CLAT

CLAT PRO 2026

Mock Test - 1

Directions (1-6) Read the following passage and India in 2012. Abu Ismail was killed on the spot
answer the given questions. during the Chowpatty encounter.
Nearly 17 years after the horrific 2008 Mumbai With Rana’s return to India, families of victims
terror attacks, a voice from the frontlines of that and law enforcement officers hope that the
dark night has once again stirred the nation’s judicial process will move forward swiftly. For
conscience. Retired police officer Hemant many, justice remains incomplete as long as the
Bavdhankar, who was part of the team that remaining accused are not tried and sentenced.
caught terrorist Ajmal Kasab, has publicly called As Bavdhankar rightly said, “Only when all those
for all remaining 26/11 accused to be tried in responsible are held accountable can we say that
India and given capital punishment. justice has been done for our fallen heroes and
His strong remarks come in the wake of the innocent lives lost.”
successful extradition of Tahawwur Hussain
Q1 Which of the following correctly identifies
Rana, one of the key conspirators behind the
Hemant Bavdhankar’s role during the 26/11
attack, to India. Speaking to PTI, Bavdhankar said,
Mumbai attacks?
“Not only me, but all Indians feel that those
(A) He was stationed at Chhatrapati Shivaji
involved in the 26/11 conspiracy must be
Maharaj Terminus during the initial
punished to bring justice to the martyrs and
gunfire.
innocent citizens who lost their lives.”
(B) He led the counter-assault at the Taj
On November 26, 2008, ten heavily armed
Hotel.
terrorists from Pakistan carried out a series of
(C) He was involved in the Girgaon
coordinated attacks across Mumbai. Key
Chowpatty operation that led to Kasab’s
locations targeted included the Chhatrapati
capture.
Shivaji Maharaj Terminus, luxury hotels, and a
(D) He coordinated intelligence operations
Jewish center. Over 166 people lost their lives,
from police headquarters.
including civilians, security personnel, and
foreign nationals. It was one of the worst terror Q2 Which of the following is a reasonable
strikes India had witnessed. conclusion that can be drawn from the
Bavdhankar was stationed at Girgaon passage?
Chowpatty during the attacks as part of a road (A) All conspirators of the 26/11 attacks
blockade operation. It was there that Ajmal have been sentenced and punished.
Kasab and Abu Ismail were confronted. In a (B) Kasab’s capture had little impact on
moment of extraordinary bravery, Assistant Sub- understanding the broader terror
Inspector Tukaram Omble, armed with only a network.
baton, faced the terrorists head-on and lost his (C) The extradition of Rana has rekindled
life in the process. His sacrifice helped the team calls for justice from both officials and
capture Kasab alive, making him the only citizens.
attacker to be taken into custody. (D) The Indian judiciary delayed justice for
Kasab later became a crucial link in uncovering the 26/11 victims beyond recognition.
the international conspiracy and connections of
the attack, before being tried and executed in Q3

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Which statement best describes the working with Artificial Intelligence (AI). They use
relationship between Tukaram Omble’s tools like ChatGPT to write essays, solve math
actions and Ajmal Kasab’s capture? problems, and even talk to AI when they need
(A) Omble’s actions were symbolic, as Kasab help. This is already happening in real classrooms,
was already wounded by then. every day.
(B) Omble used lethal force, killing Kasab on But many schools are reacting with fear. Some
the spot. are banning AI tools, punishing teachers who use
(C) Omble’s confrontation directly enabled them, or adding more surveillance to stop
the capture of Kasab alive. students from using them. This, as expert Vivek
(D) Omble delayed action, leading to Wadhwa explains, is a mistake. Instead of fearing
further casualties before Kasab’s AI, we should be learning how to use it well.
capture. In the past, even calculators and computers were
banned. But now they are part of everyday
Q4 Which of the following best describes the
learning. The same thing is happening with AI—
tone of the passage?
but much faster. And unlike past tools, AI
(A) Detached and procedural
changes not just how we learn, but what we
(B) Nostalgic and reflective
learn and why we learn it.
(C) Urgent and justice-driven
Right now, India’s education system still follows
(D) Aggressive and retaliatory
old methods, like memorizing facts and taking
Q5 In the sentence, “His strong remarks come standard tests. These methods were designed a
in the wake of the successful extradition…”, long time ago, during British rule, and they don’t
what does “in the wake of” most nearly fit today’s world. We need new ways to teach
mean? and learn.
(A) As a result of Luckily, India has a strong learning tradition to
(B) In opposition to build on. In the past, the guru-shishya system
(C) During a time of mourning focused on trust, deep thinking, and asking good
(D) Irrespective of questions. With AI, we can return to this style—
where AI becomes a helper and the teacher
Q6 Which of the following best captures the becomes a guide and mentor.
main theme of the passage? Instead of banning AI, schools should teach
(A) A detailed account of the 2008 Mumbai students how to use it wisely. Students should
attack’s logistical failures learn how to ask AI the right questions, check its
(B) The reactivation of public and official answers, and build their own ideas. This will help
demands for justice following new legal them become better thinkers and problem
developments solvers.
(C) The biography of a retired officer who AI can also help students in villages and small
later entered politics towns get the same quality education as those in
(D) A comparison of international and big cities. It can make learning easier and more
Indian terror response protocols equal for everyone.
If India teaches its young people to understand
Directions (7-12) Read the following passage
and work with AI, it can become a world leader—
and answer the given questions.
not just in education, but in innovation, business,
A big change is quietly happening in schools
and technology.
around the world. Students are no longer just
India has always mixed wisdom with new ideas.
using books or Google to learn—they are now
Now is the time to do that again—with AI.

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Q7 Which of the following best reflects how Q11 The word “innovation” appears in the final
schools are currently responding to AI tools paragraph. Based on the context and root
according to the passage? word, what does “innovation” most likely
(A) Encouraging open experimentation with imply?
AI to replace traditional subjects "If India teaches its young people to
(B) Offering AI literacy programs as part of understand and work with AI, it can
early curriculum become a world leader—not just in
(C) Increasing restrictions, penalizing usage, education, but in innovation, business, and
and adding surveillance technology."
(D) Training AI models using student data "India has always mixed wisdom with new
for curriculum improvement ideas. Now is the time to do that again—
with AI."
Q8 What is a historical example provided in the
Which interpretation fits best?
passage to illustrate how tools once feared
(A) An idea borrowed from another
became part of education?
tradition
(A) The printing press and textbook culture
(B) A departure from wisdom toward
(B) The shift from oral to written
technological dependence
examinations
(C) A novel improvement or advancement
(C) The use of calculators and computers
built on existing knowledge
(D) The adoption of English as a medium of
(D) A rejection of cultural heritage in favor
instruction
of global trends
Q9 Based on the passage, what can be inferred
Q12 Which of the following best represents a
about the author's view of India's current
figure of speech used in the passage?
examination system?
"A big change is quietly happening in
(A) It promotes creativity and innovation
schools around the world."
through flexible questioning.
(A) We need new ways to teach and learn
(B) It remains largely aligned with global
(B) This is already happening in real
education standards.
classrooms, every day.
(C) It is outdated and fails to meet the
(C) A big change is quietly happening in
needs of modern learners.
schools around the world.
(D) It actively incorporates AI-based
(D) Students use tools like ChatGPT to
assessments in rural areas.
write essays and solve math problems
Q10 Which of the following statements would
Directions (13-18) Read the following passage
the author most likely agree with?
and answer the given questions.
(A) AI should be kept away from students
The political thriller, once a genre used to
until adulthood.
challenge state power—as in All the President’s
(B) Teachers will become obsolete as AI
Men during the Watergate era—has undergone a
becomes more powerful.
transformation in contemporary India. In the
(C) AI should be banned until the national
current landscape, what we see is a genre
curriculum is updated.
reshaped to affirm authority rather than
(D) AI should serve as a tool that helps
question it. Instead of exposing state corruption,
revive India’s ancient, inquiry-based
today's films often glorify institutions, valorise
learning traditions.
police and army personnel, and legitimise hyper-

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nationalism and jingoism. This shift is “guerrilla cinema” invites not just storytelling, but
particularly visible in the rise of Hindutva solidarity, disruption, and decolonisation—
cinema. values today’s filmmakers might revisit to
As a student of Jahangir National University reshape cinema as a tool for resistance, not
(colloquially and politically reduced to “JNU”), I reinforcement.
find myself reflecting on how mass culture is
Q13 According to the author, how does
evolving. Today’s films don’t exist in isolation;
contemporary Indian political cinema most
they are amplified by social media, meme
clearly differ from its historical
culture, and reels that carry right-wing messages
counterpart?
far beyond the theatre. These digital platforms
(A) It now prioritizes special effects over
act as echo chambers that reinforce the values
storytelling.
embedded in these films—often targeted at
(B) It critiques institutional failure more
young, impressionable audiences.
boldly than before.
A key section of this discussion involves the use
(C) It glorifies state institutions and
of VFX and digital technologies to create
nationalistic ideals rather than
fantastical mythological worlds. These tools don’t
questioning them.
just tell stories—they build civilisational myths
(D) It avoids references to mythological
that reimagine India's past in the image of
symbols in favor of realism.
Hindutva ideals. Films blur the lines between
mythology and history, fact and fiction, Q14 Which of the following is presented in the
reinforcing dominant narratives about who passage as symbolically aligned with
belongs in the nation and who doesn’t. Savarkar’s vision?
Take for example the scene in a popular recent (A) The fusion of digital media and meme
film, where Ram transforms from a colonial culture in political storytelling
officer into a divine warrior. His bow and arrow (B) The transformation of Ram from a
are symbolic—not just of resistance, but of colonial officer to a divine warrior
religious and civilisational assertion. The tribal (C) The act of the character Bheem
character Bheem, once a figure of rebellion, kneeling before Ram for blessings
kneels before Ram to receive blessings and (D) The construction of fantastical
education. This symbolic moment echoes mythological landscapes using VFX
Savarkar’s vision of assimilating Adivasis and
Dalits into the Hindutva fold. Q15 What can be reasonably inferred about
But not all cinema follows this path. In contrast, the author’s view on the influence of
films like Michael Haneke’s Funny Games or digital platforms on cinema?
Jonathan Glazer’s The Zone of Interest disrupt (A) They create a more democratic space
comfort and force the viewer to confront their for diverse film narratives.
complicity. In India, Paatal Lok subverts the (B) They neutralize the political messaging
system by narrating power from the viewpoint of embedded in mass cinema.
the oppressed, showing how power structures (C) They help popularize and reinforce
stay intact despite the detective’s investigation. dominant right-wing narratives in
To move forward, we might turn to the Third cinema.
Cinema movement, championed by Solanas and (D) They primarily serve as platforms for
Getino, which called for cinema that resists international films to gain visibility.
capitalist structures, amplifies collective voices,
Q16
and challenges colonial mindsets. Their idea of

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Which of the following statements would which in its turn produces external discipline of
the author most likely disagree with? control of action or deeds.
(A) Mythology and history should be fused His spiritual mentor Vivekananda was of
to create a unified national identity in the view that education is the manifestation of
cinema. perfection already in mind. All knowledge,
(B) Cinema can be a powerful tool for secular
resistance against state ideologies. or spiritual comes from the human soul. Thus
(C) The digital age makes cultural education helps to awaken the mind which is the
messaging in film more potent and far- store house of all knowledge. Education would
reaching. boost of character, morale, varility and freedom
(D) Films like Paatal Lok are necessary to of man. Likewise, Bose in his reconstruction plan,
challenge dominant power structures. dreamed of an independent India where citizens
would be raised to the full status of man in the
Q17 In the phrase “Films blur the lines between
true sense of the term so that they would breath
mythology and history, fact and fiction,
a
reinforcing dominant narratives…”, what is
free air of social, economic and political justice
the most accurate meaning of
and liberty. The problem of illiteracy was a
“reinforcing” in context?
fundamental problem to him.
(A) Defending weak arguments against
The idea profounded by John Stuart Mill
criticism
that the democracy based on universal suffrage
(B) Physically reconstructing lost cultural
must be preceded by universal education was
references
well
(C) Strengthening or validating pre-
understood by Bose and therefore, he advocated
existing ideological beliefs
elementary education for all. As a socialist and
(D) Securing historical data with additional
humanist he wanted mass primary education for
sources
all and as an individualist he was in favour of
Q18 Which of the following titles best captures higher
the central argument of the passage? education for deserving meritorious and
(A) Cinema and the Rise of Special Effects intelligent
in India students. The massive educational reconstruction
(B) From Resistance to Reinforcement: The effected within a very short time in the U.S.S.R.
Political Shift in Indian Cinema provided a model for Bose to support State
(C) Echo Chambers and Algorithms: How controlled educational system for solving our
Meme Culture Drives Film Sales educational problems.
(D) The Decline of JNU: A Student's Bose realised that education is a great
Perspective on Campus and Culture force in bringing about a sense of national unity
and solidarity and for that he was in favour of a
Directions (19-24) Read the following passage common educational policy with a common
and answer the given questions. script
Education was necessary for character building which should be 'Roman Script', the common
and all round development of human life. lingua franca being Hindusthani.
Education brings forth the internal discipline in In regard to the system of primary
the education, Bose was deeply influenced by the
form of control or regulation of mind and kindergarten system in Germany and
thoughts, Scandinavia, the Nursery School of England and

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 CLAT

the Ecoles Meternelles of France. He was in homogenization.

favour of visual or sensory method of education. (D) He believed private institutions should
Vivekananda's concepts of man - making and lead educational access for the masses.
character - building elements in education
Q22 Which of the following statements would
influenced Bose so much so that, he wanted men
Bose most likely disagree with?
of character to free India from the foreign
(A) A nation's unity can be strengthened
domination. Bose firmly believed that no
through a common education policy.
educational plan would be successful without a
(B) Only students with outstanding
comprehensive system of teachers' training
academic ability should have access to
Q19 According to the passage, which of the primary education.
following did Bose support as part of his (C) Character development is a core
educational vision? function of education.
(A) Only spiritual education rooted in (D) Teachers' training is critical to the
ancient Indian systems success of educational reforms.
(B) A bilingual policy combining Roman
Q23 In the phrase “Education would boost
and Devanagari scripts
character, morale, virility and freedom of
(C) State-controlled education modeled
man”, the word “virility” most likely
after the USSR’s reforms
means:
(D) A free market system to manage
(A) Physical fitness required for military
literacy programs
service
Q20 Which educational approaches or (B) Intellectual brilliance and quick
systems influenced Bose’s ideas on thinking
primary education? (C) Strength, vitality, and manly moral
(A) Montessori schools in Italy and Charter courage
Schools in the US (D) Reproductive health and masculinity in
(B) Traditional Indian Gurukul system and a biological sense
Buddhist monastic education
Q24 Which of the following best describes the
(C) The kindergarten model in Germany,
relationship between education and
nursery schools in England, and Ecoles
national unity as seen by Bose?
Maternelles in France
(A) Education should be focused on global
(D) Experimental models from Japan and
competition to unify through economic
Finland
growth.
Q21 Based on the passage, what can be (B) Education, when standardized across
reasonably inferred about Bose’s language and script, serves as a tool to
perspective on equality in education? strengthen unity and national identity.
(A) He believed in providing uniform higher (C) Education divides citizens by class and
education to all citizens regardless of must be corrected through economic
merit. policies.
(B) He valued equity by promoting (D) Education has little role in national
foundational education for all and solidarity and must be kept apolitical.
advanced education for the capable.
Directions (25-30) Read the following passage
(C) He opposed selective education and
and answer the given questions.
supported total academic

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 CLAT

The "One Nation, One Election" (ONOE) plan is a phased approach to synchronize elections,
landmark proposal aimed at synchronizing India’s starting with Union Territories. This gradual
electoral processes, including Lok Sabha and implementation would help address regional
state assembly elections, to ensure greater concerns and provide a framework for
efficiency and cost savings. Rooted in the addressing potential setbacks. Lessons from
colonial electoral framework under the countries which have adopted similar reforms
Government of India Act, 1935, India initially and technological solutions such as AI-based
adopted simultaneous elections for the Lok election resource allocation and digital voting
Sabha and state assemblies after independence, mechanisms, could guide India’s journey towards
with successful implementations in initial years. ONOE.
However, the system faced disruption in the late
Q25 In the event of an early dissolution of a
1960s due to premature dissolutions of several
state assembly, the "One Nation, One
state assemblies, leading to separate election
Election" plan would require the
cycles. The concept resurfaced through various
government to:
reports, such as the 170th Law Commission
(A) Re-establish the previous election
Report (1999) and the 2017 NITI Aayog Report,
cycle and hold a separate election
which advocated for the revival of ONOE.
(B) Hold an interim election and then
Supporters highlight key benefits, including
adjust the timing to synchronize with
reduced electoral costs, streamlined governance,
next national elections
and enhanced voter engagement. For instance,
(C) Dissolve the Lok Sabha and conduct
aligning elections could result in savings of up to
simultaneous elections across the
₹12,000 crore, money that could be used for
country
critical infrastructure and public services.
(D) Invoke Article 356 and impose
Additionally, the system is expected to minimize
President’s Rule to prevent any
electoral malpractices by reducing election
disruption in election cycle
frequency and improving the oversight of
election officials. It could also optimize security Q26 The implementation of "One Nation, One
force deployment, reducing strain on resources Election" could potentially lead to a
used in staggered elections. However, the conflict between:
proposal has generated criticism, especially (A) State governments’ autonomy in
regarding constitutional complexities, the election scheduling and the central
potential dilution of federalism, and logistical government’s desire for synchronized
challenges. Implementing ONOE requires elections
amendments to several constitutional articles (B) The right to freedom of speech and the
and may affect the autonomy of state right to vote
governments, as national issues could dominate (C) The judicial system’s ability to rule on
state campaigns. Critics also argue that fewer electoral matters and the executive’s
elections would reduce democratic control over elections
accountability, as citizens would have fewer (D) Political parties’ right to conduct their
opportunities to assess their government’s campaigns and the citizens' right to
performance. Furthermore, logistical challenges, free expression
such as the simultaneous management of
millions of voters, may strain the administrative Q27 In which year did India conduct its first
machinery. Despite these challenges, the One synchronized general elections for the Lok
Nation, One Election panel, recommended a Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?

