13-07-2025

WT2_SRG_Leader MD

PHYSICS

1) In a certain system, the units of length, mass and time are chosen to be 1 cm, 100 g and 10 s. The
unit of kinetic energy will be

(1) 0.1 erg

(2) 1 erg
(3) 10 erg
(4) None of these

2) A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for some time, after which it decelerates at a
constant rate β and comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, the maximum velocity acquired by
the car will be :-

(1)

Y
IF
(2)
H
C

(3)
EA

(4)
PR
@

3) The period T of a soap bubble under SHM is given by T = PaDbSc, where P is pressure, D is density
and S is surface tension. Then the value of a, b and c are (pressure = force/area, surface tension =
force/length) :-

(1)

(2) –1, –2, 3

(3)

(4)

4) In a particular system, the units of length, mass and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10g and 0.1 s
respectively. The value of 10N force in this system will be equivalent to :-

(1) 0.1 unit

(2) 1 unit
(3) 10 unit
(4) 100 unit
5) The main scale of a vernier callipers reads in millimeter and its vernier is divided into 10 divisions
which coincides with 9 divisions of the main scale. The reading for shown situation is found to be

(x/10) mm. Find the value of x.

(1) 65
(2) 69
(3) 80
(4) 75

6) Pathlength is always

(1) positive
(2) negative
(3) zero
(4) negative or positive

7) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In a vernier callipers, one vernier

Y
scale division is always smaller than one main IF
scale division.
H
Statement II : The vernier constant is given by
C

one main scale division multiplied by the

EA

number of vernier scale division.

In the light of the above statements, choose the
PR

correct answer from the options given below.

@

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

8) If K = find dimensional formula of K :-

(1) [LT–3]
(2) [L4T–4]
(3) [LT–4]
(4) [LT]

9) The order of magnitude of the number 1013 is:-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) The resultant of and is R1. On reversing , the resultant becomes R2. What is value of

(1) P2 + Q2
(2) P2 – Q2
(3) 2(P2 + Q2)
(4) 2(P2 – Q2)

11)

Select the incorrect statement :

(1) In unit conversion dimensional formula on both sides is same.

(2) A dimensionless quantity may have a unit.

(3)
Y
can be derived by dimensional method.
IF
H
Value of dimensionless constant can not be found while deriving a relation by dimensional
(4)
method.
C
EA

12) A dimensionless quantity –

PR

(1) never has a unit

(2) always has a unit
@

(3) may have a unit

(4) does not exist

13) Which of the following combination of three dimensionally different physical quantities P,Q,R
can never be a meaningful quantity ?

(1) PQ – R

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) For the pitch of a screw 0.1 cm and 200 divisions on circular scale. The least count will be :-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.005 mm
(4) 0.0005 mm

15)

If area (A), velocity (v), and density (ρ) are base units, then the dimensional formula of force can be
represented as

(1) Avρ
(2) Av2ρ
(3) Avρ2
(4) A2vρ

16) In a book, the answer for a particular question is expressed as b = here m

represents mass, a represents acceleration, ℓ represents length. The unit of b should be

(1) m/s
(2) m/s2

Y
(3) meter
(4) /sec
IF
H
17) If the energy (E),velocity (u) and force (F) be taken as the fundamental quantity, then the
C

dimensions of mass will be :

EA

(1) Fu–2
PR

(2) Fu–1
@

(3) Eu–2
(4) Eu2

18) Which of the following conversion is true :-

(1) 1 Kgm2s–2 = 105 gcm2 s–2

(2) 3 × 108 m/s = 3,00,000 km/h

(3)
6.67 × 10–11 = 6.67 × 10–8

(4)
18 = 5 m/s2

19) What is the dimensions of a and b in the relation F = , where F is a force, x is distance
and t is time:

(1) ML1/2 T–2, MLT–4

(2) ML1/2T–1, MLT–4
(3) ML1/2T–2, ML2T–4
(4) Both are dimensionless
20) Given that the displacement of an oscillating particle is given by y = Asin(Bx + Ct + D). The
dimensional formula for ABCD is :-

0 0
(1) [M L–1T ]
0 0
(2) [M L T–1]
0
(3) [M L–1T–1]
0 0 0
(4) [M L T ]

21)

Velocity gradient in a liquid flow is related with the viscosity coefficient η, viscous force F and

the surface area A of adjacent layers : . The dimensions of η are :

(1) [MLT–1]
(2) [ML–1T–1]
(3) [MLT–2]
(4) [ML–1T–2]

Y
IF
22) If E, M, L and G denotes energy, mass, angular momentum and universal gravitational constant,
H
respectively, then EL2/M5G2 represents the unit of :-
C

(1) Length
EA

(2) Mass
PR

(3) Time
(4) Angle
@

23)

If the energy, E = Gphqcr, where G is the universal gravitational constant, h is the planck's constant c
is the velocity of light, then the values of p, q and r are respectively.

(1) -1/2, 1/2 and 5/2

(2) 1/2, -1/2 and -5/2
(3) -1/2, 1/2 and 3/2
(4) 1/2, -1/2 and -3/2

24) The initial velocity of a particle is u and the acceleration is given by (kt), where k is a positive
constant. The distance travelled in time t is :-

(1) s = ut2 + kt2

(2)
s = ut +

(3)
s = ut +
 s=
(4)

25) If x = a – b, the maximum percentage error in the measurement of x will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The mass and volume of a body are 4.237g and 2.5 cm3 respectively. The density of the material
of the body in correct significant figure is :-

(1) 1.6048 g cm–3

Y
(2) 1.69 g cm–3 IF
(3) 1.695 g cm–3
H
(4) 1.7 g cm–3
C
EA

27) A body travels uniformly a distance of (24 ± 0.2)m in a time interval (6 ± 0.1)s. Then velocity of
body is given by -
PR

(1) (4 ± 0.2) m/s

@

(2) (4 ± 0.3) m/s

(3) (4 ± 0.05) m/s
(4) (4 ± 0.1) m/s

28) In an experiment the angles are required to be measured using an instrument, 29 divisions of
the main scale exactly coincide with the 30 divisions of the vernier scale. If the smallest division of
the main scale is half-a degree (= 0.5°) then the least count of the instrument is :-

(1) half minute

(2) one degree
(3) half degree
(4) one minute

29) 4.338 + 4.835 × 3.88 ÷ 3.0 is equal to :

(1) 10.6
(2) 10.59
(3) 10.5912
(4) 10.591267
30) A dust particle oscillates in air with a time period which depends on atmospheric pressure
P density of air d and energy of the particle E, then time period is proportional to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which of the following sets cannot enter into the list of fundamental quantities in any newly
proposed system of units?
(i) length, mass and velocity
(ii) pressure, density and velocity
(iii) force, velocity and time

Y
(iv) force, momentum and time
IF
(1) (i) and (iii)
H
(2) (ii) and (iv)
C

(3) only (iv)

EA

(4) only (i)

PR
@

32) The refractive index of water measured by the relation is found to have
values of 1.34, 1.38, 1.32 and 1.36; the mean value of refractive index with percentage error :-

(1) 1.35 ± 1.48%

(2) 1.35 ± 0%
(3) 1.36 ± 6%
(4) 1.36 ± 0%

33) In the equation α = loge .

