24-08-2025

5001CMD303032250009 MD

PHYSICS

1) Four identical metal plates are located in air at equal distance d from one another as shown in
figure. The area of each plate is equal to A. Find the capacitance of the system between points A and

B-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Six equal capacitors each of capacitance C are connected as shown in the figure. Then the

equivalent capacitance between A and B is :-

(1) 6C
(2) C
(3) 2C
(4) C/2

3) Statement-1 : Unit of capacitance is Farad.

Statement-2 : Capacitance of a spherical conductor of radius R is given by C = 4πε0R

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true

(2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false

4) Assertion : Dielectric constant of metal is infinite.

Reason : Electric field inside metal is zero.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

5) Find the charge on the capacitor in the following circuit :-

(1) 12µC
(2) 14µC
(3) 20µC
(4) 18µC

6) Consider the situation shown. The switch S is opened for a long time and then closed. The charge

flown through the battery when S is closed :

(1) CE
(2) CE / 2
(3) CE / 3
(4) CE / 4

7) Statement-I: The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire decreases when the temperature
of the wire is increased.
Statement-II: On increasing the temperature, the conductivity of a metallic wire increases.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are True

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are False
(3) Statement-I is True but Statement-II is False
(4) Statement-I is False but Statement-II is True

8) The charge on 4 µF capacitor in the given circuit is .... in µC :-

(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 36
(4) 32

9) Two insulated charged spheres of radii R1 and R2 having charges Q1 and Q2 respectively are
connected to each other, then there is –

(1) No change in the energy of the system

(2) An increase in the energy of the system
(3) Always a decrease in the energy of the system
(4) A decrease in energy of the system if Q1R2 Q2 R1

10) An uncharged capacitor with a solid dielectric is connected to a similar air capacitor charged to
a potential of V0. If the common potential after sharing of charges becomes V, then the dielectric
constant of the dielectric must be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A parallel plate capacitor of capacity C0 is charged by a battery. After that charging battery is
disconnected and a dielectric is filled between the plates of capacitor. Column-I represents quantity
and Column-II represents the change occurred.

Column I Column II

A. P.E. of capacitor P. increases

B. P.D. between plates Q. decreases

C. Capacity of capacitor R. remain same

D. Charge on capacitor S. may increase or decreases

Match the columns and choose correct option from the given codes.
(1) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(2) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
(3) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q

12) A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The separation
between its plates is 'd'. The space between the plates is now filled with two dielectrics. One of the
dielectrics has dielectric constant K1 = 3 and thickness while the other one has dielectric constant

K2 = 6 and thickness . Capacitance of the capacitor is now :-

(1) 1.8 pF
(2) 45 pF
(3) 40.5 pF
(4) 20.25 pF

13) A current of 1.6 A is flowing through a wire having cross-sectional area 1 mm2. If density of free
electrons in the material of the wire is 1029 per m3, the drift velocity of electrons will be :-

(1) 10–4 m/s

(2) 10–3 m/s
(3) 10–2 m/s
(4) 0.1 m/s

14) If a copper wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, then the percentage change in resistance is
approximately :

(1) 0.1%
(2) 0.2%
(3) 0.4%
(4) 0.8%

15) Statement I : Conductivity arises from mobile charge carriers.

Statement II : In metals, electrons are mobile charge carriers .

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

16) The resistance of a wire is 20 ohm. It is so stretched that the length becomes three times, then
the new resistance of the wire will be :-

(1) 6.67 ohm

(2) 60.0 ohm
(3) 120 ohm
(4) 180.0 ohm

17) Assertion (A) : If three capacitors of capacitances C1 < C2 < C3 are connected in series and

parallel, then Cparallel > Cseries. Reason (R) : Cseries= C1 + C2 + C3 and

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

18) Consider a solid wire of square cross–section (fig.). Its resistance between square faces is R1 and

between rectangular faces is R2 then R1/R2 is

(1) a/b
(2) b/a
(3) a2/b2
(4) b2/a2

19) A wire has a non-uniform cross-sectional area as shown in figure. A steady current i flows

through it. Which one of the following statement is correct

(1) The drift speed of electron is constant

(2) The drift speed increases on moving from A to B
(3) The drift speed decreases on moving from A to B
(4) The drift speed varies randomly

20) Match the column :

Column I Column II

A. Current density (J) P.

B. Drift velocity (Vd) Q.

C. Resistance (R) R.

D. Specific resistance (ρ) S.

(1) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R

(2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(3) A-P, B-S, C-Q, D-R
(4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S

21) A car moves a distance of 200 m. It covers the first half of the distance at speed 40 km/h and the
second half of distance at speed v. The average speed is 48 km/h. Find the value of v

(1) 56 km/h
(2) 60 km/h
(3) 50 km/h
(4) 48 km/h

22) The velocity Vs time graph of particle moving on a straight line is shown. The average velocity in
the Ist one second is v1 m/s and the average velocity in the 2nd one second is v2 m/s. What is the

average velocity in the last one second.

(1) 2v1
(2) v1 + v2/2
(3) 2v2
(4) v2 – v1

23) A car accelerates from rest a constant rate α for some time, after which it decelerates at a
constant rate β and comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, then the maximum velocity acquired
by the car is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Let and denote the velocity and acceleration respectively of a body in one-dimensional
motion

(1) must decrease when <0

(2) speed must increase when >0
(3) speed will increase when both < 0 and >0
(4) speed will decrease when < 0 and >0

25) The displacement of a particle moving along a straight line as a function of time t is given by:-
x = t3 + 2t2 + 3t + 4. Then find incorrect statement
(1) The particle starts from origin
(2) The initial velocity of the particle is 3 ms–1
(3) The acceleration of the particle is variable
(4) The particle starts with an acceleration of 4 ms–2

26) A particle moves along the curve y = . Here x varies with time as x = . Where x and y are
measured in metre and t in second. At t = 2s, the velocity of the particle (in ms–1) is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) A ball is thrown upwards from the top of a tower 40 m high with a velocity of 10 m/s, the time

when it strikes the ground (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 1s
(2) 2s
(3) 3s
(4) 4s

28) Calculate the average velocity for complete journey for the following
graph?

(1) 40 m/s
(2) 35 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

29) Two similar cannons simultaneously fire two identical cannon balls at target 1 and 2 as shown in
the figure. If the cannon balls have identical initial speeds, which of the following statements is true?

(1) Target 2 will hit before target 1

(2) Target 1 will hit before target 2
(3) Both targets will hit at the same time
(4) information is insufficient

30) The equation of projectile is y = 13x – the horizontal range is :

(1) 16 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 39 m
(4) 3 m

31) A body is projected in such a way that its horizontal range and time of flight both are equal to

in numerical values. The angle of projection will be:-

θ = tan–1
(1)

(2)
θ = tan–1

(3)
θ = tan–1

(4)
θ= tan–1

32) The range R of projectile is same when its maximum heights are h1 and h2.What is the relation
between R, h1 and h2 ?

(1) R =

(2) R =

(3) R =

(4) R =

33) A man is walking due east with a velocity of 3km/h. Rain falls vertically downwards at a speed of
10 km/h. What is the direction with vertical in which man should hold his umbrella to protect himself
from the rain :-

(1) tan–1(0.3)
(2) tan–1(2)
(3) tan–1(0.6)
(4) tan–1(4)

34) If initial velocity of a particle of mass 2 kg is 5 m/s, then find final momentum.

(1) 100 N sec

(2) 110 N sec
(3) 105 N sec
(4) 120 N sec

35)

Calculate impulse on 2 kg mass at 2s which position-time curve is given.

(1) –8(kg m/s)

(2) 8(kg m/s)
(3) 4 kg m/s
(4) –4 kg m/s

36) A particle of mass 0.3 kg is subjected to a force F = –kx with k = 15 N/m. What will be its initial
acceleration if it is released from a point 20 cm away from the origin :-

(1) 5 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 3 m/s2
(4) 15 m/s2

37) Two blocks are in contact on a frictionless table. One has mass m and the other 2m. A force F is
applied on 2m as shown in the figure. Now the same force F is applied from the right on m. In the
two cases respectively, the ratio of force of contact between the two blocks will be :
(1) same
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 3

38) The tension in the string which connected the blocks as shown in the following figure.

