SET-1

Series WXY5Z -
Q.P. Code 64/5/1
- -
Roll No. -
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

- 23 + 2
- - - -
- 30
, -

- 15 - 10.15
10.15 10.30 -
-
Please check that this question paper contains 23 printed pages + 2 Maps.
Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the
answer-book at the given place before attempting it.
15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
candidates will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on
the answer-book during this period.

GEOGRAPHY (Theory)
3 70
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 70

64/5/1 # 1 P.T.O.
(i) - 30
(ii) - , , ,
(iii) 1 17 1
(iv) 18 19 - 3
(v) 20 23 - 3
80 100
(vi) 24 28 - 5
120 150
(vii) 29 30 - 5
(viii)

(ix) - ,

1 17 17 1=17

1. (A) (R)

(A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R) (R), (A)

(B) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(C) (A) , (R)
(D) (A) , (R)

64/5/1 # 2
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into five sections Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A Questions no. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Type Questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B Questions no. 18 and 19 are Source-based Questions. Each
question carries 3 marks.
(v) Section C Questions no. 20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions. Each
question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in
80 to 100 words.
(vi) Section D Questions no. 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions. Each
question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in
120 to 150 words.
(vii) Section E Questions no. 29 and 30 are Map-based Questions. Each question
carries 5 marks.
(viii) In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually
Impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such
questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only.
(ix) There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal
choice has been provided in a few questions in all sections other than Section A.

SECTION A

Questions no. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Type Questions. 17 1=17

1. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight-losing
material are located close to the sources of raw materials.
Reason (R) : It is followed to reduce the cost of products.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(D) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

64/5/1 # 3 P.T.O.
2.

I.
II. -
III.
IV.

(A) I, II IV
(B) I, II III
(C) II, III IV >
(D) I, III IV

3.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

4. - ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

5.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

64/5/1 # 4
2.
the correct option.
I. Generally gathering is practised in the regions with harsh climatic
conditions.
II. In modern times, some gathering is market-oriented.
III. Denmark is a classical example of gathering activities.
IV. Gathering is practised mostly by primitive societies.
Options :
(A) I, II and IV are correct.
(B) I, II and III are correct.
(C) II, III and IV are correct.
(D) I, III and IV are correct.

3.
(A) It takes place in urban centres only.
(B) Retail traders are the collection and distribution centres.
(C) It is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
(D) Retail traders primarily direct the goods to be manufactured to
their specifications.

4.
(A) Between Yokohama and Vancouver
(B) Between Auckland and Honolulu
(C) Between San Francisco and New York
(D) Between London and Aden

5. The ports specialised in bulk cargo are called :

(A) Inland Ports
(B) Industrial Ports
(C) Out Ports
(D) Comprehensive Ports

64/5/1 # 5 P.T.O.
6.

I. II.
III. IV.

(A) III, II, I, IV (B) IV, I, III, II

(C) I, II, III, IV (D) III, IV, II, I

7.

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

8.
?
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

9. (A) (R)

(A) :
(R) :

(A) (A) (R) (R), (A)

(B) (A) (R) , (R), (A)

(C) (A) , (R)

(D) (A) , (R)

64/5/1 # 6
6. Arrange the following states from the highest to the lowest order
according to their production of Bauxite and choose the correct option.
I. Odisha II. Gujarat
III. Chhattisgarh IV. Madhya Pradesh
Options :
(A) III, II, I, IV (B) IV, I, III, II
(C) I, II, III, IV (D) III, IV, II, I

7. Choose the correct group of states utilizing their groundwater resource

moderately.
(A) Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan
(B) Chhattisgarh, Kerala, Punjab
(C) Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
(D) Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand

8.
which one of the following ranges of the Himalayas ?
(A) Pir Panjal (B) Karakoram
(C) Zaskar (D) Ladakh

9. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : International trade is mutually beneficial to nations.
Reason (R) : It helps in getting the needed items from other countries.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

64/5/1 # 7 P.T.O.
10. - ?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

11. -
(A) ,
(B) ,
(C) ,
(D)

12.

I.

II.

III.

IV.

:
(A) I, II III

(B) I, II IV

(C) II, III IV

(D) I, III IV

64/5/1 # 8
10. Which one of the following is the main polluter of Yamuna water in
Delhi ?

(A) Flood water spreading

(B) Dumping of domestic waste

(C) Use of pesticides

(D) Use of fertilizers

11. Identify the correct set of water-borne diseases.

(A) Asthma, Headache and Diarrhoea

(B) Hepatitis, Asthma and Blood pressure

(C) Intestinal worms, Headache and Blood pressure

(D) Hepatitis, Diarrhoea and Intestinal worms

12. Read the following factors of population migration in India from rural to
urban areas carefully and choose the correct option of push factors.

I. Unemployment

II. Job opportunities

III. Economic backwardness

IV. Lack of medical facilities

Options :

(A) Only I, II and III are correct.