F and v are force and velocity respectively. Dimensions of α and β are :-

(1) [α] = MLT+1, [β] = L–2T+2

0
(2) [α] = ML–1T , [β] = L2T–2
0
(3) [α] = MLT , [β] = L2T–2
(4) [α] = ML–1T+1, [β] = L–2T+2

34) In a system of units, unit of mass is 100 gm, unit of length is 10 cm unit of time is 0.5 sec then
the value of unit of energy in this system, In terms of Joule. :-
(1) 250 Joule
(2) 25 Joule
(3) 0.004 Joule
(4) 0.04 Joule

35) Two resistance are measured in Ohm and is given as :-

R1 = 3Ω ± 1% & R2 = 6Ω ± 2%
When they are connected in parallel, the percentage error in equivalent resistance is :-

(1) 3%
(2) 4.5%
(3) 0.67%
(4) 1.33%

36) The mass and volume of a body are found to be (5 ± 0.05) kg and (1 ± 0.05) m3 respectively,
then the maximum possible percentage error in density :-

(1) 3%
(2) 10%

Y
(3) 5% IF
(4) 6%
H
C

37) The dimensional formula for acceleration, velocity and length are αβ–2, αβ–1 and αγ. What is the
EA

dimensional formula of coefficient of friction :-

PR

(1) αβγ
0 0
(2) α β–1γ
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0 0
(3) α–1β γ
0 0
(4) α β γ–1

38) If the units of length, velocity and force are halved, then the unit of power will be :-

(1) doubled
(2) halved
(3) one fourth
(4) remain unaffected

39) Two full turns of the circular scale of screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its main scale.
The total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge
has a zero error of –0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main
scale reading of 3 mm and the 35th division of circular scale coincides with the reference line of main
scale. The diameter of the wire is :

(1) 3.38 mm
(2) 3.32 mm
(3) 3.73 mm
(4) 3.67 mm

40) If L.C. of a vernier calliper is 0.2 mm. If main scale reading is 12 mm and 3rd division of vernier
scale coincides with base line, find measured value by vernier calliper :

(1) 1.23 cm
(2) 1.26 cm
(3) 12.6 cm
(4) 12.3 cm

41) Significant figures in 75600 are-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 7

42) A body travels uniformly a distance of (13.8±0.2) m in a time (4.0±0.3) s. The velocity of the
body within error limits is :-

Y
(1) (3.45 ± 0.2)m s–1
IF
H
(2) (3.45 ± 0.3)m s–1
C

(3) (3.45 ± 0.4)m s–1

EA

(4) (3.45 ± 0.5)m s–1

PR

43) In a vernier callipers, one main scale division is x cm and n divisions of the vernier scale coincide
with (n – 1) divisions of the main scale. The least count (in cm) of the callipers is :-
@

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Assertion (A) : In Vernier calliper if positive zero error exists, then while taking measurements,
the reading taken will be more than the actual reading.
Reason (R) : The zero error in Vernier Calliper might have happened due to manufacturing defect
or due to rough handling.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
45) The position x of a particle at time t is given by , where Vo is constant and a > 0.
The dimensions of Vo and a are

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)

The volume of O2 liberated at STP on decomposition of 12.25 g of KClO3 completely

(1) 3.36 L
(2) 9.92 L
(3) 6.72 L
(4) 2.24 L

Y
IF
2)
H
C

Which of the following compounds illustrates the law of multiple proportions ?

EA

(1) CO and CO2

PR

(2) NaCl and NaBr

(3) NaOH and KOH
@

(4) ZnCO3 and PbCO3

3) The Atomic weight of an element is 15. Its chloride has a vapour density of 60. The valency of the
element is :-

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9

4)

The number of moles of a gas in 1 m3 of volume at NTP is :

(1) 4.46
(2) 0.446
(3) 1.464
(4) 44.6

5)
If 1 ml of water contains 20 drops. Then number of molecules in a drop of water is :

(1) 6.023 × 1023

(2) 1.673 × 1021
(3) 1.344 × 1018
(4) 20 g

6) The empirical formula of a gaseous organic compound containing carbon and hydrogen is CH2.
The mass of one litre of this compound is exactly equal to that of one litre of N2 At NTP. Therefore,
the molecular formula of the compound is–

(1) C2H4
(2) C3H6
(3) C6H12
(4) C4H8

7)

0.01 mole of iodoform (CHI3) reacts with Ag to produce a gas whose volume at 273°C and 1 atm is

Y
2CHI3 + 6Ag → C2H2 + 6AgI(s) IF
H
(1) 224 ml
C

(2) 112 ml
EA

(3) 336 ml
(4) 448 ml
PR

8)
@

The volume of gas at NTP produced by 100 gm of CaC2 with water:-

CaC2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2

(1) 70 litre
(2) 35 litre
(3) 17.5 litre
(4) 22.4 litre

9) Equivalent weight of a divalent metal is 24. The volume of hydrogen liberated at STP by 12 gms of
the same metal when added to excess of an acid solution is

(1) 2.8 litres

(2) 5.6 litres
(3) 11.2 litres
(4) 22.4 litres

10)

12 lit. of H2 and 11.2 lit. of Cl2 are mixed and exploded. The composition by volume of mixture is–
(1) 24 lit. of HCl (g)
(2) 0.8 lit. Cl2 and 20.8 lit. HCl (g)
(3) 0.8 lit. H2 and 22.4 lit. HCl (g)
(4) 22.4 lit. HCl (g)

11)

Which of the following will not have a mass of 10 gm :-

(1) 0.1 mol of CaCO3

(2) 1.5 × 1023 Ca2+ ions
2–
(3) 0.016 mol of CO3
22
(4) 6.02 × 10 molecules of CaCO3

12)

No. of molecules of Na3(PO4)2 can formed by using 0.4 mol of phosphorous atom :-

(1) 12 × 1023

Y
(2) 1.2 × 1023 IF
(3) 0.12 × 1023
H
(4) 1.2 × 1024
C
EA

13)
PR

Which one the following has heighest no. of oxygen atoms :-

@

(1) 0.1 mol Fe2O3

23
(2) 0.2 × 10 molecule of K2Cr2O7
(3) 0.5 g H2O
(4) All have equal no. of oxygen atoms

14) An organic compound contains 28.5% Na, 40% S, 31.5% O and its vapour density is 79. What is
its molecular formula ?

(1) NaS2O2
(2) Na2S2O2
(3) Na2S2O3
(4) Na2S3O2

15) If 6.3 g of NaHCO3 is added to 10.0 g of HCl solution, the residue is found to weight 12.0 g. What
is the weight of CO2 released in this reaction ?

(1) 44 g
(2) 22 g
(3) 11 g
(4) 4.3 g

16)

H2SO4 can be prepared in following two step process : [% yield of each step is indicated]
(A) S(g) + O2(g) SO2(g)
(B) NO2(g) + SO2(g) + H2O(ℓ) H2SO4(aq.) + NO(g)
What mass of sulphur is required to prepare 1960 gm H2SO4 ?

(1) 640 gm
(2) 1450 gm
(3) 1600 gm
(4) 1280 gm

17) A gaseous mixture contains CO2(g) and N2O(g) in a 2 : 5 ratio by mass. The ratio of the number
of molecules of CO2(g) and N2O(g) is :

(1) 5 : 2
(2) 2 : 5

Y
(3) 1 : 2 IF
(4) 5 : 4
H
C

18) Two oxides of a metal contains 50% and 40% of the metal respectively. The formula of the first
EA

oxide is MO. Then the formula of the second oxide is

PR

(1) MO2
(2) M2O3
@

(3) M2O
(4) M2O5

19)

A certain compound has the molecular formula X4O6. If 10g of X4O6 has 5.72 g of X, atomic mass of X
is :-

(1) 32 amu
(2) 37 amu
(3) 42 amu
(4) 98 amu

20) On analysis, certain compound was found to contain 254g of (P) and 80g of (Q). If the atomic
weight of (P) is 127 and that of (Q) is 16, then formula of the compound containing (P) and (Q) is :

(1) P2Q5
(2) P5Q2
(3) P2Q
(4) PQ

21) Percentage loss in mass on heating mixture of Na2CO3 & CaCO3 containing equal mass of the two
components will be

(1) 44%
(2) 22%
(3) 35%
(4) 50%

22)

Which of the following has maximum mass –

(1) 0.1 g atom of C

(2) 0.1 mole of NH3
22
(3) 6.02 × 10 molecule of H2 gas
(4) 1120 ml of CO2 at 1 atm, 273K

Y
23) At room temperature, the density of water is 1 g/ml and density of ethanol is 0.8 g/ml. What
IF
volume of ethanol contains the same number of molecules as are present in 175 ml of water.
H
(1) 565 ml
C
EA

(2) 460 ml
(3) 360 ml
PR

(4) 742 ml
@

24) 1 L of a gas at STP has 1.25 g mass. The gas can be :-

(1) N2
(2) C2H2
(3) O2
(4) CH4

25) A compound contains 38.8% C, 16.0% H and 45.2% N by mass. The empirical formula of the
compound would be :-

(1) CH3NH2
(2) CH3CN
(3) C2H5CN
(4) CH2(NH)2

26)

1.0 g of hydrogen contains 6 × 1023 atoms. The atomic weight of helium is 4. It follows that the
number of atoms in 1 g of He is :-
(1) 1/4 × 6 × 1023
(2) 4 × 6 × 1023
(3) 6 × 1023
(4) 12 × 1023

27)

Atom of oxygen in Fe2O3 and FeO is in the simple ratio of :-

(1) 3 : 2
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 3 : 1

28) The vapour density of chloride of element is 39.5. The equivalent weight of the elements is 3.82.
The atomic weight of the element is :-

(1) 15.28
(2) 7.64

Y
(3) 3.82 IF
(4) 11.46
H
C

29) A polystyrene having formula Br3C6H3(C3H8)n found to contain 10.46% of bromine by weight. The
EA

value of n :- (at. wt of Br = 80)

PR

(1) 40
(2) 43
@

(3) 45
(4) 47

30) Elements A and B form two compounds B2A3 and B2A. 0.05 moles of B2A3 weight 9.0 gms
and 0.10 mole of B2A weight 10 gms atomic weight of A and B are-

(1) 20 and 30
(2) 30 and 40
(3) 40 and 30
(4) 30 and 20

31) Number of moles of water in 488 gm of BaCl2.2H2O are : (Ba = 137)

(1) 2 moles
(2) 4 moles
(3) 3 moles
(4) 5 moles

32) Assertion : CO2 has more number of molecule in its 88 g than number of molecule of H2O in its
72 g.
Reason : Both have 4 mole of molecules.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct.