(1) 8 N
(2) 16 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 12 N

39) Assertion (A) :- A projectile that traverses a parabolic path show deviation from its idealised
trajectory in the presence of air resistance.
Reason (R) :- Air resistance affect the motion of the projectile.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

40) Trajectory of particle in a projectile motion is given as . Here, x and y are in metre.
For this projectile motion, match the following and select proper option (g = 10 m/s2) :-

Column
Column I
II

(A) Angle of projection (p) 20 m

Angle of velocity with

(B) (q) 80 m
horizontal after 4s

(C) Maximum height (r) 45°

(D) Horizontal range (s)

tan–1
(1) A→s, B→s, C→q, D→p
(2) A→r, B→r, C→q, D→p
(3) A→r, B→r, C→p, D→q
(4) A→s, B→r, C→p, D→q

41) Assertion (A): To cross the river in minimum time, swimmer should swim in a direction
perpendicular to the water current.
Reason (R): In this case river flow helps to cross the river.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

42) Assertion : If a body of mass m is projected upwards with a speed V making an angle θ with the
vertical, than the change in the momentum of the body along x-axis is zero.
Reason : Momentum of the body remains constant along x-axis.

Assertion (A) is correct, reason (R) is correct and Reason (R) is correct explaination for
(1)
assertion.
Assertion (A) is correct, reason (R) is correct and Reason (R) is not correct explaination for
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Assertion (A) is incorrect , Reason (R) is correct

43) Ratio of weight of a man in a stationary lift and weight of a man in a lift moving downward with
an acceleration is 3 : 2 then acceleration of lift is :

(1) g / 3
(2) g / 2
(3) g
(4) 2g

44) A parallel plate capacitor has two dielectric medium as shown in figure. Then the graph which
shows variation of electric field intensity (E) with distance from left plate (x) :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The distance between plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 5d. The positively charged plate is at
x=0 and negatively charged plates is at x=5d. Two slabs – one of conductor and the other of a
dielectric, both of same thickness d are inserted between the plates as shown in figure. Potential (v)

versus distance x graph will be

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) What is the ratio of vapour densities of CH4 and SO2?

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

2) 10 mL gaseous hydrocarbon combust with oxygen to give 40 mL CO2 and 50 mL H2O(g) formula of
hydrocarbon will be :-

(1) CH4
(2) C3H8
(3) C4H10
(4) C5H12

3) 2 g metal oxide contains 1.8 g metal. Equivalent weight of metal is :-

(1) 36
(2) 72
(3) 48
(4) 32

4) 1 amu in kg is ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) 1 g equivalent H2 is equal to ?

(1) 1 mole H2
(2) 2 mole H2

(3)
mole H2

(4)
mole H2

6) Number of electrons in 18 mL of water are :-

(1) NA
(2) 10 NA
(3) 18 NA

(4)

7) Maximum number of atoms are in :-

(1) 22.4 L SO2 (g) at NTP

(2) 1.6 g CH4
(3) 1.8 g H2O
(4) 22.4 L O2(g) at NTP

8) 56 g of N2 and 10g of H2 are mixed to produce NH3(g). How much NH3 will be formed in process :
N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

(1) 73 g
(2) 56.6 g
(3) 14 g
(4) 82 g

9) A mixture containing 64.0g H2 and 64.0g O2 is ignited so that water is formed 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O,
which of the following is/are correct
(a) H2 is limiting reagent
(b) O2 is limiting reagent
(c) Reaction mixture contain 72g H2O and 56g of unreacted H2
(d) Reaction mixture contain 56g H2O and 72g of unreacted H2

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) b, d
(4) Only a

10) The combustion of methane is expressed as : CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O (g)
The number of moles of methane required to produce 11.0 g of CO2 after combustion is :

(1) 0.02
(2) 0.20
(3) 0.25
(4) 0.5

11) The number of litres of air required to burn 10 litres of C2H6 is :-

(1) 35 litres
(2) 3.5 litres
(3) 175 litres
(4) 100 litres

12) Vapour density of metal chloride is 79. Equivalent weight of metal is 4, then its atomic weight
will be:-

(1) 4
(2) 16
(3) 9
(4) 12

13) Calculate the weight of lime (CaO) obtained by heating 200 Kg of 95% pure lime stone (CaCO3) :-

(1) 104.4 kg
(2) 105.4 kg
(3) 212.8 kg
(4) 106.4 kg

14) Match List-I (Compounds) with List-II (Oxidation states of Nitrogen) and select answer using the
codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(a) NaN3 (1) +5

(b) N2H2 (2) +2

(c) NO (3) -1/3

 (d) N2O5 (4) -1
Codes:-
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 3 4 2 1

(2) 4 3 2 1

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 4 3 1 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) What is oxidation state of S in Na2S4O6 :

(1) +2.5
(2) +2, +2, +3, +3
(3) +2, +2, +2, +3
(4) +5, 0, 0, +5

16) Which of the following have one lone pair on the central atom ?
(I) NH3
(II) SF4
(III) XeO4
(IV) XeF6

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, IV
(3) I, IV
(4) I, II,III, IV

17) The hybridization of O in H3O+ is:

(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3d
(4) sp3

18) Which of the following species is neither hypervalent nor hypovalent?

¯
(1) ClO4
(2) BCl3
2–
(3) SO4
2–
(4) CO3
19) Which of the following will have maximum bond energy?

(1) H2
(2) Br2
(3) Cl2
(4) F2

20) Which overlap results in the formation of strongest bond :

(1) s–s
(2) p–p (co-axial)
(3) s–p
(4) p–p(co-lateral)

21)

Which of the following is not correctly matched:-

Bond angle Number of
bond angles
(1) CH4 → 109°28' → 6
(2) SF6 → 90° → 12
(3) IF7 → 90° → 10
(4) PCl5 → 90° → 5

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) The shape of XeF3+ is :-

(1) Trigonal planar

(2) Pyramidal
(3) T shape
(4) See saw

23) Nitrogen exists in form of N2 but phosphorous does not exists in form of P2 the reason is -

(1) Triple bond present between phosphorous atom.

(2) pπ – pπ bonding is weak between P-atoms.
(3) pπ – pπ bonding is strong between P-atoms.
(4) Multiple bond form easily between P-atoms.

24) Electronic configuration of four elements A, B, C, D are given below :

A = 1s2 2s2 2p6 B = 1s2 2s2 2p4
C = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 D = 1s2 2s2 2p5 Which of the following is the correct order of increasing
tendency to gain electron :-
(1) A < C < B < D
(2) A < B < C < D
(3) D < B < C < A
(4) D < A < B < C

25) The pair of d-orbital involved in sp3d2 hybridization is :-

(1) dxy, dyz

(2) dx2-y2, dz2
(3) dxz, dx2–y2
(4) dz2, dxz

26) Which reaction involves a change in hybridisation the under lined element ?

– –
(1) BF3 + F → BF4
+ +
(2) NH3 + H → NH4
(3) 2 SO2 + O2 → 2 SO3
+ +
(4) H2O + H → H3O

27) Which of the following pairs of elements have almost similar atomic radii :

(1) Zr, Hf
(2) Mo, W
(3) Co, Ni
(4) All

28) Which one of the following arrangements represent the correct order of electron gain enthalpy
(with negative sign) of the given atomic species.

(1) Cl < F < S < O

(2) O < S < F < Cl
(3) S < O < Cl < F
(4) F < Cl < O < S

29) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R),
Assertion (A): SiF6-2 anion exists but CF6-2 does not
Reason (R): Si atom has valant d-orbital while carbon atom has net.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

30) From following statement find true and false statement:

(I) Atomic radius order : S-2 < Cl- < K+ < Ca+2
(II) Ionisation order : I- < I < I+
(III) Electronegativity order : C < P < N < S < O
(IV) Acidity order : HOCl < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

(1) FFFT
(2) FTFT
(3) TTTF
(4) FTTF

31) and are :

(1) F.I.
(2) P.I
(3) C.I.
(4) G.I.

32) Which of the following pairs are correctly indicated.

(A) [Metamer]

(B) [Functional group isomer]

(C) [Positional isomer]

(D) [Homologous]

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

33) How many structural isomeric alcohol are possible having molecular formula C5H12O ?

(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 10

34) Total number of structural isomers of C6H14 (Hexane) are ?

