23-06-2024

1015CMD303054240002 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A vector is not changed if

(1) It is displaced parallel to itself

(2) It is rotated through an arbitrary angle.
(3) It is cross-multiplied by a unit vector.
(4) It is multiplied by an arbitrary scalar.

2) The resultant of two equal forces is double of either of the forces . The angle between them is :

(1) 120º
(2) 90º
(3) 60º
(4) 0º

3) A physical quantity which has a direction :

(1) must be a vector

(2) may be a vector
(3) must be a scalar
(4) none of the above

4) and are :-

(1) Parallel vectors

(2) Anti parallel vectors
(3) Cointitial vectors
(4) Perpendicular vectors

5) The forces, each numerically equal to 5 N, are acting as shown in the Figure. Find the angle

between forces?
(1) 60º
(2) 120º
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None

6) Magnitude of unit vector along direction of is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 1

7) The forces, which meet at one point but their lines of action do not lie in one plane, are called :

(1) non-coplanar and non-concurrent forces

(2) coplanar and non-concurrent forces
(3) non-coplanar and concurrent forces
(4) coplanar and concurrent forces

8) Find a vector whose magnitude is same as that of and is parallel to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) In the adjoining vector diagram, what is the angle between ? (Given : C = B/2).

(1) 30º
(2) 60º
(3) 120º
(4) 150º

10) A current of 1.6 A is flowing through a wire having cross-sectional area 1 mm2. If density of free
electrons in the material of the wire is 1029 per m3, the drift velocity of electrons will be :-

(1) 10–4 m/s

(2) 10–3 m/s
(3) 10–2 m/s
(4) 0.1 m/s

11) Drift valocity Vd varies with the intensity of electric field as per the relation

(1) Vd ∝ E

(2)
Vd ∝
(3) Vd = constant
2
(4) Vd ∝ E

12) The specific resistance of a wire is ρ , its volume is 3m3 and its resistance is 3 ohms, then its
length will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The dimensions of a block are (1 cm × 1 cm × 100 cm) the specific resistance of its material is 3

× 10–7 ohm × metre. Then resistance between the rectangular faces is :-

(1) 3 × 10–9 Ω
(2) 3 × 10–7 Ω
(3) 3 × 10–5 Ω
(4) 3 × 10–3 Ω

14) The resistance of bulb filament is 100 Ω at a temperature of 100°C. If its temperature coefficient
of resistance be 0.005 per°C, its resistance will become 200 Ω at a temperature of :-

(1) 500°C
(2) 200°C
(3) 300°C
(4) 400°C

15) Find the value of resistance for V-I graph :-

(1) Ω

(2)

(3) 2 Ω
(4) 4 Ω

16) A copper wire and an iron wire, each having an area of cross-section A and length L1 and L2 are
joined end to end. The copper end is maintained at a potential V1 and the iron end at a lower
potential V2. If σ1 and σ2 are the conductivities of copper and iron respectively, the potential of the
juction will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Net resistance between X and Y is –

(1) 5 Ω
(2) 10 Ω
(3) 15 Ω
(4) 60 Ω

18) Two resistance R1 and R2 are connected in series and parallel combination. Their resultant are

Rs and Rp respectively. If then the relationship is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

19) Six equal resistances are connected between points P, Q and R as shown in the figure. Then, the

net resistance will be maximum between :

(1) P and Q
(2) Q and R
(3) P and R
(4) R and S

20)

Value of sin75° is :-

(1)

(2) cos15°
(3) sin105°
(4) All

21)

If x2 + y2 = 5 then radius of circle, is :-

(1) 5
(2)
(3) 0
(4) 25

22) For ellipse , the coandinates of point A and B are respectively :-

(1) (64, 0) & (0, 49)

(2) (0, 7) & (8, 0)
(3) (8, 0) & (0, 7)
(4) (0, 64) & (49, 0)

23) If y = ex sin x then calculate

(1) ex cos x
(2) ex(sin x + cos x)
(3) ex + cos x
(4) None of these

24) If a particle is moving with velocity v = 3t2 – 3t+1 then find minimum possible velocity in m/s :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) If y = x2 – 4x + 4 then minimum value of the y is :-

(1) 2
(2) – 2
(3) 0
(4) 4

26) will be equal :-

(1) π
(2) 2π
(3) 0
(4) π/2

27) Initial and final velocity of a body of mass 1kg are m/s and m/s. The time of change
is 2sec find the magnitude average force :-

(1)
N

(2)
N
(3) 4N

(4)
N

28) A man standing in a lift holds a spring balance with a load of 5 kg suspended from it. What would
be the reading of the balance when the lift is descending with a constant acceleration of 2 m/s2 :

(1) 0 N
(2) 40 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 60 N

29) A ball is dropped on the floor from a height of 10 m. It rebounds to a height of 2.5 m. If the ball
is in contact with the floor for 0.01 sec, the average acceleration during contact is :-

(1) 2100 m/sec2 downwards

(2) 2100 m/sec2 upwards
(3) 1400 m/sec2
(4) 700 m/sec2

30) A rocket of mass 100 kg burns 0.1 kg of fuel per sec. If velocity of exhaust gas is 1 km/sec, then
it lifts with an acceleration of (neglect gravity) :-

(1) 1000 ms–2

(2) 100 ms–2
(3) 10 ms–2
(4) 1 ms–2

31) A disc of mass M kg is kept floating horizontally in air by firing bullets of mass m kg each
vertically at it, at the rate of N per second. If the bullets rebound with the same speed, the speed

with which these are fired will be–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

32) A block is kept on a smooth horizontal surface and applied by a force as shown in figure. The
acceleration of the block will be (sin 37° = 3/5 and g=10 m/s2)