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 CLAT

(A) 1947 typically one of the most significant sittings in

(B) 1967 the parliamentary calendar, not only addressed
(C) 1962 legislative priorities but also reflected the
(D) 1952 evolving nature of governance and lawmaking in
India. Indian parliamentary sessions can broadly
Q28 Which country's electoral system is
be categorized into Budget Sessions, Monsoon
referenced as an example of successfully
Sessions, Winter Sessions, and Special Sessions.
implementing "One Nation, One Election"
Among these, the Winter Session stands out due
by holding simultaneous elections for both
to its unique timing, usually following the
national and regional legislative bodies?
completion of the monsoon session and often
(A) United States (B) South Africa
preceding the general election cycles. This
(C) Indonesia (D) Brazil
session is traditionally focused on addressing
Q29 Which of the following was identified as a pending legislation, budgetary approvals, and
key benefit of "One Nation, One Election" specific issues requiring urgent attention. In this
concerning electoral malpractices? context, the 2024 Winter Session’s primary focus
(A) Increased regulation of political party was on advancing critical reforms, particularly in
funding the fields of aviation, maritime law, and electoral
(B) Reduced opportunities for vote-buying processes, reflecting the need for responsive
and misuse of state resources legislative action to keep pace with national and
(C) Mandatory use of digital voting to global developments. One of the key features of
avoid rigging this session was the passage of bills such as the
(D) Removal of the Model Code of Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak, 2024, which
Conduct modernized India’s aviation laws, and the
Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024,
Q30 Who chaired the high-level panel that aimed at advancing the "One Nation, One
recommended the "One Nation, One Election" initiative. These reforms are typically
Election" proposal? complex and require extended discussions, as
(A) Former Prime Minister Manmohan was seen in the deliberations around the
Singh merchant shipping and coastal shipping laws,
(B) Former Law Minister Ravi Shankar highlighting the importance of the Winter
Prasad Session as a time for more substantive and
(C) Former Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi specialized legislative work. In 2024, the session
(D) Former President Ram Nath Kovind saw the passage of the Appropriation (No. 3) Bill,
which authorized supplementary expenditure for
Directions (31-36) Read the following passage
the fiscal year 2024-25, reflecting the session's
and answer the given questions.
role in facilitating fiscal accountability and
The Winter Session of the Indian Parliament, held
budgetary execution, as mandated by Articles
from November 25 to December 20, 2024, was a
112 and 266 of the Indian Constitution. While the
prime example of the crucial role played by
Winter Session often focuses on crucial reforms
various types of parliamentary sessions in the
and financial matters, it also serves as a time to
Indian legislative process. Each session in the
reflect on the broader constitutional framework.
Indian Parliament serves a distinct purpose and
The commemoration of the adoption of the
provides a platform for the consideration and
Indian Constitution on November 26, 2024,
passage of laws, as well as the deliberation of
during this session, underscored the continued
important national issues. The Winter Session,
relevance of parliamentary functions in

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preserving India’s democratic principles. This Indian Constitution during the Winter
ceremonial event, observed in line with the Session of 2024?
legislative proceedings, highlights the (A) It reinforces the importance of
importance of maintaining a legislative culture constitutional values in shaping India's
that upholds the values enshrined in the legislative processes.
Constitution. Despite disruptions that led to a (B) It marks the completion of a specific
reduction in parliamentary productivity, the legislative reform package on the
Winter Session reaffirmed the resilience of the Constitution.
parliamentary system. The session’s challenges (C) It is a mere ceremonial event with no
reminded observers of the complex dynamics at direct implications for parliamentary
play in parliamentary governance, where both work.
political negotiations and procedural delays are (D) It highlights the celebration of India’s
common. These challenges notwithstanding, the Independence Day within the
session demonstrated the enduring significance parliamentary setting.
of legislative sessions in safeguarding the
Q34 Which major bill was introduced in the Lok
constitutional integrity and continuity of India’s
Sabha during the Winter Session of 2024?
democracy.
(A) Union Territories Laws (Amendment)
Q31 Which of the following is the primary focus Bill, 2024
of the Winter Session of the Indian (B) Digital India Bill, 2024
Parliament? (C) National Education Bill, 2024
(A) Budgetary allocations (D) Economic Reforms Bill, 2024
(B) Passage of pending bills and urgent
Q35 What was the overall productivity of the
legislative reforms
Lok Sabha during the Winter Session of
(C) Detailed discussion on foreign policy in
2024?
context of neighbouring countries
(A) 60.54% (B) 50.45%
(D) Presidential speeches
(C) 54.5% (D) 40.22%
Q32 Which of the following legislative actions
Q36 Which of the following was a major
during the Winter Session of 2024 best
constitutional event commemorated
reflects India’s commitment to updating its
during the Winter Session of 2024?
legal framework to match global
(A) The completion of 75 years of
standards?
independence
(A) Passage of the Merchant Shipping Bill,
(B) The signing of the Preamble of the
2024
Constitution
(B) Modernization of Aircraft Act of 1934
(C) The formation of the first Indian
through Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak,
Parliament
2024
(D) The adoption of the Indian
(C) Introduction of the Constitution (129th
Constitution
Amendment) Bill, 2024
(D) Commemoration of Constitution's Directions (37-42) Read the following passage
adoption on November 26, 2024 and answer the given questions.
The Liberalization, Privatization, and
Q33 Which of the following best explains the
Globalization (LPG) reforms, introduced in India
symbolic and substantive significance of
in 1991, marked a pivotal shift in the country’s
commemorating the adoption of the

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economic policy. These reforms were driven by a rural areas and disadvantaged groups not
severe balance of payments crisis, which forced benefiting as much from the increased
India to reconsider its protectionist economic opportunities in the urban sectors. Overall, the
policies and embrace more market-driven LPG reforms played a transformative role in
approaches. The reforms focused on three main shaping India’s current economic structure,
pillars: liberalization, privatization, and making it more market-oriented and globally
globalization, each playing a crucial role in connected, though challenges remain in
transforming India’s economic landscape. addressing economic inequality.
Liberalization involved the reduction of
Q37 Which of the following was NOT a direct
government controls on industries. This included
outcome of the Liberalization reforms
deregulation of domestic businesses, removal of
introduced in India in 1991?
restrictions on foreign investments, and
(A) Reduction in government controls on
relaxation of licensing requirements. The aim was
industries.
to create a more competitive and open market,
(B) Increased government interference in
enabling industries to operate without excessive
the private sector.
government interference. This shift led to the
(C) Relaxation of licensing requirements
growth of the private sector, the expansion of
for businesses.
industrial output, and enhanced efficiency in
(D) Creation of a more competitive market
many sectors that were previously state-
environment
dominated. Privatization focused on reducing the
government’s role in business operations. Under Q38 How did the LPG reforms in India
this policy, many state-owned enterprises (SOEs) influence the global economic positioning
were either sold off to private players or allowed of the country?
to operate under private management. The (A) By completely isolating India from the
intention behind privatization was to improve the global market.
efficiency and profitability of these enterprises, (B) By restricting foreign investment and
as private management was seen as better prioritizing local production.
equipped to handle competition and market (C) By fostering a greater integration of
dynamics. Globalization was the process of India’s economy with the global
integrating India’s economy with the global market.
market. The government reduced tariffs, opened (D) By focusing on state-owned
up sectors such as telecommunications and retail enterprises and limiting foreign trade
to foreign investments, and allowed Indian
companies to expand internationally. The focus Q39 What was the primary reason for the
on globalization led to an increase in foreign introduction of the LPG reforms in India in
direct investment (FDI), technological 1991?
advancements, and better access to global (A) To reduce the size of the private sector.
markets for Indian businesses. The LPG reforms (B) To increase government control over
have been credited with driving rapid economic business activities.
growth in India, propelling it into the global (C) To prioritize rural economic
economic arena. These reforms not only led to development.
the modernization of industries but also helped (D) To address a severe balance of
India’s rise as one of the world’s largest payments crisis.
economies. However, critics argue that the
Q40
benefits have been unevenly distributed, with

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Which of the following criticisms of the initiatives, and improved maritime safety.
LPG reforms highlights an area where the Furthermore, both countries signed an Executive
reforms have not been fully successful? Program on Cooperation in the Field of Sports for
(A) The improvement in urban sectors at the 2025-2028 period, which will enhance
expense of rural and disadvantaged collaboration in the sports domain, particularly in
groups. fostering sportsmanship and professional
(B) The decreased efficiency and development. Additionally, a Cultural Exchange
profitability of state-owned Programme (CEP) for 2025-2029 was signed,
enterprises. aimed at promoting mutual understanding and
(C) The complete eradication of economic cultural ties. In recognition of his efforts in
inequality in urban areas. strengthening bilateral ties, Prime Minister Modi
(D) Lack of dominance of Indian was conferred with Kuwait’s highest award. India
companies in all sectors. and Kuwait share a long-standing and robust
relationship. India was one of the first countries
Q41 Who was the Prime Minister of India when
to establish diplomatic relations with Kuwait
the LPG reforms were introduced in 1991?
following its independence in 1961. Over the
(A) Rajiv Gandhi
years, both countries have worked together
(B) P. V. Narasimha Rao
through various frameworks, including the Joint
(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Commission on Cooperation (JCC), which reviews
(D) Indira Gandhi
and monitors bilateral relations. Energy remains a
Q42 Which major international institution did key pillar of India-Kuwait relations. Kuwait is one
India borrow from to manage its economic of India's top energy partners, ranking as the
crisis in 1991, leading to the reforms? sixth-largest crude oil supplier and the fourth-
(A) World Trade Organization (WTO) largest LPG supplier to India. With approximately
(B) World Bank 6.5% of global oil reserves, Kuwait plays a crucial
(C) Asian Development Bank (ADB) role in ensuring India's energy security. The
(D) International Monetary Fund (IMF) Indian community in Kuwait also plays a
significant role, constituting about 21% of the
Directions (43-48) Read the following passage population and 30% of the workforce, both in
and answer the given questions. the private and domestic sectors. Trade between
In December 2024, Indian Prime Minister the two nations continues to thrive, with bilateral
Narendra Modi's official visit to Kuwait marked a trade valued at $10.47 billion in the 2023-24
historic moment in India-Kuwait relations, which financial year. In addition, during the COVID-19
have evolved significantly over the years. This pandemic, Kuwait contributed to India’s medical
visit led to the elevation of their relationship to a needs by supplying over 425 metric tons of
Strategic Partnership, with both countries liquid medical oxygen and other essential
agreeing to enhance cooperation across various medical supplies. Looking forward, both
sectors. Notably, the last Indian prime minister to countries aim to further strengthen their trade
visit Kuwait was Indira Gandhi in 1981, making partnership by completing the India-GCC Free
this visit a significant diplomatic milestone. As Trade Agreement, which is expected to expand
part of this strategic partnership, both nations trade in technology, agriculture, and
signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) manufacturing.
in the field of defense. This agreement aims to
bolster defense relations through joint military Q43 Which of the following was a key highlight
exercises, training programs, coastal defense of the India-Kuwait Strategic Partnership

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established during Prime Minister Modi's (B) Cultural exchange

visit in December 2024? (C) Sports cooperation
(A) Signing of the India-GCC Free Trade (D) Climate change initiatives
Agreement
Q48 Which region does India’s trade
(B) Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
partnership with Kuwait fall under in terms
in field of defense
of international trade agreements?
(C) Establishment of Joint Commission on
(A) European Union
Cooperation (JCC)
(B) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
(D) Appointment of a cultural ambassador
(C) South Asian Association for Regional
Q44 What is the primary objective of the India- Cooperation
Kuwait Executive Program on Cooperation (D) Gulf Cooperation Council
in Sports for the 2025-2028 period?
Directions (49-52) Read the following passage
(A) To enhance military cooperation
and answer the given questions.
(B) To foster economic growth through
British colonial rule in India brought about
sports infrastructure
significant transformations in traditional Indian
(C) To strengthen cooperation in area of
customs and societal structures through the
sports
imposition of a variety of laws. These laws, which
(D) To focus on sports diplomacy at UN
were often based on Western legal principles
Q45 What award did Prime Minister Modi and ideologies, had a profound impact on pre-
receive from Kuwait during his visit in existing Indian traditions, particularly in the
December 2024? realms of social practices, governance, and the
(A) Order of Mubarak Al Kabeer legal system. The British legal framework, which
(B) Order of India was not indigenous to India, sought to
(C) Kuwait Peace Medal standardize and control many aspects of Indian
(D) Supreme Order of Merit life, which led to a reconfiguration of several
long-standing customs. The Indian Penal Code
Q46 India’s relationship with Kuwait in the
(IPC) of 1860 is one of the most consequential
energy sector is mainly driven by which of
laws introduced by the British in India. Prior to
the following factors?
the IPC, India had a patchwork of local and
(A) Kuwait’s role as a top supplier of rare
religious legal systems that varied according to
earth minerals to most of the countries
regions and communities. The IPC created a
in Asia
uniform criminal code that applied across the
(B) Kuwait’s role as India’s sixth-largest
country, significantly undermining the diversity
crude oil supplier and fourth-largest
of local laws and customs. While the IPC was
LPG supplier
instrumental in creating a sense of legal
(C) India’s investment in Kuwait’s energy
uniformity, it also criminalized practices that were
sector
once integral to certain Indian traditions. Notably,
(D) Cooperation on nuclear energy
the abolition of Sati in 1829 is a prime example of
production
British intervention in Indian traditions. The
Q47 Which of the following is NOT mentioned British viewed Sati as barbaric and sought to
as a focus of the India-Kuwait Strategic eradicate it, aligning with their perception of
Partnership? moral and cultural superiority. Similarly, the
(A) Joint military exercises Hindu Widow Remarriage Act of 1856 sought to

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reform the treatment of Hindu widows, allowing Q49 The introduction of the Indian Penal Code
them the right to remarry, which had traditionally of 1860 had which of the following effects
been prohibited in many communities. This was on traditional Indian legal practices?
seen as a direct challenge to social norms that (A) It integrated local customs with British
had governed widowhood for centuries, law
fundamentally altering the position of widows in (B) It replaced religious-based legal
Hindu society. The British law, while framed in systems with a unified system
progressive terms, aimed at enforcing a vision of (C) It strengthened community-based
social reform that often conflicted with legal authority
entrenched cultural norms. Moreover, the (D) It supported the continuation of caste-
introduction of the Indian Succession Act of 1865 based laws
was another significant imposition that reshaped
Q50 In the context of British colonial rule, the
Indian traditions related to inheritance. Before
imposition of Western legal principles
this Act, inheritance laws were largely governed
through laws like the IPC, Hindu Widow
by religious or community-based practices, which
Remarriage Act, and Indian Succession Act
varied across Hindu, Muslim, and other
reveals which of the following?
communities. The British codification of
(A) The British government aimed to
inheritance laws sought to streamline and
incorporate indigenous legal systems
standardize these practices, leading to a shift
into the colonial framework, providing
away from the traditional religious-based
greater autonomy to Indian
approaches to property rights and succession.
communities.
The Criminal Tribes Act of 1871 further
(B) The British colonial regime sought to
exemplifies British legal intervention,
eradicate existing Indian legal
categorizing entire communities as "criminals by
traditions in favor of an imperial legal
birth" and subjecting them to surveillance and
framework that reflected Western
control. This law not only stigmatized
ideals of governance and morality.
marginalized communities but also reinforced the
(C) British colonial rule was indifferent to
British colonial notion of control and superiority,
the legal traditions of India and made
which was based on the premise that traditional
minimal changes to local customs and
social structures in India were backward and
practices.
needed to be reformed or managed according to
(D) The British implemented reforms solely
British standards. In analyzing these legal
to align with Indian values and
changes, it is clear that British laws were often
traditions, ensuring continuity of
designed to reshape Indian society according to
Indian societal structures.
Western ideals of governance, justice, and
morality. While some of these laws, such as the Q51 Which of the following actions was
abolition of Sati, were framed as progressive required of members of communities
reforms, they also disregarded the cultural and categorized under the Criminal Tribes Act
religious significance of many traditional of 1871?
practices. The British legal system thus did not (A) They had to register with the police and
merely regulate but sought to transform the very face restrictions on their mobility and
foundations of Indian traditions, creating a residence.
legacy that would persist long after India gained (B) They were placed under a legal
independence. obligation to seek employment in

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government-approved industries. However, the force used must not be

(C) They were required to leave their excessive.
traditional occupations and move to 4. Act of God (Vis Major) – If harm results from
urban centers. natural forces beyond human control, such as
(D) They were granted land for settlement floods or earthquakes, the defendant is not
in designated areas to encourage responsible.
agricultural work. 5. Inevitable Accident – If an accident occurs
despite taking reasonable precautions, liability
Q52 The Indian Succession Act of 1865, by
may not arise.
aiming to standardize inheritance laws,
6. Private and Public Necessity – When damage
unintentionally led to:
is caused for public welfare or safety, such as
(A) The complete replacement of all
demolishing a building in an emergency,
religious-based inheritance laws by a
liability may be excused.
singular secular law.
(B) The exclusion of women from These defenses ensure that tort law remains fair,
inheritance rights in both Hindu and balancing individual rights with broader social
Muslim communities. and legal considerations. Courts assess each case
(C) An acceleration in the breakdown of based on intent, reasonableness, and necessity to
community identity in India. determine whether a defense applies.
(D) A conflict between religious and legal
Q53 A private amusement park in India
authorities over the proper jurisdiction
operates a bungee jumping attraction.
in inheritance matters.
Before participating, customers must sign
Directions (53-58) Read the following passage a waiver acknowledging that the activity
and answer the given questions. involves risks. One participant, despite
In Indian tort law, a defendant can escape reading and signing the waiver, suffers a
liability if they successfully prove a general back injury due to an unexpected pull of
defense. These defenses protect individuals from the harness and sues the amusement park.
being unfairly penalized for acts that were either Indian tort law recognizes voluntary
unintentional, necessary, or consented to by the assumption of risk as a defense. Decide.
plaintiff. (A) The amusement park is automatically
The key general defenses in Indian tort law liable because the injury occurred on
include: its premises.
(B) The participant cannot claim damages
1. Volenti Non Fit Injuria (Consent) – A person
as they voluntarily accepted the risks
who voluntarily accepts a known risk cannot
involved in bungee jumping.
later claim damages. For example, spectators
(C) The amusement park is never liable for
at a cricket match cannot sue if a ball hits
any injuries once a waiver is signed.
them.
(D) The participant can claim damages, as
2. Necessity – If harm is caused to prevent
signing a waiver does not eliminate
greater harm, the defendant may not be liable.
liability in high-risk activities.
For instance, breaking down a house to stop a
fire from spreading may be justified under Q54 A farmer sets fire to his dry field to clear
necessity. weeds, a common practice in his village.
3. Self-defense – A person can use reasonable Suddenly, strong winds carry the flames to
force to protect themselves or their property. a neighboring farm, destroying valuable

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crops. The neighboring farm owner sues not apply if the harm caused is
the farmer for damages. Indian tort law disproportionate to the harm prevented.
recognizes both necessity and inevitable From this, which of the following is the
accident as defenses. Decide. best inference about the scope of the
(A) The farmer can claim necessity, as the necessity defense?
act was essential for agricultural (A) Necessity can justify any harm if it
maintenance. prevents some damage.
(B) The farmer can use the defense of Act (B) Necessity only applies when the harm
of God, as strong winds are caused is minor.
unpredictable. (C) Necessity can be a valid defense, but
(C) The farmer is automatically liable the harm caused must be
because fire is an inherently dangerous proportionate.
activity. (D) Necessity does not apply to property
(D) The farmer can claim inevitable damage, only to human life.
accident, but only if it is proven that he
Q58 A hospital ambulance is rushing a critical
took reasonable precautions.
patient to the emergency room. To avoid
Q55 Assertion (A): The defense of inevitable heavy traffic, the driver takes a shortcut
accident can be used when harm occurs through a pedestrian-only zone and
despite taking reasonable care. accidentally injures a bystander. The
Reason (R): In Indian tort law, a person is bystander sues the hospital for
always liable for any injury they cause, damages. Decide.
regardless of whether it was accidental. (A) The hospital can claim necessity, but its
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the liability depends on whether due care
correct explanation of A. was taken while using the pedestrian
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the zone.
correct explanation of A. (B) The hospital will definitely be held
(C) A is true, but R is false. liable, as traffic rules were violated.
(D) A is false, but R is true. (C) The injured bystander cannot sue
because ambulances have the right to
Q56 A shopkeeper mistakenly identifies a
break traffic rules.
customer as a thief and forcefully detains
(D) The hospital is automatically protected
him inside the store for questioning. The
under the law, as saving lives takes
customer is later proven innocent and sues
priority over all other laws.
the shopkeeper for wrongful confinement.
Which general defense is least likely to Directions (59-64) Read the following passage
succeed in this case? and answer the given questions.
(A) Self-defense Theft is a criminal offense defined under Section
(B) Act of God 378 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860. A
(C) Necessity person is said to have committed theft when he
(D) Inevitable accident or she intending to take any movable property
without honesty out of the possession of any
Q57 The defense of necessity allows a person
person without that individual’s consent, moves
to cause harm if it is necessary to prevent
that property in order to such taking.Therefore,
greater harm. However, this defense does

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Theft is considered a crime against property (C) The customer cannot be prosecuted
which is punishable under Section 379 of the IPC. because the watch remained in his
For an act to qualify as theft, the following possession and was not resold.
essential ingredients must be met: (D) The case does not qualify as theft since
the shopkeeper had temporarily left
1. Dishonest intention – The offender must have
the store unguarded.
the intent to cause wrongful gain to
themselves or wrongful loss to another. Q60 Priya goes to her friend's birthday party
2. Movable property – Only movable items such and admires a shiny bracelet. Although
as money, jewelry, and goods can be stolen. she does not manage to put the bracelet
3. Possession, not ownership – The stolen into her pocket, she does move it and
property must be in someone's possession, places it underneath a pillow so that no
even if they are not the owner. one can see it. She then leaves the party.
4. Without consent – The property must be Has Priya committed theft?
taken without the owner’s or possessor’s (A) No, because Priya did not physically
approval. take the bracelet out of the party.
5. Moving the property – There must be an (B) Yes, because Priya moved the bracelet
actual movement of the property from one with the intention of stealing, even
place to another. though she did not take it out of the
The punishment for theft under Section 379 IPC party.
is imprisonment of up to three years, a fine, or (C) No, because Priya intended to return
both. The severity of punishment may increase the bracelet and did not actually take
based on aggravating factors, such as theft in a it away.
dwelling house, from a person, or by employees (D) Yes, but only if Priya had taken the
in positions of trust. Theft differs from robbery bracelet out of the party completely.
and dacoity, as it does not involve force or fear of
Q61 Assertion (A): For an act to be considered
injury. Indian law provides strict penalties to
theft under Indian law, the property must
deter theft and protect the rights of individuals
be taken dishonestly.
over their property.
Reason (R): Theft under Section 378 of the
Q59 A shopkeeper leaves his store unattended Indian Penal Code (IPC) is complete as
for a few minutes. During this time, a soon as the property is moved dishonestly,
customer secretly takes an expensive even if the offender does not take it out of
watch and leaves without paying. Later, the owner’s premises.
the customer claims that he intended to (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
return the watch after showing it to a correct explanation of A.
friend. The shopkeeper files a case of theft (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
under Section 378 of the IPC. Decide. correct explanation of A.
(A) The customer is guilty of theft because (C) A is true, but R is false.
he removed the property from the (D) A is false, but R is true.
shopkeeper’s possession without
Q62 A domestic worker takes a gold necklace
consent.
from her employer’s locker without
(B) The customer is not guilty of theft
permission, intending to return it after
because he had no dishonest intention
wearing it for a family function. However,
to keep the watch permanently.
before she could return it, her employer

