Question BankMH-I

1 When drilling stainless steel, use a.

a) drill ground to 120 °, slow cutting speed. b) drill ground to 90 °, fast cutting speed.

c) drill ground to 90 °, slow cutting speed.

ANS 1

2 How is a material galvanised?.

a) Sprayed with nickel solution b) Packed in a drum containing zinc dust and
heated
c) Dipped in a bath of molten zinc.
ANS 3

3 What temperature would steel be tempered at?.

a) At the annealing temperature b) Above the annealing temperature.

c) Below the annealing temperature.

ANS 3

4 Tempering steel gives.

a) greater brittleness. b) greater hardness.

c) relief of internal stress after hardening

ANS 3

5 If a material is found to be in the tertiary phase of creep the following procedure should be implemented:.

a) The component should under go dye penetrant b) The crack should be stop drill, condition
process and condition monitored. monitoring should be applied.
c) The component should be replaced immediately.
ANS 3

6 What is used for marking out steels?.

a) Engineers blue. b) Wax crayon

c) Copper sulphate
ANS 3

7 Tempering entails.

a) heating under the UCP and slow cooling. b) heating over the UCP and fast cooling.

c) heating over the UCP and slow cooling.

ANS 1
 8 Austenitic stainless steels are.

a) magnetic. b) non-magnetic.

c) hardened by heat
ANS 2

9 The formation of steel depends upon.

a) the formation of pearlite into austenite. b) the formation of austenite into pearlite.

c) the presence of pearlite in the structure.

ANS 2

10 How is residual magnetism removed after an NDT examination?.

a) EMI. b) EMC.

c) Degaussing.
ANS 3

11 The hardness of steel depends upon.

a) formation of pearlite into austenite. b) formation of cementite.

c) the iron austenite grain structure.

ANS 2

12 The difference between annealing and normalizing is.

a) both are heated above the UCT, cool slowly to b) both are heated below the UCT, cool in air to
anneal, cool in air to normalize. anneal, cool slowly to normalize.
c) both are heated above the UCT, cool in air to anneal,
cool slowly to normalize. ANS 1

13 Normalizing of steel is done to.

a) remove residual stress of the manufacturing process b) make steel softer.

c) restore the fatigue life of steel

ANS 1

14 When normalising, the material is.

a) quenched immediately. b) left to cool in room temperature.

c) cooled slowly.
ANS 2

15 After a product has been manufactured and all heat treatment has been carried out the stress remaining if any is
termed as.

a) residual stress b) working stress.

c) applied stress.
ANS 1
16 Annealing steels.

a) toughens the metal. b) makes the metal malleable

c) makes the metal brittle.

ANS 2

17 Tempering of hardened steel is carried out to.

a) retain surface hardness, but soften the core b) retain core hardness, but soften the surface

c) significantly reduce the brittleness without suffering

a major drop in its strength. ANS 3

18 When a low carbon steel bolt is stretched beyond its elastic limit without breaking, it will.

a) deform temporarily. b) become more ductile.

c) deform permanently.
ANS 3

19 Austenitic steel is produced when the material is heated to.

a) above the Upper Critical Point b) above the Lower Critical Point.

c) below the Upper Critical Point.

ANS 1

20 Steel is produced by refining pig iron where air/oxygen is blown through the molten material to remove.

a) carbon. b) oxides.

c) sulphur.
ANS 1

21 During a Rockwell Hardness test, what dimension is measured?.

a) The diameter of the indent. b) The depth of the indent.

c) The diameter and depth of the indent.

ANS 2

22 What does the 0 in 2024-T3 mean?.

a) The percentage of impurities in the alloy. b) The alloy has not been modified

c) The alloy has been modified

ANS 2

23 Which of the folllowing are all hardness testing machines?.

a) Rockwell, Brinell and Izod. b) Rockwell, Vickers and Izod.

c) Rockwell, Brinell and Vickers.

ANS 3
24 The most suitable mixture for a salt bath operation is

a) 20% nitrate of soda and 80% sodium nitrate. b) 90% nitrate of soda and 10% sodium nitrate

c) 70% sodium chlorate and 30% sodium nitrate.

