Q:14 Vitamin A convert sugar into
a) Starch b ) Glycogen c ) Sucrose d ) Cellulose
Q:15 Anti infection vitamin is
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B complex c ) Vitamin C d ) Vitamin K
Q:16 Vitamin A is involved in
a) Mucopolyaccharide synthetic b) Biosynthetic of glyco – corticoids
c) Protein synthesis and nucleic acid metabolism d) All of above
Q:17 Due to deficiency of vitamin A , serious problem are found , related to vision
a) Nyctalopia b) Xerophthalmia c) Keratomalacia d) All of these
Q:18 Dry cornea and mucous membrane of eye , atrophy of corneal epithelial cells is
a) Nyctalopia b) Xerophthalmia c) Keratomalacia d) Both a & b

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Q:19 Due to deficiency of vitamin A , skin becomes
a) Dry, scaly b) Smooth c) Vascularity d) Soft
Q:20 Vitamin A binds to ________ that controls gene expression
a) RNA b) DNA c ) transcription regulatory protein d) Polypeptides

Vitamin D
Q:1 Vitamin D is a
a) Eater soluble b) Fat soluble c) Both a & b c) Thermolabile
Q:2 Vitamin D is also called
a) Calciferol b) Ergosterol c) Anti – ricketic vitamin d)All of these
Q:3 Out of 10 compound (D1 – D10) of vitamin D , ___________ have anti –ricketic
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Q:4 F – dehydrocholesterol can be converted into
a) Cholecalciferol b) Ergocalciferol c) Ergosterol d) Calcitriol
Q:5 Best sources of vitamin D are
a) Leafy vegetables b) intense coloured fruits
c) Yellow corn d ) Cod and other fish oil
Q:6 Vitamin D3 can be simulated by
a) Parathyroid hormone b) Estrogen , progesterone c) Calcitriol d ) Both a & b
Q:7 intestinal absorption of phosphate is increased by
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d ) Vitamin D
Q:8 Hypocalcaemia increased the activity of
a) Parathyroid gland b) Pituitary gland c) Thyroid gland d) parotid gland
Q:9 Vitamin D helps in
a) Normal heart function b) normal teeth function
c) Normal vision d) Blood clotting
Q:10 Tetany may occur when
a) K level falls b) Na level falls c) Ca ++ level falls d) phosphate level falls
Q:11 vitamin D causes increased absorption of ___________ from the diet
a) Iron b) calcium c) magnesium d) Zinc
Q:12 Deficiency of vitamin D may cause
a) Rickets in children b) Osteomalacia in children
c) Jaundice in children d) Liver problem in children
Q:13 Due to parathyroid hormone activity serum phosphate level is decreased to
a) 50m – 100mg% b) 1 – 2mg % c) 10 – 20 mg% d) 3 – 4 mg%
Q:14 Normal serum phosphate level is
a) 1 – 2 mg % b) 2 – 3 mg% c) 4 – 6 mg% d) 9 – 10 mg%
Q:15 Rickets may also occur when there is defect in conversion to
a) Cholecalciferol b) calcidiol c) Ergolcalciferol d ) Calcitriol
Q:16 Tibia bends forward refers to
a) Bow legs b) Rickety rosary c) Kyphosis d) Lordosis
Q:17 Nodule develops at costchondral junction (wrist , ankles, knees )in
a) Kyphosis b) lordosis c) Scolosis d) Rickety rosary
Q:18 Backward protrude spine refers to
a) Bow legs b ) Rickety rosary c) Kyphosis d) Lordosis