(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 5
(4) 7

35) The relation between given compound is :-

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Positional isomer
(3) Functional group isomer
(4) Metamer

36) The Z-isomer among the following is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Correct stability order of conformers of n-butane is :

(1) Anti > Gauche > Fully eclipsed > Partially eclipsed
(2) Gauche > Anti > Partially eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(3) Anti > Gauche > Partially eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(4) Fully eclipsed > Partially eclipsed > Anti > Gauche

38) has the configuration :-

(1) (2S, 3R)

(2) (2R, 3S)
(3) (2R, 3R)
(4) (2S, 3S)

39) Meso compound is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

40)

Number of stereoisomers of the given compound is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

41) Which of following compound is chiral :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
42) The following two compounds are and

(1) Enantiomer
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Identical molecule
(4) Epimers

43) Which of the following carbocation is most stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The stability of the following carbanions follows the order:

a. b.

c.

(1) a > b > c

(2) b > a > c
(3) c > b > a
(4) b > a < c

45) Most acidic compound is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Which option is related with only monera and not related with other kingdom of R.H. Whittaker?
(1) Decomposer nature
(2) Presence of cell wall and cell membrene
(3) Well develop tissue system
(4) Nitrogen fixation ability

2) Main criteria used by R.H. Whittaker in his five kingdom classification was not the :-

(1) Cell structure

(2) Thallus (Body) organization
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Ecological role

3) Find the incorrect statement from the following -

(1) Aristotle was the earliest to attempt a more scientific basis for classification.
(2) Fungi have chitin in their wall while green plants have cellulose.
(3) Dinoflagellates float passively in water while diatoms have two flagella for floating.
(4) In euglenoids, both photosynthetic and heterotrophic nutrition is present

4) Consider the following statements:-

(a) They grow in soil, on logs and tree stumps and in living plant bodies as parasites. (b) The
mycelium is branched and septate and the asexual spores are generally not found but vegetative
reproduction by fragmentation is common. (c) The sex organs are absent but plasmogamy is brought
about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of different strains or genotypes. Above statements
are related to the member of which class :-

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

5) Which of the following is incorrect about blue green algae ?

(1) They may be unicellular, colonial or filamentous

(2) Their colonies are generally surrounded with membranous sheath
(3) They often form blooms in polluted water bodies
(4) Some of the members can fix atmospheric nitrogen

6) Which of the following are responsible for the production of methane in the gut of several
ruminant animals :-

(1) Halophiles
(2) Acidophiles
(3) E.coli
(4) Methanogens
7) Select option showing correct identification for above figure from A
to D :-

A B C D

(1) Bacillus Coccus Spirillum Vibrio

(2) Coccus Bacillus Spirillum Vibrio

(3) Coccus Spirillum Bacillus Vibrio

(4) Coccus Vibrio Bacillus Spirillum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Find the incorrect statements from the following:- (A) Bacterial structure is very simple but very
complex in behaviour (B) Bacteria show the most extensive metabolic diversity
(C) The vast majority of bacteria are autotrophs and a few are heterotrophs
(D) Bacterial cell wall is made up of lipoprotein

(1) Only A & B

(2) Only C & D
(3) Only A & D
(4) Only B & C

9) Holdfast, stipe and frond constitutes the plant body in case of

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

10) A bacterium divides in every 20 min. If a culture containing 105 cells/ml is grown for 2 hours
then what will be the number of cells in the culture.

(1) 32 × 105 cells/ml

(2) 64 × 105 cells/ml
(3) 16 × 105 cells/ml
(4) 20 × 105 cells/ml
11) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

Column-I Column-II

(1) Typhoid Bacteria

(2) Cholera Bacteria

(3) Citrus Canker Fungi

(4) Tetanus Bacteria

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Which fungi causes rust and smut diseases respectively?

(1) Ustilago and Agaricus

(2) Puccinia and Ustilago
(3) Puccinia and Agaricus
(4) Ustilago and Puccinia

13) Choose the incorrect statement from following:-

(1) Yeast are used to make bread and bear.

(2) Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
(3) Cell wall of fungi is composed of chitin and polysaccharides.
Fungi show symbiotic association with algae as mycorrhiza and with roots of higher plants as
(4)
lichens.

14) Assertion : The haploid plant body (gametophyte) produces gamete by mitosis.
Reason : Diploid plant body (sporophyte) produces spores by meiosis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) Which of the following is not a feature of phycomycetes ?

(1) Members have coenocytic, aseptate hyphae

(2) Members asexually resproduce by zoospores and aplanospores
(3) Members are found in aquatic habitats
(4) All the members are parasitic

16) The fungus often studied in experimental genetics and also called as "Drosophila of plant
kingdom" is :-
(1) Rhizopus
(2) Agaricus
(3) Aspergillus
(4) Neurospora

17) Which of the following is not belong to sac fungi?

(1) Aspergillus
(2) Agaricus
(3) Neurospora
(4) Claviceps

18) Select the correctly matched pair :-

(1) Oomycetes : Puccinia

(2) Basidiomycetes : Alternaria
(3) Phycomycetes : Rhizopus
(4) Deuteromycetes : Penicillium

19) Choose the incorrect statement of following :-

(1) Virus show mutation

(2) Virus are specific towards host
(3) Virus can multiply without host cell
(4) Virus can not be grown in culture media

20) Lichens are indicator of higher amount of which pollutant in air-

(1) SO2
(2) CO2
(3) CH4
(4) NO2

21) The diagram given below shows the various parts of a bacteriophage. Identify the labelled

parts A, B, C and D and choose the correct option :-

A B C D
 (1) Head Collar Sheath Sheath

(2) Collor Sheath Tail fibres Head

(3) Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres

(4) Tail fibres Collar Sheath Head

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) In ferns __A__ is small and __B__ are comparatively large.

(1) A-Stem, B-Leaves

(2) A-Root, B-Stem
(3) A-Root, B-Rhizome
(4) A-stem, B-Root

23) Small heart-shaped gametophyte called prothallus is the structure of the life cycle of :

(1) Liverworts
(2) Ferns
(3) Mosses
(4) Cycads

24) Which from the following are examples of heterosporous-

(Salvinia, Dryopteris, Adiantum, Psilotum, Selaginella, Quifetum)

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

25) Which one of the following fungus is not edible ?

(1) Morels
(2) Agaricus
(3) Truffles
(4) Ustilago

26) Chrysophytes involves :-

(1) Diatoms
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Desmids
(4) Both 1 and 3
27)

Select the correct option with respect to Trypanosoma-

(1) They are ciliated protozoans

(2) They are saprophytes
(3) They cause sleeping sickness
(4) They cause malaria

28)

In Lichen algae and fungi represent-

(1) Phycobiont & mycobiont

(2) Mycobiont, phycobiont
(3) Ascobiont & basidobiont
(4) Algobiont only

29) Which statement is/are wrong with respect to Archaebacteria.

(a) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure.
(b) Feature of cell wall is responsible for their survival in extreme conditions.
(c) Methanogens are present in the guts of several ruminant animals such as cow & buffalo.
(d) These are oldest of the living fossils.
(e) Peptidoglycan & muramic acid are present in cell wall

(1) a and e
(2) b and e
(3) a, b and c
(4) only e

30) Heterocyst :-

(1) Found in Nostoc and Anabaena

(2) Found in Fungi
(3) Found in Protista
(4) Found in Animals

31) Bacterial structure and behaviour are respectively.

(1) simple, simple

(2) complex, simple
(3) simple, complex
(4) complex, complex

32) Yeast (unicellular fungi) belongs to :-

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

33) Bacteria reproduce mainly by :-

(1) Fragmentation
(2) Fission
(3) Spore
(4) Budding

34) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Fungi prefer to grow in cold and humid places

(2) Karyogamy in fungi occurs after plasmogamy
(3) Yeast are used to make bread and beer
(4) Fungi bodies consist of long, slender thread like structures called hyphae.