(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

33) Assertion : Specific gravity is dimensionless.

Reason : Specific gravity is density of a substance measured w.r.t. density of water at 4°C.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

34) Assertion : A compound contains 3.2% oxygen by mass, then minimum molecular mass of the
compound is 500.
Reason : For minimum molecular mass of the compound, it must have one atom of that element.

Y
IF
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
H
C

(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

EA

(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

PR

35) Assertion : If we have equal mass of each CH4, O2 and SO2 in a container, then number of mol of
CH4, O2 and SO2 are in 4 : 2 : 1 mole ratio.
@

Reason : Molecular mass of CH4, O2 and SO2 are in 1 : 2 : 4 ratio.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

36) Assertion : Average atomic mass of B10 and B11 is always between 10 and 11.
Reason : Greater the precentage of B10, more will be the average atomic mass.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

37) Assertion : 1 gm molecules of CH4 contains 5 NA atoms.

Reason : 1 mole of CH4 weighs 16 g.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

38) Assertion : Molarity of pure water is 55.55 M at 298 K.

Reason : Molarity is temperature dependent.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

39) Assertion : H3PO4 + NaOH → NaH2PO4 + H2O in this reaction the equivalent weight of H3PO4 is
M/1.
Reason : H3PO4 is tribasic acid.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Y
40) In the reaction,
IF
H
Assertion (A): The volume of NaOH solution added to 12 g of NaH2 PO4 to convert it into Na3PO4 is
C

200 ml
Reason (R) : Number of H+ replaced in above reaction is 2.
EA

(1) A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

PR

(2) A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
@

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A is false but R is true

41) How many moles of electron weight one kilogram?

(1) 6.02 x 1023

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) 20 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon was exploded with 120 mL of oxygen. A contraction of 60 mL

was observed, and a further contraction of 60 mL took place when KOH was added. What is the
formula of the hydrocarbon :

(1) C3H6
(2) C3H8
(3) C2H6
(4) C4H10

43) Equivalent weights of X2Y and X2Y3 are 38 and 18 respectively. Find the atomic masses of X and
Y :-

(1) 30, 8
(2) 30, 16
(3) 10, 16
(4) 16, 10

44) 2.0 g sample contain mixture of SiO2 and Fe2O3, on very strong heating leave a residue weighing
1.96 g. The reaction responsible for loss of weight is Fe2O3(s) → Fe3O4(s) +O2(g), What is the
percentage by mass of SiO2 in original sample?
[Fe = 56, Si = 28]

(1) 20%
(2) 60%
(3) 80%
(4) 40%

Y
IF
H
C

45) (2.12 gm) of (meta-xylene) on complete combustion gives CO2(g) and H2O(g). Find
EA

ratio of number of atoms O to C in product formed.

PR

(1)
@

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Phospholipids are arranged with in the cell membrane with the :-

(1) Polar head towards the inner sides and tail towards the outer sides
(2) Polar head towards the inner sides and tail towards the inner sides
(3) Polar head towards the outer sides and tail towards the inner sides
(4) Polar head towards the outer sides and tail towards the outer sides

2) Algae have cell wall made up of:

(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pactins

(2) Cellulose, galactans and mannans and CaCO3
(3) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
(4) Pectins, cellulose and proteins

3) Assertion: Lipids are arranged within the cell membrane with the hydrophobic tails towards the
inner part.
Reason: This ensures that non-polar tail of saturated hydrocarbons is protected from the aqueous
environment.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is incorrect explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

4) Assertion: Active transport requires the expenditure of energy by the cell.

Reason: Active transport is the movement of substances across the plasma membrane against the
concentration tradient.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

Y
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
IF
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
H
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
C
EA

5) Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport
pathway?
PR

(1) Plasmalemma
@

(2) Plasmodesmata
(3) Plastoquinones
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

6) Cell wall in plant is

A. Permeable
B. Living
C. Mainly made up of lipo protein
D. Mainly made up of polysaccharide

(1) A, B, C & D
(2) A, B & D
(3) A & D
(4) A, C & D

7) Ribophorin helps in attachment of ribosome to E.R. It is a

(1) Glycoprotein
(2) Glycolipid
(3) Lipid
(4) Carbohydrate

8) How many statements are correct ?

(A) Animal cells contain membrane bound organelle called centriole which help in cell division.
(B) Lipids are arranged within the plasma membrane with the polar head towards the inner sides
and the hydrophobic tails towards the outer side.
(C) The cell wall and middle lamellae may be traversed by plasmodesmata which connect the
cytoplasm of neighboring plant cells.
(D) The quasifluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

9) The stroma of chloroplast contains:-

(A) Enzyme for carbohydrates and proteins synthesis.
(B) Small, single stranded DNA molecule
(C) Ribosomes of 70's type

Y
(1) Only A IF
(2) Only B
H
(3) A and C only
C

(4) All of the above

EA

10) Match the Column-I and Column-II and choose the correct option :
PR

Column-II
Column-I
@

(Stored nutrient or
(Plastid)
pigment)
(a) Amyloplast (i) Chlorophyll
(b) Chromoplast (ii) Proteins
(c) Aleuroplast (iii) Carbohydrate
(d) Chloroplast (iv) Carotenoids
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

11) (a) ER divide the intracellular space into two distinct compartments i.e. luminal and extra
luminal.
(b) SER is the major site for synthesis of protein
(c) Golgi bodies are consist of cisternae which have diameter between 0.5-1 μm.
Choose the correct statements -

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(3) b, c
(4) a, c

12) Study the following statements regarding mitochondria and select the correct ones :
(i) These are the sites of aerobic respiration.
(ii) Matrix contains single circular ds DNA molecule, a few RNA molecules, 70S ribosomes.
(iii) Mitochondria divide by fission.
(iv) Mitochondria are fully-autonomous.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) All of the above

13) As the polar molecules can not pass through the nonpolar ......"I"........, they requires ......."II"....
of the membrane to facilitate their transport across the membrane:-
Choose the correct word for I and II :-

I II

Y
(1) Cholesterol Carbohydrate IF
(2) Protein Lipid
H
(3) Carbohydrate Protein
C
EA

(4) Lipid bilayer Protein

(1) 1
PR

(2) 2
@

(3) 3
(4) 4

14)

Identify structure A, B and C in given diagram:-

(1) A-SER, B-Cytosol, C-RER

(2) A-SER, B-Nuclear pore, C-RER
(3) A-RER, B-Nuclear pore, C-SER
(4) A-RER, B-Ribosome, C-SER
15) How many of the given features are associated with both plastid and mitochondria ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

16) Which of the following is correct regarding percentage of proteins, lipids and carbohydrates in
plasma membrane ?