ANS 2

25 How many times can clad alloy be heat treated?.

a) Once only. b) 3 times.

c) as many times as required

ANS 2

26 The symbol 'W' on a material indicates.

a) it is for use on aircraft mainplanes only b) it has been solution treated and will respond
effectively to precipitation treatment.
c) it is for workshop use only
ANS 2

27 Aluminium exposed to air will.

a) oxidise and become weaker b) oxidise and become electrically insulated.

c) oxidise and become stronger

ANS 2

28 What care should you take with 2024-T3?

a) Do not scratch or make nicks in it. b) Do not bend at sharp angles

c) Do not remove the surface of the sheet metal.

ANS 1

29 Composition of silver solder is.

a) tin and lead. b) tin, lead and silver.

c) tin, lead, silver and antimony

ANS 3

30 If aluminium alloy is not quenched within the minimum time allowed after heat treatment is it will be.

a) subject to corrosion b) malleable

c) brittle
ANS 3

31 The British system of heat treatment codes is.

a) a series of letters. b) numbers and letters.

c) a series of numbers.
ANS 2
32 In a sheet metal store the following is marked on a sheet of aluminium alloy: L162 (sheet 1).On a different sheet the
following marking is found: L172 (sheet 2). The following is true

a) Sheet one has a shinier surface than sheet 2. b) Sheet one is more ductile than sheet 2.

c) Sheet two is of a thicker gauge than sheet 1.

ANS 2

33 Sheet metal should be stored.

a) above 25 degrees centigrade. b) on its edge in racks to prevent scratching

c) stacked flat to prevent bending of sheets.

ANS 2

34 The main metal in monel is.

a) aluminium. b) nickel.

c) stainless steel.
ANS 2

35 A tube complying to BS T51 is.

a) tungum. b) HTS tube.

c) high pressure seamless copper tube.

ANS 3

36 Why is nickel chromium used in many exhaust systems?.

a) Corrosion resistant and high heat conductivity. b) Lightweight and flexible

c) Corrosion resistant and low expansion coefficient

ANS 3

37 The process of forming a pure layer of aluminium over an aluminium alloy is.

a) metalizing. b) cladding

c) electroplating
ANS 2

38 Titanium can be identified by placing it on a grinding wheel and looking for.

a) Red Sparks. b) Yellow Sparks.

c) White Sparks.
ANS 3

39 Re-treatment of aluminium alloys can be performed by

a) alocrom treatment b) brushing on phosphate treatment followed by

paint.
c) selenious acid treatment. Correct Answer is
ANS 1
40 What is generally true for titanium alloy?

a) It is stronger than the aluminium. b) It is stronger than the steel

c) It has lower density than magnesium.

ANS 1

41 What is fatigue?

a) Cyclic stressing of a part. b) Failure of a component due to corrosion.

c) Constant stressing of a part

ANS 1

42 Why is stop drilling carried out at the end of a crack?.

a) To change the direction of the crack. b) To stop the crack from propagating

c) To increase the stress concentration at the crack

end. ANS 2

43 Which of the following is susceptible to the ingress of moisture?.

a) Glass fibre. b) Carbon fibre.

c) Kevlar.
ANS 3

44 When using a hot bonder to effect a composite repair, you use.

a) inorganic resin adhesives. b) organic resin adhesives.

c) synthetic resin adhesives.

ANS 3

45 The impact testing technique is used on a material to test for.

a) hardness. b) toughness.

c) shear strain.
ANS 2

46 An S-N curve is useful in the design evaluation process for testing.

a) fatigue life. b) shear force.

c) tension.
ANS 1

47 What is a fusible material?.

a) The ability of two dissimilar metals to melt together. b) The ability of a metal to melt

c) The ability of a metal to be welded

ANS 2
48 Brittleness is.

a) the property to resist wear. b) the property to not deform before cracking

c) the property to resist deformation.