35)

Identify the A, B, C and D

A - Equisetum, B - Paramoecium,
(1)
C - Funaria, D - Sphagnum
A - Euglena, B - Agaricus,
(2)
C - Ginkgo, D - Nostoc
A - Agaricus, B - Ginkgo,
(3)
C - Euglena, D - Equisetum
A - Nostoc, B - Euglena,
(4)
C - Agaricus, D - Ginkgo

36) Read the following statements. Find out which one is incorrect :–

(1) Cephaleuros is a parasitic brown alga

(2) Iodine is obtained from Laminaria.
(3) Zoospore and gametes of brown algae are pear shaped and have two unequal flagella.
(4) Origin and evolution of sex cells in algae is best seen in green algae.

37) In which of the following sexual reproduction is oogamous type and accompained by complex
post fertilization development ?

(1) Chara
(2) Ulothrix
(3) Ectocarpus
(4) Polysiphonia

38) Both ovary and fruit are present in :-

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Gymnosperm
(3) Angiosperm
(4) Bryophyta

39) (a)- Stem of Pinus and Cedrus are branched

(b)- Selaginella is heterosporous pteridophyte
(c)- Mustard is a flowering plant
(d)- Marchantia is dioecious bryophyta
(e)- Protonema is the character of Moss.
From given correct statement is/are .........

(1) Only a, c, d
(2) Only a, b, c
(3) Only b, c, d
(4) All are correct

40) The gametophyte is not an independent, free living generation in :-

(1) Polytrichum
(2) Adiantum
(3) Marchantia
(4) Cycas

41) Identify the algae and label the structure ‘‘A’’ correctly:-
(1) Laminaria ; Hold fast
(2) Fucus ; Air bladder
(3) Laminaria ; Air bladder
(4) Dictyota ; Stipe

42) Which one of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) The sporophyte in mosses is less elaborate then in liver worts

(2) The sporophyte in mosses is more elaborate then in liver worts
(3) The sporophyte is main plant body in mosses
(4) The sporophyte has only foot and seta in liver worts

43) Statement-I :- In chara upper oogonium and lower antheridium are present.
Statement-II :- Virus can not survive outside of host body.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

44) Assertion : Bacteria are the most abundant microorganisms.

Reason : Bacteria show most extensive metabolic diversity.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

45) Assertion : Majority of euglenoids are fresh water organism.

Reason : All unicellular eukaryotes placed under protista.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

46) During normal expiration :-

(1) EICM and diaphragm muscles contract

(2) IICM and abdominal muscles contract
(3) EICM and muscles of diaphragm relax
(4) Intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure

47) Which of the following correctly explains a phase/event in cardiac cycle in a standard
electrocardiogram ?
(1) QRS complex indicates atrial contraction
(2) QRS complex indicates ventricular contraction
(3) Time between S and T represents atrial systole
(4) P-wave indicates the beginning of ventricular contraction

48) Which one is the correct route through which impulse travels in the heart ?

(1) SA node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His → AV node → Heart muscles

(2) AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His → Heart muscles
(3) AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles
(4) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles

49) Read the following statements from A-D.

A. Fishes have a 2-chambered Heart
B. Amphibians and reptiles have a 3-chambered heart
C. Crocodiles have a 3-chambered heart
D. Birds and mammals possess a 4-chambered heart
How many of the above given statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

50) Correct match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Neutrophils I. 20-25% of WBC

(B) Basophils II. 2-3% of WBC

(C) Monocytes III. 6-8% of WBC

(D) Eosinophils IV. 0.5-1% of WBC

(E) Lymphocytes V. 60-65% of WBC

(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II, E-V
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I
(3) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-V, B-II, C-IV, D-III, E-I

51) Read the following statements (A-D) :-

A. RBCs are the most abundant of all the blood cells in blood
B. A healthy adult man has on an average 5 Billions to 5.5 Billions of RBCs mm–3 of blood
C. RBCs are formed in liver in the adults
D. RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the mammals and are biconcave in shape
How many of the above statements are incorrect :
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

52) Persons with _____ and ______ blood groups are called universal recipients & universal donors
respectively :

(1) AB–, O+
(2) O+, AB–
(3) O–, AB+
(4) AB+, O–

53) Which is not true in the following ?

(1) S.A. node is found in upper right corner of right atrium

(2) Nodal tissues are auto excitable in nature
(3) Atrial systole increases the flow of blood from the ventricles by about 30 percent
During joint diastole, blood flows from pulmonary vein and vena cava into left and right atria
(4)
respectively

54) Which of the following substance, if introduced in blood stream would cause coagulation of blood
at the site of its introduction ?

(1) Prothrombin
(2) Fibrinogen
(3) Thromboplastin
(4) Heparin

55)

Match the columns-

Superior Carry deO2

(a) (p)
vena cava blood from heart

Inferior Carry O2 blood

(b) (q)
vena cava from lungs

Brings deO2 blood

Coronary
(c) (r) from lower parts of
vein
body to right atrium

Brings deO2 blood

Pulmonary
(d) (t) from upper part of
vein
body into right atrium

a b c d
 (1) q t r p

(2) t p q r

(3) t r p q

(4) t p r q
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

56) Match column–I with column–II :-

Column–I Column–II

Heart not
(A) Cardiac arrest (i) pumping blood
effectively

Heart muscle
(B) Heart failure (ii) is suddenly
damaged

(C) Heart attack (iii) Acute chest pain

(D) Angina (iv) Heart stops beating

(1) (A)–i, (B)–ii, (C)–iii, (D)–iv
(2) (A)–iv, (B)–ii, (C)–i, (D)–iii
(3) (A)–iv, (B)–i, (C)–ii, (D)–iii
(4) (A)–ii, (B)–iii, (C)–i, (D)–iv

57) Which statement is correct regarding the cardiac cycle?

(1) The first heart sound (Lub) is associated with the closure of the AV valves.
(2) During ventricular systole, atrioventricular valves open and semilunar valves close.
(3) From the atria nearly 70% of the blood flows into the ventricles during atrial systole.
(4) The first heart sound is of shorter duration and caused by the closure of the semilunar valves.

58) Identify A to F in the given diagram :-

Choose the correct option.

(1) A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary vein, D-Pulmonary artery, E-Dorsal aorta, F-Vena cava
(2) A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein, E-Dorsal aorta, F-Vena cava
(3) A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein, E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta
(4) A-Body parts, B-Lungs, C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein, E-Vena cava, F-Dorsal aorta

59) Cardiac output is defined as :-

(1) Volume of the blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute
(2) Volume of the blood contained in the entire heart
(3) Volume of the oxygenated blood pumped by heart
(4) Volume of the deoxygenated blood pumped by heart

60) Which of the following is correct option for Blood groups :-

Blood Antigens on A n t i b o d i e s in
Group RBCs plasma
(1) A A Anti-B
(2) B A Anti-A
(3) AB Nil Anti-A,B
(4) O A,B Nil
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) Erythroblastosis foetalis condition is observed when:

(1) Rh +ve pregnant mother has Rh –ve foetus.

(2) Rh –ve pregnant mother has Rh +ve foetus.
(3) Rh +ve pregnant mother has Rh –ve foetus.
(4) Both in (2) and (3).

62) First heart sound is produced due to the closing of :

(1) Tricuspid valve

(2) Biscuspid valve
(3) Semilunar valve
(4) Both 1 and 2

63) The haemoglobin of a human foetus

(1) Has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult

(2) Has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of an adult
(3) Its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult
(4) Has only 2 protein subunit instead of 4

64)

(i) This fluid has the same mineral distribution as that in plasma.
(ii) Exchange of nutrient, gases between the blood and the cell always occurs through this fluid.
(iii) It is one important carrier for nutrients.
(iv) It is a coloured fluids responsible for immune responses of the body.

How many of the above statements are true for lymph?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

65) Which blood vessel transports nutrients from small intestine to liver ?

(1) Hepatic vein

(2) Vena cava
(3) Hepatic artery
(4) Hepatic portal vein

66) Blood capillaries are made of :-

(1) Endothelium and thin coat of connective tissue.

(2) Endothelium and thin coat of muscle fibres.
(3) Endothelium and thin coat of connective tissue and muscle fibres.
(4) Only endothelium.

67) ECG depicts the depolarization and repolarization processes during the cardiac cycle. In the
ECG of a normal healthy individual, which of the following waves is not represented ?

(1) Depolarisation of atria

(2) Repolarisation of atria
(3) Depolarisation of ventricles
(4) Repolarisation of ventricles

68) Which of the following events occur during joint diastole ?