(1) Proteins < Lipids < Carbohydrates

(2) Lipids < Proteins < Carbohydrates
(3) Carbohydrates < Proteins > Lipids
(4) Lipids < Carbohydrates < Proteins

17)

Where are porins are present :-

Y
(1) Outer membrane of plastid
IF
H
(2) Inner membrane of mitochondria
C

(3) Inner membrane of plastids

EA

(4) Outer membrane of ribosomes

PR

18) Middle lamella is

@

(1) Present inside the primary wall

(2) Present inside the secondary wall
(3) Present outside the primary wall
(4) Present in between secondary and tertiary walls

19)
Above diagram showing the sectional view of chloroplast. Chlorophyll pigments and enzymes for the
synthesis of carbohydrates are found respectively in :-

(1) A and B parts of diagram

(2) D and B parts of diagram
(3) C and A parts of diagram
(4) B and C parts of diagram

20) Fluid nature of membrane is able to explain

(1) cell growth, cell division
(2) formation of intercellular junctions
(3) secretion and endocytosis
(4) All of the above

21) Part of endomembrane system is :

(1) Chloroplast, Mitochondria

(2) ER, Golgi body, Microbodies
(3) ER, Golgi body, Lysosome, Vacuole
(4) ER, Nucleus, PM

22) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Primary cell wall is first formed cell wall

(2) Secondary cell wall is thick and rigid layer
(3) Tertiary cell wall is present in all plant cells
(4) Middle lamella is the common layer between two adjacent plant cells

23)
Y
IF
H
Match the Column–I with Column–II.
C
EA
PR

Options :
@

(1) (A)–(iii), (B)–(i), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iv)

(2) (A)–(iii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(ii)
(3) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii)
(4) (A)–(i), (B)–(iii), (C)–(iv), (D)–(ii)

24) Identify the correct matching for functions related to the cell membrane components marked as

A, B & C.

A B C
 (1) Cell to cell recognition Membrane fluidity Stability

Maintains membrane stability &

(2) Stability Flip-flop movement
fluidity at different temp.

Maintains membrane stability &

(3) Cell to cell recognition Channel
fluidity at different temp.

(4) Stability Membrane stability Transport

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Cell wall not only gives _________ to the cell. It also help in _________ and provide barrier to
undesirable ___________.
Option :
(i) Macromolecules
(ii) Cell to cell recognition
(iii) Micromolecules
(iv) Shape

Y
(v) Cell to cell interaction IF
The correct sequence is :-
H
(1) (iv), (iii), (i)
C
EA

(2) (iv), (v), (i)

(3) (iv), (iii), (ii)
PR

(4) (iii), (ii), (i)

@

26) The stroma of chloroplast have :

(1) Ribosome
(2) DNA
(3) Enzymes for dark reaction
(4) All of these

27) Active transport involves

(1) Production of ATP

(2) Requirement of energy
(3) Production of toxin
(4) Release of energy

28) Keeping in view the "fluid mosaic model" for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the
following statements is correct with respect to the movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid
monolayer to the other (described as flipflop movement) ?

(1) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can not

(2) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
(3) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
(4) While lipids can rarely flip–flop,proteins can not

29) F1 particle found in

(1) Inner membrane of chloroplast and thylacoid membrane.

(2) Outer membrane of mitochondria and in matrix.
(3) In inner membrane of mitochondria toward matrix side.
(4) In mitochondrial inner membrane toward perimitochondrial space side (PMS).

30) A cell organelle 'X' is divided into two types on the basis of a cell organelle 'Y', that helps in the
protein synthesis. Identify 'X' and 'Y' respectively:

(1) Golgi complex and ribosome

(2) ER and mitochondria
(3) ER and ribosome
(4) Lysosome and ER

31) Depending upon the ............ , membrane proteins can be classified as integral or peripheral :-

Y
(1) Size
IF
H
(2) Sedimentation rate
C

(3) Ease of extraction

EA

(4) Molecular weight

PR

32) In human beings, percentage of lipid and protein in membrane of erythrocyte :

@

(1) 40% and 58% respectively

(2) 42% and 59% respectively
(3) 40% and 52% respectively
(4) 52% and 40% respectively

33) Red colour of tomato is due to are:

(1) Chl a
(2) Xanthophylls
(3) Chl b
(4) Lycopene

34) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

Golgi
a i Synthesis of protein
apparatus

Trap waste and excretory

b Lysosomes ii
products
 Formation of glycoproteins
c Vacuoles iii
and glycolipids

d Ribosomes iv Digesting biomolecules

Choose the right match from options given below :-

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

35) Mitochondria :-
(a) are easily visible under the microscope
(without specifically stained)
(b) are typically sausage-shaped or cylindrical
(c) are double membrane bound structures
(d) have two aqueous compartments

(1) a, d correct and b, c incorrect

(2) a, b correct and c,d incorrect
(3) a incorrect and b, c, d correct
Y
IF
(4) a, d incorrect and b, c correct
H
C

36) Assertion: Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semi-autonomous organelles.

EA

Reason: Mitochondria and chloroplast are devoid of ribosomes.

PR

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
@

(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

37) Assertion: In animal cells, the lipid-like steroidal hormones are synthesized in SER.
Reason: The smooth ER is the major site for synthesis of lipid.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

38) Assertion : It is believed that mitochondria shows endosymbiotic origin with bacteria.
Reason : Mitochondria contains 70S ribosomes and divides by binary fission.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

39) Identify the A, B, C and D select the correct statements regarding to A, B, C and D :-

(1) Percentage of "A" is maximum in the membrane

(2) Percentage of "B" is minimum in the membrane
(3) Lateral movement of "A" help in the measurement of fluidity of membrane
(4) The fluidity of membrane is due to "C"

40) Statement-I : Neutral solutes may move, across the membrane by the process of simple
diffusion along the concentration gradient i.e. from higher concentration to the lower.

Y
Statement-II : The polar molecules can not pass through the polar lipid bilayer, they require a
IF
carrier protein of the membrane to facilitate their transport across the membranes.
H
C

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

EA

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect

(3) Only Statement I is correct
PR

(4) Only Statement II is correct

@

41) Statement I : Plastids bear some specific pigments, thus imparting specific colours to the
plants.
Statement II : The leucoplasts are the colourless plastids of varied shapes and sizes with stored
nutrients.

(1) Statement (I) and (II) both are correct.

(2) Statement (I) and (II) both are incorrect.
(3) Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect.
(4) Statement (II) is correct and (I) is incorrect.

42) Statement (I) : A number of organised flattened membranous sacs called the thylakoids, are
present in stroma.
Statement (II) : The membrane of the thylakoids enclose a space called lumen.

(1) Statement (I) and statement (II) both are correct.

(2) Statement (I) and statement (II) both are incorrect.
(3) Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect.
(4) Statement (II) is correct and (I) is incorrect.

43) Statement-I : Plastids are found in all plant cells and in Euglenoides.
Statement-II : Majority of the chloroplasts of the green plants are found in the mesophyll cells of
the leaves.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false

44) The convex-face of cisternae of golgi body is also known as:-

(1) Cis-face
(2) Forming face
(3) Trans-face
(4) Both 1 and 2

45) What is the main function of cristae?

(1) To hold the vesicles formed

(2) Increase the surface area

Y
(3) Increase the density of organelle IF
(4) All of these
H
C

46) Consider the following statements regarding white adipose tissue :-

EA

(a) It is characterized by a single large droplet of fat in the cytoplasm of its cells
(b) Cells contain many mitochondria
PR

(c) It is found in new born baby and hibernating mammals

(d) Cytoplasm is pushed to periphery
Identify correct statement :
@

(1) a and d
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) b, c and d

47) The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found
in :-

(1) Tip of the nose

(2) Vertebrae
(3) Nails
(4) Ear ossicles

48) Adjacent epithelial cells are held together by means of

(1) Lipsomes
(2) Glyoxisomes/Glyoxysomes
(3) Desmosomes
(4) Microsomes

49) Consider the following statements (i) – (iii) each with two blanks.
(i) Pseudostratified epithelium lines the (1) tract while transitional epithelium lines the (2) tract.
(ii) Lacunae of bones house (3) while lacunae of cartilage contain (4) .
(iii) Tendon contains bundles of (5) fibres and row of (6) cells between them.
Which one of the following options, gives the correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers from
(1) to (6) in the statements?

(1) (1) – respiratory, (2) – urinary, (5) – white, (6) – fibroblast

(2) (1) – urinary, (2) – respiratory, (3) – osteocytes, (4) – chondrocytes
(3) (3) – chondrocytes, (4) – osteocytes, (5) – yellow, (6) – fibroblast
(4) (1) – respiratory, (2) – urinary, (3) – chondrocytes, (4) – osteocytes

50) Out of following how many are the secretions of exocrine glands :-
Mucus, Saliva, Adrenaline, Ear wax, Vasopressin, Oil, milk, pepsin

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six

Y
(4) Seven
IF
H
51)
C
EA

While taking viva voce at the zoology practicals, professor SM presented four different structures
before the students on a tray labelled as :
PR

(A) White Regular (B) Yellow Regular

(C) White Irregular (D) Yellow Irregular
@

He then asked his students to perform two different tasks.