ANS 2

49 Over extended honeycomb can bend in which direction?.

a) In all directions. b) Across the ribbon

c) Along the ribbon

ANS 3

50 Fibre weave strength is greatest in the direction of the.

a) weft. b) warp

c) bias.
ANS 2

51 What is Alumina?.

a) An alloy of aluminium. b) Aluminium ore.

c) A ceramic oxide of aluminium

ANS 3

52 Which of these core materials will be used in the making of a composite material flat panel?.

a) Hexagonal core. b) Rectangular core.

c) Flexible core.
ANS 1

53 Which of the following could best be manufactured from Perspex panel?.

a) A passenger window b) A radome.

c) A cockpit windscreen
ANS 1

54 The maximum tensile strength of fibre reinforced plastic is achieved using.

a) fibres uniformly distributed at 45 degrees to each b) unidirectional fibres

other.
c) chopped strand mat.
ANS 2

55 The classification of high tensile strength fibreglass used in aircraft structures is.

a) G-glass. b) E-glass.
 c) S-glass
ANS 3

56 Which of the following statements is true about thermosetting plastics?.

a) They are also known as Teflon b) Once moulded into shape they become set
and cannot subsequently be softened by
c) They become plastic when heat is applied
ANS 2

57 Which of the following is susceptible to the ingress of moisture?.

a) Glass fibre b) Carbon fibre

c) Kevlar.
ANS 3

58 When using a hot bonder to effect a composite repair, you use.

a) inorganic resin adhesives b) organic resin adhesives.

c) synthetic resin adhesives

ANS 3

59 In a composite repair lay-up, how much should each layer extend beyond the layer below it?.

a) 3 - 4 inches. b) 1 - 2 inches.

c) 2 - 3 inches
ANS 2

60 What is the effect of heat on a cold cure resin?.

a) No effect on pot life b) Decrease pot life

c) Increase pot life.

ANS 2

61 If you increase the amount of catalyst in a resin mixture,.

a) the material will become stronger b) the material will become weaker.

c) the pot life will be decreased

ANS 3

62 What two components of a three part polyester resin are dangerous to mix together directly

a) Accelerator and free catalyst b) Catalyst and resin.

c) Accelerator and resin.

ANS 1

63 A thermoplastic fibre reinforced composite is prepared by.

a) a solvent wipe b) corona method

 c) etching
ANS 2

64 During vacuum bag lay-up the vacuum gauge is placed where?.

a) Next to the vacuum port. b) Opposite side to the vacuum port.

c) Over the repair.

ANS 2

65 Stepped curing has.

a) 2 or more arrest points b) no arrest point

c) 1 arrest point
ANS 1

66 In an autoclave what pressure would the vacuum alarm be set at?.

a) Operating pressure. b) Higher than operating pressure

c) Lower than operating pressure

ANS 3

67 In an autoclave what would you cover the repair in?.

a) High temp nylon b) Polypropelene

c) Polythene
ANS 1

68 Thermosetting adhesive, during their curing cycle give off.

a) static radiation. b) heat.

c) carbon monoxide
ANS 2

69 When drilling a carbon fibre reinforced plastic use.

a) a steel drill and carbarundum powder. b) a tungsten drill with a pointed tip.

c) a tungsten carbide drill.

ANS 3

70 Use of excessive hardener in polyester resin leads to.

a) a less stiff joint b) reduced pot life.

c) stiffer joint.
ANS 2

71 When the temperature increases on a hot bond repair is paused it is known as.

a) arrest point. b) ramping down.

 c) ramping up
ANS 1

72 Slight waviness on a fibre composite structure.

a) may cause fatigue crack eventually. b) may be tolerable if lightly loaded

c) could be reinforce with additional plies over the

weakened area. ANS 2

73 The maximum length of time a component is held in stores is known as the.

a) package life. b) storage life

c) shelf life.
ANS 3

74 Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite structures.

a) must be made of materials such as titanium or b) must be made of high strength aluminium
corrosion resistant steel. alloy.
c) may be made of any of the metals commonly used in
aircraft fasteners. ANS 1

75 Which methods can be used to inspect fibreglass/honeycomb structures for entrapped water?.

a) Acoustic emission and X-ray. b) X-ray and back-lighting.

c) Acoustic emission and back-lighting

ANS 2

76 When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that.

a) it is about 1/8 inch undersize to allow sufficient b) the grain is parallel to the skin
bonding material to be applied.
c) the grain is perpendicular to the skin.
ANS 3

77 The length and time that a catalyzed resin will remain in a workable state is called the.

a) shelf life. b) service life

c) pot life.
ANS 3

78 What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during curing called?.

a) Breather. b) Bleeder

c) Release.
ANS 2

79 When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually acceptable for machining composite laminates?.
 a) Water soluble oil. b) Water only.

c) Water displacing oil.