(1) 10 m/s2 in the direction of 10 N force

(2) 10 m/s2 in horizontal direction
(3) 8 m/s2 in horizontal direction
(4) 6 m/s2 in vertical direction

33) A body of mass 3 kg hits a wall at an angle of 60° and returns at the same angle. The impact

time was 0.2 s. Calculate the force exerted on the wall:-

(1) 150 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 75 N

34) The ratio of weights of a man in a stationary lift and in a lift accelerating downwards with a
uniform acceleration is 3 : 2. The acceleration of the lift is:-

(1)

(2)

(3) g

(4)
g

35) A cricket ball of mass 500 g collides with a bat with velocity 15 m/s and returns with the same
velocity within 0.01 second. The force aceted on bat is:-

(1) Zero
(2) 750 N
(3) 1500 N
(4) 2000 N

SECTION-B

1) and are always :-

(1) Parallel vectors
(2) Equal vectors
(3) Collinear vectors
(4) Coplanar vectors

2) Which of the following is not a property of a null vector ?

(1)
(2) where λ is a scalar
(3)
(4)

3) A vector is rotated through an angle π/2, the magnitude of new vector is -

(1) 2A
(2) A
(3) A/2
(4) Zero

4) If resultant of and is perpendicular to then angle between and will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The current voltage graph for a metalic conductor at two different temperature T1 & T2 are shown

in figure then :-

(1) T1 > T2, R1 > R2

(2) T1 > T2, R1 < R2
(3) T1 < T2, R1 > R2
(4) T1 < T2, R1 < R2

6)

The temperature coefficient of resistance for a wire is 0.00125/°C. At 300 K its resistance is 1 ohm.
The temperature at which the resistance becomes 2 ohm is :-
(1) 1154 K
(2) 1100 K
(3) 1400 K
(4) 1127 K

7)

The value of (sin15° + cos15°)2 is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

The slope angle of straight line 3y = + 3 is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) 90°

9)

Which of the following match is correct :-

(i) (a) y = x2

(ii) (b) y = –x2

(iii) (c) x = y2

(iv) (d) x = –y2

 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) a b c d

(2) a c b d

(3) d c b a

(4) c a d b
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Differentiation of cos with respect to x is

– sin
(1)

(2) – sin

(3) – sin

(4)
– sin

11) ds:

(1)
(3 – 2s)3/2 + C

(2)
(3 + 2s)3/2 + C

(3)
– (3 – 2s)3/2 + C

(4)
– (3 + 2s)3/2 + C

12) A cricket ball of mass 150 g is moving with a velocity of 12 m/s and is hit by a bat. Duration of
contact between the ball and the bat is 0.01 sec and average force exerted on the ball by the bat is
480 N. The velocity with which the ball turns back :

(1) 12.032 m/s

(2) 20 m/s
(3) 32 m/s
(4) 44 m/s

13) The force acting versus time graph of a rocket is shown in figure. The mass of the rocket is
1200kg. The velocity of rocket 16 seconds after starting from rest will be (neglect gravity):

(1) 50 m/s
(2) 100 m/s
(3) 200 m/s
(4) 300 m/s

14)

A force represented as show in figure acts on a body having a mass of 16 kg. The velocity of the body
at t = 10 s, if the body starts from rest :-

(1) 100 m/s

(2) 50 m/s
(3) 49 m/s
(4) 39 m/s

15) If momentum of a particle is given by P = at – bt2. Find the time at which force on particle
becomes zero (a & b are constant) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) In which transition one quantum of energy is emitted :-

(1) n = 4 → n = 2
(2) n = 3 → n = 1
(3) n = 5 → n = 3
(4) All of them

2) If the transition of an electron is from M to L shell then the spectrum obtained is :-

(1) Absorption
(2) Emission
(3) X-ray
(4) Continuous

3) Maximum number of spectral lines possible when an electron jumps from 5th excited state to
ground state in a sample containing only Hydrogen atoms will be –

(1) 4
(2) 14
(3) 5
(4) 15

4) Maximum value of λ for lyman series for H atom is :

[RH = 109678 cm–1]

(1) 1215 Å
(2) 1315 Å
(3) 1415 Å
(4) 1515 Å

5) When an electron makes transition from n = 4 to n = 2, then emitted line in spectrum will be (H
atom)

(1) First line of Lyman series

(2) Second line of Balmer series
(3) First line of Paschen series
(4) Second line of Paschen series

6) Bohr model could not explain the spectrum of:

(1) Na+10
(2) B+4
(3) He-atom
(4) He+

7) Maximum number of electrons present in 'N' shell is :-

(1) 18
(2) 32
(3) 2
(4) 8

8) The radius of nucleus of 13Al27 will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) If the table of atomic masses were established with respect to oxygen atom and its assigned value
of atomic mass is 100, then the mass of carbon atom would be, approximately:-

(1) 24
(2) 75
(3) 50
(4) 112

10) What is the maximum numbers of electrons that can be associated with the following set of
quantum numbers ?
n = 3; ℓ = 1 and m = –1

(1) 2
(2) 10
(3) 6
(4) 4

11) What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum
numbers? n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) The angular momentum of electron in 'd' orbital is equal to :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by :-

(1) Principal quantum number

(2) Magnetic quantum number
(3) Azimuthal quantum number
(4) Spin quantum number

14)

If 9.9 eV energy is supplied to H atom the number of spectral lines emitted is equal to

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

15) Any nf–orbital can accomodate upto :–

(1) 14 electron
(2) Six electrons
(3) Two electrons with parallel spin
(4) Two electrons with opposite spin

16) n, ℓ and m values of an electron in 3py orbital are :-

(1) n = 3 ; ℓ = 1 and m = 1
(2) n = 3 ; ℓ = 1 and m = –1
(3) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(4) None of these

