24-08-2025

5401CMD303021250018 MD

PHYSICS

1) A body of mass m rests on a horizontal floor with which it has a coefficient of static friction μ. It is
desired to make the body move by applying the minimum possible force F. The magnitude of F is :-

(1) μmg

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A uniform rope of length L meters is lying over a table. If the coefficient of friction be µ, then the
maximum length L1 of the part of this rope which can overhang the edge without sliding is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The v–t graph of the motion of a wooden block of mass 1 kg is shown in figure. It is given an initial
push at t=0, along a horizontal table. The coefficient of friction between the block and table is (g=
10 ms–2)

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.4
(4) 1.4

4) A force f is acting on a block of mass m. Coefficient of friction between block & surface is µ. The
block can be pulled along the surface if :-

(1) tan θ ≥ µ
(2) cot θ ≥ µ

(3)

(4)

5) The minimum force required to start pushing a body up a rough (frictional coefficient μ) inclined
plane is F1, while the minimum force needed to prevent it from sliding down is F2. If the inclined

plane makes an angle θ from the horizontal such that tan θ = 2μ then the ratio is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) A student is cleaning a blackboard by moving a light duster up and down on it. The coefficient of
static friction between the duster and the board is µs. The duster will not move, no matter how large

the force is if (ignore gravity) :-

(1) tan β > µs

(2) tan β < µs
tan β >
(3)

tan β <
(4)

7) A block of mass m is at rest an inclined plane wrt lift. Work done by net reaction force on the
block by the plane in time “t” is

(1)
(2)
(3) mgvt
(4) mg cosθ vt

8)

The force F acting on a particle moving in a straight line as shown in figure. What is the work done
by the force on the particle in the 1 m of the displacement ?

(1) 5 J
(2) 10 J
(3) 15 J
(4) 2.5 J

9) Consider the following two statements :---- A : Linear momentum of a system of particles is zero.
B : Kinetic energy of a system of particles is zero.
Then-

(1) A does not imply B and B does not imply A

(2) A implies B but B does not imply A
(3) A does not imply B but B implies A
(4) A implies B and B implies A

10) A point mass of 0.5 kg is moving along x-axis as x = t2 + 2t, where, x is in meters and t is in
seconds. Find the work done (in J) by all the forces acting on the body during the time interval [0,
2s].

(1) 6 J
(2) 7 J
(3) 8 J
(4) 9 J

11) A bullet moving with a velocity of 100 m/s can just penetrate two planks of equal thickness. The
number of such planks penetrated by the same bullet, when the velocity is doubled, will be :-

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 10

12)
A block is released from rest from a height 2m on smooth inclined plane, it comes down and move to
some distance on rough horizontal part before coming to rest if coefficient of friction between rough
surface and block is µ = 0.4 then find this stopping distance.

(1) 20 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 4 m
(4) 2 m

13) When a conservative force does positive work on a body, then :-

(1) Potential energy increases

(2) Potential energy decreases
(3) Total mechanical energy increases
(4) Kinetic energy decreases

14) If we throw a body upwards with velocity of 4 m/s. at what height does its kinetic energy reduce
to half of the initial value:- (Take g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 4 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 1 m
(4) 0.4 m

15) The potential energy between two atoms in a molecule is given by ; where a and
b are positive constants and x is the distance between the atoms. The atom is in stable equilibrium
when

(1)

(2)

(3) x = 0

(4)

16) A spring 100 mm long is stretched by the application of a force. If 10 N force is required to
stretch the spring through 1 mm, then work done in stretching the spring through 40 mm is:-

(1) 84 J
(2) 68 J
(3) 23 J
(4) 8 J

17) Water falls from a height of 60m at the rate of 15kg/sec to operate a turbine. The losses due to
frictional forces are 10% of energy. How much power is generated by the turbine (g = 10m/s2)?

(1) 12.3 KW
(2) 7 KW
(3) 8.1 KW
(4) 10.2 KW

18) A body of mass m is moved from rest, along a straight line, by an engine delivering constant
power P. The velocity of the body after time t will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A wheel has a speed of 1200 revolutions per minute and is made to slow down at a rate of 4
radians/s2. The number of revolutions it makes before coming to rest is :-

(1) 143
(2) 272
(3) 314
(4) 722
20)

If ar and at represents radial and tangential acceleration, the motion of a particle will be circular if :-
(a) ar = 0 and at = 0 (b) ar = 0 but at ≠ 0
(c) ar ≠ 0 but at = 0 (d) ar ≠ 0 and at ≠ 0

(1) c
(2) d
(3) a,b
(4) c, d

21) Three particles of masses m, 2m, 3m are performing circular motion as shown in figure. Identify

which string has the maximum possibility of breaking.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) equal possibility

22) Keeping the angle of banking same, if the radius of curvature is made four times, the percentage
increase in the maximum speed with which a vehicle can travel on a circular road is :-

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

23) A bob of mass m is tied to one end of a string of length ℓ whose other end is fixed to a point O.
The bob is at rest at A. Now it is given horizontal velocity u as shown. The velocity u is sufficient to

carry the bob to point C. As the bob goes from A to C : Now match the given
columns and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Codes :

Column -I Column -II

 Magnitude of centripetal
i p. Increases
acceleration of bob

Magnitude of tangential
ii. q. Decreases
acceleration of bob

Magnitude of tension
iii. r. Always zero
in the string

Power developed by First increases

iv. s.
tension then decreases
(1) i–p, ii–q, iii–r, iv–s
(2) i–q, ii–r, iii–p, iv–s
(3) i–q, ii–s, iii–q, iv–r
(4) i–p, ii–r, iii–p, iv–s

24) A pendulum bob has a speed of 3 m/s at its lowest position. The pendulum is 0.5 m long. The
speed of the bob when the length makes an angle of 60º to the vertical, will be : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 3 m/s

(2)

(3)

(4) 2 m/s

25) During the winter vacation, children use snow and water to build frictionless slides of different
shapes in order to conduct various experiments. The side view of one of them is shown in the figure:
the linear segment of the slide is smoothly transferred to a circle with a of radius R. A puck starts
sliding down from rest at an initial height of 2R. The acceleration of the puck at the lowest point of
its trajectory is :

(1) g
(2) 2g
(3) 4g
(4) 0

26) A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100 m, taking 62.8 s for every
circular loop. The average velocity and average speed for each circular loop, respectively, is:-

(1) 10 m/s, 10 m/s

(2) 10 m/s, 0
(3) 0, 0
(4) 0, 10 m/s
27) A small block slides down from the top of a hemisphere of radius r. It is assumed that there is no
friction between the block and the hemisphere. At what height, h will the block lose contact with the
surface of sphere ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) The kinetic energy k of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends on the distance
covered s as k = as2 where a is a positive constant. The total force acting on the particle is :

(1)
2a

(2)
2as
(3) 2 as

(4)
2a

29) A particle describes a horizontal circle in a conical funnel whose inner surface is smooth with
speed of 0.5 m/s. What is the height of the plane of circle from vertex of the funnel ?

(1) 0.25cm
(2) 2cm
(3) 4cm
(4) 2.5cm

30) Two particles of mass 2kg and 1kg are placed at points (1, –2) and (–4, 3). Where should a third
particle of mass 5kg be placed so that centre of mass of three particle system lies at origin?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The center of mass of a non-uniform rod of length L whose mass per unit length varies as λ =

(where k is a constant and x is the distance measured from one end) is at the following distance
from the same end.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A circular disc of radius R is removed from a bigger circular disc of radius 2R such that the
circumferences of the discs coincide. The centre of mass of the new disc is αR from the centre of the
bigger disc. The value of α is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A quarter sector of a uniform disc of radius R is shown in figure. The coordinates of center of

mass is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) In the given diagram the distance travelled by the plank when A and B exchange their positions:
(1) 2 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 4.8 m
(4) 5.4 m

35) A bomb is thrown at a speed 20 m/s at an angle 45°. At the highest point, it explodes into two
parts of equal mass, one part coming to rest. Find the distance from the origin of the point where the
other part strikes the ground :-

(1) 40 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 80 m

36) After head on elastic collision between two balls of equal masses, one is observed to have
velocity of 3 ms–1 along positive x-axis and the other has a velocity of 2 ms–1 along negative x-axis.
The original velocities of ball are :

(1) –2 ms–1 and 3 ms–1

(2) 2 ms–1 and 3 ms–1
(3) –3 ms–1 and 2 ms–1
(4) 3 ms–1 and –2 ms–1

37) Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 3 kg are moving with velocities 2 m/s and 1 m/s, respectively, as
shown. If the spring constant is 75 N/m, the maximum compression of the spring is :

(1) 5 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 20 cm

38) A body of mass m falls from a height h on ground. If it collides inelastically so that coefficient of
restitution is e, then the loss of energy in collision will be -

(1) mgh(e – 1)
(2) mgh(1 – e)
(3) mgh(1 – e2)
(4) mgh(e2 – 1)

39) Two particles each of mass m travelling with velocities u1 and u2 collide perfectly inelastically.
The loss of kinetic energy will be

(1)
m(u1 – u2)2

(2)
m(u1 – u2)2
2
(3) m(u1 – u2)
2
(4) 2m(u1 – u2)

40) The diagram shows the velocities just before collision of two smooth spheres of equal radius and
mass. The impact is perfectly elastic. The velocities just after impact are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A collides to a surface as shown in figure. If coefficient of restitution , then θ will be:-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 0°

42) A running man has the same kinetic energy as that of a boy of half his mass. The man speeds up
by 2ms–1 and the boy changes his speed by x ms–1 so that the kinetic energies of the boy and the man
are again equal. Then x in ms–1 is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 2

43) If v, p and E denote the velocity, momentum and kinetic energy of the particle, then :

(1) p = dE/dv
(2) p = 2dE/dt
(3) p = dE/dt
(4) None of these

44) Under the action of a force, a 2 kg body moves such that its position x as function of time t is

given by where x is in metre and t is in second. Calculate the work done by the force in the
first two second.