ANS 2

80 For fungus to cause wood decay in a wood structure, the moisture content in the wood must be at least.

a) 20%. b) 85%.

c) 5%.
ANS 1

81 The normal moisture content in the wood of a wooden aircraft structure is.

a) 10-12%. b) 20-30%.

c) 0-2%.
ANS 1

82 How is the moisture content within the wood of a wood aircraft structure determined?.

a) By inserting the probe of a moisture meter b) By measuring the size of the water stains at
joints
c) By weighing the wood structure before and after
drying it ANS 1

83 Except where specified by the manufacturer, a wooden spar may be spliced.

a) at no point. b) at any point except under the wing

attachment fittings
c) at any point
ANS 2

84 An aircraft wooden structure must be surface finished and sealed.

a) on both the outer and inner surfaces b) on the inner surfaces only

c) on the outer surfaces only.

ANS 1

85 Pine wood has a strength, compared to that of spruce.

a) less than. b) exceeding.

c) the same as.

ANS 1

86 The standard wood type for aircraft wood structures is.

a) spruce. b) douglas fir

c) pine.
ANS 1

87 A 'shake' in a piece of wood is a crack.

a) across annual rings b) induced by artificial stress

c) between two annual rings.

ANS 3
88 Compression wood

a) is a hard-wood. b) should be rejected

c) is preferred because of its superior strength

qualities. ANS 2

89 Fabric seams are preferable.

a) parallel to the line of flight. b) spanwise to the line of flight

c) oblique to the line of flight

ANS 1

90 What type of shoes should be worn by the technician applying a dope finish to a fabric covered aircraft?.

a) Rubber soled b) Leather soled

c) Plastic uppers.
ANS 2

91 Doped fabric.

a) is not to be treated after application. b) is treated with varnish

c) is treated with wax compound.

ANS 3

92 Dope should be applied to an aircraft's fabric coating in a relative humidity not exceeding

a) 50%. b) 85%.

c) 65%.
ANS 3

93 Coats of clear dope are applied to an aircraft's fabric.

a) before coats of aluminium pigmented dope are b) before or after coats of aluminium pigmented
applied. dope are applied, it does not matter
c) after coats of aluminium pigmented dope are applied
ANS 2

94 What is the reason for using aluminium-pigmented dope on a fabric covered aircraft?.

a) To provide an aluminium colour to the aircraft b) To block UV radiation

c) To provide strength.
ANS 2

95 Blushing' of a doped fabric surface is an indication of.

a) moisture enterring into the wood/fabric structure b) moisture condensing on the surface during
during service drying of the dope
c) oil contamination of the doped fabric
 ANS 2

96 The determining factor in the selection of the correct weight of textile fabric to be used in covering any type of aircraft
is the.

a) maximum wing loading. b) speed of the aircraft

c) speed of the aircraft and the maximum wing loading

ANS 3

97 How many fabric thicknesses will be found in a French-fell seam?.

a) Five. b) Four

c) Three.
ANS 2

98 Finishing tape (surface tape) is used for what purpose?.

a) To prevent 'ripple formation' in covering fabric. b) To provide additional wear resistance over
the edges of fabric forming structures
c) To provide additional anti-tear resistance under
reinforcement tape. ANS 2

99 Moisture, mildew, chemicals and acids have no effect on.

a) glass fabric. b) linen fabric.

c) Dacron fabric.
ANS 3

100 The strength classification of fabric used in aircraft covering is based upon.

a) bearing strength b) shear strength.

c) tensile strength.
ANS 3

101 Electrochemical reaction is caused by the contact of.

a) bonding. b) moisture on the surface of the metal

c) dissimilar metals
ANS 2

102 Chemical attack is a direct result of.

a) intergranular corrosion b) cathodic & anodic changes in the material.

c) filiform corrosion
ANS 2

103 Galvanic corrosion is caused by.

 a) incorrect heat treatments or incorrect alloying b) cyclic stressing and a decrease in cross
sectional area
c) the joining of 2 dissimilar metals.
ANS 3

104 In the galvanic series, the most noble metal will, if joined to another metal.

a) always be at the top of the table. b) corrode before the less noble metal.

c) allow the less noble metal to corrode first.