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Q:19 Side and spine refers to
a) Scolosis b) Lordosis c) Kyphosis d) Bow legs
Q:20 Frontward spine refers to
a) Rickety rosary b ) Kyphosis c) Scolosis d) Lordosis
Q:21 Softness of skull bones refers to
a) Harrisons sulcus b) Pigeons chest c) Craniotabes d) Scolosis
Q:22 Transverse groove in either side of bones is
a) Rickety rosary b) Craniotabes c) Pot belly abdomen d) Harrison sulcus
Q:23 Sternum protrude is forward
a) Pigeon’s chest b) Craniotabes c) Pot belly abdomen d) Harrison sulcus
Q:24 In adult Rickets , calcium mobilization is ______ than Pi mobilization (inorganic phosphate )
a) Greater b) Less c) Same d) slow
Q:25 In (Hypervitaminosis D) toxicity of vitamin D
a) G.I.T Disturbs b) Kidney stones formation
c ) Raised serum G + P level d) All of these

Vitamin E
Q:1 Vitamin which is important to maintain the normal process of reproduction
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B c ) Vitamin A d) Vitamin D
Q:2 Vitamin E has another name
a) Retinol b) Retinoic acid c) Tocopherol d) Calciferol
Q:3 Fat soluble vitamin and stable to heat or acid and all are methyl derivatives Tocol
a) Vitamin B b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin D
Q:4 Vitamin can be obtained from
a) Light yellow oil b) Egg yolk c) Wheat germ oil d) All of these
Q:5 Main function of vitamin E
a) Antioxidant b) Haemolysis c) Synthetic of RNA d) Synthetic of protein
Q:6 Function of vitamin E involves
a) Formation of vitamin b) Protect membrane /tissues
c) Promote healthy circulatory system d) All of these
Q:7 Haemolysis is
a) Rupture of RBC membrane b) Formation RBC membrane
c) Muscular dystrophy d) Liver necrosis
Q:8 Vitamin which acts as coenzymes in certain tissues is
a) Vitamin B b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin E
Q:9 Vitamin E is used in
a) Angina pectoris b) Coronary insufficiency c) Both a & b d) Conjunctiva
Q:10 Vitamin E is used for following disorder
a) Nocturnal muscle cramps b) Intermittent claudication
c) Fibrocystic breast disease d) All of these

Vitamin K
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Q:1 coagulation vitamin is
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin K
Q:2 Vitamin K prevents
a) Haemorrhage b) Poor vision c) Teeth decay d) Rickets
Q:3 Anti – Haemorrhage and coagulation vitamin is
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin B
Q:4 Vitamin K1 is obtained from
a) Bacterial origin b ) Synthetic product c) Plant origin d) Animal origin
Q:5 Menaquinone is obtained from bacterial origin and it is
a) Vitamin K1 b) Vitamin K2 c) Vitamin K3 d) Vitamer
Q:6 Vitamin k3 is
a) Natural product b) Phyloquinone c) Synthetic product d) Franoquinone
Q:7 Vitamin K can be obtained from
a) Green leafy vegetables b) Fish, meat, milk c) E . coli d) All of above
Q:8 Vitamin K involves in electron transport chain because its structure is similar to
a) Enzymes b) Coenzymes Q c) Co – Enzyme A d) Coenzymes K
Q;9 The most important function of vitamin K is to help in the formation of
a) Red Blood Cells (RBCs) b) White Blood Cells (WBCs)
c) Blood clotting factors d) Platelets
Q:10 Vitamin – K is an essential component of
a) Respiratory process b) Photosynthetic process
c) Both a & b d) Wound repair process
Q:11 Deficiency of vitamin K may cause
a) Poor vision b) Rickets c) Kidney stones d) Haemorrhage

Vitamin C
Q:1 Water soluble , antiscorbutic vitamin ( inhibition of scurvy ) is
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin A d ) Vitamin B12
Q:2 In human body , vitamin C is found as
a) Nicotonic acid b) L – Asparagin c) Pyridoxine d) L – Ascorbic
Q:3 Orange , lemons , grapes, mainly contain
a) Vitamin B12 b) Vitamin B6 c ) Vitamin C d) Vitamin A
Q:4 Functions of vitamin C includes
a) Wound repair b ) Formation of collagen fibers c) Haematopoiesis d) All
Q:5 Vitamin C helps in the deposition of
a) Ca in bones b) Ca and PO4 in bones and teeth
c ) Zinc d) Magnesium
Q:6 Vitamin C is involved in conversion of folic acid to its active form called
a) Tetrahydrofolate b) Trihydrofolate c ) Dihydrofolate d) Hydrofolate
Q:7 The deficiency of vitamin C results in a disease called
a) Rickets b) Nyctalopia c ) Scurvy d) Hypercalcemia