(I) All four-chambers are in relaxed state
(II) Blood flows from right ventricle to pulmonary arteies
(III) Semilunar valves are open
(IV) Blood flows from left ventricle into the body
The option containing correct choice is :

(1) Only I
(2) Only III
(3) II and IV
(4) II and III

69) Assertion :- First heart sound (LUBB) is produced at the begining of ventricular systole stage.
Reason :- During ventricular systole semilunar valves are open.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

70) Assertion (A):- Lymph has the same mineral distribution as that in plasma.
Reason (R):- Lymph is an important carrier for nutrients, hormones and is red in colour.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

71) Given below are two statements :- Statement-I : PO2, PCO2, H+ concentration, T Binding
of O2 with haemoglobin in Alveoli. Statement-II : PO2, PCO2, H+ concentration, T
O2 Dissociated with haemoglobin in tissue.

(1) Both statement-I & statement-II are false

(2) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
(3) Both statement-I & statement-II are true
(4) None of these

72) Which part of the human brain controls the breathing movements ?

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Diencephalon
(4) Medulla oblongata

73) Which is the correct sequence of the air passage in man?

(1) Nasal chamber → Pharynx → Trachea → Larynx → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli

(2) Nasal chamber → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli
(3) Nasal chamber → Larynx → Pharynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli
(4) Nasal chamber → Larynx → Bronchi → Pharynx → Trachea → Bronchioles → Alveoli

74) Amount of oxygen transported by one gram of haemoglobin is :-

(1) 1.34 ml
(2) 13.4 ml
(3) 20 ml
(4) 3.7 ml

75) Arrange the following in the order of decreasing volume :-

(A) Tidal volume
(B) Residual volume
(C) Inspiratory reserve volume
(D) Vital capacity

(1) D → C → B → A
(2) D → B → C → A
(3) B → C → D → A
(4) C → B → D → A

76) Some symptoms of a disorder are given read them and identify the disorder :-
(a) Alveolar walls are damaged
(b) Respiratory surface is decreased
(c) Smoking is major cause

(1) Asthma
(2) Emphysema
(3) Silicosis
(4) Pneumonia

77) Maximum CO2 is transported in the form of :-

(1) Dissolve state with plasma water

(2) Carbonate salts through RBCs
(3) Bicarbonate
(4) Carbamino compound through RBC

78) Assertion (A): Partial pressure of O2 in atmosphere is 0.3 mm Hg.

Reason (R): Partial pressure of CO2 in alveoli is 104 mm Hg.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) is incorrect

79)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) At the time of inspiration, contraction in diaphragm and external intercostal muscles take place.
(b) Contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of thoracic chamber in the anterior posterior
axis.
(c) Exhalation during Sneezing, cough and Yoga is called normal exhalation in which there is
relaxation of IICM and abdominal muscles.
(d) Inspiration can occur if the pressure within lungs (intra pulmonary pressure) is more than the
atmospheric pressure.
(1) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statement (a) only
(3) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Statements (a) and (b)

80) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column I Column II Column III

Tidal volume
(i) (EC – ERV) 500 ml
(TV)

Expiratory
(ii) reserve volume (VC – IRV – TV) 3000 ml
(ERV)

Vital capacity
(iii) IRV + ERV + RV 4500 ml
(VC)

Residual
(iv) FRC – ERV 1200 ml
volume (RV)
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)

81) What happens in Hamburger shift ?

– –
(1) HCO3 ions move out from the RBC and Cl ions enters into RBC
– –
(2) Cl ions move out from the RBC and HCO3 ions enters into RBC
(3) H+ ions move out from the plasma and Cl– ions enters into RBC
– –
(4) HCO3 ions move out from the plasma and Cl ions enters into plasma

82) Match the following columns.

Column I Column II

Inspiratory Total air, a person can inspire

A 1
capacity (IC) after normal expiration

Maximal volume of the air,

Expiratory
B 2 a person can breath in
capacity (EC)
after a forced expiration

Functional Volume of the air that will

C residual capacity 3 remain in lungs after a
(FRC) normal expiration
 Total volume of air a person
Vital capacity
D 4 can expire after a normal
(VC)
inspiration
Codes :-
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(3) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

83) A person suffers punctures in his chest cavity in an accident, without any damage to the lungs its
effect could be:-

(1) Reduced breathing rate

(2) Rapid increase in breathing rate
(3) No change in respiration
(4) Cessation of breathing

84) Inspiration can occur, when –

(1) Pressure within the lungs is less than the atmospheric pressure.
(2) Pressure within the lungs is more than the atmospheric pressure.
(3) Pressure within the lungs and atmospheric air is same.
(4) No effect of pressure on inspiration.

85) Which one of the following statement is correct?

(1) Chest expands because air enters into the lungs

(2) Air enters into the lungs so chest expands
(3) The muscles of the diaphragm contracts because air enters into the lungs
(4) All of the above statements are incorrect

86) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column I Column II Column III

(I) At tissue level Po2 = 40 mm Hg Pco2 = 45 mm Hg

(ii) In pulmonary vein Po2 = 95 mm Hg Pco2 = 50 mm Hg

(iii) In systemic artery Po2 = 40 mm Hg Pco2 = 45 mm Hg

(iv) In alveoli Po2 = 104 mm Hg Pco2 = 40 mm Hg

(1) Both (i) and (ii)
(2) Both (i) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) Both (iii) and (iv)

87) Effect of high H+ on the human blood is that :-

(1) It increases the affinity of O2 for haemoglobin
(2) It decreases the affinity of O2 for haemoglobin
(3) It increases association of Hb and O2.
(4) It decreases the value of P50

88) Branchial respiration, cutaneous respiration & pulmonary respiration refers to :-

(1) Respiration through lungs, gills and skin respectively.

(2) Respiration through skin, gills and lungs respectively.
(3) Respiration through gills, Trachea and lungs respectively.
(4) Respiration through gills, skin and lungs respectively.

89) Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

(1) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.

(2) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
(3) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin.
(4) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.

90) Given below graph shows an oxygen dissociation curve :-

Where in the body will haemoglobin be saturation at the percentage shown at points X, Y and Z.

(1) X - Pulmonary artery, Y - Pulmonary vein, Z - Carotid artery

(2) X - Systemic artery, Y - Pulmonary artery, Z - Pulmonary vein
(3) X - Pulmonary vein, Y - Systemic vein, Z - Systemic vein during exercise
(4) X - Left ventricle, Y - Right ventricle, Z - Systemic vein
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 1 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 1 2 2 4 2 3 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 4 4 1 2 4 4 2 3 2 4 1 2 2 2 2 1 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 1 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 2 3 3 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 4 1 4 2 4 4 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 2 1 2 1 4 2 4 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 1 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 3 3 2 4 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 4 4 2 3 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 2 1 4 4 3 1 4 1 3 2 2 1 4 1 4 3 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 1 2 2 3 2 4 2 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 1 2 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 1 2 4 4 2 1 1 3 3 4 2 1 1 2 3 4 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 4 1 4 2 2 4 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) The given network of capacitors can be redrawn as follows :

C4 is in parallel to a balanced Wheatstone bridge made from the rest five capacitors as shown
in the figure. Therefore, equivalent capacitance = C + C = 2C.

3)

conceptual

4) conceptual

5)

Short circuit the battery

Resistance accross capacitor

Req =

=
τ = Req C

= μs
= 11 μs
6)

Initial charge supply by battery

Q1 =
Final charge supply by battery
Q2 = CV

ΔQ = Q2 – Q1 =

7)

Conceptual

8)

9)

correct answer (4)

10)

C1 = KC C2 = C
V1 = 0 V2 = V0

11) Formula : (1) q = Cv , if q → constant

(ii) P.E. = so
Calculation : When capacitor is charged and after that bettery removed charge on capacitor
will remain constans.

Column (I) A PE of Capacitor will decrese because (C will increase due to dielectric)
So A – Q

Column (I) B , PD will decrease [so B – Q]

(C) C will increase due to dielectric [so C – P]
(D) Charge will remain same [D – R]

Final Answer : option (2). A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R

12)

= 40.5

13) i = neA Vd

Vd =

14)

When wire is stretched then

R α l2 ⇒

= 2 (0.1%)

15) As we have seen, conductivity arises from mobile charge carriers. In metals, these mobile
charge carriers are electrons, with fixed positive ions in background, they are negative ions
and positive charged ions, in an electrolyte.