(i) To pick up any of the four structures that is meant for connecting a bone to another bone.
(ii) To pick up any of the four structures that is meant for connecting a muscle to a bone.

Identify the correct option.

(1) (i) – B and (ii) – C
(2) (ii) – A and (i) – B
(3) (ii) – A and (i) – D
(4) (ii) – B and (i) – A

52) Which of the following is false about columnar epithelium :- (I) It's made up of tall and slender
cells
(II) Free end surface may have microvilli
(III) They are found in stomach and intestine so helps in absorption, secretion and excretion
(IV) Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in hollow structure like fallopian tube
(V) They have apical nuclei

(1) Only V
(2) III, V
(3) II, III, V
(4) III, IV, V

53) Which of the following statements about cell junction are correct :-
(i) All the cells of the epithelium are held together with little intercellular materials.
(ii) In nearly all animal tissues specialized junction provide both structural and functional link
between its individual cells.
(iii) Tight junction help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(iv) Adhering junctions provide cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
(v) Gap junctions provide cytoplamic channels between cells for passage of ions, small molecules and
sometimes big molecules.

(1) (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iv) and (v)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

54) Following A, B and C structures are surrounded by their suitable examples found in human body.

Y
IF
H
C

Which one is incorrect regarding to them :-

EA
PR
@

(1) A-(ii) B-(ii) C-(iii)

(2) A-(ii) B-(iii) C-(i)
(3) A-(i) B-(ii) C-(iii)
(4) A-(ii) B-(i) C-(iii)

55) Assertion : The infant does not shiver in cold temperature.

Reason : They have brown fat.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are correct & Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are correct & Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true & Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion & Reason is false

56) Observe the given diagrammatic combination and select correct option.
(A) – Cover the dry surface of
the skin and dry surface of
buccal cavity.

(B) – Secrete saliva, earwax

and its example is goblet
cells of the alimentary canal

(1) A and B both are correct

(2) A is correct and B is incorrect
(3) A and B both are incorrect
(4) A is incorrect and B is correct

57) Match the following column?

Y
IF
Column-I Column-II
H
C

Dense irregular Solid, Pliable and

(A) (i)
connective tissue resist compression
EA

Fibroblasts and mostly

Areolar loose
PR

(B) (ii) collagen fibre oriented

connective tissue
differently
@

Specialized connective
(C) (iii) Blood
tissue (cartilage)

Cells and fibre loosely

(D) Fluid connective tissue (iv) arrange and present
beneath the skin
(1) A–(i); B–(iv); C–(iii); D–(ii)
(2) A–(iv); B–(i); C–(iii); D–(ii)
(3) A–(ii); B–(iv); C–(i); D–(iii)
(4) A–(iii); B–(i); C–(iv); D–(ii)

58) Choose incorrect statement :

(a) All gland are multicellular glands except goblet cells and paneth cells.
(b) Epididymis have non-ciliated epithelium.
(c) Inner lining of duct of salivary gland is made up of more than one layer of cells.
(d) Tendon attach skeletal muscle to bone is a example of loose connective tissue.

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

59) Match the list-I with list-II

List-I List-II

Dense regular
(a) (i) In the skin
connective tissue

Specialised
(b) (ii) Tendon
connective tissue

Dense Irregular
(c) (iii) Bones
connective tissue

Loose connective
(d) (iv) Ligament
tissue

Beneath
(v)
the skin

(vi) Blood
(1) (a)-(ii),(iii), (b)-(iv),(vi), (c)-(v), (d)-(i)

Y
(2) (a)-(v),(ii), (b)-(iii),(vi), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(ii),(iv), (b)-(iii),(vi), (c)-(i), (d)-(v)
IF
H
(4) (a)-(ii), (iv), (b)-(i),(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(vi)
C
EA

60) Statement-I : Neuroglia make up more than one half the volume of neural tissue
Statement-II : A sheath of tough connective tissue encloses several bundles of muscle fibers
PR

Select the correct option –

(1) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

@

(2) Statement-II is incorrect and statement-I is correct

(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

61) Read the following statement about connective tissue.

(a) In all connective tissue except blood, the cells secretes fibers of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin.
(b) Tendons and ligaments are the example of dense regular connective tissue
(c) Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semi fluid ground substance
(d) Dense regular connective tissue is also found in skin.
Choose the set of correct statements.

(1) a and d
(2) b and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) b, c and d

62) Assertion :- Skeletal muscle tissue is closely attached to skeletal bones.

Reason :- Bone have a hard and non-pliable ground substances rich in calcium.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

63)

Match list I with list II and find the correct option:-

List-I
List-II
(Epithelial
(Location)
tissue)

A Cuboidal I Epidermis of skin

B Ciliated II Inner lining of blood vessels

C Columnar III Inner surface of gall bladder

D Squamous IV Inner lining of Fallopian tube

Keratinized
E V Lining of pancreatic duct
squamous

Y
(1) (A)-(V), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III), (E)-(I)
IF
H
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(V), (D)-(II), (E)-(I)
C

(3) (A)-(V), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II), (E)-(I)

EA

(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(V), (D)-(I), (E)-(II)

PR

64) Intercalated discs are characterstics of muscles that are found in :-

@

(1) Brain
(2) Spinal cord
(3) Stomach
(4) Heart

65) Which points are correct for smooth muscles ?

(A) They are branched
(B) They are unstriated
(C) They are involuntary
(D) Intercalated disc are present

(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) C, D
(4) A, D

66) Which of the following is not a feature of skeletal muscle ?

(1) Striations
(2) Voluntary control
(3) Non-fatigue nature
(4) All are features of skeletal muscle

67) Smooth muscle fibres are–

(1) Cylindrical, unbranched, striated, multinucleate and voluntary

(2) Spindle-shaped, unbranched, non-striated, uninucleate and involuntary
(3) Cylindrical, unbranched, non-striated, multinucleate and involuntary
(4) Spindle-shaped, unbranched, striated, uninucleate and voluntary

68) Which of the following properties of cardiac muscles are correct ?

(i) These are the muscles of the heart.
(ii) These are non-striated.
(iii) These are involuntary in their functions.
(iv) These are controlled by nervous system directly.
(v) Cardiac muscles are voluntary.
Select the correct option.

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii), (iv) and (v)

Y
(3) (i), (iv) and (v)
IF
H
(4) (ii) and (iii)
C

69) Which of the following statements are incorrect w.r.t. neuron?

EA

(A) The proximal end of the axon is branched.

(B) Nissl’s granules are present in the cell body as well as dendrites.
PR

(C) The axon transmit nerve impulse towards the cell body.
(D Multipolar neurons are found in the cerebral cortex.
@

(1) A, B and D
(2) Only A and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A and C

70) Given below are assertion and reason. Mark the correct choice from given options.
Assertion : The myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped with Schwann cells, which form a myelin
sheath around the axon.
Reason : Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin
sheath around the axon.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but the reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong

71) Match List-I with List-II

 List-I List-II

(a) Multipolar neuron (i) Somatic neural system

(b) Bipolar neuron (ii) Cerebral cortex

(c) Myelinated nerve fibre (iii) Retina of Eye

(d) Unmyelinated nerve fibre (iv) Spinal nerves

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(3) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

72) Nissl's granules are found in____ and helps in ________ :-

(1) Cyton only, Lipid synthesis

(2) Cyton & Axon, Protein synthesis
(3) Dendron & Axon, Protein synthesis
(4) Dendron & cyton, Protein synthesis

Y
IF
73) Schwann cells are found on :-
H
C

(1) Myelinated nerve fibres

EA

(2) Unmyelinated nerve fibres

(3) Both (1) and (2)
PR

(4) Cell body of neuron

@

74) Which of the characteristic is shown by neuron:

(1) Contractibility
(2) Elastiity
(3) Excitability
(4) Erectability

75) Match the following :-

(1) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(2) A – (v), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (i)
(3) A – (iii), B – (v), C – (iv), D – (i)
(4) A – (iii), B – (v), C – (vi), D – (i)

76) Division is not possible in neuron due to abscence of :-

Y
(1) Mitochondria
IF
H
(2) Centriole
C

(3) Nissl's granule

EA

(4) Neurofibril
PR

77) Ciliated epithelial cells are known to occur in :-

@

(1) Eustachian tube and stomach

(2) Fallopian tube and bronchioles
(3) Fallopian tube and urethra
(4) Trachea and oesophagus.