Q:8 Vitamin C helps in synthesizing protein matrix i.e by synthesizing of

a) Collagen b) Hydroxyproline c) Scurvy d ) Hypercalcaemia
Q:9 Vitamin C promotes healthy immune system

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 a) Helps wound heal b) Maintains connective tissue c) Absorb iron d) All of above
Q:10 Vitamin C acts ac coenzymes for
a) Hydrogenases b) Liver esterases c ) Transferases d) Acetyl CoA carboxylase

Vitamin – B1 (Thiamin)
Q:1 Vitamin B1 is
a) Water soluble b ) Fat soluble c ) Alcohol soluble d) Organic soluble in solvent
Q:2 Deficiency of vitamin B1 Causes
a) Scurvy b) Beriberi c) Rickets d) Poor vision
Q:3 Another names for vitamin B1 is
a) Aneurine b) Thiamine c) Anti – beriberi d) All of these
Q:4 It occurs in the outer layer of grains like bran and rice polishing
a) Vitamin A b ) Vitamin B1 c) Vitamin k d) Vitamin C
Q:5 Vitamin B1 plays an important role in
a) Decarboxylase reaction b) Carboxylase reaction
c) Redox reaction d) None of above
Q:6 For pentose phosphate pathway, vitamin B1 acts as
a) Transpeptidase b) Transketolase c) Transaminase d) Transacylase
Q:7 Amount of carbohydrate runs parallel to
a) Thiamine b) Retinal c) Tocopherol d) Calciferol
Q:8 Vitamin B1 increases
a) Stress b) Indigestion c ) Mental ability d ) Heart trouble
Q:9 Vitamin B1 helps in
a) Cardiovascular system b) Nervous c) Both a & B d) Respiratory system
Q:10 Citric acid can be concentrated into
a) Acetyl CoA b) α – Ketogluteric c) Pyruvic d) Lactic acid

Vitamin B2,B3,B6,B7,B9,B12
Q:1 Vitamin B2 is
a) Water soluble b) Fat soluble
c) Soluble in alcohol d) Soluble in organic solvent
Q:2 Deficiency of vitamin B2 causes
a) Beriberi b) Ariboflavinosis c) Rickets d) Scurvy
Q:3 Another names for vitamin B2 is /are
a) Riboflavin b) LactoFlavin c) Both a & b d) Thiamine
Q:4 To activate riboflavin , it must be
a) Carboxylate b) Phosphorylated c) Decarboxylated d ) Dephosphorylated
Q:5 Deficiency of riboflavin cause
a) Mouth lesions b ) Weakness c) Dermatitis and glottis d) All of these
Q:6 Riboflavin is not stable in
‘ a) Heat b) Acidic solution c ) Neutral solution d ) Alkaline solution
Q:7 Deficiency of vitamin B3 causes
a) Pellagra b) Beriberi c) Rabiflavinose d) Scurvy
Q:8 Another names of vitamin B3 is / are