16)

When wire is stretched R ∝ ℓ2

17)

Cparallel = C1 + C2 + C3 and
18) R1 = & R2 =

19)

correct answer is

20) Formula:
Current density (5) = σ E
Drift velocity (Vd) = μE

Resistance (R) =

specific resistance (p) =

Calculation:
From the formula
A – Q, B –P, C –S, D – R
so option 1 is correct

21) 48 =

or

or
or v = 60 km/h

22) ,

23) Let the car accelerate at rate a for time t1 then maximum velocity attained, v = 0 + αt1 =
αt1
Now, the car decelerates at a rate β for time
(t – t1) and finally comes to rest. Then
0 = v – β(t – t1) ⇒ 0 = αt1 – βt + βt1

⇒ t1 = t

∴v=

24)
In retardation and both are in opposite direction.

25)

X = t3 + 2t2 + 3t + 4
X(t = 0) = 4m
V = 3t2 + 4t + 3
⇒ V(t=0) = 3m/s
a = bt + 4 ⇒ a(t = 0)
= 4m/s

26)

∵x= ∴ vx =

∵y= ∴ vy = × vx =

∴ m/s

27)

tNet = tup + tdown =

t=

28)

29)

H1 < H2 ⇒ T1 < T2

30)

conceptual

31)
∴ ux = 1 & u y =

∴ tanθ = ⇒

32)

Explanation: -
In this question we have to tell the relation between a projectile having same range R and
heights h1 and h2
Concept: - When a projectile is thrown at complementary angles ie θ and 90-θ, it has same
range but the maximum height covered is different in both the cases.

Formula: Range of a projectile is

Height of a projectile is given by

Calculation: Atangle(θ)and(90-θ) Range is same

⇒ -------(1)

or -------(2)

-------(3)
Let the height at θ and 90-θ be H1 and H2

∴ -------(4)

-------(5)

33)

34)

Initial momentum: Pi = mass × initial velocity = 2 × 5 = 10 Ns.

Impulse from graph (area of the triangle):
i = 1/2 × Base × Height
= 1/2 × 20 × 10
= 100 Ns
Final momentum:
Pf = Pi + j = 10 100 = 110 Ns

35)
Vi = –4m/s
Vf = 0
ΔV = 4
I = ΔP = mΔV = 8 kg-m/s

36)

F = kx
ma = kx

0.3a =
a = 10 m/s2

37)
F – N = 2 ma1 [Newton`s II law for block A]
N = ma1 [Newton`s II law for block B]

⇒ N= N = 2 ma2 [Newtons II law for

block A]
F – N = ma2 [Newtons II law for block B]
⇒ N = 2F/3 so the ratio is 1 : 2

38) a = and T = ma = 4 × 2 = 8N

39) If both assertion and reason are true & reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

40) Comparing with the standard equation of projectile,

We get, θ = 45°
 and m/s
Time of flight of this projectile is 4 s. Hence, after 4 s velocity vector will again make 45° angle
with horizontal.

41) conceptual

42) Ux= constant

⇒ Px= constant
⇒ ΔPx= zero

43)

44)
inside a dielectric

45) ΔV =
for region 0 – d, 2d – 3d and 4d – 5d

ΔV = {air filled}
for region d – 2d

ΔV = (electric field inside conductor is 0)

for region 3d – 4d

ΔV = (dielectric filled)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explanation
(VD) : (VD)
Concept

VD =
(VD) : (VD)

Calculation
16 : 64
1:4
final Answer - 1 : 4
Correct option (1)

49)

Question is Asking About :-

Determine 1 amu in kg is –

Concept :-
we know

1 amu gm.

kgm.

Hence, option (3) is correct.

50) no. of Eq. = no. of mol × V.F.

1=n×2

n=

51) 18 mL = 18 g H2O

52)

CORRECT ANSWER (1)

53)

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
wt 56 10

mol

L.R. >
(less value)
6g H2 → 34 g NH3

10g H2 –

54) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

n=
 at 't' 32 – 2x 2 – x 2x
LR = oxygen ∴ x = 2
∴ 28 mol H2 4 mol H2O
= 28 × 2 = 56g 4 × 18 = 72 g

55) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

56) Find volume of O2 using balance reaction, & then

[Air → 20% oxygen]

57)
A=E×x

58) Pure mass = 200 × = 190 Kg = 190000 g

CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

mole= 0 0
= 1900 mole
produced mole of CaO = 1900

mass = mole × MW = = 106.4 kg

59) NaN3 ⇒ 1(+1) +3 (x) = 0 ∴ x = –1/3

N2H2 ⇒ 2(x) +2 (+1) = 0 ∴ x = –1
NO ⇒ 1(x) + 1(–2) = 0 ∴ x = +2
N2O5 ⇒ 2(x) + 5(–2) = 0 ∴ x = +5

60)

CORRECT ANSWER (4)

61) (I) NH₃

A. Nitrogen: 5 valence electrons

3 single bonds with H (3 electrons used)
B. Remaining: 2 electrons = 1 lone pair

(II) SF₄

A. Sulfur: 6 valence electrons

B. 4 bonds with F → 4 electrons used
 C. Remaining: 2 electrons = 1 lone pair
D. Molecular geometry: See-saw

(IV) XeF₆

A. Xenon: 8 valence electrons

6 bonds with F (6 electrons used)
B. Remaining: 2 electrons = 1 lone pair
Shape: Distorted octahedral

Correct Answer: (2) I, II, IV

62)

63)

Explanation

A. Octet Rule: Atoms tend to gain, lose, or share electrons to achieve a stable electron
configuration with eight valence electrons.

B. Hypervalent: Central atom has more than eight valence electrons.

C. Hypo-valent: Central atom has less than eight valence electrons.

Concept

A. We need to find the species where the central atom has exactly eight valence electrons.

A. ClO₄⁻: Cl has 7 valence electrons. In ClO₄⁻, Cl forms 4 bonds (often depicted as double
bonds for formal charge minimization), giving it effectively more than 8 electrons.
(Hypervalent)

B. BCl₃: B has 3 valence electrons. In BCl₃, B forms 3 bonds, giving it only 6 valence
electrons. (Hypovalent)

C. SO₄²⁻: S has 6 valence electrons. In SO₄²⁻, S forms 4 bonds (often depicted as double
bonds for formal charge minimization), giving it effectively more than 8 electrons.
(Hypervalent)
 D. CO₃²⁻: C has 4 valence electrons. In CO₃²⁻, C forms 4 bonds (one double, two single),
giving it exactly 8 valence electrons.

Answer option 4,(CO₃²⁻).

65) More directional characters, in p-orbital.

67)

Answer option 3, (T shape).

68) In P → 3pπ – 3pπ is weak

69) NCERT XIth Pg # 87, Table 3.7

70)

Answer option 2, (dx²-y², dz²).

71)

Explanation

A. Hybridization is the mixing of atomic orbitals to form new hybrid orbitals with different
energies, shapes, and orientations, suitable for forming chemical bonds. A change in
hybridization occurs when the number of electron groups (bonding pairs + lone pairs)
around the central atom changes.

Concept

A. BF₃ + F⁻ → BF₄⁻

A. B in BF₃: 3 bond pairs, 0 lone pairs = 3 electron groups → sp² hybridization

(trigonal planar).

B. B in BF₄⁻: 4 bond pairs, 0 lone pairs = 4 electron groups → sp³ hybridization

(tetrahedral).

C. Change in hybridization: sp² to sp³

B. NH₃ + H⁺ → NH₄⁺
 A. N in NH₃: 3 bond pairs, 1 lone pair = 4 electron groups → sp³ hybridization
(pyramidal).

B. N in NH₄⁺: 4 bond pairs, 0 lone pairs = 4 electron groups → sp³ hybridization

(tetrahedral).

C. No change in hybridization.

C. 2SO₂ + O₂ → 2SO₃

A. S in SO₂: 2 bond pairs, 1 lone pair = 3 electron groups → sp² hybridization (bent).

B. S in SO₃: 3 bond pairs, 0 lone pairs = 3 electron groups → sp² hybridization

(trigonal planar).