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discovers the theft and files a complaint (A) The employee is not guilty of theft
under Section 378 of the IPC. because the gadget was eventually
Which of the following legal principles returned.
applies most accurately in this case? (B) The employee can only be held guilty if
(A) The worker is guilty of theft because he intended to resell the gadget for
she took the property without consent, profit.
even if she planned to return it. (C) The case does not amount to theft as
(B) The worker is not guilty of theft no financial loss was suffered by the
because she intended to return the company.
necklace. (D) The employee is guilty of theft
(C) The worker can only be guilty of theft because he moved the property
if she sold the necklace for personal without consent and dishonestly used
gain. it for personal benefit.
(D) The case does not qualify as theft
Directions (65-69) Read the following passage
because the necklace remained in the
and answer the given questions.
worker’s temporary possession.
Fundamental Rights are the core liberties
Q63 The offense of theft requires that movable guaranteed by the Indian Constitution to ensure
property be taken without consent from individual freedom, equality, and dignity.
the possessor. However, theft does not Enshrined in Part III (Articles 12-35), these rights
require ownership of the stolen item, only act as a shield against arbitrary state actions and
that it was in possession of someone else promote democratic values. They apply to all
at the time of the act. citizens, and in certain cases, even to non-
From this, which of the following can be citizens.
most logically inferred? The six Fundamental Rights recognized under the
(A) A person can steal an item even if they Constitution are:
later prove that they were the legal
1. Right to Equality (Articles 14-18): Ensures that
owner.
all individuals are treated equally before the
(B) Theft only applies when the stolen
law and prohibits discrimination based on
property belongs to the person from
religion, caste, gender, or place of birth.
whom it was taken.
2. Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22): Grants
(C) If a stolen item is returned, the theft is
essential liberties such as freedom of speech,
nullified, and no punishment applies.
expression, movement, assembly, and
(D) Possession and ownership are legally
profession, while also protecting individuals
the same when determining theft.
from arbitrary detention.
Q64 A courier company is responsible for 3. Right Against Exploitation (Articles 23-24):
delivering expensive gadgets to Prohibits human trafficking, forced labor, and
customers. One of its employees, instead child labor in hazardous employment.
of delivering a package, takes the gadget 4. Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28):
home for personal use. A few days later, Guarantees religious freedom and safeguards
the employee returns the gadget after individuals' right to practice, profess, and
realizing that a complaint had been filed. propagate any religion.
The company still files a case under 5. Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29-
Section 378 of the IPC. Decide. 30): Protects the rights of minorities to

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preserve their culture and establish Rights would be meaningless, as there

educational institutions. would be no mechanism to enforce them.
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32): (A) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
Empowers individuals to move the Supreme correct explanation of A.
Court or High Court if their Fundamental (B) Both A and R are true, and R is the
Rights are violated. correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
While these rights are not absolute and can be
(D) A is false, but R is true.
restricted on reasonable grounds like public
order, morality, and national security, they remain Q68 Which of the following is not a
essential for ensuring justice and fairness in Fundamental Right under the Indian
society. Constitution?
(A) Right to Property
Q65 A new law is passed stating that only
(B) Right to Equality
individuals of a certain religion can apply
(C) Right Against Exploitation
for government jobs. A citizen challenges
(D) Right to Freedom of Religion
this law in court, arguing that it violates his
Fundamental Rights. Decide which Q69 Fundamental Rights in India are not
Fundamental Right is violated? absolute and can be restricted on
(A) Right to Equality reasonable grounds such as public order,
(B) Right to Freedom morality, and national security.
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion From this, which of the following can be
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies inferred about the nature of Fundamental
Rights?
Q66 Ravi, a social activist, is arrested without
(A) Fundamental Rights cannot be taken
being informed of the reason for his arrest.
away under any circumstance.
He is also denied the opportunity to
(B) The government has unlimited power
consult a lawyer. He argues that his
to restrict Fundamental Rights.
Fundamental Rights have been violated.
(C) The state can impose reasonable
Decide.
restrictions on Fundamental Rights for
(A) The Right to Freedom of Religion
the greater good.
protects him from arbitrary arrest.
(D) Fundamental Rights are meaningless if
(B) The Right to Constitutional Remedies
they are not absolute.
allows him to file a petition directly in
the Supreme Court. Directions (70-74) Read the following passage
(C) The Right to Equality ensures that no and answer the given questions.
one can be arrested without reason. Culpable homicide and murder are two distinct
(D) The Right to Freedom includes offenses under criminal law, primarily
protection from arbitrary detention differentiated by the degree of intention and
under Article 22. knowledge involved in causing death. Both
offenses involve the unlawful killing of a person,
Q67 Assertion (A): The Right to Constitutional
but murder is considered the more serious
Remedies is considered the "heart and
offense due to the presence of a higher degree
soul" of the Indian Constitution.
of intent.
Reason (R): Without the Right to
Culpable homicide is the general category of
Constitutional Remedies, Fundamental
unlawful killing, where the offender knows that

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 CLAT

their actions are likely to cause death, but the act shopkeeper argues that he did not intend
may have been committed without the highest to kill the customer. Decide.
degree of intention. In contrast, murder is a more (A) Murder, because the act resulted in
aggravated form of culpable homicide, where the death.
offender acts with a definite intention to cause (B) Not a criminal offense, as it was just an
death or with knowledge that death is certain to accident.
occur. (C) Culpable homicide, as there was no
A key distinction lies in the mental state of the clear intention to kill.
accused. In culpable homicide, the accused may (D) Justifiable homicide, as it happened in
not always intend to kill but engages in an act the heat of the moment.
that they know could likely result in death. In
Q72 Assertion (A): Murder is a more serious
murder, there is a clear and deliberate intention
offense than culpable homicide.
to kill or inflict an injury that is sufficient in the
Reason (R): Murder only involves a direct
ordinary course of nature to cause death.
intention to kill, whereas culpable
Despite these distinctions, murder is essentially a
homicide can occur without such an
more severe form of culpable homicide, making it
intention.
a subset of the broader category of unlawful
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
killings. Criminal law provides different
correct explanation of A.
punishments based on the circumstances, intent,
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
and severity of the act. Courts analyze the facts
correct explanation of A.
of each case to determine whether an offense
(C) A is false, but R is true.
falls under culpable homicide or murder,
(D) A is true, but R is false.
ensuring fairness in legal consequences.
Q73 Which of the following situations would
Q70 A driver, in a fit of road rage, deliberately
most likely amount to murder rather than
speeds his car towards a pedestrian. The
culpable homicide?
pedestrian gets hit and dies on the spot.
(A) A person stabs another in the leg
The driver claims he only wanted to
during a fight, and the victim dies from
"scare" the pedestrian and did not intend
excessive bleeding.
to kill him. Decide
(B) A person deliberately poisons his rival’s
(A) Culpable homicide, as the driver did
drink, knowing it will certainly cause
not intend to kill the pedestrian.
death.
(B) Murder, as the driver had knowledge
(C) A person pushes someone in a scuffle,
that his act was likely to cause death.
causing them to fall and hit their head
(C) The act is not a crime, as the driver had
fatally.
no personal grudge against the
(D) A person fires a gun into a crowd,
pedestrian.
hoping to scare people, but
(D) Culpable homicide, as death was not
unintentionally kills someone.
an absolute certainty in this case.
Q74 The distinction between culpable homicide
Q71 A shopkeeper gets into a heated argument
and murder depends largely on the
with a customer and, in anger, pushes the
degree of intention and knowledge of the
customer violently. The customer falls, hits
accused. Courts carefully examine whether
his head on a sharp object, and dies. The
death was certain or merely probable
based on the accused’s actions.

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From this, which of the following can be 3. Age of Marriage

inferred about criminal law? To prevent child marriages, the Hindu Marriage
(A) The accused’s state of mind is an Act specifies minimum age requirements for
important factor in distinguishing marriage. The bride must be at least 18 years old,
between culpable homicide and and the groom must be at least 21 years old.
murder. Marriages that violate these age requirements
(B) A killing will always be considered are considered voidable at the option of the
murder if it leads to death. minor party.
(C) Every unlawful killing is treated as a 4. Prohibited Relationships
murder under criminal law. The Act prohibits marriages between individuals
(D) If a person had no pre-planned who are within the degrees of prohibited
intention to kill, they cannot be relationships unless the custom or usage
convicted of murder. governing each of them permits such a marriage.
A prohibited relationship is one where the parties
Directions (75-79) Read the following passage
are related to each other as brother and sister,
and answer the given questions.
uncle and niece, aunt and nephew, or any other
Marriage, in Hindu law, is considered a sacred
form of close kinship. This provision is designed
and lifelong union between a man and a woman.
to prevent incestuous relationships and maintain
The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, codifies the laws
social order.
governing Hindu marriages in India, stipulating
5. Sapinda Relationship
several essential conditions that must be met for
The concept of Sapinda relationship refers to the
a marriage to be legally valid. These conditions
lineage connections up to a certain number of
aim to ensure that the marriage is entered into
generations. Under the Hindu Marriage Act,
voluntarily, without coercion, and that it adheres
marriages between Sapindas are forbidden
to the cultural and social norms of Hindu society.
unless the custom or usage permits it. Sapinda
1. Monogamy
relationships extend up to the third generation in
Under the Hindu Marriage Act, neither party
the line of ascent through the mother and the
should have a living spouse at the time of the
fifth generation in the line of ascent through the
marriage. Bigamy is strictly prohibited, and any
father.
marriage where either party has a living spouse
6. Consent
is considered null and void. This condition
Free and voluntary consent of both parties is a
upholds the principle of monogamy, ensuring
fundamental requirement under the Act. A
that individuals are not subjected to the
marriage is considered voidable if it is
emotional and legal complications of having
established that the consent of either party was
multiple spouses.
obtained through force, fraud, or coercion. This
2. Mental Capacity
provision ensures that marriages are entered into
The Act requires that both parties entering into
freely and willingly.
the marriage must be of sound mind. This means
7. Ceremonial Requirements
that they must be capable of understanding the
While the Hindu Marriage Act does not prescribe
nature of the marriage and the duties and
any specific rites or ceremonies for a valid
responsibilities it entails. Marriages involving
marriage, it recognizes marriages solemnized
individuals who are incapable of giving valid
according to the customary rites and rituals of
consent due to unsoundness of mind or mental
the parties. This could include the traditional
disorder are invalid.
Saptapadi (seven steps) ceremony or any other
ritual deemed significant by the parties involved.

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These essentials collectively ensure that Hindu Q77 Deepak, already married to Meena,
marriages are conducted with due regard to marries Shweta without informing her of
legal, cultural, and ethical standards, his first marriage. Upon discovering the
safeguarding the rights and responsibilities of truth, Shweta seeks annulment. What will
both parties. Any marriage that fails to meet be the legal standing of Shweta’s marriage
these criteria is subject to legal challenges and under the Hindu Marriage Act?
can be declared void or voidable by a competent (A) Shweta's marriage to Deepak is valid
court. because she was unaware of his first
marriage.
Q75 Ramesh, who is 22 years old, marries
(B) Shweta's marriage to Deepak is void
Sneha, who is 16 years old, according to
because Deepak's first marriage was
their family custom which permits such
still subsisting.
marriages. Six months later, Sneha decides
(C) Shweta's marriage to Deepak is
she wants to annul the marriage. Can
voidable at her option.
Sneha do so under the Hindu Marriage
(D) Shweta's marriage to Deepak can be
Act?
annulled if she can prove fraud.
(A) Yes, because Sneha was underage at
the time of the marriage, making it Q78 Raj and Simran are first cousins and their
voidable at her option. custom allows cousin marriages. They get
(B) No, because their family custom married under Hindu rites. Later, they face
permits marriages at 16. social backlash and Raj files for annulment
(C) Yes, because Ramesh is over 21 and the claiming the marriage is prohibited under
marriage cannot be valid without both the Hindu Marriage Act. Can Raj get the
parties meeting the legal age marriage annulled?
requirement. (A) Yes, because the Hindu Marriage Act
(D) No, because Sneha consented to the prohibits marriages between first
marriage at the time. cousins.
(B) No, because their custom permits such
Q76 Rahul, who is 25, and Anjali, who is 24, got
marriages, overriding the Act's general
married. Rahul was previously diagnosed
prohibition.
with a mental disorder that occasionally
(C) Yes, because societal norms and legal
impairs his understanding. Six months into
provisions take precedence over
the marriage, Anjali finds out about Rahul’s
custom.
condition and wants to annul the marriage.
(D) No, because Raj consented to the
Can she do so under the Hindu Marriage
marriage knowing their relationship.
Act?
(A) Yes, because Rahul's mental disorder Q79 Anita and Suresh got married. Later,
invalidates his capacity to consent. Suresh was found to have concealed the
(B) No, because Anjali should have known fact that he was already married and
about the disorder before marriage. divorced twice before. Anita seeks
(C) Yes, because the disorder can be annulment on the ground of fraud. Will
grounds for annulment if it impairs she succeed under the Hindu Marriage
understanding. Act?
(D) No, because Rahul's condition was (A) Yes, because concealment of prior
intermittent and not continuous. marriages amounts to fraud.

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 CLAT

(B) No, because the prior marriages were principle. It enables courts to draw inferences
legally dissolved. from the surrounding facts when direct proof is
(C) Yes, because such concealment absent, thereby reinforcing the objective of tort
amounts to fraud affecting Anita's law—to provide redress where injury results from
consent. avoidable human carelessness.
(D) No, because past marital status is not
Q80 A person is injured in a hotel lobby when a
considered fraud under the Act.
chandelier falls from the ceiling while they
Directions (80-84) Read the following passage are checking in. There were no witnesses
and answer the given questions. to any prior damage or mishandling. The
Negligence, under tort law, refers to a breach of hotel claims there was no way to predict
a legal duty to take reasonable care, resulting in the fall. Which legal doctrine most
damage to another person. To establish liability appropriately shifts the burden of proof?
for negligence, a claimant must prove three (A) Volenti non fit injuria
essential elements: (1) the existence of a duty of (B) Res ipsa loquitur, because such
care, (2) breach of that duty, and (3) resulting incidents ordinarily indicate negligence
damage or injury caused by the breach. This (C) Novus actus interveniens, because the
standard is judged from the standpoint of what a injury was due to an external event
reasonable person would have done under (D) Strict liability, as chandeliers are
similar circumstances. inherently dangerous objects
In certain situations, direct evidence of
Q81 Why is Res ipsa loquitur not treated as a
negligence is difficult to produce. This is where
standalone cause of action under tort law?
the doctrine of Res ipsa loquitur—Latin for “the
(A) Because it is a criminal defence, not a
thing speaks for itself”—becomes significant.
civil remedy
This doctrine allows negligence to be inferred
(B) Because it merely serves as
when the nature of the accident is such that it
circumstantial evidence to infer
would not ordinarily happen without someone's
negligence
negligence, and the instrumentality that caused
(C) Because it requires proof of actual
the harm was under the defendant’s control.
intent
For example, if a surgical instrument is left inside
(D) Because it only applies to contractual
a patient's body during surgery, the plaintiff
disputes, not tort claims
need not prove exactly what went wrong. The
court may presume negligence because such an Q82 During a routine surgery, a patient
event does not occur without a failure of develops severe complications due to a
reasonable care. Once Res ipsa loquitur is surgical sponge left inside their body. The
invoked, the burden shifts to the defendant to surgeon claims there’s no direct evidence
rebut the presumption and prove that there was showing how the sponge was left behind.
no negligence. Based on the passage, how would the
However, courts apply the doctrine cautiously. It court likely approach this?
cannot be used if multiple parties could be (A) The court will require the patient to
responsible and the precise cause is unclear. Nor prove how the negligence occurred
does it apply when there is evidence explaining (B) The court will dismiss the claim as
the incident in non-negligent terms. complications are common in surgery
Thus, while Res ipsa loquitur is not a standalone (C) The court will apply Res ipsa loquitur
cause of action, it is a powerful evidentiary since surgical errors don’t happen

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 CLAT

without negligence wandering ascetic. For twelve years, he practiced

(D) The court will assume the surgeon severe penance, meditation, and self-
followed procedure unless proven mortification in search of spiritual truth.
otherwise Ultimately, he attained Kevala Jnana, or
omniscience—a state of perfect knowledge and
Q83 Under what circumstances would the
liberation. After enlightenment, he spent the next
doctrine of Res ipsa loquitur not apply,
30 years spreading his teachings across northern
based on the passage?
India, attracting followers from all walks of life.
(A) When the object that caused the harm
Mahavira's teachings laid the foundation of Jain
was under the defendant’s exclusive
philosophy, emphasizing non-violence (ahimsa),
control
truth (satya), non-stealing (asteya), celibacy
(B) When the incident is so unusual that no
(brahmacharya), and non-possession
legal doctrine is relevant
(aparigraha). These five vows are still central to
(C) When the precise cause of the accident
Jain monastic and lay life. Of these, ahimsa is
remains unclear and multiple parties
considered the most important. Mahavira taught
may be responsible
that every living being, from the smallest insect
(D) When negligence is too obvious to
to the largest animal, has a soul and deserves to
require legal analysis
live without harm.
Q84 What happens procedurally when Res ipsa He also promoted the idea of anekantavada, the
loquitur is successfully invoked by the principle of pluralism or multiple viewpoints.
plaintiff? According to this doctrine, truth and reality are
(A) The burden of proof shifts to the perceived differently from diverse points of view,
defendant to rebut the presumption of and no single perspective holds absolute truth.
negligence This idea promotes tolerance and open-
(B) The court automatically awards mindedness.
damages without further trial Mahavira rejected the caste system, animal
(C) The plaintiff must still provide direct sacrifices, and the rigid rituals of Vedic religion.
evidence of breach of duty He believed in self-effort and personal discipline
(D) The case is dismissed as speculative as the path to liberation. Unlike many spiritual
and inconclusive leaders of his time, Mahavira advocated for
equality, attracting a large number of women
Directions (85-90) Read the following passage and lower-caste individuals to his fold.
and answer the given questions. Mahavira attained nirvana (liberation) at the age
Mahavira, also known as Vardhamana, was the of 72 in Pavapuri, Bihar. His teachings continue to
24th and last Tirthankara in Jainism. Born in 599 inspire millions of Jains worldwide. His legacy
BCE in the kingdom of Vaishali (modern-day lives on in Jain temples, scriptures like the
Bihar), he belonged to the Ikshvaku dynasty. His Agamas, and through annual celebrations such
father was King Siddhartha, and his mother was as Mahavir Jayanti, which commemorates his
Queen Trishala, who is believed to have had birth.
auspicious dreams foretelling his spiritual
greatness. From an early age, Mahavira displayed Q85 The passage assumes which of the
a deep sense of compassion, discipline, and an following about Mahavira’s philosophy?
inclination toward spiritual life. (A) It was influenced primarily by the
At the age of 30, Mahavira renounced his Vedic rituals.
princely comforts and adopted the life of a (B)

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 CLAT

It was accessible to people of all social He fasted for twelve years without
backgrounds. speaking.
(C) It was only meant for ascetics and (C) He wore a mask to avoid harming even
monks. tiny insects.
(D) It emphasized wealth accumulation for (D) He avoided debates with rival
spiritual growth. philosophers.