(1) 12 J
(2) 16 J
(3) 20 J
(4) 24 J

45) A particle is acted upon by a force F which varies with position x as shown in figure. If the
particle at x = 0 has kinetic energy of 25 J, then the kinetic energy of the particle at x = 16 m is :

(1) 45 J
(2) 30 J
(3) 20 J
(4) 20 J

CHEMISTRY

1) When iodine is dissolved in aqueous potassium iodide KI3 is formed the shape of the Anionic part
:-

(1) Linear
(2) Angular
(3) Triangular
(4) See-Saw

2) Which of the following pairs of species have largest difference in spin only magnetic moment?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) The molecule which contain σ bonds, π bonds and lone pairs in 1 : 1 : 1 ratio :-

(1) C2N2 (Cyanogen)

(2) C6H6 (Benzene)
(3) C(CN)4 (Tetracyano methane)
(4) C3O2 (Carbon suboxide)

4) Which of the following do not exhibit resonance?

–2
(1) CO3
–
(2) ClO3
(3) SiO2
–2
(4) SO3

5) Which of the following species can act as Lewis acid ?

(1) B2H6
(2) NH3
(3) SF6
(4) H2O

6) Which of the following species can't exist :-

(1) NF3
–2
(2) [SiF6]
(3) IH5
(4) BrF3

7) Paramagnetism is exhibited by :-

(1) N2O
(2) Cl2O
(3) ClO2
(4) Cl2O6

8) Li(s) → Li(g) 161 kJ/mol

(sublimation energy)
Li(g) → Li+(g) + e 531 kJ/mol
(ionisation energy)

F2(g) → F(g) 79 kJ/mol

(bond dissociation energy)
– –
F(g) + e → F (g) – 328 kJ/mol (electron gain enthalpy)
______________________________________

Li(s) + F2(g) → Li+(g) + F–(g) = x kJ/mol.

Find the value of x from the given data

(1) 443 kJ/mol

(2) 343 kJ/mol
(3) 243 kJ/mol
(4) 543 kJ/mol

9) Which p-orbitals overlapping would give the strongest bond ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Incorrect order of bond dissociation energy will be

(1) H – H > Cl – Cl > Br – Br

(2) Si – Si > C – C > H – H
(3) C – C > N – N > O – O
(4) H – Cl > H – Br > H – I

11) In which of the following molecules no. of lone pairs and bond pairs on central atoms are not
equal :-
(1) H2O
(2) IF5
(3) H2S
(4) SCl2

12) Calculate the percent ionic character in the compound AB if the bond distance is 1.34Å and
charge = 4.8 × 10–10 esu. The experimental value of dipole moment (μ) = 1.08 D.

(1) 16.8%
(2) 48%
(3) 27.4%
(4) 9%

13) What happens when C2 change to ?

(1) Magnetic property changed

(2) Sigma bond increases
(3) Bond order decreases
(4) π bond increases

14) Maximum bond angle present in :-

(1) NH3
(2) NF3
(3) NCl3
(4) Same in all

15)
Incorrect relation is :-

(1) a > c
(2) f < h
(3) b < d
(4) a > e

16) Which of the following reaction is incorrect?

(1) Pb(NO3)2 PbO + NO2 + O2

(2) NaHCO3 Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O
(3) NaNO3 NaNO2 + 1/2 O2
(4) Na2CO3 Na2O + CO2

17) Number of Resonating structure of CO2 molecule

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Zero

18) Most stable ionic bond is present in

(1) MgF2
(2) Na2O
(3) Al2O3
(4) NaCl

19) In , O2 and , the total number of antibonding electrons respectively are

(1) 7, 6, 8
(2) 1, 0, 2
(3) 6, 6, 6
(4) 8, 6, 8

20) Which of the following sequence is wrong for dipole moment ?

(1) CH2Cl2 > CHCl3

>
(2)

(3) H2O2 > H2O

(4) NH3 > H2O

21) Which of the following is best representation of hydrogen bond ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) & (2)

22) The true statements from the following is/are :-

(a) PH5 and BiCl5 donot exist
(b) Pπ – dπ bond is present in SO2
(c) Electrons travel at the speed of light
(d) SeF4 and CH4 have same shape
(e) has bent geometry

(1) a, c
(2) a, b, e
(3) a, c, e
(4) a, b, d

23) Consider the reaction whose KC = 36,

if 0.1 mole each of SO2 and NO2 are placed initially in 1 litre container then; What is the
concentration of SO2 at equilibrium ?

(1) 0.003 M
(2) 0.015 M
(3) 0.085 M
(4) 0.097 M

24) For the reaction :

the number of moles of H2 will increase when:-

(1) Volume of vessel is increased

(2) Pressure is increased
(3) He gas is added at constant volume
(4) NH3 is removed

25)

Which of the following reaction having KP is less than KC at 298 K ?

(1) H + I 2HI(g)
2(g) 2(g)

(2) N + 3H 2NH3(g)
2(g) 2(g)

(3) N + O 2NO(g)
2(g) 2(g)

(4) CO + H O CO2(g) + H2(g)

(g) 2 (g)

26) The vapour density of N2O4 at a certain temperature is 36. What is the percentage dissociation of
N2O4 at this temperature ?

(1) 53.3%
(2) 106.6%
(3) 20.7%
(4) 27.78%

27) Select the correct graph for reaction

 N2O4 2NO2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A(g) + 2B(s) 2C(g).

Initially 2 mol A(g), 4 mole of B(s) and 1 mole of an inert gas are present in a closed container. After
equilibrium has established total pressure of container becomes 9 atm. If A(g) consume 50% at
equilibrium then calculate Kp for above reaction -

(1) 9 atm
(2) 36/5 atm
(3) 12 atm
(4) 6 atm

29) For the gas phase reaction SO3(g) ⇌ SO2 (g) + ½ O2 (g) if the gaseous mixture in a closed
container is allowed to come at equilibrium and the degree of dissociation (α) at equilibrium is found
to be 2/3 at 400 K and 1 atm pressure then calculate the vapour density of the equilibrium mixture.

(1) 30
(2) 60
(3) 40
(4) 20

30) N2 and H2 are taken in 1 : 3 molar ratio in a closed vessel to attained the following equilibrium

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g). Find Kp for reaction at total pressure of 2P if at equilibrium is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) none

31) Ammonia at a pressure of 5 atm and H2S gas at a pressure of 10 atm are introduced into an
evacuated vessel.
KP = 62.5 atm2
The total pressure of gases after long time is:

(1) 15 atm
(2) More than 15 atm
(3) Less than 15 atm
(4) Unpredicted

32) In a closed system, , if partial pressure of C is doubled, then partial

pressure of B will be

(1) times the original value

(2)
times the original value
(3) 2 times the original value

(4)
times the original value

33) For the equlibrium reaction ;

NH2COONH4(s) N2(g) + H2(g) + CO(g) + O2(g)
the value of KP at 800K is 27 × 2x/2 and the equilibrium pressure is 22 atm. The value of x is:

(1) 21
(2) 11
(3) 22
(4) 12

34) X2(g) + 2Y2(g) ⇌ 2Z2(g). The partial pressure of X2, Y2 at equilibrium are 0.8 atm and
0.4 atm respectively. The pressure of the system is 2.8 atm. The calculate Kp for the reaction 2Z2(g)
⇌ X2(g) + 2Y2(g) :-