17) The maximum probability of finding an electron in the dxy orbital is :-

(1) Along the x-axis

(2) Along the y-axis
(3) At an angle of 45° from the x and y axis
(4) At an angle of 90° from the x and y axis

18)

Total spin for d9 configuration will be

(1)

(2) 2
(3) 1

(4)

19)

IUPAC name of (CH3)2 CH - CH2 - CH2 Br is

(1) 1-Bromophentane
(2) 2-methyl-4-bromopentane
(3) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane
(4) 2-methyl-3-bromopropane

20) Which of the following is Alicyclic?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

21) Which of the following IUPAC name is incorrect

(1) 3-Bromo-2-Chloropentane
(2) Pent-2-en-4-yne
(3) 3-Bromo-butan-2-ol
(4) 1-Amino pentane-2-ol

22) The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compounds in
IUPAC nomenclature is :-

(1) –CHO, –COOR, –CONH2, –COX

(2) –CONH2, –COX, –COOR, –CHO
(3) –COOR, –COX, –CONH2, –CHO
(4) –COOR, –CONH2, –COX, –CHO

23) Which of the following functional group is not present in given compound :-

(1) Ketone
(2) Aldehyde
(3) Ether
(4) Amine

24) The correct structure of secondry butyl sulphonic acid is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) has the common name :-

(1) Neohexane
(2) Isohexane
(3) Hexane
(4) Neopentane

26) The number of C atom in principal carbon chain of given compound is :

(1) 7
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 4

27) Primary radical is:-

(1) Isopropyl
(2) Isobutyl
(3) Active isopentyl
(4) All

28) The number of 3° hydrogen atoms in biphenyl methane is :-

(1) 2
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 0

29) The ratio of σ and π bonds in styrene is :-

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 5 : 2
(4) 10 : 1

30) Number of 1°, 2° and 3°-butyl groups are respectively :-

(1) 1, 2 and 1
(2) 2, 1 and 1
(3) 1, 1 and 2
(4) 2, 1 and 0

31) In , the number of

C-atoms in parent carbon chain is :-

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 10

32) The IUPAC name of is :-

(1) Ethanenitrile
(2) Ethanedinitrile
(3) Dicyanide
(4) Dicyanoethane

33) The IUPAC name of is :-

(1) 4-Ethylcyclobut-2-en-1-ol
(2) 4-Ethylcyclobut-1-en-3-ol
(3) 3-Ethylcyclobut-1-en-2-ol
(4) 2-Ethylcyclobut-3-en-1-ol
34) The IUPAC name of is :-

(1) 1-Ethyl-3,3-dimethylcyclopentane
(2) 1,1-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclopentane
(3) 1-Ethyl-3-methyl cyclopentane
(4) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethyl cyclopentane

35) Which of the following is incorrect match ?

Radical Name

(1) CH2=CH–CH2– Allyl

(2) HC≡C–CH2– Propargyl

(3) Neobutyl

(4) Isopropyl

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

SECTION-B

1) In the ground state of H–atom, the energy of an electron is –13.6 eV. What is the energy of 5th
orbit ?

(1) –0.54 eV
(2) –5.40 eV
(3) –0.85 eV
(4) –2.72 eV

2)

Which is correct for any H like species

(1) (E2 – E1) > (E3 – E2) > (E4 – E3)

(2) (E2 – E1) < (E3 – E2) < (E4 – E3)
(3) (E2 – E1) = (E3 – E2) = (E4 – E3)
(4)
(E2 – E1) = (E3 – E2) = (E4 – E3)

3)

First excitation energy of H-atom is

(1) 10.2 eV
(2) 3.4 eV
(3) 1.51 eV
(4) –3.4 eV

4) The potential energy of an electron in third excited state of He+ ion is :-

(1) – 12.08 eV
(2) – 3.4 eV
(3) – 6.8 eV
(4) – 1.7 eV

5) What is the ratio of time periods (T1/T2) of electrons present in second orbit of hydrogen atom to
third orbit of He+ ion ?

(1) 8/27
(2) 32/27
(3) 27/32
(4) 8/9

6)

For any H like system, the ratio of velocities of electron present in I, II and III orbit will be :-

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 6 : 3 : 2
(3) 3 : 2 : 1
(4) 2 : 3 : 6

7) Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm : (Planck's constant h =

6.63 × 10–34 Js; speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)

(1) 6.67 × 1015

(2) 6.67 × 1011
(3) 4.42 × 10–15
(4) 4.42 × 10–18

8) Assertion :- All atoms is CH2=C=CH2 lie in one plane. Reason :- All the carbon atoms in it are sp2
hybridised.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are not true.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

9)

The IUPAC name of the compound is:

(1) 4 – Amino – 2- methoxy -1- Amino-2-butene

(2) 4 – Amino – 3 – methoxy – 2- butenamide
(3) 2-methoxy-1,4-diamino-2-butenal
(4) 1-Amino-2-methoxy-3-aminopropene

10) The IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

(1) 2-Bromo-2-chloro-2-fluoroethanal
(2) 1-Bromo-1-chloro-2-fluoroethanal
(3) 2-Fluoro-2-chloro-2-bromoethanal
(4) 1-Fluoro-1-chloro-1-bromoethanal

11) Which pair of compounds does not represent same homologous series ?

(1)

and

(2)

and

(3)

and
(4) All

12) Which one is non-planar molecule ?

(1) H2C = CH – CH = CH2

(2) H2C = CH – C CH
(3) H2C = C = C = CH2
(4) H2C = C = C = C = CH2

13) Arrange the following substitutents in Alphabetical order ?