Q86 Which of the following can be inferred Q90 Mahavira believed in personal effort as
from Mahavira’s principle of the path to liberation. What hidden
anekantavada? assumption supports this view?
(A) All religious views are equally true. (A) Liberation can only be achieved
(B) Mahavira believed in absolute truth through collective rituals.
only from his perspective. (B) Personal discipline affects one’s
(C) Different viewpoints can reveal spiritual progress
different facets of truth. (C) Only the rich can afford spiritual
(D) ruth is always unknowable. growth.
(D) God alone grants liberation regardless
Q87 Which of the following conclusions can
of actions.
best be drawn from the passage?
(A) Mahavira's teachings were mostly Directions (91-96) Read the following passage
political in nature. and answer the given questions.
(B) Jainism emphasizes social inequality Navratri, meaning "nine nights" in Sanskrit, is one
and rituals. of the most widely celebrated Hindu festivals in
(C) Mahavira's legacy still influences India. It spans nine nights and ten days and is
spiritual practices today dedicated to the worship of the divine feminine
(D) Mahavira believed that violence was energy, primarily in the form of Goddess Durga.
necessary for justice. Celebrated with immense devotion and
enthusiasm, Navratri occurs four times a year, but
Q88 Which of the following, if true, most
the Sharad Navratri in autumn is the most
seriously weakens the claim that
prominent and widely observed.
Mahavira’s ideas promoted equality?
The festival symbolizes the victory of good over
(A) He encouraged lower castes to serve
evil. It commemorates the battle between
higher castes.
Goddess Durga and the buffalo demon
(B) He included women and lower-caste
Mahishasura. According to mythology, Durga
people as followers.
fought him for nine days and nights, finally
(C) His teachings were preserved only by
defeating him on the tenth day, celebrated as
elites.
Vijayadashami or Dussehra. Thus, Navratri is not
(D) He allowed kings to attend his
just a religious celebration but a reminder of the
sermons.
power of righteousness and inner strength.
Q89 Which statement would most strengthen Each of the nine days is associated with a
the claim that ahimsa was the central different form of the goddess, such as
value in Mahavira’s philosophy? Shailaputri, Brahmacharini, Chandraghanta, and
(A) He lived in a palace but rarely hunted so on, each symbolizing a unique virtue or power.
animals. Devotees observe fasting, perform rituals, and
(B) chant prayers during these days. Many people

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 CLAT

avoid eating non-vegetarian food, onions, and The same rituals are followed uniformly
garlic, choosing instead to maintain a simple and across all states.
pure diet. (B) Only religious rituals are performed
Apart from religious practices, Navratri is also a throughout the festival.
vibrant cultural celebration. In many regions, (C) Cultural diversity influences the way
especially Gujarat and Maharashtra, it is marked Navratri is celebrated.
by traditional dances like Garba and Dandiya (D) Navratri is a modern holiday
Raas. People dress in colorful attire and gather in introduced recently.
community grounds to dance and celebrate,
Q93 Which of the following conclusions can
creating an atmosphere of joy and togetherness.
be drawn from the passage?
In eastern India, particularly in West Bengal, the
(A) Navratri is only a religious event with
last four days of Navratri coincide with Durga
no cultural significance.
Puja. Elaborate idols of Goddess Durga are
(B) Navratri promotes personal and
created and worshipped in beautifully decorated
spiritual development.
pandals. The air fills with the sound of drums,
(C) Navratri rituals are outdated in today’s
conch shells, and chants as people celebrate with
world.
food, music, and cultural performances.
(D) The festival only focuses on dance and
Navratri also emphasizes self-discipline and
entertainment.
spiritual awakening. It encourages devotees to
reflect on their lives, practice self-control, and Q94 Which of the following, if true, most
connect with the divine. The act of fasting and seriously weakens the claim that Navratri
meditation is believed to cleanse the body and fosters unity and togetherness?
mind, preparing individuals for spiritual growth. (A) Navratri is celebrated in both rural and
In conclusion, Navratri is much more than a urban areas.
festive occasion. It is a spiritual journey of (B) People avoid community gatherings
devotion, discipline, and cultural celebration, due to regional conflicts.
honoring the feminine power that sustains the (C) Navratri is observed through both
universe and guides human consciousness. fasting and feasting.
(D) Different states celebrate Navratri in
Q91 The passage assumes that the practice of
unique ways.
fasting during Navratri has which of the
following purposes? Q95 Which of the following would most
(A) It is meant only to follow ancient strengthen the claim that Navratri has
customs. spiritual importance?
(B) It is a way to showcase one's religious (A) Scientific studies show fasting lowers
superiority. cholesterol.
(C) It helps in physical cleansing and (B) People from all faiths attend Navratri
spiritual growth. celebrations.
(D) It is observed mainly to impress the (C) Devotees report increased mental
community. clarity and peace during the festival.
(D) Most people buy new clothes during
Q92 Which of the following can be inferred
Navratri.
from the passage about Navratri
celebrations in different regions of India? Q96 The belief that Navratri symbolizes
(A) victory of good over evil relies on what

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 CLAT

hidden assumption? but also give budding artists a platform to

(A) Evil forces always manifest as demons showcase their talent.
in mythology. Interestingly, the café has also become an
(B) Mythological stories are a literal part of informal meeting ground for startups and
history. innovators. With its free Wi-Fi, cozy corners, and
(C) People relate symbolic tales to collaborative vibe, it fosters the exchange of
personal moral battles. ideas in a relaxed setting. Some even joke that a
(D) Festivals need a villain to be few Bengaluru-based startups had their first
meaningful. brainstorming sessions over filter coffee at this
very café.
Directions (97-102) Read the following passage
In a city known for its rapid growth and shifting
and answer the given questions.
identity, Café Bengaluru has remained a gentle
Nestled amidst the tech-laden streets and leafy
anchor to its roots. It celebrates local art,
bylanes of India's Silicon Valley, Café Bengaluru
language, and community, making it much more
is more than just a coffee shop—it’s a cultural
than a coffee joint. It’s a living tribute to the soul
phenomenon. With its rustic interiors, ambient
of the city—where tradition meets creativity, and
lighting, and the aroma of freshly brewed filter
every cup tells a story.
coffee, it has grown into a cherished spot for
locals, artists, and travelers alike. Q97 The café's support for local farmers
Founded in 2012 by a former software engineer assumes that:
turned entrepreneur, Café Bengaluru was (A) Urban customers are not interested in
envisioned as a space that blended the nostalgia regional food items.
of old Bangalore with the fast-paced vibe of the (B) Locally sourced ingredients
new city. From vintage posters on its walls to the automatically improve taste.
wooden chairs reminiscent of old school (C) Supporting local suppliers positively
canteens, the café offers a comforting throwback impacts the community.
to simpler times. It also brings together people (D) Farmers prefer working with coffee
from diverse walks of life—freelancers working shops over markets.
on their laptops, poets reciting verses, students
Q98 Which of the following can be inferred
prepping for exams, and elderly patrons enjoying
from Café Bengaluru’s weekend events?
long conversations over steaming cups of coffee.
(A) The café transforms into a co-working
What sets Café Bengaluru apart is its
space on weekends.
commitment to local flavors and community
(B) It becomes a creative platform for local
culture. Unlike franchise coffee shops serving
talent.
uniform menus, this café takes pride in its
(C) It restricts entry only to artists and
offerings of traditional South Indian filter coffee,
performers.
ragi cookies, and masala dosa wraps. The
(D) It no longer serves food during event
ingredients are locally sourced, supporting
nights.
regional farmers and small-scale suppliers.
Every weekend, the café transforms into a mini Q99 What can be concluded about Café
cultural hub. Open mic nights, Kannada book Bengaluru’s role in the city?
readings, unplugged music gigs, and art (A) It’s solely a business focused on
exhibitions draw creative minds from all over the maximizing profits.
city. These events not only offer entertainment (B) It’s a space blending tradition,
creativity, and community.

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(C) It targets only tech professionals for its The theme of the party was "Golden Memories,"
growth. and the auditorium was beautifully adorned with
(D) It aims to become a multinational fairy lights, handmade posters, and photographs
franchise. capturing moments from the past year. A warm
welcome speech was delivered by the school
Q100 Which of the following, if true, would
head girl, expressing gratitude and best wishes
weaken the café’s image as a supporter
for the seniors. What followed was a series of
of local art and artists?
engaging performances—skits that humorously
(A) Most performers are local college
portrayed classroom incidents, dance sequences,
students.
and even a musical tribute that left many teary-
(B) Art events are often cancelled due to
eyed.
low turnout.
One of the most touching parts of the event was
(C) Performers must book slots a week in
the “Memory Lane” segment, where a short
advance.
video montage featured messages from teachers
(D) Some events are conducted in
and students, recounting their fondest memories
English.
with the senior batch. These clips were a mix of
Q101 Which of the following would best humorous anecdotes, motivational words, and
strengthen the café’s claim as a startup- personal stories that reflected the deep bond
friendly space? shared among classmates and mentors.
(A) It has posters of startup founders on After the performances, the principal addressed
its walls. the gathering. In his speech, he emphasized the
(B) Several successful startups began importance of cherishing memories while looking
brainstorming there. forward to the future. He reminded the students
(C) It offers startup merchandise at the that although farewells mark the end of a
counter. chapter, they also signal the beginning of new
(D) It sponsors ads on tech blogs. journeys. His words resonated with everyone
present, creating a moment of silence and
Q102 The idea that Café Bengaluru brings reflection.
together diverse people assumes that: Later, the students mingled over refreshments,
(A) Coffee has universal appeal. clicking group photos and exchanging handmade
(B) People enjoy loud environments. cards filled with messages and signatures.
(C) A shared space can foster meaningful Laughter echoed through the hall, but so did the
interaction quiet realization that school life was coming to an
(D) Only artists visit the café regularly. end for the seniors. Teachers, too, joined in,
sharing a few light-hearted moments with
Directions (103-108) Read the following
students they had seen grow over the years.
passage and answer the given questions.
The farewell party concluded with a group photo
The farewell party was a bittersweet occasion,
and the lighting of sky lanterns on the school
filled with laughter, nostalgia, and heartfelt
grounds—each lantern symbolizing a wish for
emotions. It was organized by the students of
the future. As the glowing lights drifted into the
Class 11 to bid goodbye to the outgoing seniors
night sky, it marked not just a goodbye, but a
of Class 12. Held in the school auditorium, the
celebration of friendship, growth, and dreams.
event had been weeks in planning, with each
student contributing ideas, decorations, or Q103 The “Memory Lane” video montage
performances to make it memorable. assumes that:

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(A) Students prefer receiving academic The school announced new uniforms
awards at farewells. for juniors.
(B) Sharing memories creates emotional (D) A parent complained about loud
connection. music.
(C) Only humorous content is suitable for
Q108 The fact that students exchanged
such events.
handmade cards assumes that:
(D) Seniors dislike formal speeches.
(A) All students have excellent artistic
Q104 Which of the following can be inferred skills.
from the principal’s speech? (B) Personalized messages help express
(A) He believed school years are the most feelings better.
difficult. (C) Buying gifts is better than writing
(B) He wanted students to forget the past notes.
and move on. (D) Only top-ranking students deserve
(C) He viewed farewells as the start of cards.
new journeys
Directions (109-114) Read the following passage
(D) He discouraged being emotional
and answer the given questions.
during farewells.
Indian Railways operates 900 long-distance
Q105 What is the most appropriate trains daily across five zones — Northern,
conclusion based on the passage? Southern, Eastern, Western, and Central — in the
(A) Farewell parties are a waste of time. ratio 5 : 6 : 4 : 3 : 2 respectively. Each zone runs a
(B) Emotional bonding plays a key role in mix of Superfast, Express, and Mail trains, but
school farewells. their internal distribution of these categories
(C) Farewells are only about differs from one another. These trains are
performances and food. deployed according to passenger demand and
(D) Teachers do not participate in student operational priorities. In the Northern zone, the
events. number of Superfast trains is twice the number
of Mail trains, and the number of Express trains is
Q106 Which of the following, if true, would
fixed at 75. The Southern zone, which handles
weaken the emotional impact of the
the highest number of trains, operates 40% of its
farewell party?
trains as Express, while 1/6th of the remaining
(A) The lanterns failed to fly due to rain.
trains are Mail, and the rest are Superfast. In the
(B) Students received snacks after the
Eastern zone, one-third of the trains are Mail, and
program.
the number of Express trains is 10 more than the
(C) The stage decoration was handmade.
number of Superfast trains. The Western zone
(D) Teachers shared jokes during
operates an equal number of Superfast and Mail
performances.
trains, with 45 Express trains completing the
Q107 Which of the following would best total. In the Central zone, Superfast trains
strengthen the passage’s portrayal of constitute 60% of its total fleet, while the
the event as memorable? remaining trains are equally divided between
(A) The farewell ended on time. Express and Mail. Each Superfast train carries
(B) Students posted their memories on 1200 passengers, each Express train carries 1000
social media afterward passengers, and each Mail train carries 800
(C) passengers, and all trains are assumed to be fully

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 CLAT

occupied. The fare per passenger is ₹500 for Directions (115-120) Read the following passage
Superfast, ₹350 for Express, and ₹250 for Mail. and answer the given questions.
The distribution strategy aims to balance revenue As part of a week-long celebration of creativity
generation with equitable passenger service and talent, the school organized a grand cultural
across the zones. event that saw enthusiastic participation from
students across all grades. The event aimed to
Q109 What percentage of total Mail trains are
encourage artistic expression and teamwork
operated by the Eastern zone?
among students.
During this annual cultural event at the school, a
(A) 25% (B) 30%
total of 360 students participated across three
(C) 35% (D) 40%
different classes — Class A, Class B, and Class C.
Q110 What is the ratio of the number of These students took part in three distinct
Superfast trains in Southern and Western activities: Singing, Dancing, and Painting, based
zones combined to the number of Express on their interests and talents. The strength of
trains in Northern and Western zones students from classes A, B, and C was in the ratio
combined? of 5 : 4 : 3, respectively, and all students
(A) 3:2 (B) 5:4 participated in exactly one of the three activities.
(C) 9:5 (D) 5:3 In Class A, 40% of the students took part in
Singing. The remaining students from this class
Q111 By what percentage is the number of were equally enthusiastic about Dancing and
Superfast trains in Eastern zone more than Painting, and they were evenly divided between
the number of Mail trains in Northern the two activities. In Class B, the distribution was
zone? a bit more varied. The number of students who
(A) 5% (B) 10% participated in Dancing was 25% more than
(C) 15% (D) 20% those who chose Painting. Additionally, the
number of Singing participants in Class B was
Q112 What is the total revenue generated from
exactly 10 fewer than those who opted for
all fully occupied Superfast trains in the
Painting. Class C saw a balanced mix of
Northern and Southern zones combined?
participation as well. Here, 30% of the students
(A) ₹12.6 crore (B) ₹13.5 crore
took part in Dancing, 40% engaged in Painting,
(C) ₹14.1 crore (D) ₹14.8 crore
and the remaining students showed interest in
Q113 On a foggy day, Northern zone operates Singing. All students across the three classes
only 80% of its Mail trains, while all other contributed to the vibrancy of the event, making
train types run as usual. How many total it a diverse and colorful celebration of talent. The
passengers are carried by Northern zone school principal praised the students' active
that day? involvement, emphasizing that such events help
(A) 225000 (B) 227000 nurture creativity, confidence, and camaraderie
(C) 231000 (D) 233000 among learners.

Q114 On a festival day, all zones run 19 extra Q115 What approximate percentage of all
Express trains (rest same) in total. How Singing participants came from Class A,
many additional passengers are carried in which had the highest number of
total due to these extra Express trains? students enrolled among all classes.
(A) 7000 (B) 9500 (A) 54.5% (B) 51.3%
(C) 19000 (D) 28500 (C) 57.8% (D) 58.2%

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Q116 In Class C, students participated in all (B) Class B

three activities. What is the ratio of (C) Class C
students who participated in Singing and (D) All scored equally
Painting combined to the total number of
Q119 If 20% of Painting participants from Class
students in Class C?
A and 25% from Class C were absent, how
(A) 2:3 (B) 3:4
many total Painting participants actually
(C) 7:9 (D) 7:10
attended from those two classes?
Q117 What percentage the number of students (A) 63 (B) 68
who participated in Painting from Class A (C) 72 (D) 78
is less than that of Dancing from Class B?
Q120 If the total number of Painting
(A) 10% (B) 11%
participants from Class A and C together
(C) 15% (D) 13%
is compared with the entire Painting
Q118 If the school awarded 2 points for each participation, what approximate
student participating in Singing, 3 points percentage of Painting participants did
for Dancing, and 4 points for Painting, they together contribute?
which class scored the highest total (A) 55% (B) 66.9%
points? (C) 68.1% (D) 70.2%
(A) Class A

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 CLAT

Answer Key
Q1 (C) Q32 (B)

Q2 (C) Q33 (A)

Q3 (C) Q34 (A)

Q4 (C) Q35 (C)

Q5 (A) Q36 (D)

Q6 (B) Q37 (B)

Q7 (C) Q38 (C)

Q8 (C) Q39 (D)

Q9 (C) Q40 (A)

Q10 (D) Q41 (B)

Q11 (C) Q42 (D)

Q12 (C) Q43 (B)

Q13 (C) Q44 (C)

Q14 (C) Q45 (A)

Q15 (C) Q46 (B)

Q16 (A) Q47 (D)

Q17 (C) Q48 (D)

Q18 (B) Q49 (B)

Q19 (C) Q50 (B)

Q20 (C) Q51 (A)

Q21 (B) Q52 (D)

Q22 (B) Q53 (B)

Q23 (C) Q54 (D)

Q24 (B) Q55 (C)

Q25 (B) Q56 (A)

Q26 (A) Q57 (C)

Q27 (D) Q58 (A)

Q28 (C) Q59 (A)

Q29 (B) Q60 (B)

Q30 (D) Q61 (A)

Q31 (B) Q62 (A)

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 CLAT

Q63 (A) Q92 (C)

Q64 (D) Q93 (B)

Q65 (A) Q94 (B)

Q66 (D) Q95 (C)

Q67 (B) Q96 (C)

Q68 (A) Q97 (C)

Q69 (C) Q98 (B)

Q70 (B) Q99 (B)

Q71 (C) Q100 (B)

Q72 (D) Q101 (B)

Q73 (B) Q102 (C)

Q74 (A) Q103 (B)

Q75 (A) Q104 (C)

Q76 (C) Q105 (B)

Q77 (B) Q106 (A)

Q78 (B) Q107 (B)

Q79 (C) Q108 (B)

Q80 (B) Q109 (B)

Q81 (B) Q110 (A)

Q82 (C) Q111 (B)

Q83 (C) Q112 (C)

Q84 (A) Q113 (B)

Q85 (B) Q114 (C)

Q86 (C) Q115 (B)

Q87 (C) Q116 (D)

Q88 (A) Q117 (A)

Q89 (C) Q118 (A)

Q90 (B) Q119 (A)

Q91 (C) Q120 (B)

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 CLAT

Hints & Solutions

Note: scan the QR code to watch video solution

Q1. Text Solution: A is eliminated because not all conspirators

Correct Answer: C — He was involved in the have been punished, as the passage says justice
Girgaon Chowpatty operation that led to is still incomplete.
Kasab’s capture. B is eliminated because Kasab's capture helped
Reference Line: uncover international connections—it had high
"Bavdhankar was stationed at Girgaon intelligence value.
Chowpatty during the attacks as part of a road D is eliminated because while justice has taken
blockade operation." time, there's no claim of extreme delay beyond
Explanation: recognition.
He was present during the operation that led to Video Solution:
Ajmal Kasab's capture, making this the correct
identification of his role.
Eliminations:
A is eliminated because Bavdhankar was not at
the Terminus.
B is eliminated because the Taj Hotel assault was
not mentioned as part of his role.
Q3. Text Solution:
D is eliminated because he was on the field, not
Correct Answer: C — Omble’s confrontation
coordinating from headquarters.
directly enabled the capture of Kasab alive.
Video Solution: Reference Line:
"...Tukaram Omble, armed with only a baton,
faced the terrorists head-on and lost his life... His
sacrifice helped the team capture Kasab alive..."
Explanation:
Omble’s heroic act of confronting Kasab made it
possible to capture him alive, which later
Q2. Text Solution: became crucial for intelligence and justice.
Correct Answer: C — The extradition of Rana Eliminations:
has rekindled calls for justice from both A is eliminated because Omble’s role was
officials and citizens. decisive, not just symbolic.
Reference Line: B is eliminated because Kasab was not killed, he
"His strong remarks come in the wake of the was captured alive.
successful extradition of Tahawwur Hussain D is eliminated because Omble took immediate
Rana..." and courageous action—there’s no suggestion
"For many, justice remains incomplete..." of delay.
Explanation: Video Solution:
The extradition of Rana has renewed momentum
for judicial action against other accused
individuals, as both officials and families
demand accountability.
Eliminations:

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 CLAT

Video Solution:

Q4. Text Solution:

Correct Answer: C — Urgent and justice-driven Q6. Text Solution:
Explanation: Correct Answer: B — The reactivation of public
The passage highlights renewed calls for justice, and official demands for justice following new
unfinished accountability, and includes emotive
legal developments
quotes about the sacrifices and demands for Reference Line:
sentencing—indicating an urgent, justice- “His strong remarks come in the wake of the
seeking tone. successful extradition of Tahawwur Hussain
Eliminations:
Rana...”
A is eliminated because the passage is not “...justice remains incomplete as long as the
neutral or dry—it’s emotionally and morally remaining accused are not tried and sentenced.”
charged. Explanation:
B is eliminated because although it reflects on
The entire passage revolves around the renewed
past events, the primary tone is about present
push for justice after Rana’s extradition, using
urgency, not nostalgia. past sacrifices and current demands to frame the
D is eliminated because the language is firm but theme.
respectful, not aggressive or vengeful. Eliminations:
Video Solution: A is eliminated because the focus is not on
logistical failures but justice and accountability.
C is eliminated because the passage is not a
biography, nor is there mention of politics.
D is eliminated because the passage doesn’t
compare international vs. Indian protocols.

Video Solution:
Q5. Text Solution:
Correct Answer: A — As a result of
Explanation:
“In the wake of” here refers to Bavdhankar's
remarks following the event of Rana's
extradition. It implies causal sequence or
reaction. Q7. Text Solution:
Eliminations: Correct Answer: C — Increasing restrictions,
B is eliminated because there's no opposition penalizing usage, and adding surveillance
involved in this usage.
Concept Tested: Inference based on current
C is eliminated because mourning is not the institutional behavior
contextual focus of the phrase. Reference Line:
D is eliminated because “in the wake of” shows
timely relevance, not disregard.