(1) 20
(2) 5
(3) 0.02
(4) 0.05

35) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

Initially the molar ratio of N2 and H2 was 1 : 3. At equilibrium 50% of each reactant has reacted. If
the equilibrium pressure is P then the partial pressure of NH3 at equilibrium is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) For the redox reaction

MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ → Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O,
the correct whole number stoichiometric coefficients of MnO4–, C2O42– and H+ are respectively :

(1) 2, 5, 16
(2) 16, 5, 2
(3) 5, 16, 2
(4) 2, 16, 5

37) Assertion (A): In a disproportionation reaction an element is simultaneously oxidised and

reduced.
Reason (R): Disproportionation reaction contains an element in its intermediate oxidation state.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

38) Match the following column-I and column-II:

Column-I Column-II

(a) H2S (p) Oxidising agent

(b) KMnO4 (q) Reducing agent

(c) H2O2 (r) Can acts as both oxidising and reducing agent
(1) a–r; b–p; c–q
(2) a–q; b–p; c–r
(3) a–p; b–q; c–r
(4) a–r; b–q; c–p

39) What volume of 0.1M KMnO4 is required to completely oxidise one mole of ferrous oxalate in
acidic medium :-

(1) 3L
(2) 2L
(3) 6L
(4) 1L

40) In the following conversion of sulphide of phosphorous

P4S3 → P2O5 + SO2
Equivalent weight of P4S3 (molecular weight = M) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) When CrI3 oxidies to Cr2O72– and IO4– equivalent mass of CrI3 will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Which of the following is not a reducing agent?

(1) SO2
(2) H2O2
(3) CO2
(4) NO2

43) Which of the following is not an example of redox reaction ?

(1) CuO + H2 —→ Cu + H2O

(2) Fe2O3 + 3CO —→ 2Fe + 3CO2
(3) 2K + F2 —→ 2KF
(4) BaCl2 + H2SO4 —→ BaSO4 + 2HCl

44) In NH4NO2 , oxidation Numbers of Both nitrogen atoms are–

(1) –3. +3
(2) –3, +5
(3) –4, +5
(4) 0, 0
45)

In which of the following reactions, the concentration of the product is higher than the concentration
of reactant at equilibrium?(K = equilibrium constant)

(1) A B; K = 0.001
(2) M N; K = 10
(3) X Y; K = 0.005
(4) R P; K = 0.01

BIOLOGY

1) Assertion : Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant kingdom.

Reason : Bryophytes exhibit dependent alternation of generation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2) Statement-I: The leaves in gymnosperms are well adapted to with stand extreme of temperature,
humidity and wind.
Statement-II: The needle like leaves reduce the surface area to reduce water loss.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

3) Coralloid roots of Cycas are associated with :-

(1) N2-fixing cyanobacteria

(2) Root hair and root cap
(3) Food and water conduction
(4) Fungi

4) Read the given names carefully :-

Diatoms, Dinoflagellates, Chlorella, Fucus, Dictyota. In the given name. How many organism having
chl 'a', chl 'c' :-

(1) 2 only
(2) 3 only
(3) 4 only
(4) All

5) Biochemical analysis of pyrenoids in algae would reveal the presence of :-

(1) sugars and phospholipids
(2) protein & starch
(3) RNA & starch
(4) protein & phosphates

6) Which of the following class of algae do not have any motile gamete :-

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Pheophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

7) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Ovules are not covered by ovary wall in gymnosperms

(2) Horsetails are included in gymnosperms
(3) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous
(4) Agar-agar is obtained from Gonyaulax.

8) In some Leguminous plants leaf base is :

(1) Called Pulvinus

(2) Sheath like, covering stem partially or completely
(3) Modified into spines
(4) Both (1) & (3)

9) Match the following and select correct option:-

(a) Parietal (i) Dianthus

(b) Axile (ii) Sunflower

(c) Free central (iii) Mustard

(d) Basal (iv) China rose

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)

10) Assertion: Trichomes prevents water loss from plants

Reason: Trichomes prevent excessive transpiration

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Assertion (A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct

11) How many of following are example of perigynous, hypogynous and epigynous respectively.
Mustard, china Rose. Brinjal, plum, peach, rose, guava, cucumber, ray floret sunflower

(1) 3, 3, 5
(2) 3, 3, 3
(3) 3, 5, 3
(4) 5, 3, 3

12) Recognise the type of aestivation in a, b, c and d.

(1) (a) Valvate (b) Twisted (c) Imbricate (d) Vexillary

(2) (a) Valvate (b) Vexillary (c) Imbricate (d) Twisted
(3) (a) Imbricate (b) Vexillary (c) Valvate (d) Twisted
(4) (a) Imbricate (b) Vexillary (c)Twisted (d) Valvate

13) Rhizome differs from root in

(1) Presence of chlorophyll

(2) Underground position
(3) Vertical growth in soil
(4) Presence of nodes

14) The given diagram belongs to the which plants :

(1) Mustard
(2) Ashwagandha
(3) Gloriosa
(4) Soyabaen

15) The leaf is attached to the stem by the and may bear two lateral small leaf like structures
called . In monocotyledons, the expand into sheath covering the stem partially or
wholly.
Select correct option for A, B & C.

(1) A – Leaf base, B – Stipules, C – leaf base

(2) A – Petiole, B – Bract, C – leaf base
(3) A – Leaf base, B – Stipules, C – pulvinus
(4) A – Bracteole, B – Bract, C – leaf base

16) Chlorella, Chlamydomonas and Paramoecium, Amoeba were earlier placed with plants and
animals respectively but after Whittaker's 5 kingdom classification, they should be brought together
in:-

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia

17) What is common among Cyanobacteria, Halophilic bacteria, Thermoacidophilic bacteria,

Methanogenic bacteria, and Eubacteria ?

(1) They all are included in same domain according to three domains of life
(2) Their cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan
(3) They belong to same kingdom according to R.H. Whittaker
(4) All can perform oxygenic photosynthesis

18) Which of the following are the functions of mesosomes ?

(i) Cell wall formation
(ii) DNA replication
(iii) Cell divison
(iv) Cell respiration

(1) only i and ii

(2) only i, ii and iii
(3) only ii and iv
(4) i, ii, iii and iv

19) Which of the following statements are true about chrysophytes?

(a) They are found in fresh water as well as in marine environments.
(b) They are microscopic and float passively in water current.
(c) This group includes diatoms and desmids.
(d) They are mostly saprophytic.

(1) a, c & d
(2) a, b & c
(3) b, c & d
(4) Only c & d
20)

Consider the following statements about Ascomycetes.

I. They are saprophytic, decomposer, coprophilous and parasitic.
II. Include unicellular and multicellular forms.
III. Mycelium is coenocytic and aseptate.
IV. Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora are important examples of Ascomycetes.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are false?

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) I and III

21) Assertion :- When a fungus reproduce sexually two haploid hyphal of compatible mating type
come together and fuse.
Reason :- Reproduction in fungi take place by vegetative, asexual and sexual mean.

(1) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion and reason both are incorrect.
(4) Assertion is correct but reason is false.

22) Assertion A: Fungi like yeast are used in the production of bread and beer.
Reason R: Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

23) Which of the following is correct for given diagram?

(1) Asexual spore are endogenously formed in it

(2) Sexual spores are exogenously formed in it
(3) It is a sac fungi
(4) Zygospores are formed in it

24) Match column I with column II & select correct option :-

Column-I Column-II
 Nitrosomonas Ammonia
A (i)
Nitrococcus to nitrite

B Nitrobacter (ii) Nitrite to nitrate

Pseudomonas
C (iii) Nitrate to N2
Thiobacillus
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii
(2) A-i B-iii C-ii
(3) A-ii B-i C-iii
(4) A-ii B-iii C-i

25) Match the type of protozoans given in column-I with their examples given in column-II and
choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(Type of Protozoans) (Examples)

(A) Amoeboid protozoans (I) Paramoecium

(B) Ciliated protozoans (II) Plasmodium

(C) Flagellated protozoans (III) Amoeba

(D) Sporozoans (IV) Trypanosoma

(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

26) Which option is not correct about members of kingdom protista ?

(1) They have cilia or flagella

(2) They secrete poison in water
(3) They show CO2 and nitrogen fixation
(4) They have well defined nucleus and other membrane-bounded cell organelles

27) Mycelium of Trichoderma is :-

(1) Aseptate and branched

(2) Septate and branched
(3) Septate and unbranched
(4) Aseptate and unbranched

28) The protein coat called capsid is made up of ___ & it protects ___ in viruses.