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 a) Thiamine b) Nicotinic c) Aneurine d) Riboflavin
Q:9 Chemically “NIACIN” is
a) Pyridine b) 1 – 4 dicarboxylic acid
c) pyridine 3 – carboxylic acid d) 2,4 dimethyl
Q:10 In animal tissues , vitamin B3 usually found as amide form called
a) Nicinamide b) Methyl amide c) Diamide d) Phosphoamide
Q:11 The most important fuction of niacin is
a) Antineurotic factor b) Acts as co – enzymes
c) Ant – haemorrhagic d) wound repair
Q:12 Niacin works with _____ and acts as “H” acceptor co – enzymes
a) Dehydrogenases b) oxidases c) Ligases d) Lyases
Q:13 Vitamin B3 helps to maintain
a) Healthy nerves b) healthy skin
c) Healthy digestive system d) All of these
Q:14 Niacin prevents pellagra by keeping ___________ reaction normal
a) Oxidation b) Reduction c) both a & b d) Carboxylase
Q:15 Niacin is good
a) Vasoconstrictor b ) Vasodilator c) Arterial constrictor d) Arterial dilator
Q:16 Pyridoxine is another name for
a) Vitamin B1 b) Vitamin B6 c) Vitamin B12 d) Vitamin B2
Q:17 Vitamin B6 involves in
a) Decarboxylation b ) transamination c) Deamination d) All of these
Q:18 Vitamin B6 involves in synthesis of
a) Arachidonic acid b) Linoleic c) Both a & b d) Palmitic acid
Q:19 Vitamin B6 is part of molecule
a) Glycogen phosphorylase b) Glycogen carboxylase
c) Glycogen decarboxylase d) Glycogen dephosphorylase
Q:20 Vitamin B6 helps in the entry of _________ into cell membrane
a) Amino acid b) Potassium c) Both a & b d) Calcium
Q:21 Symptoms of vitamin B6 includes
a) Leukaemia b) Digestive problems c) Growth retardation and dermatitis d) All
Q:22 Function of vitamin B7 involves
a) Coenzymes of carboxylation reaction b) Biosynthesis of purines and lipids
c) catalyzes deamination reaction d ) All of these
Q:23 Another name for vitamin B7 is/are
a) Biotin b) Vitamin c) Co – enzymes d) All of above
Q:24 Deficiency of biotin may cause
a) Anemia b) Increase cholesterol c) Fall of hair d) All of these
Q:25 B9 is also called
a) Vitamin – M b) Folic acid c) Both a & b d ) Pyridoxine
Q:26 Ther are __________ components of folic acid
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
Q:27 Before functioning , folic acid is reduced first to 7 . dihydrofolic acid is reduced
a) Tetrahydrofolate b) Hydrofolic acid c) Glutamic d) Benzoic acid
Q:28 B9 is called folic acid because it is present in

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 a) Folate of plants b) Foliage of plants c) Roots and stems d) All of above
Q:29 Vitamin B9 has significant role in
a) Alanine metabolism b) Histidine metabolism
c) Glycine metabolism d) Lysine metabolism
Q:30 Deficiency of folic acid causes
a) Haemopoietic defects b) reproductive
c) Growth retardation d) All of above
Q:31 Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes
a) Pernicious amemia b) pellagra c ) Arabiflavinosis d) beriberi
Q:32 Another name (Synonyms) for Vitamin B12 is / are
a) Cobalamin b) Cyanocobalamins c) Cobamide d) All of these
Q:33 Mostly B12 can be found in
a) Animal product b) Plants product c) Bacterial product d ) Biotechnology
Q:34 Types of vitamin B12 that are used in therapeutics
a) Hydroxycobolamine b) Cyanocobalamins c) Both a & b d) Cobaltamine
Q:35 B12 is heat stable at
a) Alkaline PH b) Acidic PH c) Neutral PH d) None of above
Q:36 On entry into stomach , vitamin first gets bound with
a) Carbohydrates b ) Protein c ) Fat d) Lipids
Q:37 For absorption of B12
a) Only bile is required b ) HCO3 is required
c) Bile and HCO3 are required d ) Microorganism are required
Q:38 Along with __________ Vitamin B12 is actively involved in development of RBCs
a) Folic acid b) Retinoic acid c) Hydrochloric d)
Carbonic acid
Q:39 Recycling of folate pod is done by
a) Transacylation b ) Transmethylation
c ) Transamination d) Phototransferation
Q:40 Vitamin B12 deficiency mainly causes
a) Dermatitis b ) Fall of hair c ) Retardation of growth , Pernicious Anemia