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 CLAT

“Some are banning AI tools, punishing teachers D is eliminated because the adoption of English
who use them, or adding more surveillance to as a medium of instruction is outside the scope
stop students from using them.” of this passage.
Explanation: Video Solution:
The author directly describes how many schools
are responding out of fear, implementing
restrictions and punishments. The reaction is
described as preventative rather than adaptive.
Elimination of Incorrect Options:
A is eliminated because schools are not
encouraging open experimentation—they’re
Q9. Text Solution:
reacting cautiously and restrictively.
Correct Answer: C — It is outdated and fails to
B is eliminated because while the passage
meet the needs of modern learners.
suggests AI should be taught, it never states
Concept Tested: Inference about systemic
that AI literacy is currently part of curricula.
evaluation
D is eliminated because there’s no evidence in
Reference Line:
the passage that student data is being used to
“India’s education system still follows old
train AI.
methods, like memorizing facts and taking
Video Solution: standard tests... designed... during British rule...
they don’t fit today’s world.”
Explanation:
The author calls out India’s examination style as
obsolete, arguing that it does not equip students
for contemporary challenges.
Elimination of Incorrect Options:
Q8. Text Solution: A is eliminated because the author argues
Correct Answer: C — The use of calculators and against rote learning, not for creative and
computers flexible questioning.
Concept Tested: Identifying supporting B is eliminated because the system is described
examples or analogies as being based on colonial legacy, not aligned
Reference Line: with global standards.
“In the past, even calculators and computers D is eliminated because AI-based assessments in
were banned. But now they are part of everyday rural areas are a potential, not a current feature.
learning.” Video Solution:
Explanation:
This example helps draw a parallel between
current resistance to AI and past resistance to
now-accepted technologies.
Elimination of Incorrect Options:
A is eliminated because the printing press or
textbook culture is not mentioned.
Q10. Text Solution:
B is eliminated because there’s no mention of
Correct Answer: D — AI should serve as a tool
shifting from oral to written examinations.
that helps revive India’s ancient, inquiry-based

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 CLAT

learning traditions. D is eliminated because innovation is framed as

Concept Tested: Author's opinion/advocacy harmonious with culture, not a rejection of it.
Reference Line: Video Solution:
“With AI, we can return to this style—where AI
becomes a helper and the teacher becomes a
guide and mentor.”
Explanation:
The author advocates for using AI to enhance
traditional guru-shishya models of trust,
questioning, and dialogue.
Q12. Text Solution:
Elimination of Incorrect Options:
Correct Answer: C — A big change is quietly
A is eliminated because the author believes
happening in schools around the world.
students should learn AI early, not wait until
Concept Tested: Identifying figurative language
adulthood.
Explanation:
B is eliminated because the author values
This line is a personification and an example of
teachers as mentors, not as obsolete figures.
oxymoron or metaphor. A "big change"
C is eliminated because banning AI contradicts
happening "quietly" uses figurative language to
the author’s core argument—that AI should be
imply a subtle but powerful shift, which is not
integrated wisely.
literal.
Video Solution: Elimination of Incorrect Options:
A is eliminated because it's a direct statement,
not figurative.
B is eliminated because it states a fact without
poetic or metaphorical devices.
D is eliminated because it describes behavior
without any figure of speech.
Q11. Text Solution:
Video Solution:
Correct Answer: C — A novel improvement or
advancement built on existing knowledge
Concept Tested: Vocabulary in context
Reference Line:
“India has always mixed wisdom with new ideas.
Now is the time to do that again—with AI.”
Explanation:
Q13. Text Solution:
"Innovation" here refers to new ideas built upon
Correct Answer: C — It glorifies state
traditional strengths—not rejecting heritage,
institutions and nationalistic ideals rather than
but modernizing it with purpose.
questioning them.
Elimination of Incorrect Options:
Concept: Factual comparison / key shift in genre
A is eliminated because innovation is not
Reference Line:
borrowed, it is created or adapted.
“Instead of exposing state corruption, today's
B is eliminated because the passage links
films often glorify institutions, valorise police and
innovation with wisdom, not a departure from
army personnel, and legitimise hyper-nationalism
it.
and jingoism.”

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 CLAT

Explanation: Video Solution:

The author contrasts older films like All the
President’s Men (which challenged state
authority) with modern Indian films that affirm
state power and Hindutva ideology.
Eliminations:
A is eliminated because special effects (VFX) are
discussed, but not as a primary distinguishing Q15. Text Solution:
factor. Correct Answer: C — They help popularize and
B is eliminated because modern cinema does reinforce dominant right-wing narratives in
not critique institutions more boldly; it affirms cinema.
them. Concept: Inference / impact of media platforms
D is eliminated because the passage explicitly Reference Line:
states that mythological symbols are used more “...films... are amplified by social media, meme
now, not less. culture, and reels that carry right-wing
Video Solution: messages... echo chambers that reinforce the
values embedded in these films...”
Explanation:
The author argues that digital platforms act as
multipliers for dominant ideological messaging,
especially for young audiences.
Eliminations:
A is eliminated because the author does not
Q14. Text Solution:
Correct Answer: C — The act of the character suggest digital media creates diversity; instead,

Bheem kneeling before Ram for blessings it reinforces dominant views.

Concept: Symbolism and ideological association B is eliminated because digital platforms do not
neutralize messaging—they amplify it.
Reference Line:
“...Bheem... kneels before Ram to receive D is eliminated because international films are

blessings and education... This symbolic moment not discussed at all in this passage.

echoes Savarkar’s vision of assimilating Adivasis Video Solution:

and Dalits into the Hindutva fold.”
Explanation:
The author connects this scene's power dynamic
to Savarkar’s ideology of absorbing marginal
groups into a Hindu-nationalist framework.
Eliminations:
A is eliminated because digital media is a Q16. Text Solution:
delivery tool, not symbolic of Savarkar’s ideas. Correct Answer: A — Mythology and history
B is eliminated because Ram’s transformation is should be fused to create a unified national
symbolic of civilisational assertion but not identity in cinema.
explicitly linked to Savarkar’s vision. Concept: Author's opinion
D is eliminated because VFX landscapes are part Reference Line:
of the myth-building, but not the specific “...blur the lines between mythology and history,
moment tied to Savarkar. fact and fiction, reinforcing dominant narratives

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 CLAT

about who belongs in the nation and who

doesn’t.”
Explanation:
The author criticizes the fusion of mythology
and history when it serves ideological control.
He would likely disagree with using cinema to
promote homogenized nationalism. Q18. Text Solution:
Eliminations: Correct Answer: B — From Resistance to
B is eliminated because the author explicitly Reinforcement: The Political Shift in Indian
praises Third Cinema and works like Paatal Lok Cinema
for their resistance. Concept: Summarizing / identifying main idea
C is eliminated because the author discusses how Explanation:
digital platforms magnify ideological cinema, The author’s thesis is about how Indian political
showing their power. cinema has shifted from challenging power to
D is eliminated because Paatal Lok is used as a supporting it, particularly through nationalist
positive example that subverts dominant messaging and digital amplification.
narratives. Eliminations:
Video Solution: A is eliminated because special effects are
mentioned but are not central to the argument.
C is eliminated because while meme culture is
noted, it is not the main focus, and the passage
doesn’t explore film sales.
D is eliminated because while the author is a JNU
student, the focus is on cinema and ideology,

Q17. Text Solution: not on campus decline.

Correct Answer: C — Strengthening or Video Solution:

validating pre-existing ideological beliefs
Concept: Vocabulary in context
Explanation:
“Reinforcing” is used to describe how these films
don’t challenge but instead strengthen pre-
existing cultural and ideological messages—
especially those aligned with nationalism and Q19. Text Solution:
Hindutva. Correct Answer: C — State-controlled
Eliminations: education modeled after the USSR’s reforms
A is eliminated because the films are not Concept Tested: Factual understanding
defending weak arguments; they are pushing Reference Line:
dominant ones. “The massive educational reconstruction
B is eliminated because there’s no mention of effected within a very short time in the U.S.S.R.
physical reconstruction of anything. provided a model for Bose to support State-
D is eliminated because “reinforcing” here has controlled educational system for solving our
nothing to do with verifying historical sources. educational problems.”
Video Solution: Explanation:
Bose admired the USSR's model, which showed

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 CLAT

rapid educational progress through State

intervention, and he advocated a similar system
in India.
Elimination:
A is eliminated because Bose supported both
secular and spiritual education, not just ancient
Indian systems. Q21. Text Solution:
B is eliminated because Bose advocated a Roman Correct Answer: B — He valued equity by
script and Hindusthani as lingua franca, not a promoting foundational education for all and
bilingual policy with Devanagari. advanced education for the capable.
D is eliminated because there is no mention of Concept Tested: Inference and understanding of
free market models or privatization—he educational philosophy
supports State control. Reference Line:
Video Solution: “He wanted mass primary education for all and
as an individualist he was in favour of higher
education for deserving meritorious and
intelligent students.”
Explanation:
Bose supported basic education for everyone
(equity) and advanced learning for the

Q20. Text Solution: deserving (merit-based inclusion)—a balanced

Correct Answer: C — The kindergarten model and fair approach.

in Germany, nursery schools in England, and Elimination:

A is eliminated because he does not support
Ecoles Maternelles in France
Concept Tested: Specific reference / factual uniform higher education for all—he values

detail merit-based advancement.

Reference Line: C is eliminated because he is not against

“Bose was deeply influenced by the kindergarten selective education; he actually encourages it
for higher levels.
system in Germany and Scandinavia, the Nursery
School of England and the Ecoles Maternelles of D is eliminated because Bose supports State-led

France.” reforms, not privatization or private-led

Explanation: systems.

These three systems inspired Bose’s vision for Video Solution:

early childhood education, particularly through
sensory and visual methods.
Elimination:
A is eliminated because Montessori and Charter
Schools are not mentioned.
B is eliminated because the Gurukul and
Buddhist models are not referenced in this Q22. Text Solution:
context. Correct Answer: B — Only students with
D is eliminated because Japan and Finland are outstanding academic ability should have
not part of Bose’s cited influences. access to primary education.
Video Solution:

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 CLAT

Concept Tested: Inference from values and D is eliminated because reproductive health is
policies too literal and unrelated to the context.
Reference Line: Video Solution:
“He wanted mass primary education for all…”
Explanation:
Bose strongly supported universal access to
primary education regardless of merit. Hence, he
would disagree with restricting it to only high
achievers.
Elimination:
Q24. Text Solution:
A is eliminated because Bose supported a
Correct Answer: B — Education, when
common education policy and script to build
standardized across language and script,
national unity.
serves as a tool to strengthen unity and
C is eliminated because character-building is a
national identity.
central theme in Bose’s educational philosophy.
Concept Tested: Understanding author's
D is eliminated because Bose believed teacher
argument
training is essential:
Reference Line:
“...no educational plan would be successful
“...education is a great force in bringing about a
without a comprehensive system of teachers'
sense of national unity... in favour of a common
training.”
educational policy with a common script... Roman
Video Solution: Script... lingua franca being Hindusthani.”
Explanation:
Bose sees standardized education, including a
common language and script, as a unifying
national force.
Elimination:
A is eliminated because Bose does not focus on
Q23. Text Solution: global competition or economic growth as the
Correct Answer: C — Strength, vitality, and basis for unity.
manly moral courage C is eliminated because Bose does not argue
Concept Tested: Vocabulary in context education creates division—he believes it
Reference Line: fosters unity.
“Education would boost character, morale, virility D is eliminated because education is viewed as
and freedom of man.” deeply political and ideological, not apolitical.
Explanation:
Video Solution:
In this context, virility is used to suggest moral
and physical vigor, strength, and courage, not
literal or biological masculinity.
Elimination:
A is eliminated because military fitness is not the
theme—it's more about internal strength.
B is eliminated because intellectual brilliance is
Q25. Text Solution:
not what “virility” denotes here.
Option B is correct.

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 CLAT

Under the "One Nation, One Election" plan, if The right to freedom of speech and the right
a state assembly is dissolved early, the to vote are both fundamental rights but are
government would need to hold an interim not directly related to the issue of "One
election and then adjust the timing to Nation, One Election."
synchronize the state elections with the next
Option C is incorrect.
national elections.
This system is designed to ensure that national The conflict between the judicial system’s
and state elections are held simultaneously, ability to rule on electoral matters and the
thus reducing election-related costs and executive’s control over elections is not the
disruptions. core issue related to "One Nation, One
Election."
Option A is incorrect.
The primary conflict involves the central
The government would not re-establish the government’s control over election
previous election cycle but would adjust the scheduling and states' autonomy.
timing for future elections to bring them in
Option D is incorrect.
sync with national elections.
The right to free expression and the right to
Option C is incorrect.
conduct campaigns is a valid concern, but it is
Dissolving the Lok Sabha and holding not the central issue with "One Nation, One
simultaneous elections across the country is Election."
part of the general concept of "One Nation, The primary conflict is between state and
One Election", but this action would not be central government powers regarding
taken in response to the early dissolution of a election timing.
state assembly.
Q27. Text Solution:
Option D is incorrect. Option D is correct.
Invoking Article 356 and imposing President’s India conducted its first synchronized general
Rule is a measure to address situations where elections for both the Lok Sabha and State
a state government fails to function according Legislative Assemblies in 1952, after the
to constitutional provisions, not directly country gained independence in 1947.
related to the timing or synchronization of This was part of the first nationwide elections
elections. following independence.
Q26. Text Solution: Option A is incorrect.
Option A is correct.
In 1947, India did not conduct synchronized
The "One Nation, One Election" plan could elections for the Lok Sabha and State
lead to a conflict between state governments’ Assemblies.
autonomy in election scheduling and the The country was still in the process of
central government’s desire for synchronized establishing its democratic system after
elections. independence.
States currently have the autonomy to decide
Option B is incorrect.
their own election schedules, and the push for
synchronized elections could infringe on this In 1967, elections for the Lok Sabha and
autonomy. various state assemblies were held, but they

Option B is incorrect.

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 CLAT

were not synchronized in the way the "One With elections held simultaneously, the overall
Nation, One Election" plan proposes. duration of electioneering is reduced, limiting
This was the year when simultaneous elections the opportunities for misuse of government
ended due to the premature dissolution of funds and resources in the election process.
certain assemblies.
Option A is incorrect.
Option C is incorrect.
While political party funding regulation is
In 1962, elections were held, but they were important, the primary benefit of "One
not synchronized across all states and the Lok Nation, One Election" regarding electoral
Sabha. malpractices focuses more on reducing
By this time, some states were already holding opportunities for vote-buying and misuse of
elections separately. resources, not the regulation of funding.

Q28. Text Solution: Option C is incorrect.

Option C is correct.
The mandatory use of digital voting is not a
Indonesia is referenced as an example of feature of "One Nation, One Election".
successfully implementing "One Nation, One The focus is more on the synchronization of
Election", as it holds simultaneous elections elections rather than a shift to digital voting
for both its national parliament and regional to address malpractices.
legislative bodies.
Option D is incorrect.
This model is cited as an example for India to
consider. The Model Code of Conduct is not removed
under "One Nation, One Election."
Option A is incorrect.
The Code remains an essential tool to ensure
The United States does not hold simultaneous free and fair elections, and it would still apply
elections for national and regional legislative in synchronized elections.
bodies.
The U.S. has separate election cycles for Q30. Text Solution:
federal and state elections. Option D is correct.

Option B is incorrect. The high-level panel that recommended the

"One Nation, One Election" proposal was
South Africa does not follow the "One
chaired by Former President Ram Nath
Nation, One Election" system, as its national
Kovind.
and regional elections are not synchronized.
The panel was set up to examine the feasibility
Option D is incorrect. and advantages of holding simultaneous
elections for both national and state
Brazil also holds separate elections for
legislatures in India.
national and regional legislative bodies, and it
It aimed to explore how synchronizing
does not follow the "One Nation, One
elections could help reduce election-related
Election" model in the same way as Indonesia.
costs and ensure more efficient governance.
Q29. Text Solution: Option A is incorrect.
Option B is correct.
Former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh did
A key benefit of "One Nation, One Election" is not chair the panel.
that it would reduce opportunities for vote-
buying and misuse of state resources.

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 CLAT

He has been a prominent figure in Indian Q32. Text Solution:

politics but was not involved in leading this Option B is correct.
specific panel.
The passage of the Bharatiya Vayuyan
Option B is incorrect. Vidheyak, 2024, which modernized India's
aviation laws, reflects India's commitment to
Former Law Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad
updating its legal framework to align with
was not the chairperson of the panel.
global standards.
Although he has been involved in many legal
The Bill modernizes the aviation sector, an
reforms, he did not lead the "One Nation, One
area that is vital for international connectivity
Election" proposal panel.
and economic growth.
Option C is incorrect.
Option A is incorrect.
Former Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi was not
The Merchant Shipping Bill, 2024 was
the chairperson of this panel.
discussed, but the modernizing impact of the
Although he played a significant role in the
Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak, 2024 on
judiciary, the panel was chaired by Former
aviation laws more directly reflects global
President Ram Nath Kovind.
legal updates.
Q31. Text Solution:
Option C is incorrect.
Option B is correct.
The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill,
The primary focus of the Winter Session is the
passage of pending bills and urgent 2024 focuses on the "One Nation, One

legislative reforms, as discussed in the Election" initiative, which is a critical electoral

passage. reform but not directly linked to global

standards in legal frameworks.
This session addresses pending legislation,
including crucial reforms, and provides a Option D is incorrect.
platform for bills related to aviation, maritime
The commemoration of the Constitution's
law, and electoral processes, among others.
adoption is a significant event but does not
Option A is incorrect. directly reflect updating India’s legal
framework to global standards.
While budgetary allocations are part of the
session, it is not the primary focus.
Q33. Text Solution:
The Winter Session is more focused on
Option A is correct.
advancing legislative priorities and reforms.
Commemorating the adoption of the Indian
Option C is incorrect.
Constitution during the Winter Session
Detailed discussions on foreign policy are not reinforces the importance of constitutional
the primary focus of the Winter Session, values in shaping India's legislative processes.
although some national issues may be The commemoration is not just ceremonial; it
discussed. underscores the relevance of maintaining
democratic principles and values enshrined in
Option D is incorrect.
the Constitution.
Presidential speeches are a ceremonial part
Option B is incorrect.
of parliamentary sessions but are not the
primary focus of the Winter Session. The commemoration does not mark the
completion of a specific legislative reform

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 CLAT

package. 60.54% is not the correct productivity figure

It focuses on honoring the enduring for the Lok Sabha during this session.
importance of the Constitution itself.
Option B is incorrect.
Option C is incorrect.
50.45% is not the correct figure for the
The commemoration is more than a session’s productivity.
ceremonial event; it has substantive
Option D is incorrect.
implications for India's legislative practices
and the broader democratic framework. 40.22% is not the correct productivity figure
for the Lok Sabha.
Option D is incorrect.
Q36. Text Solution:
The commemoration is not about celebrating
Option D is correct.
India’s Independence Day; it focuses on the
adoption of the Constitution as the The adoption of the Indian Constitution was

cornerstone of Indian democracy. the major constitutional event commemorated

during the Winter Session of 2024.
Q34. Text Solution:
The session coincided with the observance of
Option A is correct.
November 26, 2024, marking the adoption of
The Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, the Indian Constitution in 1949.
2024 was introduced in the Lok Sabha during
Option A is incorrect.
the Winter Session of 2024.
This bill sought amendments to the laws The completion of 75 years of independence
governing Union Territories to align them with was not the specific constitutional event
the changing administrative requirements and commemorated during this session, although
governance frameworks. it might be observed separately.

Option B is incorrect. Option B is incorrect.

The Digital India Bill, 2024 was not The signing of the Preamble of the
introduced during the Winter Session of 2024. Constitution did not occur during this session.
The Constitution had already been signed in
Option C is incorrect.
1949.
The National Education Bill, 2024 was not
Option C is incorrect.
introduced in this session.
The formation of the first Indian Parliament
Option D is incorrect.
was not commemorated during this session.
The Economic Reforms Bill, 2024 was not The focus was on the adoption of the
introduced in the Winter Session either. Constitution.

Q35. Text Solution: Q37. Text Solution:

Option C is correct. Option B is correct.

The overall productivity of the Lok Sabha The Liberalization reforms in 1991 led to a
during the Winter Session of 2024 was 54.5%, reduction in government controls on
reflecting the session's legislative output industries, relaxation of licensing
despite some disruptions. requirements, and the creation of a more
competitive market environment.
Option A is incorrect.

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 CLAT

However, the reforms did not lead to Option D is incorrect.

increased government interference in the
The LPG reforms focused on promoting
private sector, which goes against the idea of
private sector involvement and reducing the
liberalization.
emphasis on state-owned enterprises.
Option A is incorrect. It did not prioritize state-owned enterprises or
limit foreign trade.
The reduction in government controls on
industries was one of the central features of
Q39. Text Solution:
the Liberalization reforms, as it aimed to
Option D is correct.
reduce regulatory burdens and promote
private sector growth. The primary reason for the introduction of the
LPG reforms in 1991 was to address a severe
Option C is incorrect.
balance of payments crisis.
The relaxation of licensing requirements for The crisis forced India to reconsider its
businesses was a core aspect of the protectionist economic policies and adopt
Liberalization reforms. market-oriented reforms to stabilize the
This allowed businesses to expand without economy.
excessive government restrictions.
Option A is incorrect.
Option D is incorrect.
The LPG reforms did not aim to reduce the
The creation of a more competitive market size of the private sector but rather to
environment was a primary goal of the encourage its growth by reducing government
Liberalization reforms, which aimed to controls.
promote competition and efficiency in the
Option B is incorrect.
Indian economy.
The LPG reforms aimed to reduce, not
Q38. Text Solution:
increase, government control over business
Option C is correct.
activities by encouraging privatization and
The LPG reforms fostered a greater deregulation.
integration of India’s economy with the
Option C is incorrect.
global market.
This included reducing tariffs, opening sectors The reforms were not specifically aimed at
to foreign investments, and encouraging prioritizing rural economic development,
Indian businesses to expand internationally, though rural areas were indirectly affected by
which boosted India's global economic the overall economic growth driven by the
positioning. reforms.

Option A is incorrect. Q40. Text Solution:

The LPG reforms did not isolate India from the Option A is correct.
global market. In fact, they aimed to integrate A common criticism of the LPG reforms is that
India more into the global economy. they led to the improvement in urban sectors
Option B is incorrect. at the expense of rural and disadvantaged
groups.
The LPG reforms did not restrict foreign
The reforms have contributed to growth in
investment; rather, they encouraged foreign
urban areas, but the benefits have not been
investments by reducing barriers to entry.