(1) Nucleic acid, cytoplasm

(2) Capsomers, Nucleic acid
(3) Polysaccharides, cytoplasm
(4) Chitin, cytoplasm

29) "Keel" present in-

(1) Valvate
(2) Imbricate
(3) Papilionaceous
(4) Twisted

30) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) A sterile stamen is called staminode
(B) If sepal is united it is called gamopetalous
(C) The fleshy leaves of onion and garlic store food
(D) Leaves are always arranged in basipetal order
Which statements are incorrect -

(1) Statement A and D

(2) Statement B and C
(3) Statement A, B and C
(4) Statement D and B

31) In pteridophytes, spore germinates to produce :-

(1) Sporophyte
(2) Leafy gametophyte
(3) Prothallus
(4) Sporocarp

32) Statement-I :- The fruit formed without fertilisation of ovary is called false fruit.
Statement-II :- In free central placentation, ovules are borne on central axis and septa are absent.
Options -

(1) Both statement I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.

33) The inner layer of the seed coat is called-

(1) Testa
(2) Tegmen
(3) Micropyle
(4) Hilum

34) Match the columns:

Column-I Column-II
 Axis of
A Bract i
Inflorescence

B Peduncle ii Stalk of the flower

Reduced leaf at the

C Pedicel iii
base of the pedicel

D Petiole iv Leaf stalk

(1) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (iii)
(2) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (ii)
(3) A = (iv), B = (iii), C = (i), D = (ii)
(4) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (ii), D = (iv)

35) The floral leaves arise from

(1) Mother axis

(2) Thalamus
(3) Root
(4) Petiole

36)

Fill in the blanks.

Leaves originate from _______ and are arranged in an/a ______.

(1) Shoot apical meristem, acropetal order

(2) Root apical meristem, acropetal order
(3) Shoot apical meristem, basipetal order
(4) Shoot apical meristem, centripetal order

37)

Match the ploidy as the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Gemma cell of Liverworts (i) (n)

(b) Capsule of moss (ii) (2n)

(c) Archegonia of liver worts (iii) (n)

(d) Sporophyll of Adiantum (iv) (2n)

(1) a = i, b = ii, c = iii, d - iv
(2) a = ii, b = i, c = iii, d - iv
(3) a = iv, b = i, c = iii, d - ii
(4) a = i, b = iii, c = ii, d - iv

38) The unique character of angiosperms and gymnosperm is :-

(1) Formation of ovary and fruit
(2) Formation of vascular tissue
(3) Formation of ovule and seed
(4) Formation of sex organs

39) What is true about Bryophytes ?

(1) Sporophyte and gametophyte generations are independent

(2) Sporophyte itself completes the life cycle
(3) Sporophytes are dependent upon gametophytes
(4) Gametophytes are dependent upon sporophytes

40) Stored food of red algae is similar to :

(1) Chitin
(2) Pyrenoid
(3) Amylopectin and glycogen
(4) Glycogen and chitin

41) Gymnosperm endosperm is:-

(1) Triploid
(2) Diploid
(3) Haploid
(4) Tetraploid

42) Isogamous condition with non flagellated gametes is found in

(1) Fucus
(2) Chlamydomonas
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Volvox

43) Which is not true for the heterocyst of Nostoc :-

(1) Intercalary position

(2) Site of nitrogen fixation
(3) Nitrogenase enzyme present
(4) Photosynthesis

44) Which of the following statement(s) is are correct?

(i) Reproduction in fungi can take place by vegetative means- fragmentation, fission and budding
(ii) Fission of two nuclei is called plasmogamy
(iii) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non motile gamete is called karyogamy
(iv) Meiosis in zygote results in haploid spores.
(1) Only (i)
(2) Both (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) All of these

45) Which of the following is not related with ascomycetes ?

(1) They asexually reproduce by conidia

(2) Sexual spores are called ascospores which are produced exogenously in ascus.
(3) Neurospora is used in genetic work.
(4) Morels and truffles are edible.

46) Here two basic forms of coelenterates are given, which option is correct about them ?

(1) A-produce B-asexually and B-produce A sexually

(2) A and B both are polyp and free swimming
(3) A produce B sexually and B produce A asexually
(4) A and B both are medusa and reproduce sexually only

47) Given below are the four figures of arthropods, which of the following arthropod has five pairs of
legs and green gland for excretion ?

(1) Locusta
(2) Scorpion
(3) Butterfly
(4) Prawn
48) Which is correct about life cycle of lamprae?

(1) Lamprae migrate to fresh water for spawning

(2) Lamprae die after spawning immediatly
(3) Lamprae larvae return to ocean to shown metamorphosis and convert into adult
(4) More than one options are correct

49) Read the following statements A-D and choose the option which have all the correct ones only:-
(A) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
(B) In cephalochordata notochord persist through out the life.
(C) Protochordates are vertebrates.
(D) In chordates nerve cord is situated at the ventral surface of body.

(1) Statement C, D
(2) Statement A, B
(3) Statement A, B, D
(4) Statement B, C and D

50)

Observe the given diagram and select correct option :-

(1) It is a member of Chordata.

(2) It is a member of tunicata and in tunicata notochord is present only in larval tail.
(3) Worm like aquatic animal found in fresh water.
(4) It has cylindrical body which is divisible in proboscis, collar and tail.

51) Which of the following statements are true/false?

I. In higher phyla, cellular level of organisation is seen.
II. Phylum-Platyhelminthes have cellular level of organisation.
III. Cellular level of organisation is seen when the cells are not arranged as loose cell aggregates.
IV. Molluscs exhibit tissue level of organisation.
Choose the correct option of the following:-

(1) I and II are true but III and IV are false

(2) III and IV are true but I and II are false
(3) All statements are true
(4) All statements are false

52)
(A) Notochord is persistent throughout life.
(B) Gill slits are separate and without operculum (gill cover).

The above statements are true for members belonging to the class ?
(1) Chondrichthyes
(2) Osteichthyes
(3) Vertebrata
(4) Chordata

53) Which is correct statement ?

(A) Bony cranium is found in petromyzon
(B) Ammocoete is Marine
(C) Jaws possesses teeth in Myxine
(D) Development is indirect in Petromyzon

(1) A & D only

(2) A & C only
(3) B & C only
(4) Only D

54) In star fish water vascular system helps in?

(1) Locomotion
(2) Capture and transport of food
(3) Reproduction
(4) Both (1) and (2)

55)

Read the following features carefully.

(i) Air bladder
(ii) Placoid scales
(iii) Cycloid scales
(iv) Claspers
(v) Ventral mouth
(vi) 4-pairs gills
(vii) Fertilisation is external
(viii) Cloaca absent
(ix) Heteroceral tail
How many among them show by bony fish ?

(1) 7
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 9

56) Which is not correct with respect to echinodermata :-

(1) All are marine with organ level of organisation.
(2) Adult echinodermata are radially symmetrical.
(3) Possess complete digestive system.
(4) Possess free swimming larva.

57) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Struthio is a homoiothermous, coelomate, metamerically segmented and viviparous animal.

(2) Cyclostomes are marine and migrate for spawning to land.
(3) Pterophyllum is a gnathostome in which gills are covered by operculum
Anopheles, Nereis and Ctenoplana are coelomate animals having organ system level of
(4)
organisation.

58) Which is incorrect about non-chordates ?

(1) Gill slits are absent

(2) Post anal tail is absent
(3) Heart is dorsal
(4) Central nervous system is ventral, hollow and double

59) Which of the following statement is true regarding Amphibia ?

(1) Cloaca is not present

(2)
heart is chambered
(3) skull is dicondylic
(4) Cranial nerves = 12 pairs

60) Which character of reptile is differ from birds & mammals ?

(1) Amniota group

(2) Poikilothermal
(3) Homeothermal
(4) 12 pair cranial nerve

61) How many characters are true for given animal ?

i. It is a insect.
ii. Respire by book lungs.
iii. Body divided into cephalothorax and abdomen.
iv. It is a oviparous.

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3

62)

Identify the correct statement from the following with reference to Amphibians :-
(A) They have internal fertilization and development is direct
(B) Amphibian skin is moist and without scales
(C) Their body is divisible into head and trunk
(D) They have three chambered heart
Select the correct answer :-

(1) A and D
(2) A and B
(3) B, C and D
(4) D alone

63) Identify the given diagram A and B. Choose the correct option about them :-

(1) Both A and B have closed circulatory system

(2) A is monoecious and B is dioecious
(3) A shows metamerism while B show pseudometamerism
(4) Both A and B have internal fertilisation and indirect development

64) Identify the layers/germ layers – A, B, C and D in diploblastic and triploblastic (II) organisation in
animals :
 A B C D

(1) Mesoderm Ectoderm Endoderm Mesoglea

(2) Mesoglea Ectoderm Endoderm Mesoderm

(3) Mesoglea Mesoderm Ectoderm Endoderm

(4) Mesoderm Mesoglea Ectoderm Endoderm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) For the following figure which one is correct ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) D is animal with 3 chambered Heart

(2) C is warm blooded animal in which fertilization is external
(3) A is marine and gills are covered by operculum
(4) B is oviparous with scaly skin

66) Which statements are correct about the given animal?