C. No change in hybridization.

D. H₂O + H⁺ → H₃O⁺

A. O in H₂O: 2 bond pairs, 2 lone pairs = 4 electron groups → sp³ hybridization (bent).

B. O in H₃O⁺: 3 bond pairs, 1 lone pair = 4 electron groups → sp³ hybridization

(pyramidal).

C. No change in hybridization.

Answer option 1, (BF₃ + F⁻ → BF₄⁻).

72) , ,

73)

ΔHeg = O < S < F < Cl

74)

FACT

75) Properties are based on left

76)
Because they have same molecular formula but different F-G.

77)
Alcohol functional group
(same molecular formula but diff. functional group) ⇒ functional isomer

Phenol functional group (–OH directly connected to Benzene)

78)

79)

No. of structural isomers of C6H14 → (5)

(1) C–C–C–C–C–C (2)

(3) (4)

(5)

80)
= Different functional group

81)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)
Here : H.P. → High priority group.
L.P. → Low priority group.

82)

General order of stability of conformers is:-

ANTI > GAUCHE > PARTIALLY ECLIPSED > FULLY ELLIPIED.

83)

∴ configuration is 2S, 3R

84)

fact

85)
No. of stereocentre = 2
No. of stereoisomer Þ 2n = 22 = 4

86) Which of following compound is chiral

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

87)

Question explanation: The question asks to identify the relationship between the two
provided chemical structures. We need to determine if they are enantiomers, diastereomers,
identical molecules, or epimers.

Given data:

Concept:

A. Enantiomers:
 B. Diastereomers:

C. Identical Molecules:

D. Epimers:

Answer Explanation:

Final Answer: The two compounds are enantiomers. The correct answer is option 1.

88)

More No of α–H, more will be stability.

89)

Order of electronegativity :-

(a) (b) (c)

Hence, order of stability of carbonian is :-

90) –I effect maximum in 2.

BIOLOGY

91)

Question Explanation :
The question asks which feature is exclusive to the Monera kingdom and not shared with any
other kingdom in R.H. Whittaker's five-kingdom classification.

Concept :
R.H. Whittaker's five-kingdom classification.

Solution :
Only nitrogen fixation is a unique functional trait primarily seen in certain prokaryotes
(Monera).

Final Answer :
Option (4)

92) NCERT, Page No. # 17

93) NCERT-Page # 16,17,21,33

94)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 18

95)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the incorrect statement among the given
options regarding blue-green algae, also known as cyanobacteria.

Concept : This question is based on cyanobacteria.

Solution :
Their colonies are generally surrounded with membranous sheath: incorrect.
The colonies of blue-green algae are typically surrounded by a gelatinous (mucilaginous)
sheath, not a membranous one.

Final Answer : option (2)

96)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the specific type of microorganisms
responsible for producing methane gas in the digestive system (gut) of ruminant animals.

Concept : This question is based on Archaebacteria.

Solution : "Methanogens are a group of archaebacteria that produce methane in the guts of
ruminants."

Final Answer : option (4)

97)
Explain Question :
The question is asking you to identify the shapes of bacteria labeled as A, B, C and D in a
diagram and match them with the correct bacterial forms from the given options.

Concept :
This question is based on Bacteria of different shapes.

Solution :
The correct answer is option 2- Coccus, Bacillus, Spirillum, Vibrio
The image in the diagram show:
A: Round → Coccus
B: Rod-shaped → Bacillus
C: Spiral → Spirillum
D: Comma-shaped → Vibrio

Final Answer : option (2) – Coccus, Bacillus, Spirillum, Vibrio

98)

NCERT (XI)(E) Page. # 18,19; Para. - 2.1

99)

correct answer is

100) Solution : After 6 doublings (2 hours), the number of cells becomes 105×64 = 64
×105 cells/ml
Final Answer : 64 × 105 cells/ml

101)

SOLUTION—

Because Citrus Canker is caused by bacteria, not fungi.

The correct answer is: OPTION (3) Citrus Canker - Fungi.

102) NCERT (XI) Pg # 24

103) NCERT (XI) Pg # 22

104) NCERT Pg. # 402

105) NCERT XI Pg. # 23

106) NCERT XI Pg. # 18

107) NCERT XI pg.# 23, 24

108) NCERT XI, Pg. # 23

109)

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they require a host cell to replicate.

The correct answer is: OPTION (3) Virus can multiply without host cell

110)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which pollutant's higher concentration in the air can
be indicated by the presence of lichens. In other words, it is about identifying the specific air
pollutant that affects lichens and can be detected through their condition.

Underlying Concept: Lichens are symbiotic organisms sensitive to air quality, especially to
sulfur dioxide (SOâ‚‚). Because of their sensitivity, they serve as bio-indicators, meaning their
presence and health can indicate the level of certain air pollutants, particularly SOâ‚‚, as it is
toxic to lichens and causes visible damage.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that lichens are especially vulnerable to sulfur dioxide (SOâ‚‚), so
linking lichens to SOâ‚‚ can help quickly identify the pollutant they indicate.

Common Mistakes: Confusing carbon dioxide (COâ‚‚) or methane (CHâ‚„) as pollutants

detected by lichens, while they do not directly cause damage to lichens like sulfur dioxide
does.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: COâ‚‚ is a greenhouse gas but does not harm lichens
directly. CHâ‚„ (methane) and NOâ‚‚ (nitrogen dioxide) affect air quality but are not primary
pollutants indicated by lichens.

111) NCERT-XI Pg # 26

112)

correct answer is
113)

correct answer is

115) NCERT-XI Pg. # 24

116) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 20

118)

NCERT XI Page # 27

119)

NCERT XI, Pg # 19

120) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 19

121) NCERT XI Page NO. 19

122) NCERT XI Pg. # 23; Para: 2.3.2

123) NCERT XI Pg. # 20

124)

Question Explanation :
This question is asking about to identify incorrect statement.

Concept :
This question is based on habitat of Fungi.

Solution :
Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
So, option (2) is incorrect.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

125)

NCERT XI, Pg.# 13 ,15, 17, 33

126) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 32,33

127) NCERT XI Pg.# 34

128) NCERT Pg. # 41

129)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 33,32,30,31

130)
Correct Answer: 4. Cycas
Explanation : Cycas (a gymnosperm),Gametophyte is dependent on the sporophyte,Male
gametophyte develops within the pollen grain and Female gametophyte develops within the
ovule.

131)

The correct answer is 2. Fucus; Air bladder.

Explanation: Fucus is a type of brown algae, and it has specialized structures called air
bladders. These air bladders help the plant float in water. The air bladder is typically present
in Fucus species and helps in buoyancy, allowing the thallus to stay near the water's surface
for better access to light for photosynthesis

132)

NCERT XI, Pg # 36

133) NCERT-XI, Pg # 26,32

134) NCERT Page No. # 19

135) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 21

136)

Explain Question : During normal expiration.

Concept : This question is based on Mechanism of Breathing.

Solution : During Normal Expiration, EICM and muscles of Diaphragm Relax.

Final Answer : option (3)

137) The correct answer is Option 2: QRS complex indicates ventricular contraction.
QRS complex: This complex represents the depolarization (contraction) of the ventricles. The
electrical signal spreads rapidly through the ventricles, causing them to contract and pump
blood.

138) The correct answer is 4. SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres →
Heart muscles.
This is the correct sequence of how an electrical impulse travels through the heart to initiate a
heartbeat:
1. SA (Sinoatrial) Node: This is the natural pacemaker of the heart, located in the right
atrium. It generates the electrical impulse that initiates each heartbeat.
2. AV (Atrioventricular) Node: The impulse travels from the SA node to the AV node, also
located in the right atrium. The AV node delays the impulse slightly to allow the atria to fully
contract and empty their blood into the ventricles.
3. Bundle of His: The impulse then passes through the Bundle of His, a specialized bundle of
conducting fibers that travels through the interventricular septum (the wall between the
ventricles).
4. Purkinje Fibers: The Bundle of His branches into the Purkinje fibers, which spread
throughout the ventricular walls.
5. Heart Muscles: The Purkinje fibers distribute the electrical impulse to the heart muscle
cells, causing them to contract and pump blood.