ANS 3

105 Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed to.

a) cold climates b) high temperatures

c) dry climates
ANS 2

106 What are the signs of fretting corrosion?.

a) Black powder or cocoa staining. b) Intergranular cracking

c) Flaking
ANS 1

107 Black streaks back from a rivet hole signify

a) galvanic corrosion. b) intergrannular corrosion.

c) fretting
ANS 3

108 When a steel part is welded, corrosion occurs because.

a) it is affected by spatter b) the strip has become anodic.

c) paint has been removed

ANS 2

109 Intergranular corrosion

a) can be recognized by a grey powder deposit b) may have no visual surface indication

c) can be recognized by its flaking and lifting of the

material layers ANS 2

110 Magnesium alloy components are protected by.

a) an electro process b) a chemical process

c) a painted process.
ANS 2

111 Corrosion products should be removed from magnesium alloys by the use of.
 a) a solution of 10% by weight of chromic acid in b) a solution of 10% by volume of chromic acid in
distilled water with 0.1% by volume of sulphuric acid. distilled water with 1% phosphoric acid.
c) Both a and b
ANS 3

112 If it is necessary to remove corrosion from a steel component in-situ, the base of a suitable solution for this purpose
is.

a) chromic acid. b) phosphoric acid

c) nitric acid
ANS 2

113 A type of protection which is applicable to magnesium alloys is the.

a) phosphate process b) chromating process

c) coslettising process.
ANS 2

114 Spilled mercury on aluminium

a) causes rapid and severe corrosion in prolonged b) may cause impaired corrosion resistance if
contact left in prolonged contact.
c) Both a and b
ANS 3

115 Intercrystalline corrosion.

a) is detectable by x-rays. b) Is the same as exfoliation corrosion.

c) always appears as small surface cracks

ANS 1

116 The usual manufacturers anti-corrosion process to be applied to Fe aircraft parts is.

a) cadmium plating. b) anodising

c) metal spraying.
ANS 1

117 Lead acid battery fluid has been found to be leaking on the surface of the aircraft structure. What substance would
you use to neutralise the acid?.

a) Sulphur and Lime b) Hot distilled water

c) Sodium bicarbonate of soda

ANS 3

118 What colour is the corrosion found on the surface of aluminium alloys?.

a) White/Grey b) Green/Blue.

c) Black.
ANS 1
119 Corrosion on copper is identified by

a) red/brown rust. b) black powder

c) green discolouration.
ANS 3

120 A composite flap panel has corrosion. What NDT method will you use to detect?.

a) Low voltage x-ray. b) Coin tap test.

c) High voltage x-ray

ANS 1

121 When examining a piece of metal through a magnifying glass, hair line cracks would indicate

a) crevice corrosion b) intergrannular corrosion

c) surface corrosion
ANS 2

122 Which of the following are acceptable to use in cleaning anodized surfaces?.

a) Steel wool, aluminium wool, fibre bristle brush b) Aluminium wool, fibre bristle brush

c) Brass wire brush, stainless steel wire brush

ANS 2

123 A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is.

a) improper heat treatment. b) improper application of primer.

c) dissimilar metal contact

ANS 1

124 Which of these materials is the most anodic?.

a) Magnesium. b) Cadmium

c) 7075-T6 aluminium alloy.

ANS 1

125 Which of these materials is the most cathodic?.

a) 2024 aluminium alloy b) Zinc

c) Stainless steel
ANS 3

126 Galvanic corrosion is most likely to be most rapid and severe when.

a) the surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than b) the surface area of the cathodic metal and
the surface area of the cathodic material the anodic material are approximately the
c) both a and b
ANS 3
127 UNF means.

a) unified fine. b) union national fine.

c) united nations fine.

ANS 1

128 The speed nut of an Instrument Mounting nut is made from.

a) brass. b) steel.

c) phosphor bronze.
ANS 1

129 Wire locking

approach angles should not be less than.

a) 45 °. b) 90 °.

c) 10 °.
ANS 1