(I) isopropyl (II) secbutyl
(III) dimethyl (IV) neopentyl

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > I > III > IV
(3) II > III > I > IV
(4) II > I > IV > III

14) The IUPAC name of is :-

(1) Trichloromethylpropan-2-ol
(2) 2-Hydroxy-2-trichloromethylpropane
(3) 1,1,1-trichloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol
(4) 3,3,3-trichloro-2-methyl-propan-2-ol

15) The IUPAC name of is :-

(1) 4-Chloroformyl-3,3-dimethylbutanoic acid

(2) 5-Chloroformyl-3,3-dimethylpentanoic acid
(3) 4-Carboxy-3,3-dimethylbutanoyl chloride
(4) 5-Carboxy-3,3-dimethylpentanoyl chloride

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column
Column I Column III
II

Robert Father of
(i) Cell wall
Hooke cytology

Examined
Anton Von German
(ii) large number
Leeuwenhoek botanist
of plants
 Studied both
Theodore British
(iii) plants and
Schwann Zoologist
animals
(1) (i) only
(2) (i) and (ii) both
(3) (iii) only
(4) (i) and (iii) both

2) Chromatin contain :-

(1) RNA and Histones

(2) DNA and Histones
(3) Histones and Non Histones
(4) All of the above

3) Starch storing plastid is known as :-

(1) Leucoplast
(2) Aleuroplast
(3) Amyloplast
(4) Elaioplast

4) Based on the type of pigments plastids can be classified into :-

(1) Amyloplast, elaioplast, and aleuroplasts

(2) Chlorophyll, carotenoid and xanthophyll
(3) Chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplast
(4) Phytochrome, phycobilins and phycoerythrin

5) What is the site of ribosomal RNA-synthesis ?

(1) Centromere
(2) Kinetochore
(3) Nucleolus
(4) Lysosome

6) Which of the following possess an organised nucleus with a nuclear envelope ?

(1) Plants
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Bacteria

7) Identify A to D in the diagrammatic representation of internal structure cilia/flagella :

 A-Dynein arms, B-Central microtubule,
(1)
C-Plasma membrane, D-Radial spoke
A-Plasma membrane, B-Central microtubule,
(2)
C-Dynein arms, D-Radial spoke
A-Plasma membrane, B-Dynein arms,
(3)
C-Central microtubule, D-Radial spoke
A-Plasma membrane, B-Dynein arms,
(4)
C-Radial spoke, D-Central microtubule

8) Which part of chromatin fibre is transcriptionally more active part :-

(1) Heterochromatin
(2) Euchromatin
(3) Both of them
(4) Nucleolus

9) Which of following organelle is not present in almost all plant cells :-

(1) Vacoule
(2) Plastid
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Centriole

10) Human RBCs has approximately_______:-

(1) 40% proteins, 60% lipids

(2) 40% lipids, 52% proteins
(3) 8% carbohydrates, 40% proteins
(4) (1) and (3)

11) What is true about ribosomes :-

(1) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, where "S" stands for sedimentation coefficient
(2) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins
(3) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
(4) These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs

12) Main site of formation of glycoprotein and glyco lipids is :

(1) Golgi body
(2) Ribosome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Vacuole

13)

Vacuole present mainly in :-

(1) Plants
(2) Animals
(3) Algae
(4) All

14)

Which of the following strucutre is not the part of all chromosomes ?

(1) Telomere
(2) Centromere
(3) Chromatid
(4) Satellite

15)

What is a tonoplast ?

(1) Outer membrane of mitochondria

(2) Inner membrane of chloroplast
(3) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells
(4) Cell membrane of plant cell

16)

In polyribosome formation :-

(1) Multiple ribosomes are associated with each other

(2) Multiple ribosomes are associated with cell membrane
(3) Multiple ribosomes are associated with same mRNA
(4) Multiple tRNA are associated with same ribosome

17) Plastids are found in :-

(1) Few plant cells and in euglenoids

(2) All plant cells and in euglenoids
(3) Few animal cells and in euglenoids
(4) All animal cells and in euglenoids
18) Omnis cellula e cellula given by

(1) Rudolf Virchow

(2) Singer
(3) Nicolson
(4) George Palade

19) Eukaryotic flagella has :-

(1) 9 + 11 Structure
(2) 9 + 0 Structure
(3) 9 + 2 Structure
(4) 9 + 1 Structure

20) Lysosome enzymes are active at pH :

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) Variable

21) What is the main component of cell wall?

(1) Tunnel proteins

(2) Glycolipid
(3) Starch
(4) Cellulose

22) Smallest Prokaryotic cell is :-

(1) Mycoplasma
(2) Ostrich egg
(3) Bacteria
(4) RBCs

23) Middle lamella is a layer, mainly consist of :-

(1) Calcium pectate

(2) Proteins
(3) Cellulose
(4) Silica

24) How many cell organelles are devoid of membrane, Ribosome, Peroxisome, Lysosome,
Mitochondria, Chloroplast and Golgibody.

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

25) Which of following statement is incorrect regarding mitochondria ?

(1) Matrix possesses single circular DNA molecule

(2) Site of anaerobic respiration
(3) Outer membrane forms the continuous limiting boundry of the organelle
(4) Mitochondria divide by fission

26) Function of Telomeres in nucleus :-

(1) Pole ward movement of chromosome

(2) To initiate the RNA synthesis
(3) To seal the ends of chromosome
(4) To recognise the homologous chromosome

27) Find out the incorrect match :-

(1) Lysosome – Suicidal bags

(2) Golgi complex – Membranless
(3) Elaioplast – Oil and fat storage
(4) Glyoxysomes – Fatty seed

28) Which of the following is not true for a eukaryotic cell ?

(1) Mitochondria contain ds circular naked DNA

(2) Membrane bound cell organelles are present
(3) Cell wall of plant is made up of peptidoglycan
(4) It has 80 S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm

29) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The outer membrane of mitochondria resembles a sieve

(2) Mitochondria and chloroplast both are semiautonomous cell organelles
(3) Golgi complex play a major role in synthesis of protein and lipids
(4) Mesosome perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria

30) Which of the following is correct?