78)

How many of the following do not present in skin ?

Compound Epithelium, Dense Irregular Connective tissue, Reticular tissue, Dense regular
Connective tissue.
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

79) Identify the correct matching pair :

(1) Microvilli – Fallopian tube

(2) Cilia – Intestine
(3) Sterocilia – Gall bladder
(4) Ependymal epithelium – Inner lining of ventricle of brain

80) In all connective tissue except ___A___ the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin.

(1) Bone
(2) Blood
(3) Areolar Tissue
(4) Cartilage

81) How many osteocyte found in lacunae of bone?

(1) 1–2
(2) 2–3
(3) 1–4
(4) Only 1

82) Most abundant connective tissue which serves as a supporting frame-work for epithelium is ?

Y
(1) Adipose tissue
IF
H
(2) Areolar tissue
C

(3) Dense regular CT

EA

(4) Blood
PR

83) Which cells are also called as cart wheel cells?

@

(1) Plasma cells

(2) Adipose cells
(3) Mast cells
(4) Macrophages

84) Identify type of Epithelium tissue at the label A, B, and C

A B C
1 Simple cuboidal Simple ciliated columnar Simple Brush border cuboidal
2 Simple squamous Simple brush bordered cuboidal Simple cuboidal
3 Simple squamous Simple ciliated cuboidal Simple cuboidal
4 Simple cuboidal Simple Brush Bordered cuboidal Simple squamou
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) Basement membrane can not be seen in

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Transitional epithelium

86)

White fibrous cartilage is present in :-

(1) Larynx
(2) Articular cartilage
(3) Intervertebral disc
(4) Nasal septum

Y
87) How many of the following are examples of simple cuboidal epithelium?
IF
Proximal convoluted tubule, Moist surface of Buccal cavity, Urinary bladder, Stomach, Lining of
follopian tube, Ducts of glands
H
C

(1) Two
EA

(2) Three
PR

(3) Four
(4) Five
@

88) Which of the following is not a property of epithelial tissues ?

(1) Cells are compactly packed with large amount of intercellular matrix
(2) Consist of free surfaces, which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment
(3) Provide covering or lining for some part of the body.
(4) Simple epithelium is composed of a single layer of cells

89)

Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Cartilage and bone both are structural tissue

(2) Blood is a fluid tissue with transport functions
(3) Areolar tissue is main reservoir of stored energy
(4) Muscle tissue, which becomes contracts in response to stimulation

90)

The fibres provide strength to connective tissue. Here 'fibres' word is use for :-
(1) White fibre
(2) Elastic fibre
(3) Reticular fibre
(4) 1 & 2 both

Y
IF
H
C
EA
PR
@
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 1 4 2 1 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 1 1 3 4 4 4 1 1 2 1 2 3 4 4 4 3 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 1 4 2 1 1 2 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 3 2 2 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 1 1 1 1 4 2 3 3 2 4 1 1 1 3 2 2 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 2 4 2

Y
IF
H
BIOLOGY
C
EA

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 1 1 2 3 1 2 3 4 4 3 4 2 1 3 1 3 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
PR

A. 3 3 2 1 2 4 2 4 3 3 3 3 4 1 3 3 1 1 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
@

A. 1 1 1 4 2 1 1 3 1 3 2 2 4 2 1 3 3 2 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 3 4 2 3 2 1 4 2 4 4 3 3 3 2 2 2 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 1 2 4 3 1 1 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) [KE] = [ML2T–2]

K.E. = (100 g) =1 g cm2/s2

= 1 erg

2) Question Explain:
The question asks to find the maximum velocity acquired by a car that accelerates from rest at
a constant rate α, then decelerates at a constant rate β, and comes to rest after a total time t.
Concept:
This problem involves the concepts of uniform acceleration and deceleration. The maximum
velocity is achieved at the point where acceleration ends and deceleration starts.
Formula Used:
1. v = u + at (for velocity under constant acceleration)
2, v2 = u2 + 2as (for velocity and displacement under constant acceleration)

Y
Calculation: IF
H
A. During the acceleration phase, let the maximum velocity be vmax.
C

B. The car accelerates for a time t1 so the final velocity after this phase is vmax = αt1.
EA

C. The car then decelerates for a time t2 and comes to rest, so 0 = vmax - βt2 , giving t2 =
PR

D. The total time t = t1 + t2, so t =

@

E. Solving for vmax' we get:

moderate

3)

T = Pa Db Sc
T = [ML–1 T–2]a [ML–3]b [MT–2]c
0 0
M L T1 = Ma+b+c L–a–3b T–2a–2c
a+b+c=0
–a – 3b = 0

–2a – 2c = 1 ⇒ a + c =

b= ,a=,c=1

a= ,b=,c=1

a=
4)

Explanation:

We need to determine the numerical values of a 10N force when expressed in a system where
length unit = 10 cm, mass unit = 10 g, time unit = 0.1 sec.

Concept:

Conversion from one system to another.

Formula:

N 2 = N1

Mathematical Calculation:

N2 = 10

Y
N2 = 10 IF
N2 = 101 × 102 × 101 × 10–2
H
N2 = 102 = 100 unit
C
EA

Correct answer with option : 4

PR

Estimated Time : 2-3 minutes

Level : Medium
@

5) Least count = = 0.1 mm;

Zero error = –(10–6) × 0.1 = – 0.4 mm
Reading = 6 + 5 × (0.1) – (–0.4) = 6.9 mm

Now

6)

Option (1) is correct

7) Ans. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

8) ⇒ = [L'T–4]
9)

1013 = 1.013 × 103

Order of magnitude = 3

10)

If θ is angle between and

2 2
= P + Q + 2PQ cosθ ... (i)
then (80 – θ) will be angle between and and

= P + Q – 2PQ cosθ
2 2
...(ii)
(i) + (ii)

– = 2(P2 + Q2)

11)

Y
12) Question is Asking About:
IF
In this question we have to choose the correct statement regarding a dimensionless quantity.
H
C

Concept:
EA

Dimension of physical quantities

PR

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
A dimensionless quantity may have unit for example, Angle or solid angle are dimensionless
@

quantities but still have units (radian and steradian).

Hence, option (3) is correct.

Conclusion : Hence, option (4) is correct

Estimated Time : 1 Minute.

Level : Easy

13)

According to law of homogeneity,

No two physical quantities having differensions can be added or subtracted.

14)

A: Question explanation
The question asks us to calculate the least count of a screw gauge.
B: Given data
 A. Pitch of the screw = 0.1 cm
B. Number of divisions on the circular scale = 200

C: Concept
The least count of a screw gauge is calculated by dividing the pitch of the screw by the number of
divisions on the circular scale. This is because each division on the circular scale corresponds to a
fraction of the pitch.
D: Mathematical calculation

A. Convert the pitch to millimeters: 0.1 cm = 1 mm

B. Calculate the least count: Least count = Pitch / Number of divisions = 1 mm / 200 = 0.005 mm

E: final answer
The least count of the screw gauge is 0.005 mm. Therefore, option 3 is the correct answer.
F : question level
Easy

15)

Y
IF
H
16)
C
EA
PR

17) m ∝ Ea vb Fc
a = 1, b = –2, c = 0.
@

18)

Option (3) is correct

19)

20)
Option (2) is correct

21)

(where is the velocity gradient with dimensions [t–1]).