(a) Bilaterally symmetrical, Triploblastic
(b) Worm like marine animal
(c) Circulatory system is of close type
(d) Coelomate animals
(e) Fertilisation is internal, Direct development

(1) a, b, c, d, e are correct

(2) a, b, c, d are correct
(3) a, b, d are correct
(4) b, d, e are correct

67) Animals belonging to phylum Chordata are fundamentally characterized by the presence of
structure noted as A, B, C and D. Identify the names of A, B, C and D :-

(1) A – Nerve cord, B – Gill slits, C – Notochord, D – Post-anal tail

(2) A – Nerve cord, B – Notochord, C – Post-anal tail, D – Gill slits
(3) A – Nerve cord, B – Notochord, C – Gill slits, D – Post-anal tail
(4) A – Notochord, B – Nerve cord, C – Gill slits, D – Post-anal tail

68)

Select the correct option of classification of Rana tigrina upto genus :-

(1) Chordata → vertebrata → Amphibia → gnathostomata → Rana

(2) Chordata → vertebrata → gnathostomata → Amphibia → Rana
(3) Chordata → Amphibia → gnathostomata → vertebrata → Rana
(4) Chordata → vertebrata → Amphibia → tetrapoda → Rana

69) Among the following which is not true for chordates ?

(1) Bilaterally symmetrical

(2) Triploblastic, coelomate, organ system level of organisation
(3) Absence of post anal tail
(4) Closed circulatory system

70) In the figure given below, Identify the parts labelled as A,B,C and D and select the right option

about them :-

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Pharyngeal
1 Notochord Nerve cord Post Anal Tail
gill slits
 Pharyngeal
2 Nerve cord Notochord Post Anal Tail
gill slits

Pharyngeal
3 Post Anal Tail Notochord Nerve cord
gill slits

Pharyngeal
4 Notochord Nerve cord Post Anal Tail
gill slits
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) Identify correct statement :

(1) All chordates are vertebrates

(2) All vertebrates are not chordates
(3) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates
(4) Vertebrates have dorsal, non-muscular heart

72) Assertion : All the vertebrates are chordates but all the chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason : All the vertebrates are characterised by the presence of a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve
cord and paired pharyngeal gill slits at some stages of the life cycle.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

73) Read the following statements and choose the option which have all correct statements :-
(a) The molecular weight of lipids exceed 800 Dalton
(b) Chlorophyll pigment is an example of secondary metabolites.
(c) Some secondary metabolites can be used as drugs for the treatment of human diseases.
(d) The first amino acid in a protein is called as N-terminal amino acid

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) c, d
(4) a, d

74) Select the incorrect match.

(1) GLUT-4 Enables glucose transport into cells

(2) Receptor Sensory reception (smell, taste etc.)

(3) Trypsin Carbohydrate digesting enzyme

(4) Antibody Fight against infectious agents

75) Two statements A & B are given. Choose the correct answer related to the statements.
Statement A :- Amino acids are amphoteric in nature
Statement B :- Except glycine all amino acids have two enantiomeric isomers.

(1) Statement A is wrong, statement B is correct.

(2) Both the statements A & B are wrong
(3) Both the statements A & B are correct
(4) Statement A is correct, Statement B is wrong

76) Identify the wrong statement regarding DNA :-

(1) Length of DNA is defined as the number of base pairs present in it

(2) Cytosine is common to both DNA and RNA
(3) In a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is linked to a phosphate group.
(4) Thymine is chemically 5-methyl uracil.

77)

Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) Almost all proteins are enzymes

(2) All enzymes are not proteins
(3) Enzymes have tertiary structure of protein
(4) Ribozymes are made up of nucleic acids

78) Identify the incorrect statement regarding the structure of proteins:

(1) They are heteropolymers containing strings of amino acids

(2) The first amino acid in the primary structure is the N-terminus amino acid
(3) Only left helices are observed in proteins
(4) Tertiary structure is absolutely essential for many biological functions of the proteins

79) Assertion (A) : Enzymes are divided into 6 classes.

Reason (R) : Lyases are enzyme that catalyses the cleavage of specific covalent bond and removal
of groups without hydrolysis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

80) Assertion (A): Cellulose does not contain complex helices.

Reason (R): Plant cell wall are made of cellulose.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

81) Statement - I : Almost all enzymes are protein.

Statement - II : An active site of an enzyme is a crevice or pocket into which the product fits.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.

82) Statement-I :- Enzymes are thermosensitive and get damaged at high temperature.
Statement-II :- Thermal stability is an important quality of enzymes isolated from thermophilic
organisms
Select the correct answer -

(1) Both Statement I and II are correct

(2) Only Statement I is correct
(3) Only Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect

83) Which of the following structures of protein is absolutely necessary for the biological activities of
many proteins ?

(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) Quaternary

84) Select the incorrect statement from the following :

(1) Most of the enzymes are protein.

(2) 'Hb' is an example of quaternary structure of protein.
(3) In the primary structure of protein, the left hand is N-terminal and the right hand is C-terminal.
(4) In protein or polypeptide, the amino acids are linked by glycosidic bond.

85) Which of the following factors can influence enzymatic activity ?

(1) Temperature
(2) pH
(3) Substrate concentration
(4) All of the above

86) The steps in catalytic cycle of an enzyme action are given in random order
(I) The enzyme releases the products, Now, enzyme is free to bind another substrate
(II) The active sites, now in close proximity of substrate breaks the bond of substrate and E-P
complex forms
(III) Binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly around the
substrate
(IV) The substrate binds to the active site of enzyme (i.e. fitting into the active site)
The correct order is :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) IV, III, II, I
(3) I, III, II, IV
(4) I, II, IV, III

87) The figure given below show enzyme activity. Identify the components lebelled as A, B & C :-

A B C

Activation energy Activation energy

(1) Transition state
with enzyme without enzyme

Activation energy Activation energy

(2) Potential energy
with enzyme without enzyme

Activation energy
(3) Activation energy Transition state
without enzyme

Activation energy
(4) Kinetic energy Transition state
without enzyme
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) Which one of the following graphs shows the relationship between the velocity (v) and substrate
concentration (S)?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

89) In four digit number 3.2.1.2, the first digit indicates ______ class of enzymes

(1) Oxidoreductases
(2) Ligases
(3) Lyases
(4) Hydrolases

90) Specificity of a protein in enzyme action depends upon:

(1) Active sites

(2) Linear sequence of amino acids
(3) Km constant
(4) Turnover number
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 2 4 3 3 3 4 3 3 3 2 2 4 4 4 3 1 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 3 4 3 4 2 2 4 2 1 1 3 2 3 1 2 3 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 4 3 1 3 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 3 4 4 3 3 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 2 1 2 4 1 1 1 2 1 4 1 4 1 1 1 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 4 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 1 3 2 3 1 1 2 1 2 1 4 2 1 2 3 4 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 1 3 3 2 2 3 4 3 3 2 4 2 1 1 3 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 4 1 2 3 4 4 2 2 4 1 4 4 2 1 3 4 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 3 1 3 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 3 4 4 2 1 4 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Suppose the force F is applied at an angle θ with the horizontal as shown in adjoining
figure. For vertical equilibrium,

R + F sin θ = mg
or R = mg – F sin θ .....(i)
While for horizontal motion
F cos θ ≥ ƒL or F cos θ ≥ μR .....(ii)
From eqns. (i) and (ii), we get;
F cos θ ≥ μ(mg – F sin θ)

or F≥
For the force F to be minimum (cos θ + μ sin θ) must be maximum,

i.e.,
or –sinθ + μ cosθ = 0
i.e., tanθ = μ or θ = tan–1(μ)

∴ sinθ = and cosθ =

2)
Let m: mass of chain
The chain will remain at rest, if

L1 ≤ µ (L–L1)
L1 (µ + 1) ≤ µL
3) Here = – 1 = – μg ⇒ μ = 0.1

4) F sin θ ≥ f ...(1)
f = µ(mg – F cos θ) ...(2)
mgsinθ ≥ µmg(1-cosθ)

cot ≥µ

5) F1 = mg sinθ + μmg cosθ

= mg (sinθ + μcosθ)
F2 = mg sinθ – μmg cosθ
= mg (sin θ – μcosθ)

6)
Duster will not move
If fL ≥ F cos β
⇒ µsN = µsF sin β ≥ F cos β

tan β ≥

7) Since block is at rest wrt lift hence net contact force will be equal to mg in upward
direction. (Work done = mgvt)

8)

work = Area under the curve for displacement 1m

9) Linear momentum of system of particle is '0'. = either or

 If K.E. of system of particle is '0',
then each particle must be at rest.