(1) Chloroplast, mitochondria and Nucleus surrounding by single membrane

(2) All plastids contain grana
(3) Ribosomes in chloroplast can synthesize proteins.
(4) Outer membrane of chloroplast and nucleus contain Anulus or Bleb.
31) In animal cells, enzymes for replication and transcription of DNA are not found in :-

(1) Nucleus
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Nucleoplasm

32)

In cyanobacteria, there are another membranous extensions into the cytoplasm called

(1) Phosphate granules

(2) Glycogen granules
(3) Chromatophores
(4) Gas vacuole

33) In eukaryotic cells the proteins that will function as ribonucleoproteins are made by :-

(1) Ribosomes in nucleolus

(2) Ribosomes in mitochondria
(3) Ribosomes in cytoplasm
(4) Ribosome in chloroplast

34) Algae have cell wall made up of:

(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins

(2) Cellulose, galactans and mannans and CaCO3
(3) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
(4) Pectins, cellulose and proteins

35) Which of the following are similar in mitochondria, chloroplast & bacteria
A. 80S Ribosome B. Circular DS DNA
C. Binary fission D. Porin protein
E. Stroma

(1) A, B, C & D only

(2) A, B, C, D & E
(3) B, C & D only
(4) B & C only

SECTION-B

1) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column I Column II Column III

 A I. Tracheid i Amoeboid

Round
Nerve and
B II. ii
cell biconcave

White
C III. blood iii Elongated
cells

Red Branched
D IV. blood iv and
cells long

(1) A–III–ii, B–I–iii, C–II–iv, D–IV–i

(2) A–IV–ii, B–III–iii, C–II–iv, D–I–i
(3) A–III–ii, B–II–iv, C–I–iii, D–IV–i
(4) A–IV–ii, B–I–iii, C–II–iv, D–III–i

2) A – Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.

B –Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all unicellular organisms
C –All cells arise from pre-existing cells
D – The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in all type of cells.

(1) Statement A, C and D are wrong.

(2) Statement A, B and D are wrong
(3) Statement A, B, C and D are correct
(4) Statement A, B, C and D are wrong

3) Which of the following cell organelle is correctly matched with its structure and function :

(1) Lysosome : Single membrane bound : Degradation of macromolecule

(2) Vacoule : Double layer tonoplast : Storage of material
(3) Ribosome : Ribonucleo protein : Peptide bond formation
(4) 1 and 3 both

4) Identify the correct match from the column-I, II and III

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Suberin deposition in
1 Peroxisome a Plant cell i
cork cells

Photo respiration
2 Spherosome b Plant cell ii
H2O2 degradation
 3 Glyoxysome c Plant cell, Animal cell iii Growing seeds

4 Plasmodesmata d Cell wall iv Cytoplasmic connection

(1) 1-c-ii, 2-a-i, 3-b-iii, 4-d-iv
(2) 1-c-iii, 2-a-ii, 3-b-i, 4-d-iv
(3) 1-c-iv, 2-a-i, 3-d-ii, 4-b-iii
(4) 1-c-i, 2-a-ii, 3-b-iii, 4-d-iv

5) Match list-I and list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list.

List-I List-II

Prokaryote
(a) Golgibody (i)
without cell wall

A virus that infects

(b) Mycoplasma (ii)
bacterial cells

Flattened sacs in a
(c) Thylakoid (iii)
chloroplast

(d) Bacteriophage (iv) Glycosylation

(1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(3) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(4) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii)

6) Acrocentric chromosome is :-

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) S

7) Which one of the following cellular part is incorrectly described ?

(1) Centrioles — duplicated during S-phase and lie perpendicular to each other in centrosome
(2) Nucleolus — sites for r-RNA synthesis and non membranous structure
(3) Stroma — contains enzyme required for β-oxidation of fatty acid
(4) SER — part of endomembrane system, helps in detoxification of drugs

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Assertion : Contractile vacuole was evolved for excretion of water.

Reason : Osmoregulation is important for survival of 'Amoeba'.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) Assertion : Plastids are double unit membrane bound structure.

Reason : In chromoplasts fat soluble carotenoides pigments are present.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) Assertion : In eukaryotic cells there is an extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm.

Reason : Presence of membrane bound organelles inside the cytoplasm.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) Longitudinal section of a figure given below and select the right option giving all the three parts

A, B and C correctly identified it:

(1) A–Cristae; B–Matrix; C–Intermembrane space

(2) A–Matrix; B–Cristate; C–Intermembrane space
(3) A–Intermembrane space; B–Cristae; C–Matrix
(4) A–Matrix; B–Intermembrane space; C–Cristae

12) Study the following diagram carefully and identify the correct match
(1) C = Stromal lamella : Light reaction
(2) E = Stroma : Dark reaction
(3) C = Granum : Light reaction
(4) (2) & (3) Both

13) Match the following column-I with column-II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

Increase the
A SER I
surface area

B Golgi body II Store oils or fats

Packaging of
C Cristae III
materials

Synthesis of
D Elaioplast IV
lipid
(1) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(2) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(3) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
(4) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II

14) Three of the following statements regarding cell organelles are correct while one is incorrect.
Which one is incorrect?