139)

It asks you to identify how many of the provided statements about the number of heart
chambers in fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals are correct.
Correct Answer:
The correct answer is 2. Three.
Explanation:
• A. Fishes have a 2-chambered Heart: Correct.
• B. Amphibians and reptiles have a 3-chambered heart: Correct. Most amphibians and
reptiles have a 3-chambered heart (two atria, one ventricle),
• C. Crocodiles have a 3-chambered heart: Incorrect. Crocodiles are reptiles, but they
have a 4-chambered heart.
• D. Birds and mammals possess a 4-chambered heart: Correct.
Therefore, statements A, B, and D are correct, making a total of three correct statements.

140)

NCERT XI Pg.No - 194

141) A. RBCs are the most abundant of all the blood cells in blood: Correct. B. A
healthy adult man has on an average 5 Billions to 5.5 Billions of RBCs mm–3 of blood:
Incorrect (should be millions). C. RBCs are formed in liver in the adults: Incorrect
(formed in red bone marrow in adults). D. RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the
mammals and are biconcave in shape: Correct.

Therefore, there are two incorrect statements (B and C).

Final Answer (3) Two

 142) Question Explanation :
The question is asking which blood groups correspond to the universal recipient and the
universal donor, respectively.

Concept:
This question is based on Blood group.

Solution :
Person with AB+ and O– blood groups are called universal recipients and universal donors
respectively.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

143) Question Explanation: identify incorrect one.

Concept : Conducting system of Heart.

Solution :
3) Atrial systole, means contraction of Atria lead to increase blood flow by 30% from Atria to
ventride.

Final Answer : option (3).

144) NCERT-(XIth) Pg. # 281

145) NCERT-(XIth) Pg. # 286

146)

NCERT Pg. # 288

147) The correct answer is Option 1: The first heart sound (Lub) is associated with the
closure of the AV valves.
Heart Sounds

A. First Heart Sound (Lub): This sound is produced by the closure of the atrioventricular (AV)
valves (mitral and tricuspid valves). These valves prevent the backflow of blood from the
ventricles into the atria during ventricular systole.

148)

Explain Question : The question is asking to correctly label parts A to F in a circulatory

system diagram, and match them with correct blood vessels and organs.

Concept : This question is based on Types of blood circulation.

Solution : A-Lungs, B-Body parts, C-Pulmonary artery, D-Pulmonary vein, E-Dorsal aorta, F-
Vena cava.

Final Answer : option (2)

149)

Explain Question : The question is asking about the definition of cardiac output, which is a
measure of heart performance.

Concept : This question is based on Cardiac cycle.

Solution : Cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute.

Final Answer : option (1)

150) NCERT XIth Pg.#280 Table-18.1

151) NCERT (XIth)Pg. # 281

152) NCERT (XIth) Pg. #285, Para No.18.3.2

153)

NCERT Pg No # 284

154) NCERT-XI, Pg No. 282

155) NCERT Pg. # 286

156)

Blood capillaries are made of only endothelium.

157)

NCERT Pg. No: 201

158)

NCERT Pg. # 285

159)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 200

160) Question Explain : Are the assertion and reason about lymph true or false?
Concept : This Question is based on Lymphatic system
Explanation :
Assertion is True: Lymph has the same mineral distribution as plasma.
Reason is False: Lymph is not red; it is colorless because it lacks red blood cells.
Final answer - Option 3: Assertion is True but the Reason is False

161) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 282

162) NCERT-Pg. # 275, Para No. 17.5

163)

NCERT Pg. # 269

164)

Explanation :

Each gram of hemoglobin (Hb) can bind to 1.34 ml of oxygen (O₂).

In a normal healthy adult, there are about 15 grams of Hb per 100 ml of blood.

So, the total oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is:

1.34 ml/g × 15 g/100 ml = ~20.1 ml O₂ per 100 ml of blood

Final Answer : (1)

165) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 271, 272

166) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 275; para-5

167)

Explain Question : Maximum CO2 is transported in the form of ?

Concept : This question is based on CO2 Transported

Solution : Maximum CO2 is Transported in the form of Bicarbonate.

Final Answer : option (3)

168)

The correct answer is: 4 Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
 Assertion (A): Partial pressure of O2 in the atmosphere is 0.3 mm Hg.

A. This is incorrect. The partial pressure of oxygen (O2) in the atmosphere at sea level is
approximately 160 mm Hg, not 0.3 mm Hg. The value of 0.3 mm Hg is far too low for
atmospheric oxygen.

Reason (R): Partial pressure of CO2 in alveoli is 104 mm Hg.

A. This is also incorrect. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the alveoli is typically
around 40 mm Hg, not 104 mm Hg. A partial pressure of 104 mm Hg would be more typical
for CO2 in venous blood, not in the alveoli.

169)

NCERT - Pg. # 270, Para No. 17.2

170)

Explanation:

(i) is correct: Tidal volume is the amount of air breathed in or out during normal breathing.

(iv) is correct: Residual volume is the air left in the lungs after a maximum exhalation.

The other options were incorrect because they either misidentified lung volumes or included
incorrect calculations.

Correct Answer (4) : (i) and (iv)

171) Question Explanation:

What happens in Hamburger shift ?

Solution:
Chloride Shift: To maintain electrical neutraility within the red blood cell, chloride ions (Cl-)
from the plasma enter the red blood cell in exchange for the bicarbonate ions leaving. This is
the chloride shift.

Hence,
Correct option: (1) HCO3– ions move out from the RBC and Cl– ions enters into RBC

172)

The correct answer is: 2. A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2

A. Inspiratory capacity (IC): The total volume of air a person can inspire after a normal
expiration. This corresponds to 1.

B. Expiratory capacity (EC): The total volume of air a person can expire after a normal
 inspiration. This corresponds to 4.

C. Functional residual capacity (FRC): The volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a
normal expiration. This corresponds to 3.

D. Vital capacity (VC): The maximal volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced
expiration. This corresponds to 2.

173)

NCERT Pg. No. 186

174)

The right answer is: (1)

Explanation:
1. The pressure inside the lungs is lower than the pressure outside in the atmosphere.
Inspiration happens when the pressure inside the lungs, known as intrapulmonary pressure, dips
below the atmospheric pressure. This pressure difference is what pulls air into the lungs, since air
naturally moves from areas of higher pressure to areas of lower pressure. When we inhale, the
diaphragm tightens and the rib cage expands, which boosts the lung volume and lowers the
pressure inside, making it easy for air to rush in.

175)

The correct answer is: 4. All of the above statements are incorrect
1. Chest expands because air enters into the lungs: This is incorrect. The expansion of the
chest cavity is what allows air to enter the lungs.
2. Air enters into the lungs so chest expands: This is also incorrect. The chest expands first,
creating a lower pressure that draws air into the lungs.
3. The muscles of the diaphragm contracts because air enters into the lungs: This is incorrect.
The diaphragm contracts first, which is the cause of air entering the lungs.
Therefore, all the given statements are indeed incorrect.
The correct answer is: 4. All of the above statements are incorrect
Correct Mechanism of Inspiration:
First: Diaphragm & intercostal muscles contract

176)

NCERT Pg.No - 187

177)

NCERT Pg.No - 189

178)
 Explain Question : The question is asking which structures are associated with branchial,
cutaneous, and pulmonary respiration types in the correct order.

Concept : This question is based on respiratory organs in different animals.

Solution :
Branchial respiration occurs through gills.
Cutaneous respiration is through skin.
Pulmonary respiration is through the lungs.

Final Answer : option (4)

179) The incorrect statement is 4. Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the formation of
oxyhaemoglobin.

A. Higher H+ concentration actually decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. This
phenomenon is known as the Bohr effect.
B. When the pH decreases (H+ concentration increases), hemoglobin releases oxygen more
readily, facilitating oxygen delivery to tissues that need it more.

180) The correct answer is: 3. X - Pulmonary vein, Y - Systemic vein, Z - Systemic vein during
exercise
X: High saturation indicates a high partial pressure of oxygen, which happens in the
pulmonary vein as oxygen-rich blood travels from the lungs to the heart.
Y: Moderate saturation reflects a lower partial pressure of oxygen, occurring in the systemic
vein where deoxygenated blood makes its way back to the heart.
Z: Low saturation signifies a very low partial pressure of oxygen, which can drop even further
during exercise when tissues demand more oxygen. This is particularly true for the systemic
vein during physical activity.