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 CLAT

equally distributed, and rural areas have often Indira Gandhi was Prime Minister in the 1960s
been left behind. and 1970s, well before the LPG reforms were
introduced.
Option B is incorrect.
Q42. Text Solution:
The efficiency and profitability of state-
Option D is correct.
owned enterprises generally improved under
privatization, which was one of the goals of India borrowed from the International
the reforms. Monetary Fund (IMF) to manage its economic
crisis in 1991.
Option C is incorrect.
The IMF loan was instrumental in stabilizing
The LPG reforms did not completely eradicate India’s economy during the crisis and in
economic inequality in urban areas. While the facilitating the LPG reforms by providing
reforms led to growth, inequality, particularly foreign exchange support.
between rural and urban sectors, persists.
Option A is incorrect.
Option D is incorrect.
India did not borrow from the World Trade
The dominance of Indian companies did not Organization (WTO) during the 1991 crisis.
suffer significantly in most sectors as a result The WTO did not exist at that time; it was
of the LPG reforms. established later in 1995.
In fact, many Indian companies expanded and
Option B is incorrect.
became more competitive globally.
India did not borrow from the World Bank to
Q41. Text Solution:
directly manage the 1991 crisis, although it has
Option B is correct.
received loans from the World Bank for
P. V. Narasimha Rao was the Prime Minister development projects over the years.
of India when the LPG reforms were
Option C is incorrect.
introduced in 1991.
He is widely credited with initiating these India did not borrow from the Asian
reforms, which reshaped India’s economic Development Bank (ADB) for the economic
landscape. crisis in 1991, though the ADB has been
involved in India’s development initiatives.
Option A is incorrect.

Rajiv Gandhi was Prime Minister before Q43. Text Solution:

Narasimha Rao, but he did not introduce the Option B is correct.
LPG reforms. During Prime Minister Modi's visit to Kuwait in
He did initiate some reforms, but they were December 2024, a significant highlight was
not as extensive as those implemented in 1991. the signing of a Memorandum of
Option C is incorrect. Understanding (MoU) in the field of defense.
This MoU aims to strengthen bilateral defense
Atal Bihari Vajpayee was Prime Minister after
ties through joint military exercises, training
Narasimha Rao and continued economic
programs, and enhanced cooperation in
reforms, but he was not the Prime Minister
maritime safety and coastal defense.
during the introduction of the LPG reforms.
Option A is incorrect.
Option D is incorrect.
The India-GCC Free Trade Agreement was
not signed during this visit.

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 CLAT

While both nations expressed interest in early infrastructure.

conclusion of the India-GCC Free Trade Its main focus is on strengthening bilateral
Agreement, it was not a key highlight of this cooperation in sports activities and
particular visit. exchanges.

Option C is incorrect. Option D is incorrect.

The Joint Commission on Cooperation (JCC) The program does not focus on sports
was established between India and Kuwait diplomacy at the United Nations.
prior to this visit. Its objectives are centered on bilateral
The JCC serves as an institutional mechanism cooperation between India and Kuwait in the
to review and monitor the entire spectrum of field of sports.
bilateral relations between the two countries.
Q45. Text Solution:
Option D is incorrect. Option A is correct.

The appointment of a cultural ambassador During his visit to Kuwait in December 2024,
was not mentioned as a key highlight during Prime Minister Modi was conferred with the
Prime Minister Modi's visit. Order of Mubarak Al Kabeer, which is the
However, a Cultural Exchange Programme highest award of the State of Kuwait.
(CEP) for the years 2025-2029 was signed to This honor reflects the strong bilateral ties and
facilitate greater cultural exchanges in art, the significance of his visit.
music, dance, literature, and theater. Option B is incorrect.

Q44. Text Solution: The Order of India is not an award conferred

Option C is correct. by Kuwait.

The primary objective of the Executive Option C is incorrect.

Program on Cooperation in the Field of
The Kuwait Peace Medal was not mentioned
Sports for 2025-2028 is to strengthen
as an award received by Prime Minister Modi
cooperation in the area of sports between
during this visit.
India and Kuwait.
This includes mutual exchange and visits of Option D is incorrect.
sportsmen, organizing workshops, seminars, The Supreme Order of Merit is not an award
and conferences, and the exchange of sports conferred by Kuwait.
publications between both nations.
Q46. Text Solution:
Option A is incorrect.
Option B is correct.
The program does not focus on enhancing
India's relationship with Kuwait in the energy
military cooperation.
sector is primarily driven by Kuwait's role as
While defense cooperation is a separate area
India's sixth-largest crude oil supplier and
of collaboration, the sports program is
fourth-largest LPG supplier, accounting for
specifically aimed at fostering sports-related
3.5% of India's total energy requirements.
ties.
Option A is incorrect.
Option B is incorrect.
Kuwait is not a top supplier of rare earth
The program does not primarily aim to foster
minerals to India.
economic growth through sports

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 CLAT

The energy relationship is centered around Q48. Text Solution:

crude oil and LPG supplies. Option D is correct.

Option C is incorrect. India’s trade partnership with Kuwait falls

under the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)
While India has investments in Kuwait's energy
region.
sector, the primary driver of the relationship is
The GCC consists of six member states,
Kuwait's role as a supplier of crude oil and
including Kuwait, and India has been
LPG.
negotiating trade agreements with GCC
Option D is incorrect. countries to strengthen economic ties.
Cooperation on nuclear energy production Option A is incorrect.
was not highlighted as a key aspect of the
The European Union (EU) does not
India-Kuwait energy relationship.
encompass Kuwait. India’s partnership with
Q47. Text Solution: Kuwait falls outside the EU framework.
Option D is correct.
Option B is incorrect.
Climate change initiatives were not explicitly
mentioned as a key focus in the India-Kuwait Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)

Strategic Partnership. includes countries around the Pacific Ocean

While both countries have discussed but does not include Kuwait, as it is located in
the Arabian Gulf.
cooperation in several areas, climate change
initiatives were not specifically highlighted in Option C is incorrect.
the agreements or key focus areas during
South Asian Association for Regional
Prime Minister Modi's visit.
Cooperation (SAARC) is a regional
Option A is incorrect. organization that includes South Asian
countries, and Kuwait is not part of this group.
Joint military exercises were not explicitly
mentioned as a focus in the available
Q49. Text Solution:
summaries, but defense cooperation, such as a
Option B is correct.
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) in
defense, was indeed signed. The Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860 replaced
religious-based legal systems with a unified
Option B is incorrect.
system.
Cultural exchange was indeed a focus, as a Prior to the IPC, legal systems in India were
Cultural Exchange Programme (CEP) for the based on religious texts and traditions, such as
years 2025-2029 was signed to facilitate Hindu law, Muslim law, and local customs.
greater cultural exchanges between the two The IPC created a single, comprehensive legal
countries. code applicable to all of India, irrespective of
religious or community affiliations.
Option C is incorrect.
Option A is incorrect.
Sports cooperation was also a key focus, with
the signing of the India-Kuwait Executive The IPC did not integrate local customs with
Program on Cooperation in the Field of British law, but rather replaced traditional,
Sports for 2025-2028 to strengthen community-specific practices with a more
cooperation in this domain. centralized and uniform legal system.

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 CLAT

Option C is incorrect. The aim was to create a uniform, imperial legal

system that reflected British principles, often
The IPC did not strengthen community-based
disregarding traditional Indian values.
legal authority. Instead, it centralized legal
authority under the British colonial system, Q51. Text Solution:
moving away from decentralized, community- Option A is correct.
based systems. Under the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871,
Option D is incorrect. members of criminal tribes were required to
register with the police and were subject to
The IPC did not support the continuation of
restrictions on their mobility and residence.
caste-based laws. It aimed to create a
This law labeled entire communities as
universal legal framework that applied equally
"criminal" and subjected them to surveillance
to all citizens, irrespective of caste or
and control by the colonial authorities.
community.
Option B is incorrect.
Q50. Text Solution:
Option B is correct. The Criminal Tribes Act did not require
members of these communities to seek
The British colonial regime sought to
employment in government-approved
eradicate existing Indian legal traditions and
industries.
replace them with a colonial legal framework
that reflected Western ideals of governance Option C is incorrect.
and morality.
The Act did not require people to leave their
Laws like the IPC, the Hindu Widow
traditional occupations and move to urban
Remarriage Act, and the Indian Succession Act
centers. It focused on surveillance and
were part of the broader effort to establish a
restrictions, not relocation.
Western-style legal system and reform
traditional practices that the British viewed as Option D is incorrect.
backward or incompatible with their imperial The Criminal Tribes Act did not grant land to
values. these communities for settlement in
Option A is incorrect. agricultural areas. It was more about
controlling their movement and behavior.
The British did not aim to incorporate
indigenous legal systems into the colonial Q52. Text Solution:
framework but rather sought to impose their Option D is correct.
own legal system that superseded local
The Indian Succession Act of 1865, by aiming
customs and practices.
to standardize inheritance laws, created a
Option C is incorrect. conflict between religious and legal

The British colonial rule did not remain authorities over the proper jurisdiction in

indifferent to Indian legal traditions. It inheritance matters.

actively sought to replace or modify them to The Act applied a uniform set of laws, but this

align with the Western model. often conflicted with religious laws governing
inheritance in Hindu, Muslim, and other
Option D is incorrect.
communities, leading to debates about the
The British did not implement reforms solely legitimacy of religious laws versus secular
to align with Indian values. legal authority.

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 CLAT

Option A is incorrect. Liability is not automatic just because the

injury occurred on the park’s premises.
The Act did not completely replace religious-
based inheritance laws. C) The amusement park is never liable for any
It applied to all communities but did not fully injuries once a waiver is signed. - Incorrect
supplant religious customs regarding because The amusement park can still be held
inheritance. liable if it failed to maintain proper safety
standards.Waiver does not grant absolute
Option B is incorrect.
immunity.
While the Indian Succession Act did affect D) The participant can claim damages, as
inheritance rights, it did not specifically signing a waiver does not eliminate liability in
exclude women from inheritance rights. high-risk activities. - Incorrect because the
In fact, it sought to standardize inheritance waiver does eliminate liability under Indian tort
laws, which impacted both men and women, law, provided the participant gave informed
though other laws also played a role in consent.
shaping women’s rights.
Video Solution:
Option C is incorrect.

The Act did not accelerate the breakdown of

community identity in India.
It was more about standardizing laws related
to inheritance across communities, but it did
not lead to the collapse of community
identities. Q54. Text Solution:
The correct answer is D.
Q53. Text Solution:
The correct answer is B. The passage states that inevitable accident

The passage explains the defense of Volenti applies when an event could not have been
prevented despite reasonable care.
Non Fit Injuria (Consent), which states that a
The farmer can only claim this defense if he
person who voluntarily accepts a known risk
can prove that he took reasonable
cannot later claim damages.
precautions (e.g., ensuring the fire was
Since the participant signed a waiver,
controlled before the wind changed).If the
acknowledging the risks involved in bungee
jumping, they voluntarily assumed the risk. farmer checked the weather, controlled the

Under Indian tort law, this means the fire, and acted with due care, the defense

amusement park can use this defense to might apply.

escape liability. If no precautions were taken and fire was

started recklessly, the defense would not
Since the question and passage is silent on
apply.
negligence part therefore this is the most
accurate option. A) The farmer can claim necessity, as the act

A) The amusement park is automatically liable was essential for agricultural maintenance. -
Incorrect because necessity applies when an act
because the injury occurred on its premises. -
is done to prevent greater harm, but here, the
Incorrect because liability does not arise when
harm (fire spreading) was not a necessity.
the injured party knowingly accepts a risk.
B) The farmer can use the defense of Act of
God, as strong winds are unpredictable. -

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 CLAT

Incorrect because Act of God applies only to The correct answer is A.

natural forces beyond human control. Here, the
Self-defense is a legal defense that applies
fire was started by human action, so this
when a person uses reasonable force to
defense is not applicable.
prevent imminent harm to themselves or their
C) The farmer is automatically liable because
property.
fire is an inherently dangerous activity. -
In this case, the customer did not pose any
Incorrect because liability depends on whether
immediate threat to the shopkeeper or the
the farmer acted negligently. If proper
store. The shopkeeper detained the customer
precautions were taken, he may not be held
not out of self-defense, but due to mistaken
liable.
identity.
Video Solution: Since there was no physical attack or danger,
the shopkeeper cannot justify forcefully
confining the customer as an act of self-
defense.
Though the defence is applicable here but is
least likely to succeed.

B) Act of God - Incorrect because

Q55. Text Solution:
Act of God is a defense used when harm is
The correct answer is C.
caused by natural forces beyond human
Assertion (A) is true because the passage control, such as earthquakes, floods, storms,
states that inevitable accident applies when or lightning.
harm occurs despite reasonable precautions. The wrongful confinement of the customer
Reason (R) is false because the passage was a deliberate human act by the
clearly mentions that Indian tort law does shopkeeper, not a natural calamity.
not hold a person liable if they had no Since the shopkeeper's actions were
control over the event.If the act was intentional and not due to a natural disaster,
unintentional and unavoidable, the person "Act of God" does not apply here.
may not be held liable.
C) Necessity - Incorrect because
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
Necessity only applies when harm is done to
explanation of A. - Incorrect because R is false.
prevent greater harm For example, breaking
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
into a house to save a person from a fire could
correct explanation of A. - Incorrect because R
be justified under necessity.
is not true at all.
In this case, there was no immediate public
D) A is false, but R is true. - Incorrect because A
safety or emergency situation that justified
is true, not false.
wrongful confinement.
Video Solution: The shopkeeper mistakenly detaining
someone does not qualify as an act done out
of necessity, making this defense
inapplicable.

D) Inevitable accident - Incorrect because

Inevitable accident applies when an act

Q56. Text Solution: occurs despite taking all reasonable

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 CLAT

precautions and without negligence.

Examples include a driver hitting a pedestrian
due to a sudden brake failure or a natural
event like an earthquake causing damage.
Detaining someone is a deliberate act, not an
accident.
Since the shopkeeper made a wrong Q58. Text Solution:
assumption and acted on it, this defense The correct answer is A.
does not apply.
The passage explains that necessity allows an
Video Solution:
act if it prevents greater harm. Here, the
hospital can claim necessity because it was
rushing a patient in a life-threatening
situation.
However, the liability depends on whether the
driver took reasonable care while using the
pedestrian zone.
Q57. Text Solution: If the driver was reckless (e.g., driving too fast
The correct answer is C. in a crowded area), liability may still arise.

The passage states that necessity is only valid B) The hospital will definitely be held liable, as
when the harm prevented is greater than the traffic rules were violated. - Incorrect because
harm caused. necessity can justify breaking certain rules in an
If the harm caused is excessive or emergency.
unnecessary, the defense does not apply. C) The injured bystander cannot sue because
Courts examine whether the actions were ambulances have the right to break traffic
reasonable and justifiable in the situation. rules. - Incorrect because emergency vehicles
must still take reasonable precautions.
A) Necessity can justify any harm if it prevents
some damage. - Incorrect because harm must Ambulances do not have an absolute right to
be proportionate and reasonable to the danger break laws—they must act responsibly.
avoided.
D) The hospital is automatically protected
B) Necessity only applies when the harm
under the law, as saving lives takes priority
caused is minor. - Incorrect because the passage
over all other laws. - Incorrect because necessity
does not limit necessity to minor harm, but it
does not provide automatic immunity;
must be justified.
reasonableness is required.
D) Necessity does not apply to property
damage, only to human life. - Incorrect because Video Solution:
necessity applies to both property and life,
depending on the situation.

Video Solution:

Q59. Text Solution:

The correct answer is A.

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 CLAT

The essential ingredients of theft under

Section 378 IPC include dishonest intention
and removal of property from possession
without consent.
In this case, the customer removed the watch
from the shopkeeper’s possession without
permission, which qualifies as theft, Q60. Text Solution:
regardless of whether he later intended to The correct answer is B.
return it.
Under Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code
The intent to take the property dishonestly
(IPC), theft occurs when a person dishonestly
at the time of taking is sufficient to
constitute theft.
moves movable property out of another’s
possession without consent.
B) The customer is not guilty of theft because Movement of the property, even within the
he had no dishonest intention to keep the same location, is sufficient if done with
watch permanently. - Incorrect because dishonest intent.
permanent deprivation is not necessary; what Priya hid the bracelet under a pillow,
matters is the dishonest intent at the time of intending to steal it later, which fulfills the
taking the item. dishonest intention and movement
Even if the customer intended to return the requirements.
watch, taking it without the shopkeeper’s A) No, because Priya did not physically take
consent and removing it from the premises the bracelet out of the party. - Incorrect
fulfills the elements of theft. because Theft does not require the item to be
C) The customer cannot be prosecuted because removed from the premises; mere movement
the watch remained in his possession and was with dishonest intent is enough.
not resold. - Incorrect because theft does not C) No, because Priya intended to return the
require resale or transfer; the mere act of taking bracelet and did not actually take it away. -
the property dishonestly without consent is Incorrect because There is no evidence that she
sufficient. intended to return it; hiding the bracelet
D) The case does not qualify as theft since the suggests an intent to steal.
shopkeeper had temporarily left the store D) Yes, but only if Priya had taken the bracelet
unguarded. - Incorrect because the absence of out of the party completely. - Incorrect because
the shopkeeper does not change the fact that Theft is complete once the property is
the item was taken dishonestly without dishonestly moved, even within the same
consent. premises. Removing it from the party is not
required.
If an item is removed without consent, it is still
theft. Video Solution:

Video Solution:

Q61. Text Solution:

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 CLAT

The correct answer is A. because intent to return does not matter if the
act was dishonest at the time of taking.The act
A is true because Section 378 IPC defines
of unauthorized removal is sufficient.
theft as the dishonest taking of movable
C) The worker can only be guilty of theft if she
property out of the possession of another
sold the necklace for personal gain. - Incorrect
without their consent. Dishonest intention is a
because theft does not require selling or
key element.
personal gain, only dishonest taking.
R is also true because theft is considered
D) The case does not qualify as theft because
complete the moment the offender moves the
the necklace remained in the worker’s
property dishonestly, even if they do not take
temporary possession. - Incorrect because
it out of the premises. The act of moving
possession without consent is still theft under
signifies the intent to deprive the rightful
IPC.
possessor.
Since R correctly explains A, option A is the Theft does not depend on how long the item
right choice. was held, but whether it was taken dishonestly
without consent.
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the
correct explanation of A. - Incorrect because R Video Solution:
correctly explains A
C)A is true, but R is false.. - Incorrect because R
is true
D) A is false, but R is true. - Incorrect because A
is true, not false.

Video Solution:
Q63. Text Solution:
The correct answer is A.

The passage states that theft occurs when

property is taken from someone’s possession
without consent, even if the offender is the
rightful owner.
Q62. Text Solution: If a person takes back their own property
The correct answer is A. without permission from its possessor, it may
still qualify as theft.
The passage states that theft is the dishonest
Theft depends on possession, not ownership.
taking of movable property without consent.
Even though the worker intended to return B) Theft only applies when the stolen property
the necklace, she still took it without belongs to the person from whom it was taken.
permission, making her guilty of theft. - Incorrect because ownership is not the key
Temporary deprivation is still theft if done factor—possession is.Possession is more
dishonestly. important than ownership in theft cases.
The domestic worker moved the necklace C) If a stolen item is returned, the theft is
without permission, which is sufficient for nullified, and no punishment applies. - Incorrect
theft under Section 378 IPC. because returning the item does not erase the
theft, as the offense was already committed.
B) The worker is not guilty of theft because she
D) Possession and ownership are legally the
intended to return the necklace. - Incorrect
same when determining theft. - Incorrect

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 CLAT

because the passage differentiates between

possession and ownership.

Possession and ownership are different in

law. A person in lawful possession of an item
can still be a victim of theft.

Video Solution:
Q65. Text Solution:
The correct answer is A.

The passage states that the Right to Equality

(Articles 14-18) ensures that all individuals
are treated equally before the law and
prohibits discrimination based on religion,
caste, gender, or place of birth.
Q64. Text Solution:
Article 16 of the Indian Constitution
The correct answer is D.
guarantees equality of opportunity in public
The passage explains that theft involves employment and prohibits discrimination
dishonestly taking property without consent. based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of
Even though the employee later returned the birth.
gadget, he still took it for his personal use, A law restricting government jobs to people
which qualifies as theft. of a specific religion violates this principle.
The act of moving the property without The citizen can challenge the law in court, as
consent fulfills theft under Section 378 IPC, it violates the Right to Equality (Article 14-
even though the gadget was later returned. 18).
A) The employee is not guilty of theft because B) Right to Freedom - Incorrect because the
the gadget was eventually returned. - Incorrect passage mentions that this right covers speech,
because Theft is complete once an item is taken movement, assembly, and profession, but not
dishonestly; returning it later does not undo the equal access to government jobs.
crime.
The Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22) mainly
B) The employee can only be held guilty if he
deals with personal liberties, such as speech,
intended to resell the gadget for profit. -
movement, and protection from arbitrary
Incorrect because Theft does not require resale.
detention, not job discrimination.
Unauthorized use is enough.
C) The case does not amount to theft as no C) Right to Freedom of Religion - Incorrect
financial loss was suffered by the company. - because the issue here is discrimination in
Incorrect because Theft is about unlawful employment, not restrictions on religious
possession, not financial loss. Even if no loss practice.
occurred, theft still applies.
The Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles
Video Solution: 25-28) ensures religious freedom, but it does
not govern equal access to government jobs.