Lysosomes are double membrane bound vesicles budded off from golgi apparatus and contain
(1)
digestive enzymes.
Endoplasmic reticulum consists of a network of membranous tubules and helps in transport,
(2)
synthesis and secretion.
Leucoplast are bound by two membranes, lack pigment but contain their own DNA and protein
(3)
synthesizing machinery.
(4) Fluid mosaic model was given by Singer & Nicolson in 1972

15) How many structures in the list given below are haploid?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary spermatocyte, ovum, sperm, oogonia, spermatogonia, polar
body

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A
1) Which of the following is not concerned with protein synthesis ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Lysosome
(3) RER
(4) Chloroplasts

2) Find out the correct match from the following table :

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Intestitial Cells of seminiferous Secrete

(i)
cells tubule testosterone

Nurse Provide nutrition

(ii) Cells of testis
cells to germ cells

Cells of seminiferous Divided by meiosis

(iii) Spermatocyte
tubule and produce sperms

Cremaster Help in elevation

(iv) Scrotum
muscles of testis
(1) Only (i) and (iii)
(2) Only (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

3) Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to :-

(1) Significant increase in GnRH released from hypothalamus

(2) Significant increase in growth hormones in male body
(3) Significant increase in number of germ cells
(4) Significant decrease in GnRH released from hypothalamus

4) Growth phase of spermatogenesis is enlargement of :-

(1) Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte.

(2) Spermatogonium to primary spermatocyte
(3) Spermatid to sperm
(4) Secondary spermatocyte to sperm

5) Read the following

(A) It is a thick layer of smooth muscles
(B) It is highly glandular layer
(C) It exhibits strong contraction during delivery of baby
(D) Progesteron causes hypertrophy in myometrium
Which of the above statements are correct with respect to myometrium?

(1) A and B
(2) B, C and D
(3) A and C
(4) A, B and C

6) Which glands secretion help to destroy the acidic medium present in male urethra :-

(1) Secretions of cowpers gland

(2) Secretions of prostate gland
(3) Secretions of seminal vesicle
(4) All the above

7) Which of the following releases inhibin to control spermatogenesis ?

(1) Pituitary gland

(2) Follicular cells
(3) Leydig's cells
(4) Sertoli cells

8) Select option with all diploid structures :-

(1) Zygote, spermatogonia, secondary spermatocytes.

(2) Spermatogonia, oogonia, ovum.
(3) Zygote, spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte.
(4) Oogonia, spermatid, sperm.

9) Which statement is correct regarding female external genitalia ?

(1) Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hairs
(2) Clitoris lies at the upper junction of labia minora below the urethral opening
(3) Hymen is a reliable indicator of virginity
(4) Labia minora is a fleshy folds of tissue

10) Identify the correct match from the column-I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Follicular
A a 14th day i Formation of corpus luteum
phase

Luteal
B b 1st -4th day ii Development of Graafian follicle
phase

Menstruation
C c 15th -28th day iii Shedding of endometrium
phase

Ovulatory
D d 5th -13th day iv Release of Secondary oocyte
phase
(1) A→d→iii, B→c→i, C→b→iv, D→a→ii
(2) A→c→ii, B→b→iii, C→a→i, D→d→iv
(3) A→d→ii, B→c→i, C→b→iii, D→a→iv
(4) A→d→iii, B→b→iv, C→a→ii, D→c→i

11) Arrange the events in human female reproductive cycle :-

a-Secretion of FSH,
b-Growth of corpus luteum
c-Growth of follicle
d- ovulation
e- Sudden increases in level of LH

(1) a-d-c-e-b
(2) a-c-e-d-b
(3) c-a-d-b-e
(4) b-a-c-d-e

12) It is diagramatic view of male reproductive system. Choose the correct option about A, B, C and

D.

A B C D
Vasa Vas
(1) Prostate Foreskin
efferentia deferens
Vasa Seminal
(2) Epididymis Glans penis
efferentia vesicle
Bulbourethral
(3) Rete testis Ureter Glans penis
gland
Bulbourethral
(4) Epididymis Vas deferens Foreskin
gland

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Read the following four statements about the function of sertoli cell and answer the question
given below.
(A) To provide nutrition of sperm.
(B) To phagocytose the dead or injured sperm.
(C) Secretion of testosterone.
(D) Secretion of progesterone.
Which statements are incorrect.

(1) A & B
(2) C & D
(3) A & C
(4) B & D

14) Secondary spermatocytes :-

(1) are formed by sertoli cells

(2) are formed by primary spermatocytes by mitotic division
(3) give rise to haploid spermatids
(4) give rise to spermatozoa directly

15) How many sperms are produced by each secondary spermatocyte?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) Infinite

16) Androgens secrete by the Leydig cells which is essential for :

(1) Sperms formation

(2) Development of secondary sexual characters of male
(3) Maintain the function male sex accessory ducts & glands
(4) All of these

17) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column - I Column - II Column - III

Corpus Fallopian
(A) (a) (i) Estrogen
luteum tube
Granulosa Collection
(B) (b) Sperm (ii)
cells of ovum
Proximal Promote the
(C) (c) Ovary (iii)
centriole cleavage
Developing
(D) Frimbriae (d) (iv) Progesterone
follicle
(1) A → d → i; B → c → iv, C → b → iii, D → a → ii
(2) A → c → i; B → d → iii, C → d → ii, D → b → iv
(3) A → c → iv; B → d → i, C → b → iii, D → a → ii
(4) A → b → iv; B → c → iii, C → a → ii, D → d → i

18) …………..hormone is responsible for ovulation and ovulation takes place around………… of
menstruation cycle. Fill in the blanks with suitable option:

(1) FSH, 14th day

(2) LH, 21st day
(3) LH, 14th day
(4) Estrogen, 14th day

19) How many sperm and ovum are formed from 50 primary spermatocyte and 50 primary oocyte ?