Biotechnology + Genetic engineering +

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 Acid, base electrolyte
Q:1 The application of biological organisms a process to the manufacturing & require industries
a) Biotechnology b) Biochemistry c) Biology d ) Molecules
Q:2 The field of biotechnology can be divided into _______ major areas
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10
Q:3 The techniques that are steering a revolution in drug therapy are
a) Hybridoma technology b) Tissues culture
c) Gene therapy d) All of these
Q:4 Modern biotechnology has its roots in areas of science namely
a) Molecular biology b) Microbiology c ) Both a & b d) Biochemistry
Q:5 _____________ has made possible to get hormones in pure form
a) Biochemistry b ) Biotechnology c ) Biology d) molecular biology
Q:6 Which of the following is an example of biotechnologically produced hormones
a) Insulin b) Somatostatin c) Human growth hormones d) All of these
Q:7 The most exciting application of biotechnology is
a) Tissue culture b) gene therapy c ) Cloning d) DNA technology
Q:8 Which of the following is not technique for diagnoses of genetic disease
a) Nucleic acid hybridization b) Polymerase chain reaction
c) EUSA d) Tissue culture
Q:9 The information for the development , function of living system is stored in
a) Locus b) Allele c) Gene d) DNA
Q:10 Gene are located in
a) Cytoplasm b) Mitochondria c) Nucleus d) Ribosomes
Q:11 The process of synthetic of RNA from DNA is called
a) Translation b ) Transcription c ) Protein synthetic d) Polypeptides
Q:12 The exact copy of DNA is represented is RNA, this process occurs in all
a) Eukaryotes b) Mitochonolria c) Prokaryotes d ) Animals
Q:13 process of translation occurs in
a) Ribosomes b) Golgi apparatus c ) Cell membrane d) Cell wall
Q:14 Translation occurs in ______ to ________ direction
a) 5 to 3 b) 3 to 5 c ) 10 to 15 d) 15 to 10
Q:15 The genetic material in all organism is
a) RNA b) tRNA c) rDNA d) DNA
Q:16 The important tools for genetic engineering
a) Enzymes b ) Vectors c ) Gene Bank d ) All
Q:17 Bases are dissociated into
a) Hydroxyl ions OH- b) Hydrogen ion H+ c) Na+ d) Ca+
Q:18 Acids are defined as
a) Proton acceptor b) Proton donor c ) Electron d) Stable
Q:19 The increase in H+ ion or decrease in PH is
a) Base b ) Acid c) Acidosis d ) Alkaline
Q:20 Buffer system consist of
a) Weak acid , strong base b) Weak acid , Weak base
c ) Strong acid , strong base d ) Weak base , strong acid

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Q:21 A decrease in (bicarbonate to carbonic acid ) ratio (20:1) leads to
a) Increase in acidity b) decrease in acidity
c) have no effect on acidity d) First increase Then decrease.
Q:22 There are ___________ system which regulate acid base balance
a) 2 b) 3 c)4 d) 5
Q:23 This is the mechanism that maintains the homeostatic PH
a) Acid base buffer system b ) Respiratory system
c ) Renal system d) nervous system
Q:24 Excess acid or base in excreted by renal system to control
a) Plasma sodium concentration b) Plasma potassium concentration
c) Plasma bicarbonate concentration d) Plasma calcium concentration
Q:25 The buffer changes strong and base into
a) Weak acid , strong base b) Weak acid , Weak base
c ) Strong acid , strong base d ) Weak base , strong acid
Q:26 What is the time duration of buffer
a) 1 sec b) 1 min c ) 1 hour d) 3 sec
Q:27 HCL helps in
a) Digestion of food b) Chewing of food c) Excretion of food d) Maintaining Ph
Q:28 How many buffer system of body fluid
a) 4 b) 15 c) 14 d) 9
Q:29 The excess acid base concentration
a) Urine b) Respiration c ) Both a & b d ) tears
Q:30 ______________ are electrovalent substances that form ions in solution
a) Acid solution b) Base solution c) Electrolysis d) Electrochemical

Carbohydrayes
Answer Key
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 1). D 2). A 3). D 4). B
5). C 6). A 7). B 8). B
9). D 10). D 11). A 12).A
13).C 14). B 15). C 16). D
17). A 18). B 19). C 20). A
21). B 22). C 23). B 24). A