D) Right to Constitutional Remedies - Incorrect

because The Right to Constitutional Remedies
(Article 32) allows individuals to challenge the

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 CLAT

law, but the specific violated right is the Right The correct answer is B.
to Equality.
The passage states that Article 32 empowers
Video Solution: individuals to move the Supreme Court or
High Court if their Fundamental Rights are
violated. This makes the Right to
Constitutional Remedies essential in
protecting all other rights.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described Article 32
(Right to Constitutional Remedies) as the
Q66. Text Solution: “heart and soul” of the Constitution because
The correct answer is D. it allows citizens to enforce Fundamental
Rights.
The passage states that the Right to Freedom
The passage also emphasizes that
(Articles 19-22) grants personal liberties and
Fundamental Rights act as a shield against
protects individuals from arbitrary
arbitrary state actions, which would be
detention.
meaningless without an enforcement
Article 22 specifically protects a person
mechanism.
against illegal arrest and ensures they are
Without this right, Fundamental Rights would
informed of the reason and given access to
be merely symbolic, as there would be no
legal counsel.
legal way to challenge violations.Therefore, R
Denying Ravi these rights is a clear violation
correctly explains A.
of Article 22, which protects individuals from
arbitrary detention. A) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A. - Incorrect because R
A) The Right to Freedom of Religion protects
directly explains why the Right to
him from arbitrary arrest. - Incorrect because
Constitutional Remedies is the most important
this right only protects religious practices; it
right.
does not cover detention.
C) A is true, but R is false. - Incorrect because
B) The Right to Constitutional Remedies allows
the passage confirms that without Article 32,
him to file a petition directly in the Supreme
Fundamental Rights would be ineffective.
Court. - Incorrect because Article 32 allows him
D) A is false, but R is true. - Incorrect because A
to challenge the violation, but the actual right
is true, as the Right to Constitutional Remedies is
being violated is under Article 22.
indeed considered the "heart and soul" of the
C) The Right to Equality ensures that no one
Constitution.
can be arrested without reason. - Incorrect
because the passage states that this right deals Video Solution:

with discrimination, not wrongful arrest.

Video Solution:

Q68. Text Solution:

The correct answer is A.

Q67. Text Solution:

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 CLAT

The passage does not mention the Right to passage clearly states that they can be
Property as a Fundamental Right. This is restricted under specific conditions.
because it was originally a Fundamental
Fundamental Rights can be taken away under
Right under Article 31 but was removed by
reasonable restrictions (e.g., Emergency
the 44th Constitutional Amendment in 1978.
provisions).
It is now a legal right under Article 300A,
meaning it is no longer a Fundamental Right. B) The government has unlimited power to
All other options are Fundamental Rights restrict Fundamental Rights. - Incorrect because
under Part III of the Constitution. the passage states that restrictions must be
reasonable and justifiable., meaning the
B) Right to Equality - Incorrect because the
government cannot impose arbitrary
passage clearly lists Right to Equality (Articles
limitations.
14-18) as a Fundamental Right.
D) Fundamental Rights are meaningless if they
C) Right Against Exploitation - Incorrect
are not absolute. - Incorrect because the
because the passage confirms that this is a
passage highlights that even with restrictions,
Fundamental Right under Articles 23-24.
these rights remain essential in ensuring justice
D) Right to Freedom of Religion - Incorrect
and fairness.
because Articles 25-28 guarantee religious
freedom as a Fundamental Right. Just because they are not absolute does not
mean they are meaningless—they are
Video Solution:
enforceable under Article 32.

Video Solution:

Q69. Text Solution:

The correct answer is C.
Q70. Text Solution:
The passage states that Fundamental Rights
The correct answer is B.
are not absolute and can be restricted on
reasonable grounds such as public order, The passage clearly differentiates between
morality, and national security. culpable homicide and murder based on the
This means that while citizens have rights, the degree of intention and knowledge.
state has the authority to impose reasonable Murder involves an act where the accused
restrictions when necessary for public knows with certainty that death will occur. In
welfare. this case, the driver deliberately drove at
For example, freedom of speech (Article 19) high speed towards the pedestrian, meaning
can be restricted to prevent hate speech or he had knowledge that death was a likely
maintain public order. outcome.
Article 21 (Right to Life) allows the death Even if his primary intention was to "scare" the
penalty in the rarest of rare cases. victim, his act was still highly dangerous and
resulted in death, making it murder.
A) Fundamental Rights cannot be taken away
under any circumstance. - Incorrect because the A) Culpable homicide, as the driver did not
intend to kill the pedestrian. - Incorrect because

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 CLAT

murder does not always require a direct intent Since death was not a certain outcome but a
to kill, but it does require knowledge that the act possible one, it falls under culpable homicide
will certainly cause death. (Section 299 IPC) rather than murder.

Culpable homicide applies when death is A) Murder, because the act resulted in death. -
probable but not certain. Here, driving at high Incorrect because not every death is classified
speed towards a pedestrian shows certainty as murder. The passage states that murder
of death. involves clear and deliberate intention or
knowledge that death is certain.
C) The act is not a crime, as the driver had no
personal grudge against the pedestrian. - Here, the push was violent but not intended
Incorrect because criminal liability does not to cause death.
depend on personal grudges; it depends on the
B) Not a criminal offense, as it was just an
act and its consequences.
accident. - Incorrect because the shopkeeper’s
The absence of personal enmity does not push was intentional, even if the resulting death
make the act legal. was not. The passage confirms that knowledge
of probable consequences is enough for
D) Culpable homicide, as death was not an
criminal liability.
absolute certainty in this case. - Incorrect
D) Justifiable homicide, as it happened in the
because knowledge of a likely fatal outcome is
heat of the moment. - Incorrect because the
enough to classify the offense as murder. The
passage does not mention "heat of the
passage states that murder is a more
moment" as a justification for killing. The
aggravated form of culpable homicide based on
shopkeeper may not have intended to kill, but
intent and knowledge.
reckless behavior leading to death still falls
The act shows a high degree of recklessness, under culpable homicide.
making it murder rather than culpable
Justifiable homicide applies to self-defense or
homicide.
lawful acts, which is not the case here.
Video Solution:
Video Solution:

Q71. Text Solution:

Q72. Text Solution:
The correct answer is C.
The correct answer is D.
The passage states that culpable homicide
Assertion (A) is true because the passage
occurs when a person engages in an act that
states that murder is an aggravated form of
is likely to cause death but does not
culpable homicide, meaning it is considered
necessarily intend to kill.
more serious under criminal law.
The shopkeeper's push was not intended to
Reason (R) is false because the passage
cause death.
states that murder does not only require
However, he knew that pushing someone
direct intention to kill; it can also be
violently could likely cause serious harm.

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 CLAT

committed when a person acts with Pushing someone in a scuffle lacks a direct
knowledge that death is certain to occur. intent to kill, making it culpable homicide.

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct D) A person fires a gun into a crowd, hoping to
explanation of A. - Incorrect because R is false, scare people, but unintentionally kills someone.
as murder does not always require direct intent. - Incorrect because the intention was not to kill
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the but to scare, meaning it is closer to culpable
correct explanation of A. - Incorrect because R homicide unless the court finds strong evidence
is not true at all. of knowledge that death was certain.
C) A is false, but R is true. - Incorrect because A
Firing a gun to scare people (without
is clearly true, as murder is classified as more
intending to kill) is reckless, but not a
serious than culpable homicide in the passage.
definite intent to kill, making it culpable
Video Solution: homicide.

Video Solution:

Q73. Text Solution:

The correct answer is B.
Q74. Text Solution:
The passage states that murder is committed
The correct answer is A.
when the offender acts with a definite
intention to cause death or with knowledge The passage emphasizes that the mental

that death is certain to occur. state of the accused (intention and

Poisoning with the knowledge that it will knowledge) is the key factor in determining
certainly cause death falls under murder whether a case is culpable homicide or
(Section 300 IPC) because it shows direct murder.
intention and certainty of death. Courts analyze whether the accused acted
with certainty of causing death or with only
A) A person stabs another in the leg during a a probability of causing it.
fight, and the victim dies from excessive
bleeding. - Incorrect because the intention was B) A killing will always be considered murder if
not necessarily to kill, and death may have been it leads to death. - Incorrect because the
an unexpected consequence, making it more passage states that not all killings amount to

likely culpable homicide. murder; some are culpable homicide based on

intention and knowledge.
Stabbing in the leg may not show an
C) Every unlawful killing is treated as murder
intention to kill, making it culpable homicide
under criminal law. - Incorrect because the
if death occurs from excessive bleeding.
passage states that culpable homicide is a
C) A person pushes someone in a scuffle, broader category, and not all unlawful killings
causing them to fall and hit their head fatally. - reach the level of murder, some may be
Incorrect because the act may not have been manslaughter or negligence-based deaths.
committed with certainty of death, making it D) If a person had no pre-planned intention to
culpable homicide. kill, they cannot be convicted of murder. -

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 CLAT

Incorrect because the passage states that

murder can occur even without pre-planning, as
long as the accused had knowledge that death
was certain to occur.

Certain reckless acts can also be murder if

they show a certainty of death.
Q76. Text Solution:
Video Solution:
The correct answer is C.

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, if one party

suffers from a mental disorder of such a kind
or to such an extent as to be unfit for
marriage, the marriage is voidable.
Since Rahul’s condition impairs understanding,

Q75. Text Solution: Anjali can seek annulment.

The correct answer is A. A (Yes, because Rahul's mental disorder

invalidates his capacity to consent): Incorrect.
Sneha was underage at the time of the
Not automatically. It depends on whether the
marriage. As per the Hindu Marriage Act, the
legal age is 18 for women. disorder truly impaired his understanding at the

Even though their family custom permits such time of marriage.

marriage, the statutory minimum age is a legal B (No, because Anjali should have known about
the disorder before marriage): Incorrect. Prior
requirement. Since Sneha was a minor, the
knowledge or lack thereof is irrelevant to the
marriage is voidable at her option upon
legal capacity of the parties to marry.
attaining majority.
D (No, because Rahul's condition was
B (No, because their family custom permits intermittent and not continuous): Incorrect. The
marriages at 16): Incorrect. Custom does not law does not require the condition to be
override the minimum age requirement under continuous; impairment at the time of marriage is
statutory law, especially post the Child Marriage enough.
Restraint Acts.
Video Solution:
C (Yes, because Ramesh is over 21 and the
marriage cannot be valid without both parties
meeting the legal age requirement): Incorrect.
While the age of Ramesh meets the legal
requirement, the focus is on the minor party. His
age alone does not invalidate or void the
marriage.
D (No, because Sneha consented to the Q77. Text Solution:
marriage at the time): Incorrect. Consent of a The correct answer is B.
minor is not legally valid consent. She was below The Hindu Marriage Act strictly prohibits bigamy.
the required age, so she retains the right to Deepak’s marriage to Meena is still subsisting,
annul. making his second marriage to Shweta void ab
initio, regardless of Shweta’s knowledge.
Video Solution:
A (Shweta's marriage to Deepak is valid
because she was unaware of his first marriage):

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 CLAT

Incorrect. Knowledge or ignorance of the spouse

does not affect the void status of the marriage.
C (Shweta's marriage to Deepak is voidable at
her option): Incorrect. It is not voidable but void.
Voidable means the marriage is valid until
annulled, whereas void means legally non-
existent from the beginning. Q79. Text Solution:
D (Shweta's marriage to Deepak can be The correct answer is C.
annulled if she can prove fraud): Incorrect.
Under the Act, concealment of material facts
Proof of fraud is not required for annulment in
affecting the consent of the party constitutes
case of bigamy. The law automatically treats it as
fraud. Prior divorces, especially if concealed,
void.
directly impact the decision to marry. Hence,
Video Solution:
concealment affects Anita’s consent.
Anita’s consent was affected by Suresh’s
concealment, so she can seek annulment.

A (Yes, because concealment of prior marriages

amounts to fraud): Incorrect. Prior marriages
themselves, if legally dissolved, do not amount to
fraud automatically. The critical aspect is the
Q78. Text Solution:
impact on consent.A feels like a blanket
The correct answer is B.
statement, but legally it is incomplete because
Though Hindu Marriage Act generally not every concealment of past marriage amounts
prohibits marriages within prohibited degrees to fraud — only if it affects consent. C is legally
of relationship, customs permitting such stronger and fits the reasoning.
marriages are exceptions. B (No, because the prior marriages were legally
Since Raj and Simran’s custom allows cousin dissolved): Incorrect. Even if dissolved,
marriages, the marriage is valid. concealment of such significant facts can vitiate

A (Yes, because the Hindu Marriage Act consent.

prohibits marriages between first cousins): D (No, because past marital status is not

Incorrect. Prohibition applies unless custom considered fraud under the Act): Incorrect. Past
marital status is considered material if concealed
permits, which it does here.
and affects the willingness to marry.
C (Yes, because societal norms and legal
provisions take precedence over custom): Video Solution:
Incorrect. Statutory provisions themselves
acknowledge valid customs (Section 5).
D (No, because Raj consented to the marriage
knowing their relationship): Incorrect (but
tempting). Consent matters, but more
importantly, the law permits it if custom allows,
regardless of consent alone. Q80. Text Solution:
Video Solution: Correct Answer: (B) Res ipsa loquitur, because
such incidents ordinarily indicate negligence
Explanation:

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 CLAT

The passage explains that Res ipsa loquitur (D) is incorrect as the doctrine applies to torts,
applies when an accident occurs that not just contracts.
normally would not happen without
Video Solution:
negligence and the cause was within the
defendant’s exclusive control.
A chandelier falling in a hotel lobby fits this
description—it’s a type of incident that
“speaks for itself” in implying carelessness,
and the hotel had exclusive control over its
maintenance.
Q82. Text Solution:
Why other options are incorrect: Correct Answer: (C) The court will apply Res
(A) is incorrect because Volenti non fit injuria ipsa loquitur since surgical errors don’t happen
involves voluntary assumption of risk, which without negligence
doesn’t apply here. Explanation:
(C) is incorrect because novus actus interveniens
The passage mentions that Res ipsa loquitur is
refers to an external, intervening cause—no such
commonly used in medical negligence cases,
event is mentioned.
especially where surgical items are left inside
(D) is incorrect because chandeliers are not
a patient, which doesn’t occur unless
classified as “inherently dangerous” like
someone was negligent.
explosives under strict liability.
A sponge left inside a patient is a classic case
Video Solution: where Res ipsa loquitur applies.
The instrument was under the surgeon’s
control, and such an error typically doesn’t
occur with due care.

Why other options are incorrect:

(A) is incorrect because Res ipsa reduces the
plaintiff’s burden of direct proof.
Q81. Text Solution:
(B) is incorrect because not all complications are
Correct Answer: (B) Because it merely serves as
excused if they stem from negligent conduct.
circumstantial evidence to infer negligence
(D) is incorrect as the court doesn’t assume
Explanation:
compliance; negligence is presumed in such
The passage clarifies that Res ipsa loquitur is cases.
not a separate ground for liability; it merely
Video Solution:
allows the court to infer negligence from the
nature of the incident when direct evidence is
absent.
It shifts the burden to the defendant but does
not independently create liability.

Why other options are incorrect:

(A) is incorrect because this is a tort doctrine, not Q83. Text Solution:
a criminal defence. Correct Answer: (C) When the precise cause of
(C) is incorrect because Res ipsa does not require the accident remains unclear and multiple
intent—it operates in no-fault scenarios. parties may be responsible

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 CLAT

Explanation:

The passage states that Res ipsa loquitur

works only when the object causing harm
was under the exclusive control of the
defendant.
If multiple people could have caused the
harm, the presumption fails, and Res ipsa Q85. Text Solution:
doesn’t apply. Correct Answer: B — It was accessible to
people of all social backgrounds
Why other options are incorrect:
Reference Line:
(A) is incorrect because exclusive control
“Unlike many spiritual leaders of his time,
supports, not defeats, Res ipsa.
Mahavira advocated for equality, attracting a
(B) is incorrect as unusualness alone doesn’t
large number of women and lower-caste
negate applicability.
individuals to his fold.”
(D) is incorrect because obvious negligence
Concept: This question tests your understanding
supports direct liability, not the use of Res ipsa.
of an implicit assumption—a belief that must be
Video Solution: true for the conclusion to make sense. If
Mahavira attracted marginalized communities,
the assumption is that his teachings were
available and inclusive across social lines.
Contextual Link: Ancient Indian society was
highly hierarchical. The fact that Mahavira
rejected caste distinctions and included women
Q84. Text Solution: and lower castes indicates he intended his path
Correct Answer: (A) The burden of proof shifts to be open to all, not just elites or ascetics.
to the defendant to rebut the presumption of Eliminations:
negligence Option A is eliminated because the passage
Explanation: directly states that Mahavira rejected the rigid
rituals of the Vedic religion, meaning his
As per the passage, once Res ipsa loquitur
philosophy was shaped in opposition to them—
applies, it reverses the usual burden of
not influenced by them.
proof, requiring the defendant to prove they
Option C is eliminated because the passage
were not negligent, because the incident
emphasizes that both laypeople and monastics
strongly implies fault.
follow his five vows, which shows that his
This is a key procedural impact of the doctrine.
philosophy wasn’t exclusive to monks or ascetics.
Why other options are incorrect: Option D is eliminated because Mahavira’s core
(B) is incorrect because the court does not award principle of non-possession (aparigraha)
damages automatically. contradicts the idea of promoting wealth
(C) is incorrect because the plaintiff does not accumulation. Jainism discourages material
need direct evidence once the presumption attachment as a barrier to liberation.
arises.
Video Solution:
(D) is incorrect because the court considers such
cases legally significant, not speculative.

Video Solution:

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 CLAT

Reference Line:
“His teachings continue to inspire millions of
Jains worldwide... His legacy lives on in Jain
temples, scriptures like the Agamas, and through
annual celebrations such as Mahavir Jayanti…”
Concept: This is a conclusion question, requiring
Q86. Text Solution: you to identify what logically follows from the
Correct Answer: C — Different viewpoints can information given.
reveal different facets of truth Contextual Link: The passage consistently

Reference Line: describes how Mahavira’s teachings endure in

“Truth and reality are perceived differently from modern Jain practice, making this the most

diverse points of view, and no single perspective accurate overall takeaway.

holds absolute truth.” Eliminations:

Concept: This question examines your ability to Option A is eliminated because nothing in the
infer an idea based on the definition of passage suggests that Mahavira’s teachings
anekantavada, which promotes a pluralistic, were politically motivated. His reforms focused
non-absolutist view of truth. on spiritual liberation and ethics, not politics.
Contextual Link: Jain philosophy advocates Option B is eliminated because the passage

tolerance and flexibility in understanding explicitly says Mahavira rejected the caste

complex truths, and anekantavada is a system and emphasized equality, so he clearly

cornerstone of this approach. did not support social inequality.

Eliminations: Option D is eliminated because his strongest

Option A is eliminated because Mahavira did emphasis was on ahimsa (non-violence), so the
not say that all religious views are equally true. idea that he promoted violence for justice
He emphasized that no single view is complete, directly contradicts his teachings.
but that doesn’t imply all are equally valid. Video Solution:
Option B is eliminated because it contradicts the
very principle of anekantavada. If Mahavira
believed only his view was true, he wouldn’t have
promoted multiple perspectives.
Option D is eliminated because the passage
clearly states that truth is accessible—but from
different angles, so the claim that truth is always
Q88. Text Solution:
unknowable does not follow.
Correct Answer: A — He encouraged lower
Video Solution: castes to serve higher castes
Reference Line (to contradict):
“Mahavira advocated for equality, attracting a
large number of women and lower-caste
individuals…”
Concept: This is a weaken-the-argument
question. To weaken the claim that Mahavira

Q87. Text Solution: promoted equality, you need evidence that

Correct Answer: C — Mahavira's legacy still contradicts egalitarian principles in his actions
influences spiritual practices today or teachings.

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 CLAT

Contextual Link: If Mahavira encouraged Option B is eliminated because fasting and

hierarchical social roles, such as the subservience silence are forms of self-discipline, but they
of lower castes, that would undermine his don’t directly reflect non-violence.
supposed commitment to equality. Option D is eliminated because avoiding debate
Eliminations: may reflect humility or strategy, but it's not
Option B is eliminated because this actually directly connected to non-violence toward
supports the claim, showing Mahavira’s living beings.
inclusivity toward marginalized groups. Video Solution:
Option C is eliminated because the method of
preserving his teachings (by elites) doesn’t
reflect the content of his philosophy. His ideas
may still promote equality even if elite scribes
recorded them.
Option D is eliminated because allowing kings
to attend sermons does not inherently conflict
Q90. Text Solution:
with egalitarianism—it shows openness, not
Correct Answer: B — Personal discipline affects
preference.
one’s spiritual progress
Video Solution: Reference Line:
“He believed in self-effort and personal discipline
as the path to liberation.”
Concept: This is an assumption question. It tests
your ability to identify what must be true for the
statement to make sense. If self-effort leads to
liberation, then personal behavior must impact
Q89. Text Solution: spiritual outcomes.
Correct Answer: C — He wore a mask to avoid Contextual Link: Jainism’s emphasis on karma
harming even tiny insects and ethical conduct presumes that individual
Reference Line: responsibility is essential for salvation.
“These five vows are still central... Of these, Eliminations:
ahimsa is considered the most important.” Option A is eliminated because Mahavira
Concept: This is a strengthen-the-argument explicitly rejected collective rituals, suggesting
question. The more extreme or consistent they are not necessary for liberation.
Mahavira’s actions were regarding ahimsa, the Option C is eliminated because nothing in the
more this claim is strengthened. passage suggests that wealth is a prerequisite
Contextual Link: Wearing a mask to avoid —in fact, non-possession is a key vow.
inhaling microscopic life shows how seriously Option D is eliminated because Mahavira did not
Mahavira took the principle of non-violence, rely on divine intervention. Jain philosophy
even at a minute, invisible level. teaches that liberation is earned through effort,
Eliminations: not granted by a god.
Option A is eliminated because avoiding hunting
Video Solution:
is a basic moral act, but it doesn’t demonstrate
the extremity of Mahavira’s commitment to
ahimsa like wearing a mask does.