(1) 200 sperm and 50 ovum

(2) 200 ovum and 50 sperm
(3) 50 sperm and 50 ovum
(4) 100 sperm and 200 ovum

20) Identify A, B and C in following figure :-

(1) A-Secondary spermatocyte, B-Primary spermatocyte, C-Spermatid

(2) A-Spermatid, B-Primary spermatocyte, C-Secondary spermatocyte
(3) A-Spermatid, B-Secondary spermatocyte, C-Primary spermatocyte
(4) A-Primary spermatocyte, B-Secondary spermatocyte, C-spermatid

21) After implantation of blastocyst, some finger like projections appear on the surface of
trophoblast called :-

(1) Yolksac villi

(2) Chorionic villi
(3) Cilia
(4) Stereocilia

22)

Choose correct sequence during spermatogenesis :-

(1) spermatogonia → sertoli cells → primary spermatocytes → secondary spermatocytes → sperms

spermatogonia → sertoli cells → primary spermatocytes → secondary spermatocytes →
(2)
spermatids
(3) spermatogonia → primary spermatocytes → secondary spermatocytes → spermatids → sperms
(4) spermatogonia → primary spermatocytes → spermatids → secondary spermatocytes → sperms
23)
Find out A, B, C, D and E respectively :-

A B C D E

Leydig Sertoli
(1) Testis AMH ABP
cells cells

Sertoli
(2) ICSH Testis AMH ABP
cells

Interstitial Sertoli
(3) LH FSH AMH
cells cells

Leydig Sertoli
(4) ICSH FSH ABP
cells cells
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) A large number of primary follicles are degenerated during the phase from birth to puberty.
Therefore at puberty each ovary has about:-

(1) 1 million primary follicles

(2) A couple of million primary follicles
(3) 60,000-80,000 primary follicles
(4) 1,20,000-1,60,000 primary follicles

25) A 25 years old female goes to doctor that after 4 days there is due date of her menses and she
want to postpone bleeding for some days as she will be engaged in some official work during those
days. Which hormone will the doctor advise her to take?

(1) FSH & LH

(2) LH & Progesterone
(3) Progesterone only
(4) LH only

26) Follicular phase of menstrual cycle is also known as:-

(1) Secretory phase or luteal phase
(2) Bleeding phase or menstruation phase
(3) Estrogenic phase or post-ovulatory phase
(4) Estrogenic phase or proliferative phase

27)

In humans at the end of the second meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the:

(1) Spermatogonia
(2) Primary spermatocytes
(3) Secondary spermatocytes
(4) Spermatids

28)

It is a diagramic presentation of developing follicle events, find out correct statement :-

A = Primary follicle, C = secondary follicle

(1)
E = Corpus haemorragicum, F = Corpus luteum
B = Secondary follicle, D = Mature follicle
(2)
E = Corpus haemorragicum, F=Corpus luteum
A = Primary follicle, C = mature follicle
(3)
E = Corpus luteum, F = Corpus albicans
A = Primary follicle, B = Mature follicle
(4)
E = Corpus luteum, F = Corpus albicans

29) Oocyte is liberated from ovary under the influence of LH, after completing :-

(1) Mitosis
(2) Meiosis I and before liberating second polar bodies
(3) Meiosis II and after release of first polar body
(4) Meiosis and before liberating polar bodies

30) Select the correct route for the passage of urine in frog.

(1) Kidney → Ureter → Urinary bladder → Cloaca

(2) Kidney → Ureter → Cloaca → Cloacal aperture
(3) Kidney → Ureter → Cloaca → Urinary bladder
(4) Kidney → Ureter → Urinary bladder → Cloacal aperture

31) Bidder's canal in frog is found in-

(1) Liver
(2) Testis
(3) Tongue
(4) Kidney

32) In heart of frog ventricles open into a sac like_____ on ventral side of heart.

(1) Vena cava

(2) Aorta
(3) Sinus venous
(4) Conus arteriosus

33) How do frogs primarily obtain oxygen when submerged in water ?

(1) Through the skin

(2) By swallowing air bubbles
(3) By breathing through lungs
(4) Through specialized gills

34) Vaso-efferentia in male frog open into :

(1) Vas deferens

(2) Rete testis
(3) Cloaca
(4) Bidder's canal

35) Frog can protect it self from enemies by ?

(1) Teeth
(2) Camouflage
(3) Clawed digit
(4) Both (1) and (2)

SECTION-B

1) The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is :-

(1) Ampulla
(2) Infundibulum
(3) Cervix
(4) Isthmus

2) How much percent of total sperms ejaculated by a human male during a coitus must have normal
shape and size, for normal fertility?

(1) 60% atleast

(2) 40% atleast
(3) 55% atleast
(4) 50% atleast

3) Which statement is correct about testes :-

(1) It is a primary male sex organ

(2) It is located one on each side of the abdomen
(3) It produces female gamete
(4) It starts liberating sperm during foetal period.

4) When both ovaries of human female are removed which hormones decreases in blood :-

(1) GnRH
(2) Estrogen & progesterone
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Prolactin

5) The figure shows development of follicles (A,B,C,D), select the

option giving correct. Identification together with its function ?

(1) A-Secondary follicle-Secrete Progesterone

(2) C-Corpus luteum-Secrete Progesterone
(3) D-Corpus luteum-Secrete Estrogen
(4) B- Tertiary follicle-Secrete Relaxin

6) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The male germ cells undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to sperm formation
The functions of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained by the testicular
(2)
hormones.
(3) The presence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.
(4) Sperm and ovum formation ceases around the age of fifty years.

7) LH surge during menstrual cycle is caused due to which hormone?

(1) Inhibin
(2) Progesteron
(3) Estrogen
(4) Relaxin

8) Release of sperms from seminiferus tubule is :-

(1) Spermiogenesis
(2) Spermiation
(3) Emission
(4) Ejaculation

9) If ampulla of mammary duct is blocked the milk will not pass from :-

(1) Alveoli to mammary duct

(2) Mammary tubule to mammary duct
(3) Mammary duct to lactiferous duct
(4) Mammary duct to mammary tubule

10) During oogenesis first polar body is formed ?