So, option (3) is correct

If (K.E.)system = 0 then must be '0'.

10)

x = t2 + 2t
v = 2t + 2
V0 = 2m/s, V2 = 2 × 2 + 2 = 6 m/s

W.D. = ΔKE = m (v2 – u2)

W.D. = × (62 – 22)

= = 8J.

11) Given initial velocity of the bullet in first case (u1) = 100 m/s.
Initial number of planks (n1) = 2.
Initial stopping distance (s1) = n1x = 2x (where x is the thickness of one plank).
Initial velocity of the bullet in second case(u2) = 200 m/s.
We know that relation for the stopping distance (s) is :
v2 = u2 + 2as
Since, the bullet is just able to penetrate the planks, therefore its final velocity v = 0
Thus, 2as = –u2 or s ∝ u2

Therefore,
or s2 = 4s1 = 4 × 2x = 8x Thus, final number of plank

(n2) = = 8.

12)

Asking About:
Stopping distance of the block on the rough surface.
Concept:

A. Energy conservation (Potential energy converts into kinetic energy).

B. Work-energy theorem (Work done by friction stops the block).

Formula:

A. (Energy conservation)
B. Work by friction = Kinetic Energy

C.
Calculation / Explanation:
From energy conservation:

Using work-energy theorem:

Final Answer: (2) 5 m .

13) Asking About:

Effect on potential energy when a conservative force does positive work.
Concept:

A. Work done by a conservative force changes potential energy.

B. Positive work means the force moves the object in the direction of the force.

Formula:
W = – AU
(Work done by a conservative force is the negative change in potential energy).

Calculation / Explanation:

A. If W > 0, then – ΔU > 0, implying ΔU < 0.

B. This means potential energy decreases when the conservative force does positive work.

Final Answer:
Potential energy decreases.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

14) Initial kinetic energy of the body = = .

Let at height h, the kinetic energy raduces to half, i.e., it becomes 4m. It is also equal to
potential energy. Hence,

15) Condition for stable equilibrium

=
⇒

16) Here k = = = 104 N/m

W = kx2 = × 104 × (40 × 10–3)2 = 8J

17) P = = 0.9 × 15 × 10 × 60 = 8100 W

18)

19)

Question Asking About:

A wheel is rotating at 1200 revolutions per minute ( rpm ) and is slowing down with an angular
acceleration of . We need to find how many revolutions it makes before it comes to
rest.

Key Concept: Kinematic equation for angular motion.

Formula:

Then, to convert radians to revolutions:

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

Step 1: Convert the initial speed to radians per second.

We know the initial speed is 1200 rpm . To convert this to radians per second:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

20)

For execution of circular motion, radial (i.e. centripetal) acceleration, ar ≠ 0 is a must

condition.
 In uniform circular motion ; ar ≠ 0 but at = 0
In non-uniform circular motion ; ar ≠ 0 and at ≠ 0
(where, at is tangential acceleration)

21)

Explain : determine which string in a system of three particles in circular motion is most
likely to break, based on the masses of the particles and their arrangement.

Concept: Circular motion.

Explanation:
The tension in each string is equal to the centripetal force required to keep all the particles beyond
that string in circular motion, and the string with the highest tension is most likely to break.

Formula: Centripetal force:

Calculation: String 1 has the highest tension because it must provide the centripetal all three
masses, making it the most likely to break. force for

Ans (1) Difficulty level: easy

22)

⇒ v2 = 2v1

% change =
= 100%

23) (p) centripetal acceleration = v2/ℓ, As bob goes from A to C, v decreases, hence centripetal
acceleration decreases.

(q) tangential acceleration : at = g sin θ as θ increases from 0 to 180°, at

first increases then decreases
(r) tension decreases from lowest to highest point
(s) tension is always perpendicular to velocity, so power developed by tension is zero.

24)
Loss in K.E. = Gain in P.E.
q – V2 = 10 (0.5)
⇒ V = 2 m/s

25) Explain Question

A puck starts from height 2R on a frictionless slide ending in a circular arc of radius R; find
acceleration at lowest point.
Concept

At the lowest point, acceleration is centripetal: . Use energy conservation to find v.

Solution

Initial potential energy: mg(2R) → Kinetic at bottom:

⇒
Final Answer: Option (3) (4g)

26) Average velocity = 0

Average speed =
= 10 m/s

27)

mgcosθ =

.....(i)
From COME :-

mgr = mgh + mv2

v2 = 2gr–2gh ....(ii)
From (i) & (ii) :
gh = 2gr – 2gh

3gh = 2gr ⇒

28)

k = as2
 ...(1)

Centripital acceleration Tangential acceleration

diff. eqn (1) w.r.t. t

29)

The particle is moving in circular path.

From the figure, mg = R sin θ

From equation (1) and (2) we get

but tan θ =

30) O =
5x + 2 – 4 = 0

5x =2⇒x=

O=

5y – 4 + 3 = 0 ⇒

31)
32)

, distance αR =

33)

34)

mA = 90kg, mB = 40 kg, mC = 20 kg
Let plank moves by x along left.
mA(ℓ – x) + mB(–ℓ – x) + mC( – x) = 0
(mA – mB)ℓ = (mA + mB + mC)x
⇒ (90 – 40) × 12 = (90 + 40 + 20)x
x = 4m

35)

Range R = sin 90° = 40m

The centre of mass will hit the ground at P

⇒ x= 60m

36) Velocities get interchanged

37) Due to spring force, velocity of 1 kg decreases and that of 3 kg increases. At the maximum
compression, both the blocks move with same velocity.

By the momentum conservation

1 × 2 + 3 × 1 = (1 + 3) v ⇒ v = m/s
By the energy conservation

⇒ x2 =

⇒x= m
⇒ x = 10 cm

38)
ΔE = mg(h–h')
ΔE = mgh (1 – e2)

39)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
In a perfectly inelastic collision, the two objects stick together, and the coefficient of
restitution e = 0.
• Mass of the two objects: M1 = M2 = m.
• Velocities before the collision: u1 and u2.
• Coefficient of restitution e = 0.
Now, substitute the known values into the formula:

Simplify the expression:

Conclusion:
Thus, the loss in kinetic energy in the perfectly inelastic collision is:

Hence, option (2) is correct.

Explanation:→ Loss of kinetic energy be of kinetic after Collision is required.
Concept :→ Some amount of kinetic energy is lost during perfactly inelastic collision.

Formula :→ ΔKE =
Calculation: →
For perfactly inelastic collision e= 0

ΔKE=

⇒ .

40)

initial momentum

after checking momentum in all 4 option

4th

in option 4th

41)

vsin45° = V'sinθ .......... (1)

evcos45° = V'cosθ ............(2)
By (1) & (2)

42) ...(1)
...(2)
Here M = mass of man
v = speed of man
u = speed of boy

Now ...(3)
by equation (2) & (3)

take under root.

43) E = mV2, = mV = p

44)

Asking About:
Work done by the force in the first 2 seconds.
Concept:
Work done by a force is equal to the change in kinetic energy (Work-Energy Theorem).
Formula:

Where (velocity)
Calculation / Explanation:

Velocity: .
At t = 0, vi = 02 = 0.
At t = 2, vf = 22 = 4 m/s.
Change in kinetic energy:

Final Answer: (2) 16 J

45)
Work done W = Area under F-x graph with proper sign
W = area of triangle ABC + Area of rectangle CDEF + Area of rectangel FGHΙ + Area of
rectangle ΙJKL

= 30 – 20 + 20 – 10
= 20 J ....(i)
According to work energy theorem
 Kf – Ki = W
or (Kf)x = 16 m – (Ki)x=0m = W
(Kf)x=16m = (Ki)x=0m + W
= 25 J + 20 J [Using (i)]
= 45 J

CHEMISTRY

46)

I2 + KI → KI3
In I3– hyb. is sp3d with 3 lone pair so shape is linear.

47)

Species No. of unpaired

O2 2

O2+ 1

O2– 1

O2–2 0

48) (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 49)
No resonance (all single bond)

50)

B2H6 acts as Lewi's acid

51) Answer - Option(3)

Explanation - The question asks which of the given species cannot exist based on chemical
bonding, valency, and molecular stability.
Concept- lH5 (Pentaiodine Hydride) does not exist.

A. Reason: I-H bonds are weak and unstable due to the large size and poor orbital overlap.

52)

Explanation

Para magnetism arises from the presence of unpaired electrons. Molecules with all paired
electrons are diamagnetic.