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 CLAT

“In many regions, especially Gujarat and

Maharashtra, it is marked by traditional dances
like Garba and Dandiya Raas.”
“In eastern India, particularly in West Bengal... the
last four days coincide with Durga Puja...
celebrated with food, music, and cultural

Q91. Text Solution: performances.”

Correct Answer: C — It helps in physical Concept: This is an inference question, which
cleansing and spiritual growth requires you to deduce an unstated idea that
Reference Line: logically follows from the given information.
“The act of fasting and meditation is believed to Contextual Link: The passage highlights regional

cleanse the body and mind, preparing individuals variations—from dance in the West to pandal

for spiritual growth.” worship in the East—suggesting that cultural

Concept: This is an assumption question, which and regional identity shapes the celebration.

asks you to identify what the passage takes for Eliminations:

granted as true for its argument to hold. A is eliminated because the passage explicitly
Contextual Link: Fasting in Navratri is not merely points out that rituals differ from place to
a ritual—it is presented as a means of inner place, so uniformity is not claimed.
purification, both physically and spiritually. It B is eliminated because the passage balances
helps devotees reflect, control desires, and move both religious and cultural elements, including

toward self-discipline. dance, food, and community gatherings.

Eliminations: D is eliminated because it clearly states Navratri

A is eliminated because the passage does not is an ancient festival—not something introduced

portray fasting as a mechanical or tradition- recently.

bound action, but as something meaningful tied Video Solution:

to spiritual growth.
B is eliminated because nowhere does the
passage suggest that fasting is used for
showing religious superiority—the tone is
introspective, not competitive.
D is eliminated because the passage focuses on
personal devotion and discipline, not fasting for Q93. Text Solution:
social image or community approval. Correct Answer: B — Navratri promotes
Video Solution: personal and spiritual development
Reference Lines:
“Navratri also emphasizes self-discipline and
spiritual awakening.”
“It encourages devotees to reflect on their lives,
practice self-control, and connect with the
divine.”

Q92. Text Solution: Concept: This is a conclusion question, and you

Correct Answer: C — Cultural diversity need to choose the most accurate and complete

influences the way Navratri is celebrated summary of a key takeaway from the passage.

Reference Lines:

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 CLAT

Contextual Link: The passage portrays Navratri D is eliminated because regional variation
not just as festive, but as a transformative doesn’t mean division—in fact, it can showcase
journey that involves self-improvement and cultural richness within unity.
inner growth.
Video Solution:
Eliminations:
A is eliminated because the passage devotes
multiple paragraphs to cultural celebration,
such as Garba, Dandiya, and Durga Puja.
C is eliminated because the tone is reverent and
appreciative, presenting the rituals as relevant
and meaningful.
Q95. Text Solution:
D is eliminated because dance and
Correct Answer: C — Devotees report
entertainment are highlighted, but not as the
increased mental clarity and peace during the
sole focus—they are cultural expressions within
festival
a spiritual framework.
Reference Line:
Video Solution: “The act of fasting and meditation is believed to
cleanse the body and mind, preparing individuals
for spiritual growth.”
Concept: This is a strengthening question, and
the goal is to support the idea that Navratri is not
just a cultural or ritualistic festival, but one with
deep spiritual impact.
Q94. Text Solution: Contextual Link: Anecdotal or psychological
Correct Answer: B — People avoid community evidence of clarity, peace, and inner awakening
gatherings due to regional conflicts would reinforce the spiritual outcomes claimed
Reference Line to Contradict: by the passage.
“People dress in colorful attire and gather in Eliminations:
community grounds to dance and celebrate, A is eliminated because scientific data on
creating an atmosphere of joy and togetherness.” cholesterol is about physical health, not
Concept: This is a weaken-the-argument spirituality.
question. You must find a statement that B is eliminated because cross-religious
undermines the idea that Navratri brings people attendance might promote inclusivity, but
together. doesn’t directly prove spiritual transformation.
Contextual Link: If people stop participating in D is eliminated because buying new clothes is a
gatherings due to conflict, it directly challenges festive behavior, not a spiritual act.
the idea that Navratri universally fosters unity.
Video Solution:
Eliminations:
A is eliminated because celebration across both
rural and urban areas supports, not weakens,
the unity argument.
C is eliminated because the combination of
fasting and feasting reflects diversity of
expression, not disunity.
Q96. Text Solution:

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 CLAT

Correct Answer: C — People relate symbolic A is eliminated because the café’s success with
tales to personal moral battles regional food implies that urban customers do
Reference Line: enjoy it, not the opposite.
“Navratri... is a reminder of the power of B is eliminated because the passage doesn’t
righteousness and inner strength.” claim local ingredients taste better
Concept: This is an assumption question. You're automatically, only that they are used to support
asked to identify what belief must be true for the farmers.
symbolic story (Durga vs. Mahishasura) to have D is eliminated because there’s no evidence in
meaning for people today. the passage that farmers prefer cafes to
Contextual Link: The festival’s relevance comes markets—this is irrelevant to the assumption.
from its symbolic value—the idea that each Video Solution:
person can relate to the triumph of good in
their own life, not just in myth.
Eliminations:
A is eliminated because the form of evil (as a
demon) is metaphorical, not the assumption that
justifies modern relevance.
B is eliminated because the story is treated as
Q98. Text Solution:
mythology, not literal history.
Correct Answer: B — It becomes a creative
D is eliminated because having a ‘villain’ isn’t a
platform for local talent
requirement for a festival to be meaningful—
Reference Line:
the deeper value lies in what people interpret
“Open mic nights, Kannada book readings,
from it.
unplugged music gigs, and art exhibitions draw
Video Solution: creative minds… and offer budding artists a
platform…”
Concept: This is an inference question. You need
to pick a conclusion that logically follows from
the given description, even if it’s not stated
directly.
Contextual Reasoning: The events are designed
Q97. Text Solution: to showcase creativity and give space to new
Correct Answer: C — Supporting local suppliers voices, so it’s fair to infer that it functions as a
positively impacts the community creative platform.
Reference Line: Eliminations:
“The ingredients are locally sourced, supporting A is eliminated because there’s no mention of
regional farmers and small-scale suppliers.” co-working spaces during weekends—the focus
Concept: This is an assumption question, where is on art and performances.
we look for an unstated belief that must be true C is eliminated because nothing in the passage
for the action (sourcing locally) to be meaningful. says entry is restricted to artists or performers
Contextual Reasoning: If the café actively only—it’s a public gathering space.
supports local farmers, it assumes that this act D is eliminated because food is a central theme
has real, beneficial effects—like community at the café, and there’s no indication that food
upliftment, sustainability, or economic support. service is paused during events.
Eliminations:
Video Solution:

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 CLAT

“These events not only offer entertainment but

also give budding artists a platform…”
Concept: This is a weaken-the-claim question. A
claim about community art support would be
weakened if the events that promote this don’t
actually happen or fail.

Q99. Text Solution: Contextual Reasoning: If events don’t attract

Correct Answer: B — It’s a space blending participants or audiences, the café’s commitment

tradition, creativity, and community to the arts becomes questionable.

Reference Lines: Eliminations:

“A comforting throwback to simpler times…” A is eliminated because local college students
“It brings together people from diverse walks of are part of the local art community, so their
life…” participation supports—not weakens—the café’s
“...a mini cultural hub… a meeting ground for image.

startups…” C is eliminated because booking in advance is a

Concept: This is a main idea/conclusion question. logistical step, not a barrier to support for artists.

The best answer will summarize the café’s D is eliminated because language doesn’t

essence as conveyed in the passage. undermine art support—in fact, bilingual events

Contextual Reasoning: The café is not just a may expand reach.

coffee spot—it’s deeply tied to nostalgia, Video Solution:
community, creativity, and inclusivity, which this
option captures.
Eliminations:
A is eliminated because profit-making is not
emphasized anywhere, and the tone is clearly
cultural and communal.
C is eliminated because while tech workers are Q101. Text Solution:
among the customers, they are not the only
Correct Answer: B — Several successful
focus—artists, students, and elders are
startups began brainstorming there
mentioned too.
Reference Line:
D is eliminated because the café prides itself on
“Some even joke that a few Bengaluru-based
being unlike franchise models—it’s not aiming
startups had their first brainstorming sessions
to be a chain.
over filter coffee at this very café.”
Video Solution: Concept: This is a strengthen-the-claim
question. Real-life examples of startups
benefiting from the café’s environment would
provide strong evidence.
Contextual Reasoning: Having actual success
stories tied to the café directly validates its
image as a breeding ground for innovation.
Q100. Text Solution: Eliminations:
Correct Answer: B — Art events are often A is eliminated because decor items (posters)
cancelled due to low turnout don’t prove active involvement in startup

Reference Line to Contradict: culture.

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 CLAT

C is eliminated because merchandise doesn’t

imply support or incubation—it’s branding.
D is eliminated because advertising on blogs is
external marketing, not evidence of startup
collaboration within the café.

Video Solution:
Q103. Text Solution:
Correct Answer: B — Sharing memories creates
emotional connection
Reference Line:
“These clips were a mix of humorous anecdotes,
motivational words, and personal stories that
reflected the deep bond shared among
Q102. Text Solution:
classmates and mentors.”
Correct Answer: C — A shared space can foster
Concept:
meaningful interaction
This is an assumption question. It tests what
Reference Line:
belief underlies the creation of the "Memory
“It brings together people from diverse walks of
life—freelancers… poets… students… elderly Lane" video montage.

patrons…” Contextual Link:

Concept: This is an assumption question. It seeks The montage is meant to bring out heartfelt
responses and strengthen bonds before parting.
what belief must be true for this claim to be
For that to work, there’s an underlying belief
valid.
that sharing memories deepens emotional ties.
Contextual Reasoning: The belief that a physical
Eliminations:
space can unite people of different ages,
A is eliminated because the passage never
professions, and interests depends on the
assumption that shared spaces can lead to mentions awards or suggests students expect

shared experiences. them at farewells.

Eliminations: C is eliminated because the montage includes

A is eliminated because the passage isn’t about

both humorous and emotional stories—humor
alone isn’t the goal.
coffee alone, but the environment created
D is eliminated because there’s no reference to
around it.
seniors disliking speeches—the head girl and
B is eliminated because there’s no suggestion
principal both gave speeches that were
that the café is loud, nor is it relevant to the idea
appreciated.
of diversity.
D is eliminated because many types of people, Video Solution:
not just artists, are mentioned—this contradicts
the café’s diverse image.

Video Solution:

Q104. Text Solution:

Correct Answer: C — He viewed farewells as
the start of new journeys

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 CLAT

Reference Line: Contextual Link:

“He reminded the students that although From decorations to speeches to lanterns, every
farewells mark the end of a chapter, they also moment is charged with emotion and sentiment
signal the beginning of new journeys.” —clearly showing the role of emotional bonding.
Concept: Eliminations:
This is an inference question. You must draw a A is eliminated because the entire passage
logical conclusion from what is stated. celebrates the farewell, showing it was
Contextual Link: meaningful, not wasteful.
The principal encourages students to look C is eliminated because it reduces the entire
forward with hope. This supports the idea that event to superficial elements, ignoring the
he sees farewells not just as endings, but as emotional depth.
beginnings. D is eliminated because teachers actively
Eliminations: participated, shared jokes, and appeared in the
A is eliminated because the principal didn’t refer video montage.
to school years as "difficult"—his tone was Video Solution:
nostalgic and hopeful.
B is eliminated because he did not advise
forgetting the past—in fact, he said to “cherish
memories.”
D is eliminated because his speech prompted
reflection and emotion, not discouragement of
feelings.
Q106. Text Solution:
Video Solution: Correct Answer: A — The lanterns failed to fly
due to rain
Reference Line:
“...the lighting of sky lanterns... each lantern
symbolizing a wish for the future.”
Concept:
This is a weaken-the-impact question. You're
Q105. Text Solution: looking for an incident that would diminish the
Correct Answer: B — Emotional bonding plays symbolic or emotional power of the farewell.
a key role in school farewells Contextual Link:
Reference Lines: If the lanterns, which symbolized hope and
“Laughter echoed through the hall, but so did dreams, failed due to weather, it would definitely
the quiet realization that school life was coming reduce the emotional climax of the event.
to an end…” Eliminations:
“A musical tribute that left many teary-eyed...” B is eliminated because snacks were part of the
“Exchanging handmade cards filled with gathering, not something that weakens
messages...” sentiment.
Concept: C is eliminated because handmade decorations
This is a conclusion question. The correct option enhance the personal and emotional touch of
should be a central idea the whole passage the event.
builds toward. D is eliminated because teachers sharing jokes
adds warmth—it doesn’t weaken the emotional

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 CLAT

tone. “...exchanging handmade cards filled with

messages and signatures.”
Video Solution:
Concept:
This is an assumption question. You’re identifying
the belief that justifies the action of giving
handmade cards.
Contextual Link:
The effort to create something handmade shows
that writing personal messages is viewed as a
Q107. Text Solution:
more meaningful way to express gratitude and
Correct Answer: B — Students posted their
emotion.
memories on social media afterward
Eliminations:
Reference Line (Implied):
A is eliminated because artistic skill is not the
While not stated, the continuation of sharing
focus—effort and sentiment are.
after the event indicates how deeply it affected
C is eliminated because no one in the passage
the students.
buys gifts—cards are homemade.
Concept:
D is eliminated because cards were exchanged
This is a strengthen-the-claim question. You
widely—not limited to high-achievers.
need to support the idea that the farewell left a
lasting impression. Video Solution:
Contextual Link:
If students continue to share and reflect on the
event, it shows it was memorable and
emotionally impactful.
Eliminations:
A is eliminated because ending on time is
logistical, not emotional or memorable. Q109. Text Solution:
C is eliminated because new uniforms are General Solution:
unrelated to the farewell experience. Distribute 900 trains across 5 zones according to
D is eliminated because a parent’s complaint given ratio:
would slightly dampen the tone—not Northern: Southern : Eastern : Western : Central =
strengthen it. 5:6:4:3:2
Sum of parts = 5 + 6 + 4 + 3 + 2 = 20
Video Solution:
Each part = 900 ÷ 20 = 45
Trains per zone:
Northern = 5 × 45 = 225
Southern = 6 × 45 = 270
Eastern = 4 × 45 = 180
Western = 3 × 45 = 135
Central = 2 × 45 = 90
Q108. Text Solution:
Break down train types in each zone
Correct Answer: B — Personalized messages
Northern (225 trains):
help express feelings better
Express trains = 75
Reference Line:
Let Mail = m → Superfast = 2m
So, m + 2m + 75 = 225

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 CLAT

3m = 150 → m = 50 Mail = 60 × 800 = 48000

⇒ Superfast = 100, Mail = 50, Express = 75 Total = 179000
Southern (270 trains): Western:
Express = 40% of 270 = 108 Superfast = 45 × 1200 = 54000
Remaining = 270 – 108 = 162 Express = 45 × 1000 = 45000
Mail = 1/6 of 162 = 27 Mail = 45 × 800 = 36000
Superfast = 162 – 27 = 135 Total = 135000
⇒ Superfast = 135, Express = 108, Mail = 27 Central:
Eastern (180 trains): Superfast = 54 × 1200 = 64800
Mail = 1/3 of 180 = 60 Express = 18 × 1000 = 18000
Remaining = 120 Mail = 18 × 800 = 14400
Let Superfast = x → Express = x + 10 Total = 97200
So, x + (x + 10) = 120 Final Train Distribution:
2x = 110 → x = 55
⇒ Superfast = 55, Express = 65, Mail = 60
Western (135 trains):
Express = 45
Let Superfast = Mail = x
So, x + x + 45 = 135
2x = 90 → x = 45
⇒ Superfast = 45, Mail = 45, Express = 45
Central (90 trains):
Superfast = 60% of 90 = 54
Now, Total Mail = 50 + 27 + 60 + 45 + 18 = 200
Remaining = 36
Eastern Mail = 60
Express = Mail = 36 ÷ 2 = 18
Required percentage = (60/200) × 100 = 30%
⇒ Superfast = 54, Express = 18, Mail = 18
Hence option B is correct answer.
Total passengers by train type
Train capacities: Video Solution:
Superfast = 1200 passengers
Express = 1000 passengers
Mail = 800 passengers
Northern:
Superfast = 100 × 1200 = 120000
Express = 75 × 1000 = 75000
Mail = 50 × 800 = 40000 Q110. Text Solution:
Total = 235000 Southern + Western Superfast = 135 + 45 = 180
Southern: Northern + Western Express = 75 + 45 = 120
Superfast = 135 × 1200 = 162000 Ratio = 180: 120 = 3:2
Express = 108 × 1000 = 108000 Hence option A is correct answer.
Mail = 27 × 800 = 21600
Video Solution:
Total = 291600
Eastern:
Superfast = 55 × 1200 = 66000
Express = 65 × 1000 = 65000

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 CLAT

Q111. Text Solution: Q114. Text Solution:

Eastern Superfast = 55, Northern Mail = 50 Total 19 trains extra
Difference = 55 – 50 = 5 Each carries 1000 passengers
Percentage more = 5/50 × 100 = 10% Extra passengers = 19 × 1000 = 19000
Hence option B is correct answer. Hence option C is correct answer.

Video Solution: Video Solution:

Q112. Text Solution: Q115. Text Solution:

Superfast in Northern = 100 General Solution:
Superfast in Southern = 135 Total Students and Class-Wise Distribution
Total = 235 Total students = 360
Revenue per Superfast = ₹1200 × ₹500 = Ratio of students in A : B : C = 5 : 4 : 3
₹6,00,000 Total parts = 5 + 4 + 3 = 12
Total Revenue = 235 × ₹6,00,000 = ₹14.1 crore Each part = 360 ÷ 12 = 30
Hence option C is correct answer. So:
Class A = 5 × 30 = 150
Video Solution:
Class B = 4 × 30 = 120
Class C = 3 × 30 = 90
Distribution within Class A
Total in A = 150
40% participated in Singing = 40% of 150 = 60
Remaining = 150 - 60 = 90, divided equally
between Dancing and Painting
Q113. Text Solution:
Dancing = Painting = 90 ÷ 2 = 45 each
Original Northern:
Distribution within Class B
Superfast = 100 × 1200 = 120000
Total in B = 120
Express = 75 × 1000 = 75000
Let number of Painting participants = x
Mail = 50 → Only 80% operated = 40 × 800 =
Then:
32000
Dancing = x + 25% of x = 1.25x
Total = 120000 + 75000 + 32000 = 227000
Singing = x - 10
Hence option B is correct answer.
Now, total = x + 1.25x + (x - 10) = 3.25x - 10
Video Solution: So: 3.25x - 10 = 120
→ 3.25x = 130

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 CLAT

→ x = 130 ÷ 3.25 = 40 Q117. Text Solution:

Then: Class B Dancing = 50
Painting = 40 Class A Painting = 45
Dancing = 1.25 × 40 = 50 Difference = 5
Singing = 40 - 10 = 30 % less = (5 / 50) × 100 = 10%
Distribution within Class C Hence option A is correct answer.
Total in C = 90
Video Solution:
Dancing = 30% of 90 = 27
Painting = 40% of 90 = 36
Singing = 90 - 27 - 36 = 27
Final Summary Table:

Q118. Text Solution:

Points = (Singing × 2) + (Dancing × 3) + (Painting ×
4)
Class A: 60×2 + 45×3 + 45×4 = 120 + 135 + 180 =
435
Class B: 30×2 + 50×3 + 40×4 = 60 + 150 + 160 =
Now, Total Singing participants = 117 370
Singing from Class A = 60 Class C: 27×2 + 27×3 + 36×4 = 54 + 81 + 144 = 279
(60 / 117) × 100 ≈ 51.3% Class A scored the highest total points
Hence option B is correct answer. Hence option A is correct answer.

Video Solution: Video Solution:

Q116. Text Solution: Q119. Text Solution:

Class C Singing = 27, Painting = 36 → Combined = Class A Painting = 45 → 20% absent
63 Attended = 80% of 45 = 36
Total in Class C = 90 Class C Painting = 36 → 25% absent
Ratio = 63 : 90 = 7 : 10 Attended = 75% of 36 = 27
Hence option D is correct answer. Total = 36 + 27 = 63
Hence option A is correct answer.
Video Solution:
Video Solution:

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Required percentage = (81 / 121) × 100 ≈ 66.9%

Hence option B is correct answer.

Video Solution:

Q120. Text Solution:

Painting A = 45, C = 36 → Total = 81
Total Painting = 121

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