(1) After fertilization

(2) After puberty
(3) During multiplication phase
(4) During syngamy of sperms and ova

11) Which hormone is responsible for growth of alveoli in breast :-

(1) Oestrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Relaxin
(4) Oxytocin

12) Which is a secondary sex organ in female ?

(1) Ovary
(2) Uterus
(3) Testes
(4) Epididymis

13) Assertion- In frog digestion of food take place by the action of HCl and gastric juices secreted
from the wall of stomach.
Reason - Bile emulsifies fat and pancreatic juices digest carbohydrates and proteins.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
14) A Aestivating frog respire with :

(1) Lungs
(2) Buccal cavity
(3) Skin
(4) Gills

15) Air enter into the lungs through the :

(1) Skin
(2) Oesophagus
(3) Cloaca
(4) Buccal cavity
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 4 1 1 2 2 4 2 2 3 2 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 2 2 4 1 3 1 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 3 2 3 4 4 3 1 4 2 3 2 3 4 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 2 4 1 2 3 2 4 2 1 1 4 4 1 4 3 3 1 3 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 1 2 1 3 2 4 1 2 2 2 1 4 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 1 1 3 2 2 4 1 2 1 4 4 2 3 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 4 3 3 3 1 3 2 4 2 2 1 1 4 3 3 2 1 3 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 1 1 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 4 1 2 3 3 1 2 1 2 4 1 1 4

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 1 2 3 1 4 3 1 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 3 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 3 4 3 3 4 4 3 2 1 4 4 1 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 1 1 2 2 4 3 2 3 2 2 2 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

When a vector is displaced parallel to itself, neither its magnitude nor its direction changes.

6)

Magnitude of unit vector is one

8) Let ,

Unit vector along

Required vector

Option (2).

9) sinθ =
θ = 30°
between and
180° – 30° = 150°

10)

i = neA Vd

Vd =

11) Vd ∝ E

12)
R= and Volume = Aℓ

R= ⇒ℓ=

13)
put ℓ = 1 cm
A = 1 cm × 100 cm

14)

100 = R0 [1 + α (100 – 0)] .....(1)

200 = R0 [1 + α (T – 0)] .....(2)

1 + Tα = 2 + 200α
α(T – 200) = 2 – 1

T – 200 =
T = 400°C

16)
Current density J = σE

or

or

17)
So, RXY = 15 Ω

19)

(i) Equivalent circuit when the equivalent resistance is calculated between points P and Q.
RPQ =
(ii) Equivalent circuit when the equivalent resistance is calculated between points Q and R

RQR =
(iii) Equivalent circuit when the equivalent resistance is calculated between points P and R.

RPR =

23)

y = ex sin x

24)

v = 3t2 – 3t + 1

For vmin : -

→ minima

26)

= =π
 27)

28) Acceleration is downwards, therefore, pseudo force will act upwards.

Reading = m(g – a) = 5 × (10 – 2) = 40 N

29)

Velocity at the time of striking the floor,

Velocity with which it rebounds

∴ Change in velocity Δv = 7 – (–14) = 21 m/s

∴ Acceleration =
= 2100 m/s2 (upwards)

30)

g=0

34)

2g = 3(g – a) ⇒

35) Force F =

= = 1500 N

37)

47)
 48)

1200 v = 24 × 104

49) Area under (F–t) curve = M(vf – vi)

or 50 × 5 + 75 × 5 = 16(vf – 0)
∴ vf = 39 m/s.

50)

p = at – bt2

F= = a – 2bt = 0

CHEMISTRY

61) n = 3, ℓ = 1, ⇒ 1 orbital

62) Orbital angular momentum =

for d-orbital ℓ = 2,
The Orbital angular momentum
=
=

67)
At an angle of 45° from x & y axis

72) Decreasing order of functional group (priority)

 90)

96) In homologous functional group is same, given compounds are functional isomer because
functional group is different.

BIOLOGY-I

101)

NCERT XI Pg.#125, Para 4,5, Pg.#126, Para 1,2

104)

NCERT-XIth, Pg#97(E), Pg#98(H)

106)

NCERT XI Pg. 165,166

109)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 129 (8.5)

117)

NCERT, XI Eng. Page - 135 [2nd last Paragraph]

NCERT, XI िहदी पे ज - 136 [1st Paragraph]

121) NCERT XI, Pg # 132

122)

NCERT page 127

123)

NCERT page 132

134)

NCERT Pg # 132

137) NCERT XI Pg. # 125, 126

141)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 139, Para–8.5.10 Fig. 8.13

 143)

NCERT Pg#134

144)

NCERT Pg#135

145)

NCERT Pg. # 129

146)

NCERT Pg # 135

147)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 136 Fig.8.8

148)

NCERT XI Pg.# 133,135, para 5, 6, 1, 3

BIOLOGY-II

153) NCERT Pg # 47

157)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 47

158)

NCERT Pg.# no. 47

159)

NCERT-XII, Pg#46

161)

NCERT Pg. # 54, Para- 3.6

171)

NCERT-XII; Page No. (E) 54, (H) 59

172)

Ref. NCERT XII fig.3.8(a) Pg.# 49 (E)

174)
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175)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 51

176)

NCERT Pg. # 50

180)

NCERT Pg # 119

181)

NCERT Pg # 120, Para No. 2

182)

NCERT Pg.# 82

183) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 117-118

184)

NCERT, Pg # 83

185)

NCERT, Pg # 8

187) NCERT (XII) (E) Pg. # 48 Para# 3.3

189)

NCERT Pg.# 50

192)

NCERT-XIIth, Page#51

193)

Ref. NCERT XII Para-2, Pg.# 47 (E)

194)

NCERT Pg. # 46

198)

NCERT Pg.# 82
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NCERT, Pg # 82