22)
∴ Angle

23)

E = Gphqcr

Y
G = [M-1L3T-2] IF
h = [ML2T-1]
H
c = [LT-1]
C

E = [M-1L3T-2]p [ML2T-1]q [LT-1]r

EA

[ML2T-2] = [M-p+q L3p+2q+r T-2p-q-r]

Comparing power both side
PR

-p+q=1 ...(1)
3p + 2q + r = 2 ...(2)
@

-2p - q - r = 2 ...(3)
Equation (2) + (3)
p+q=0
p=q
by (1) and (4)
-(-q) + q = 1
q = 1/2
p = -1/2
from equation (3)
-2 (-1/2) - 1/2 - r = -2
+1 - 1/2 - r = -2
r = 5/2

24)

a = Kt
25) x = a – b
⇒ Δx = Δa + Δb

26)

Y
Option (4) is correct IF
H
C

27)
EA

and
PR

v = (4 ± 0.1) m/s
@

28) 30 Divisions of vernier scale coincide with 29 divisions of main scales

Therefore 1V.S.D =

Least count = 1MSD – 1VSD = 1MSD –

29) 4.338 + 4.835 × 3.88 ÷ 3.0

= 4.338 + 4.835 × 1.3
= 4.338 + 6.3

=
30)

Y
IF
31) (i) Length (L), mass (M) and velocity (LT–1) are independent.
H
(ii) Pressure (ML–1T–2), density (ML–3) and velocity (LT–1) are dependent as
C
EA

(iii) Force (MLT–2), velocity (LT–1) and time (T) are independent as
PR

(iv) ⇒ force, momentum and time are dependent.

@

32) The mean value of refractive index,

and

Δμ =
= 0.02

Thus

33) is input of logarithmic function

⇒ =1 ⇒ =1
⇒ [β] = [v ] = (LT ) = L2T–2
2 –1 2

logarithmic functions are dimensionless

⇒ [α] = =
–1 0
⇒ [α] = ML T

34) 1 J = n2 u2

n2 = 250
1 Joule = (250)u2

u2 =

Y
35) IF
H
C
EA

⇒
PR
@

= = 1.33%

36)

= 1 % + 5% = 6 %

37)
Dimension of coefficient of friction = 1
Only option (4) is dimensionless.
38) P =

F→ ; v→

Then P →

39)

L.C. = = mm
Diameter = 3mm + 35 (.01 mm) + 0.03 mm = 3.38 mm

40) Measured value = MSR + LC × VSR = 12 mm + 0.2 mm × 3

= 12.6 mm = 1.26 cm

41) Traiveling zero are not significant figure.

42) Here, S = (13.8 ± 0.2) cm; t = (4.0 ± 0.3)s

Y
IF
H
C

Also,
EA
PR

ΔV = ± 0.0895 × 3.45 = ± 0.3

(rounding off to one place of decimal)
@

V = (3.45 ± 0.3) m s–1.

43)

44) Assertion & Reason both are correct

Theory

45)
CHEMISTRY

46)

47) We know that in the formation of carbon monoxide (CO), 12 parts of carbon by weight
(equal to its atomic weight) combine with 16 parts of oxygen by weight (equal to its atomic
weight).
Similarly, in carbon dioxide (CO2) 12 parts of carbon by weight (equal to its atomic weight)
combine with 32 parts of oxygen (O2) by weight (2 × atomic weight of oxygen).
Thus different weights of oxygen (16 and 32) combine with a constant weight of carbon (12) in
the ratio 16 : 32 or 1 : 2 to form carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide in a simple integral ratio.
Thus CO and CO2 illustrates the law of multiple proportion.

Y
48) Given : Atomic weight of element (M) = 15 and vapour density of its chloride (V.D.) = 60
IF
We know that molecular weight of compound = 2 × V.D. = 2 × 60 = 120
H
Formula of compound is MClx
C

M + 35.5 x = 120
EA

15 + 35.5 x = 120
PR

valency = 3
@

49)

50)

51) Mass of 1 L of N2 at NTP = Mass of compound

M = 28
52)
2 mol CHI3 1mol C2H2

0.01 mol CHI3 = 0.005 mol

=0.05 × 22400 = 112 ml

224 ml = V2

53)

mol. wt = 2 × V.D.
= 2 × 70 = 140
(12 + 16) × x = 140
28x = 140
x=5

Y
54) IF
H
(gea)M=(gea)H2
C

=
EA
PR

V = 5.6 L
@

55)

H2 + Cl2 2HCl Cl2 is L.R.

12L 11.2 L
0.8 – 22.4

56)

1 mol 60 g CO3–2
0.016 mol 60 × 0.16
–2
=0.96 g CO3

57)
58)

1 mol 3 NA
0.01 mol 3 NAO atom

59)

Moles Ratio
Na 28.5 23 1.24 1
S 40 32 1.25 1
O 31.5 16 1.96 1.5

Na : S : O

1 : 1 :

Na2S2O3

60) Given : Weight of sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3) = 6.3 g ; Weight of hydrochloric acid
(HCl) We know that

Y
IF
H
Thus weight of rectants = Weight of NaHCO3 + Weight of HCl = 6.3 + 10.0 = 16.3 g
C

And weight of products = Weight of x + Weight of CO2 = 12.0 + CO2.

EA

We also know from the law of conservation of mass that weight of rectants = Weight of
product.
PR

Therefore 16.3 = 12.0 + CO2 or CO2 = 16.3 – 12.0 = 4.3

Therefore weight of CO2 released = 4.3 g.
@

61)

S + O2 SO2
a a/2

NO2 + SO2 + H2O H2SO4 + NO

a/2 0.4a

0.4a × 98 = 98 = 1960

a=
a = 50
Mass = a × 32
g 'S' = 50 × 32 = 1600 g
 62)

63)

Y
IF
H
C
EA
PR

64)
@

65)

Molar
Mass Moles Ratio
Mass

P 254 127 2 P:Q

Q 80 16 5 2 :5

P2Q5

66)
 67)

68)

NA = No. of H2O molecules

For ethanol

=
Wt = 447.2

V= =
= 559 mL

69) Mass of 1 L of N2 = = 1.25 g

Y
70)
IF
H
C

Molar
Mass Moles Spefification
mass
EA

C 38.8 12 3.23 1
PR

H 16 1 16 5
@

N 45.2 14 3.23 1

CH5N

71)

4g He 6 × 1023 atom

1g He = 1.5 × 1023atom

72)

Fe2O3 FeO O1 : O2

Fe :1
3 :2

73) Mass of Metal Chloride MClx = M + x × 35.5

= 2 × V.D
= 79
 Mω = Eω × x
MClx = 3.82 × x + x × 35.5 = 79
x=2
Atomic Weight = 3.82 × 2 = 7.64

74) Let M is molecular weight

moles of Br =

wt. of Br =
M = 2295.45 = 240 + 75 + 44n
n = 45

75) Mass of 0.05 Moles of B2A3 = 9 g

Mass of 1 mole of B2A3 = = 180 g

Mass of 0.10 moles of B2A = 10 g

Mass of 1 mole of B2A = = 100 g

Y
2B + 3A = 180 g ....(i)
2B + A = 100 g ....(ii)
IF
____________________
H
A = 40 g
C

B = 30 g
EA
PR

76) Correct answer is (B)

@

77) Question Explanation: The assertion compares the number of molecules in 88g of
CO2 and 72g of H2O starting that CO2 has more molecules. The reason given is that both have 4
moles of molecules. We need to verify both the assertion and the reason.

Concept:
The number of moles is determined by dividing the mass of the substances by its molar mass.
The number of molecules in a sample is directly proportional to the number of moles.

Solution:
• The molar mass of CO2 is 44g/mol, so 88g of CO2 contains.

• 2 moles of CO2 molecules.

• The molar mass of H2O is 18g/mol, so 72g of H2O contains:

4 moles of H2O molecules.

Since CO2 has 2 moles of molecules and H2O has 4 moles of molecules, the assertion is
incorrect.
Additionally the reason starting that both have 4 moles of molecules is also incorrect.

Final Answer
Both the reason and the reason are incorrect
Correct option: (4)

78)

Specific gravity is dimensionless as it is relative term dimensions of density is cancelled by

dimensions of other density.

79)

3.2 g 'O' in l00 g compound

16 g 'O' in = 500 g
Minimum molecular mass is the mass of compound which have at least 1 atom.

80)

CH4 : O2 : SO2

Y
IF
H
4 : 2 : 1
C
EA

81)
PR

Avg. atomic mass is always between highest and lowest isotope more the abundance of
particular isotope avg. atomic mass is near to that.
@

82)

1 gm molecule = 1 mole
1 mole = 5 NA atoms

83)

Option (2) is correct

84)

Equivalent Mass =
H3PO4 can give 3H+ hence it is tribasic acid

85)

Option (1) is correct

86)

1e– mass = 9.1 × 10–31 × 103 g

6 × 1023 e– mass = 9.1 × 10–31 × 6 × 1023 × 103g molar mass

n=

87)

VInitial = 20 + 120 = 140 ml

Vfinal after Ist contraction = 140 – 60 = 80 ml
= VKOH absorbed = 60 ml
V'Final after 2nd contraction = 80 – 60 = 20 ml
This is 20 ml is vol. of unreacted O2
so (reacted) = 100 ml

Y
20ml IF
VCO2 = 20 x = 60 = x = 3
H
VCO2 = = 100 = y = 8
C

C3H8
EA
PR

88)
@

On solving,
X = 30, Y = 16

89)

3Fe2O3(s) → 2Fe3O4 + O2
480 g Fe2O3 provide 16 g O2.