Explanation:

A. We need to find the molecule with at least one unpaired electron.

B. Let's examine the number of valence electrons in each molecule:

A. N₂O: (2 × 5) + 6 = 16 valence electrons (even number, likely paired)

B. Cl₂O: (2 × 7) + 6 = 20 valence electrons (even number, likely paired)

C. ClO₂: 7 + (2 × 6) = 19 valence electrons (odd number, must have at least one

unpaired electron)

D. Cl₂O₆: (2 × 7) + (6 × 6) = 14 + 36 = 50 valence electrons (even number, likely

paired)

C. Since ClO₂ has an odd number of valence electrons, it will have at least one unpaired
electron, making it paramagnetic.
Answer option 3, (ClO₂).

53) x kJ/mol

Li(s)
↓161 ↓ 76
Li(g) F(g)
–e– ↓531 +e– ↓–328

So x = 161 + 531 + 79 – 328

= 443 kJ/mol.

54)

Explanation

A. Overlap of atomic orbitals leads to bond formation. Greater overlap results in a stronger
bond.

Concept

A. Head-on overlap (sigma bond) is stronger than side-by-side overlap (pi bond).

B. Smaller orbitals provide better overlaps than larger orbitals.

C. Overlap of p-p orbitals will give the strongest bond because smaller orbitals provide
better overlap.

Answer option 3

55) Explanation -
The question asks to identify the incorrect sequence of bond dissociation energies among the
given sets of bonds, based on bond strength.

Concept - (Bond dissociation energy & bond strength)

A. Bond dissociation energy decreases with increasing bond length and lone pair repulsion. H-H
is strongest, followed by C-C, then Si-Si.
B. C-C > N-N > O-O is correct due to lone pair repulsions.
C. H-Cl > H-Br > H-I is correct due to decreasing bond strength.
D. Therefore, Si-Si > C-C > H-H is the incorrect order.

Final Answer - Option (2)

56)
IF5 - L.P = 1 B.P = 5

57) μ = q × d
= 4.8 × 10–10 esu cm. × 1.34 × 10–8 cm
= 6.4 × 10–18 esu cm. or 6.4D

∴ % Ionic character =

=
= 16.8 %

58)

C2 → C2–2
B.O. 2 3
σ 0 1
π=2 2

59)

Bond angle : NCl3 > NH3 > NF3

60) as per Bent rule

position where more EN element attached than %S↓↓.

61)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given chemical decomposition reactions
is incorrect. You need to identify the reaction that does not occur as written based on chemical
properties and thermal stability.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves understanding thermal decomposition

reactions and the stability of different compounds, especially carbonates of Group 1 elements
(alkali metals). While some carbonates decompose upon heating to form oxides and carbon
dioxide, others are stable and do not decompose under normal heating conditions. Knowing
the thermal stability patterns of such compounds helps in determining the correct and
incorrect reactions.

Tips and Tricks: Memorize that lithium carbonate (Li2CO3) is unique among alkali metal
carbonates because it decomposes on strong heating, whereas sodium carbonate (Na2CO3)
and others generally do not.

Common Mistakes: A typical error is assuming all carbonates decompose into metal oxides
and CO2 on heating. This is not true for sodium carbonate, which remains stable.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: The incorrect reaction is the decomposition of sodium
carbonate (Na2CO3) into sodium oxide (Na2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2), because Na2CO3
does not decompose this way under ordinary thermal conditions. The other reactions listed are
known and correct.

62) NCERT Pg. # 106, Resonance in CO2

63) Strength of ionic bond ∝ LE ∝

64) Ac to M.O.T in , O2, the total no. of antibonding electron respectively are 7, 6, 8.

65)

HF ; μ = 1.78 D
H2O ; μ = 1.85 D

66)

As per H-bond theory

67)

it is fact

68) t = 0 0.1 mole 0.1 mole 0 0

t = teq (0.1 – x) (0.1 –x) x x

∴ [SO2] = 0.1 – 0.085 = 0.015 M

69) Equilibrium will shift in backward direction when volume is increased. Thus number of
moles of H2 will increase

70)
For Kp < Kc ; Δng = –ve

71)

D1=
n=2

α=
α (in % = 27.78%

72) N2O4 2NO2

(1–α) 2α

=1+α

α=

73) A(g) + 2B(s) 2C(g)

t=0 2 4 –
t = teq. 1 2 2

Kp =

74)
Ans.30

75) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3

t=0 1 3
1-x 3 - 3x 2x
Total mole = 4 - 2x

76) as Q < KP, the reaction should go in forward direction, but

NH4HS(s) is not present in container ∴ there will be no change in pressure.
77)

78)

KP = (P)(3P)3(P)

P + 3P + P + = 22, P = 4 atm
KP = (4)(3×4)3(4)(2)1/2
= 27 × 221/2

79) Partial pressure of Z2 = 2.8 – (0.8 + 0.4) = 1.6

2Z2 ⇌ X2 + 2Y2

80) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

initially 1 3 0
at eqn (1–0.5) (3–1.5) 2×0.5 = 1 mole
∴ Total moles at equilibrium = 0.5 + 1.5 + 1 =
3 Partial pressure of NH3 =

81)

MnO4–+C2O42– +H+→Mn2++CO2+H2O
v.f. = 5 v.f. = 2
Therefore, Balanced equation :
2MnO4– + 5C2O42– + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O

82) Element in its intermediate oxidation state can simultaneously get oxidised and reduced to
form higher and lower oxidation states respectively in disproportionation reaction.

83) Minimum oxidation state - Reducing agent

Maximum oxidation state - Oxidising agent
Intermediate oxidation state – both oxidising agent and reducing agent.

84)

3KMnO4 + 5FeC2O4 Mn+2+Fe3+ + CO2

n=5 n=3
5 × 0.1 × V = 3 × 1
V=6L

85)

86)
n-factor ⇒ Cr = (+ 3 to + 6) = 3e– loss
I = (– 1 to + 7) × 3 = 24 e– loss

n-factor = 27 ∴ E =

87)
↓
only accept
electrons So, it is a oxidising agent only

88)
There is no reduction and oxidation taking place, therefore it is not a redox reaction.

89)

NH4 NO2
 90)

Key Concept:

A. Equilibrium Constant (K):

A. K is a constant that expresses the relationship between the concentrations of

products and reactants at equilibrium for a given chemical reaction.

B. A larger K value indicates a higher concentration of products at equilibrium.

Analysis:

A. Option 1 (A → B; K = 0.001):
K is very small, indicating that the concentration of reactants (A) is significantly higher
than the concentration of products (B) at equilibrium.

B. Option 2 (M → N; K = 10):

A. K is greater than 1, indicating that the concentration of products (N) is higher than
the concentration of reactants (M) at equilibrium.

C. Option 3 (X → Y; K = 0.005):

A. K is small, indicating a higher concentration of reactants at equilibrium.

D. Option 4 (R → P; K = 0.01):
K is small, indicating a higher concentration of reactants at equilibrium.

Conclusion:
The reaction with the highest concentration of product at equilibrium is M → N; K = 10.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT XI
Page No. 35

92) Solution
The correct answer is Option 1: Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Explanation:
 A. Statement I: The leaves in gymnosperms (like pine trees) are indeed well adapted to withstand
extreme temperatures, humidity, and wind. Their needle-like shape and waxy coating help
them survive harsh environmental conditions.
B. Statement II: The needle-like leaves reduce the surface area, which in turn minimizes water
loss through transpiration, making gymnosperms more efficient in conserving water.

Both statements accurately describe adaptations in gymnosperms, so both Statement I and

Statement II are true.

93) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 38

94)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 26, 27

95) NCERT XI, Pg. # 32

96) NCERT XI Pg. # 27

97)

Ncert Pg No: 38

98) NCERT Pg. # 70

99) NCERT Pg : 65 (new)

100) NCERT_11_2021-22_88

101) Explanation:

A. Hypogynous: Mustard, China Rose, Brinjal → 3 examples.

B. Perigynous: Plum, Peach, Rose → 3 examples.
C. Epigynous: Guava, Cucumber, Ray Floret (Sunflower) → 3 examples.

Correct Answer: 3, 3, 3

102) a - Valvate
b - Twisted
c - Imbricate
d - Vexillary

103) Rhizome is modified stem

104)
Ncert Pg No:80, 2021 - 2022

105) NCERT XI, Pg. # 69, 70

106) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about Chlorella, Chlamydomonas and Paramoecium, Amoeba were
earlier placed with plants and animals respectively but after Whittaker's 5 kingdom.

Concept :
This question is based on whittaters 5 kingdom classification.

Solution :
Chlorella
Chlamydomonas
Paramoecium
Amoeba
All are chicelluler kukaryots.
So they are placed in 2 protista.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

107)

NCERT-XI Page No.-19

108) NCERT XI Pg.# 129 para. 8.4.1

109) NCERT XI, Pg. # 2

110)

NCERT Pg # 23-24

111) NCERT, Pg. # 16,17

112) The assertion is true as certain fungi, such as yeast, are indeed utilized in the production
of bread and beer due to their fermentation capabilities. The reason is also true; fungi
generally thrive in warm and humid environments. However, the reason R is not the correct
explanation of A because the preference for warm and humid places is not why yeast is used in
bread and beer production; rather, it is due to the fermentation process that yeast can
perform.

113) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17

 114)

Explanation :

A. Nitrosomonas & Nitro coccus convert ammonia (NH₃) to nitrite (NO₂⁻) → (i)
B. Nitrobacter converts nitrite (NO₂⁻) to nitrate (NO₃⁻) → (ii)
C. Pseudomonas & Thiobacillus perform denitrification (nitrate to nitrogen gas, N₂) → (iii)

The correct answer is: 1. A-i, B-ii, C-iii

115)

Old Ncert page number 22.

116) NCERT XI Pg # 20,21

117) NCERT XIth Pg # 24

118)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 26

119) Correct Answer: 3. Papilionaceous

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

A. The Papilionaceous corolla (found in Fabaceae family) has five petals:

A. Standard (Vexillum) → Largest petal, outermost.
B. Wings (Alae) → Two lateral petals.
C. Keel (Carina) → Two fused lower petals, forming a boat-shaped structure.
B. Example: Pea (Pisum sativum), Bean

120) NCERT XI Pg.#71,74,75,69

121)

NCERT XI Pg.# 38

122) NCERT - XI, Pg.# 75,76

123) Fact, Ncert Page 66.

124) NCERT page- 62 and 64

125) NCERT Page no. 62

126)

NCERT Page no. 59

127)

NCERT XI Page No. # 29,30

128) NCERT XI Bio Pg. # 39, 40

129)

Solution:

The correct answer is Option 3: Sporophytes are dependent upon gametophytes.

In bryophytes, the sporophyte (the diploid stage) is dependent on the gametophyte (the
haploid stage) for nutrition and support. The gametophyte is the dominant, photosynthetic
stage, while the sporophyte is smaller and relies on the gametophyte.

130)

Explanation:
Red algae (Rhodophyta) store food in the form of Floridean starch, which is structurally similar
to amylopectin and glycogen.

131)

Allen module.

132)

Ncert page 24.

133)

Solution:

The Correct answer is: 4. Photosynthesis

134) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 23, Para No. 2.3

135) NCERT Pg.#24 Para-2.3.2

136) NCERT Pg. # 50, Para-4.2.2, Fig.4.6 (a) & (b)

137) NCERT Pg. # 53, Para-4.2.7, Fig.-4.12 a,b,c,d

138) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 56, Fig. 1.19 (a)

139) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 54, 55

140) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 55

141) NCERT XI Pg. # 46,47,48

142) NCERT Pg. # 56

143) NCERT Pg # 56, 4.2.11.1

144) NCERT XI Pg.# 54, IInd para

145)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 57, 4.2.11.3

146) NCERT (XIth) (E) Pg. # 54

147) NCERT, 11TH, Page no. 59, 56, 57, 35, 52, 51 & 47

148) NCERT, Table 4.1

149) Module

150) Module

151) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 53

152) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 57

153) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 49,50

154) NCERT XIth (E) Pg.#47

155) NCERT Pg. # 57,58,59, fig. 4.20 (a), 4.21 (b), 4.23 (c), 4.22 (b)
 156) Explanation:
Characteristics of Balanoglossus (Phylum Hemichordata)
(a) Bilaterally symmetrical, Triploblastic → Correct

A. Balanoglossus has bilateral symmetry and is triploblastic (three germ layers: ectoderm,
mesoderm, endoderm) .

(b) Worm-like marine animal → Correct

A. Balanoglossus is a marine, worm-like, burrowing animal found in soft sea beds.

(c) Circulatory system is of closed type → Incorrect

A. Hemichordates have an open circulatory system (not closed).

(d) Coelomate animals → Correct

A. Balanoglossus is coelomate (has a true body cavity).

(e) Fertilization is internal, Direct development → Incorrect

A. Fertilization is external, and development is indirect with a tornaria larval stage.

Correct Answer: Option (3) a, b, d are correct.

157)

Explain Question : Labelling of Diagram

Concept : This question is based on Chordata

Solution :
(A) Nerve cord
(B) Notochord
(C) Gill slits
(D) Post-anal tail

Final Answer : option (3)

158) NCERT-XI, Pg#56, 57, 58

159) NCERT-XI Pg # 55

160) NCERT Pg. # 55, Para = 4.2.11 fig. 4.16

161) NCERT XIth Pg.#55

162)

Explain Question : Assertion and Reason Based.

Concept : This question is based on Vertebrates/Chordates
Solution :
Assertion:
All the vertebrates are chordates but all the chordates are not vertebrates.
True: Vertebrates are a sub-group within Chordata. Non-vertebrate chordates include
Urochordata and Cephalochordate.
Reason:
All the vertebrates are characterised by the presence of notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord
and paired pharyngeal gill slits at some stages of the life cycle.
True- These are defining features of chordates, present in vertebrates during some life stage
(e.g., human embryos show all three).
The Reason explains why vertebrates are chordates, but it does not explain why all chordates
are not vertebrates, which is the second part of the Assertion.
So, although both are true, the Reason doesn’t fully explain the Assertion, especially the part
about “all chordates are not vertebrates.”
Final Answer : option (2)

163)

Explaining the Question :-

Correct statements
Concept:- Protein
Solution :-
(C) Secondary Metabolites → Used as drug → for curing human disease.
(D) First amino acid in proteins in N-terminal amino acid.
Correct statement C and D.
Final Answer :- Option (3)

164)

Explaining the Question :- The question is asking about select the incorrect match
Concept:- Proteins
Solution :- Trypsin is a protein-digesting enzyme, not a carbohydrate-digesting enzyme.
Final Answer :- Option 3

165)

Concept:

A. Amphoteric nature of amino acids

B. Chirality and enantiomers

C. Glycine structure
Explanation:

A. Statement A: Amino acids are amphoteric in nature.

A. This statement is correct. Amphoteric substances can act as both acids and bases.
Amino acids have both an amino group (–NH2) and a carboxyl group (–COOH),
allowing them to donate or accept protons depending on the pH of the
environment.

B. Statement B: Except glycine, all amino acids have two enantiomeric isomers.

A. This statement is also correct. Enantiomers are stereoisomers that are non-
superimposable mirror images of each other. This occurs when a carbon atom is
chiral, meaning it is bonded to four different groups.

B. In amino acids, the alpha carbon is chiral, except in glycine. Glycine has two
hydrogen atoms attached to the alpha carbon, making it achiral. Therefore, it does
not have enantiomers.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Final Answer: 3 Both the statements A & B are correct

166)

NCERT XII, Page # 96 & 97

167)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 154

168)

Concept:

A. Helices in proteins can exist in both left-handed and right-handed forms.

B. The tertiary structure refers to the overall 3D shape, and is indeed crucial for many proteins'
biological functions.

Explanation:

A. Statement 3 is incorrect: Both left- and right-handed helices are observed in proteins.
The most common helices are right-handed alpha helices.
Final Answer: Option 3: Only left helices are observed in proteins

169) NCERT Page No. # 158

170) Explanation :- The question is asking about assertion and reason

Concept :- This question is based on Polysaccharide
Solution :- Cellulose is made of $\beta$-1,4-linked glucose units, forming straight,
unbranched chains, giving a rigid, fibrous structure, not a helix. The plant cell walls contain
cellulose doesn't explain why cellulose lacks helices.
Answer :- 2

171) NCERT Pg. No. # 154

172) NCERT-154

173)

Concept:

A. Tertiary structure refers to the overall 3D shape of a single polypeptide chain, and is
crucial for the protein’s function.

Explanation: The tertiary structure of a protein is critical for its biological activity because it
determines the protein's overall shape, which is essential for its function (e.g., enzyme activity,
receptor binding).

174)

Explaining the Question :- The question is asking about the incorrect statement
Concept:- Proteins
Solution :- Amino acids in proteins are linked by peptide bonds, not glycosidic bonds.
Glycosidic bonds link monosaccharides in carbohydrates.
Final Answer :- Option_4

175)

NCERT XI, Page # 157

176)

NCERT Pg. # 157

177)

NCERT Page No. # 115

178)

The correct answer is 4.

The graph that correctly shows the relationship between velocity and substrate concentration
is graph 4.

179) Enzymes are divided into 6 classes each with 4-13 subclasses and named accordingly by a
four-digit number. 1. Oxidoreductases/dehydrogenases 2. Transferases 3. Hydrolases 4. Lyases
5. Isomerases 6. Ligases

180) NCERT pg. 113.

An active site of an enzyme is a crevice or pocket into which the substrate fits.