Lipids
Answer Key
1). D 2). A 3). C 4). B
5). D 6). B 7). C 8). B
9). C 10). B 11). B 12). C
13). A 14). B 15). A 16). B
17). C 18). D 19). B 20). C
21). D 22). C 23). D
proteins
Answer Key
1). A 2). C 3). C 4). B
5).B 6). D 7). C 8). B
9). B 10). A 11). C 12). C
13). A 14). D 15). A 16). C
17). A 18). A 19). D 20). B
21). A
Amino Acids
Answer Key
1). B 2). A 3). B 4). D
5). B 6). D 7). D 8). C
9). A 10). B 11). C 12). A
13). D 14). A 15). A 16). C
17). B 18). B 19). D 20). C
21). D 22). B
Nucleic Acids
Answer Key

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 1). C 2). C 3). A 4). B
5). C 6). B 7). A 8). B
9). D 10). A 11). C 12). D
13). D 14). B 15). C 16). A
17). C 18). D 19). B 20). D

Classification of Hormone
Answer Key
1). C 2). D 3). C 4). A
5). A 6). C 7). B 8). D
9). B 10). A 11). B 12). D
13). A 14). B 15). A 16). A
17). A 18). A 19). C 20). D
21). A
Insulin +Testosterone
Answer Key
1). B 2). B 3). C 4). A
5). C 6). A 7). D 8). A
9). C 10). B 11). C 12). C
13). D 14). C 15). D

Estrogen + Progesterone
Answer Key
1). A 2). A 3). A 4). B
5). C 6). C 7). B 8). C
9). A 10). D 11). A 12). A
13). B 14). C 15). C 16). C
17). C 18). A 19). D 20). D
21). A 22). C 23). A 24). A
25).B

Enzymes
Answer Key
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 1). D 2). C 3). A 4). A
5). D 6). B 7). D 8). C
9). D 10). B 11). D 12). B
13). A 14). B 15). D 16). A
17). D 18). C 19). C 20). D
21). D 22). A 23). D 24). B
25).B
Vitamin + Vitamin A
Answer Key
1). A 2). D 3). D 4). C
5). D 6). B 7). C 8). B
9). A 10). B 11). D 12). A
13). A 14). B 15). A 16). D
17). D 18). B 19). A 20). C

Vitamin D
Answer Key
1). B 2). D 3). B 4). A
5). D 6). D 7). D 8). A
9). B 10). C 11). B 12). A
13). B 14). C 15). D 16). A
17). D 18). C 19). B 20). C
21). C 22). D 23). A 24). A
25). D
Vitamin E
Answer Key
1). D 2). C 3). C 4). D
5). A 6). D 7). A 8). D
9). C 10). D

Vitamin K
Answer Key
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 1). D 2). A 3). B 4). C
5). B 6). C 7). D 8). B
9). C 10). C 11). D

Vitamin C
Answer Key
1). A 2). D 3). C 4). D
5). B 6). A 7). C 8). C
9). D 10). B
Topic:
Vitamin B1
Answer Key
1). A 2). B 3). D 4). B
5). A 6). B 7). A 8). C
9). C 10). B

Vitamin B2—B12
Answer Key
1). A 2). B 3). C 4). B
5). D 6). D 7). A 8). B
9). C 10). A 11). B 12). A
13). D 14). C 15). B 16). B
17). D 18). C 19). A 20). C
21). D 22). D 23). D 24). D
25). C 26). C 27).A 28). B
29). B 30). D 31). A 32). D
33). A 34). C 35). C 36). B
37). C 38). A 39). B 40). D

Biotechnology-Genetic engineering
Acid-Base Electrolyte
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 Answer Key
1). A 2). B 3). D 4). C
5). A 6). D 7). B 8). D
9). C 10). C 11). B 12). C
13). A 14). A 15). D 16). D
17). A 18). B 19). C 20). B
21). A 22). B 23). A 24). C
25). A 26). A 27).A 28). C
29). C 30). C

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