For loss of 0.04 g O2 → 0.04 × = 1.2 g

Fe2O3% by mass of

SiO2 = × 100 = 40%

 90) + O2 8CO2 + 5H2O

ratio of =

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XI Pg. # 131

92) NCERT Pg # 132

93)

Y
IF
Lipids are arranged within the cell membrane with the hydrophobic tails towards the inner
part because.
H
This ensures that non-polar tail of saturated hydrocarbons is protected from the aqueous
C

environment.
EA
PR

94) Active transport occurs from low concentration to high concentration.

@

95)

Plasmodesmata are cytoplasmic connection between two cells.

96)

Cell wall in plant is non-living and Mainly made up of polysaccharide

97)

Ribophorin is glycoprotein present on cisternae of ER

98)

(A) Animal cells contain non-membrane bound organelle called centriole which help in cell
division.
(B) Lipids are arranged within the plasma membrane with the polar head towards the outer
sides and the hydrophobic tails towards the inner side.
99)

The stroma of chloroplast contains:-

Small, double stranded DNA molecule

100) NCERT Pg.#135

101)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 133, 8.5.3.1, 8.5.3.2

102)

Mitochondria are semi-autonomous.

103) NCERT Pg. # 132

104) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 95, fig.-8.5

Y
IF
105)
H
C

Double membrane and 70S ribosomes are found in both plastid and mitochondria
EA
PR

106)

Carbohydrates < Proteins > Lipids

@

107)

Porins are present in outer membrane of plastid and mitochondria

108)

Middle lamella is present outside the primary wall

109) Chlorophyll pigments are present in thylakoid and enzymes for the synthesis of
carbohydrates are found in stroma

110)

The correct answer is:

4. All of the above
Explanation:
The fluid nature of the cell membrane refers to the ability of the lipid bilayer to allow
movement of lipids and proteins within the membrane. This flexibility is crucial for several
 cellular processes, including:
1. Cell growth and division:

A. The fluidity of the membrane allows it to expand and reorganize during cell growth and
division, enabling ·the formation of new membranes during cell division.

2. Formation of intercellular junctions:

A. The fluidity of the membrane allows cells to interact and form junctions like tight junctions,
gap junctions, or desmosomes, which are essential for cell-to-cell communication and
adhesion.

3. Secretion and endocytosis:

A. Membrane fluidity facilitates processes like vesicle formation (for secretion) and vesicle fusion
with the membrane (for endocytosis), allowing the cell to take in or release substances.

Thus, the fluid nature of the membrane is key to all of these processes.

111)

XIth NCERT OLD, Pg. 132 - 133

112)
Y
IF
H
Tertiary cell wall is present in some plant cells
C
EA

113)
PR

NCERT STATEMENT
@

114) NCERT Pg. # 131

115) NCERT Pg. # 132

116)

NCERT STATEMENT

117)

NCERT STATEMENT

118)

NCERT STATEMENT

119)
NCERT STATEMENT

120)

NCERT STATEMENT

121)

NCERT STATEMENT

122)

NCERT STATEMENT

123)

Module pg - 182

Y
124) IF
NCERT STATEMENT
H
C
EA

125)
PR

Mitochondria :-
(b) are typically sausage-shaped or cylindrical
(c) are double membrane bound structures
@

(d) have two aqueous compartments

126)

NCERT STATEMENT

127)

NCERT STATEMENT

128) NCERT Pg#134

129) NCERT XI Pg # 131

130) NCERT Pg. # 133

131) NCERT XI Pg.# 135

132) NCERT XI Pg.# 136

133)

NCERT Pg. # 136

134)

NCERT STATEMENT

135)

NCERT STATEMENT

136)

The correct statement is

(a) It is characterized by a single large droplet of fat in the cytoplasm of its cells.
(d) Cytoplasm is pushed to periphery

Y
Explanation: This describes the characteristic feature of white adipose cells, which are the
IF
primary fat cells in the body. These cells store large amounts of fat in a single, large droplet
H
within their cytoplasm, pushing the nucleus and other organelles to the periphery of the cell.
C

This is a consequence of the large fat droplet in white adipose cells, not a separate
EA

statement. The single large lipid droplet occupies most of the cell's volume, pushing the
cytoplasm and organelles to the edges.
PR

137)
@

Old NCERT Page # 104

138)

Adjacent epithelial cells are held together by specialized structures called cell junctions. These
junctions include desmosomes, tight junctions, and adherens junctions, which play different
roles in maintaining tissue integrity and function.

139)

Option (1) is correct

140) NCERT XI, Pg. # 102, IInd Para

141)

Old NCERT Page # 103

 142)

Old NCERT Page # 101

143)

Old NCERT Page # 102

144)

Old NCERT Page # 104

145)

Old NCERT Page # 103

146)

Old NCERT Page # 102

Y
IF
147) NCERT Pg # 103
H
C
EA

148) NCERT Pg # 102-103

PR

149) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 103

@

150)

NCERT Pg # 104, 105

151) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 103

152) NCERT-Page No. # 104

153) Correct Matching is

List-I List-II
(Epithelial tissue) (Location)

1. Cuboidal Epithelium V Lining of pancreatic duct

2. Ciliated Epithelium IV Inner lining of Fallopian tubes

3. Columnar Epithelium III Inner surface of gall bladder

4. Squamous Epithelium II Inner lining of blood vessels

 5. Keratinized Squamous I Epidermis of skin
Correct Option: (A)-(V), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II), (E)-(I)
Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

154)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which type of muscle has a special structure
called intercalated discs. It provides four options where muscles are found: Brain, Spinal cord,
Stomach, and Heart, and we need to identify the correct one.

Underlying Concept: Intercalated discs are unique structural features found in cardiac
muscle cells. These discs are specialized connections that link adjacent cardiac muscle cells,
allowing synchronized contraction of the heart. They are not present in muscles of other
organs like the brain, spinal cord, or stomach.

Tips and Tricks: Remember: intercalated discs are unique to cardiac muscle, which is found
only in the heart. So the keyword 'heart' should lead you to the correct answer.

Common Mistakes: Confusing muscles in other organs like the stomach (which has smooth

Y
muscle) or assuming muscles in the brain or spinal cord have intercalated discs.
IF
H
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Brain and spinal cord contain nervous tissue, not
C

muscle tissue. Stomach contains smooth muscle, which lacks intercalated discs. Only the heart
EA

has cardiac muscle with intercalated discs.

PR

155)
@

Old NCERT Page # 105

156)

Old NCERT Page # 105

157)

Old NCERT Page # 105

158)

Old NCERT Page # 105

159)

NCERT XI, Page # 232

160)

Old NCERT Page # 105

161)

Old NCERT Page # 105

162)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 231

163)

The correct answer is: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Schwann cells are glial cells found in the peripheral nervous system. Their primary function
is to provide support and insulation to nerve fibers.
1. Myelinated nerve fibers: Schwann cells wrap around the axons to form the myelin sheath,
which enhances the speed of nerve impulse conduction.

Y
2. Unmyelinated nerve fibers: Even in unmyelinated fibers, Schwann cells provide support
IF
by surrounding multiple axons without forming a myelin sheath.
Thus, Schwann cells are found on both myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers, making
H
option 3 correct.
C
EA

164)
PR

Old NCERT Page # 105

@

165)

Old NCERT Page # 105

166)

Old NCERT Page # 105

167) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

168)

Old NCERT Page # 102

169)

Old NCERT Page # 101

170) NCERT Page No. # 103 (E/H)

171) NCERT Pg. # 104

172)

Old NCERT Page # 103

173)

Old NCERT Page # 103

174)

Old NCERT Page # 101

175)

Y
Old NCERT Page # 101 IF
H
176)
C
EA

Old NCERT Page # 104

PR

177)
@

Old NCERT Page # 101

178)

Old NCERT Page # 101

179)

NCERT XI, pg. # 104

180)

NCERT XI, pg. # 103