(B) Only I, II and IV are correct.

(C) Only II, III and IV are correct.

(D) Only I, III and IV are correct.

64/5/1 # 9 P.T.O.
13. ,

I.
II. -
III. -
IV.
:
(A) I, II III (B) I, II IV
(C) I, III IV (D) II, III IV

14. :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

15 17 :
(2021)
(2021)
1. 0.919
2. 0.758
3. 0.962
4. 0.939
5. 0.764
6. 0.916
7. 0.942
8. 0.855

15. ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

64/5/1 # 10
13. The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited
availability, but also by deterioration of
In the context of this statement read the following reasons carefully and
choose the correct option.
I. Soil erosion and waterlogging.
II. Salinisation and alkalinisation of soil.
III. Rich land fertility and multiple cropping.
IV. Decline in land productivity.
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct. (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct. (D) Only II, III and IV are correct.

14. Choose an objective of the Namami Gange Programme from the

following :
(A) To monitor industrial effluents
(B) To develop the network of canals
(C) To construct dams for water management
(D) G

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions from 15 to 17 :

Human Development Index (2021)

S. No. HDI Value (2021)
1. Israel 0.919
2. Mexico 0.758
3. Switzerland 0.962
4. Singapore 0.939
5. Cuba 0.764
6. Austria 0.916
7. Germany 0.942
8. Chile 0.855

15. The maximum number of countries given in the table belong to which one
of the following continents ?
(A) North America (B) South America
(C) Europe (D) Asia

64/5/1 # 11 P.T.O.
16.

I. II.
III. IV.
:
(A) III, IV, II, I (B) III, IV, I, II
(C) IV, III, I, II (D) IV, III, II, I

17.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

18 19 - 2 3=6

18. :

, , ,

(18.1) ? 1

(18.2) 1

(18.3) 1

64/5/1 # 12
16. Arrange the following countries from low to high order of Human
Development Index value and choose the correct option.
I. Singapore II. Germany
III. Mexico IV. Israel
Options :
(A) III, IV, II, I (B) III, IV, I, II
(C) IV, III, I, II (D) IV, III, II, I

17. Choose the correctly matched pair.

(Countries) (Continents)
(A) Austria Europe
(B) Cuba Africa
(C) Chile Asia
(D) Mexico South America

SECTION B
Questions no. 18 and 19 are Source-based Questions. 2 3=6

18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :
There are many professionals who provide their services against payment
of their fee. Thus, all types of services are special skills provided in
exchange of payments. Health, education, law, governance and
recreation, etc., require professional skills. These services require other
theoretical knowledge and practical training. Tertiary activities are
related to the service sector. Manpower is an important component of the
service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled
labour, professionally trained experts and consultants. In the initial
stages of economic development, larger proportion of people worked in the
primary sector. In a developed economy, the majority of workers get
employment in tertiary activity and a moderate proportion is employed in
the secondary sector.
(18.1) How can a person avail services of a professional ? 1
(18.2) Explain any one difference between secondary and tertiary
sectors. 1
(18.3) Describe any one example of the relationship between primary
and secondary sectors. 1

64/5/1 # 13 P.T.O.
19. :

(19.1) + =1

(19.2) + =1

(19.3) 1

: 19

- 3

64/5/1 # 14
19. Study the given map carefully and answer the questions that follow :

(19.1) Mention the names of the terminal stations of the given railway
line. + =1

(19.2) Mention the names of the oceans lying in the East and West
directions of this railway line. + =1

(19.3) Explain the economic importance of this railway line. 1

Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Question No. 19.

Describe any three characteristics of Trans-Canadian Railways. 3

64/5/1 # 15 P.T.O.
 20 23 - 4 3=12
20. ( ) 3

( ) 3
21. 3
22. ?
3
23.
:

/
% (%)
1931 2,072 33,456.0 11.99 19.12
1941 2,250 44,153.3 13.86 31.97
1951 2,843 62,443.7 17.29 41.42
1961 2,365 78,936.6 17.97 26.41
1971 2,590 1,09,114 19.91 38.23
1981 3,378 1,59,463 23.34 46.14
1991 4,689 2,17,611 25.71 36.47
2001 5,161 2,85,355 27.78 31.13
(23.1) 1941 1991 /
1
(23.2) ? 1
(23.3) 1

24 28 - 5 5=25
24. 5 1=5

25. ( ) 5

( ) ,
5

64/5/1 # 16
 SECTION C
Questions no. 20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions. 4 3=12
20. (a) Examine the concept of naturalisation of humans. 3
OR
(b) Examine the humanistic approach of human geography. 3
21. Explain the importance of international trade in modern times. 3
22.
- 3
23. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :
India Trends of Urbanisation
Year Number of Urban Population % of Total Decennial
Towns/UAs (in Thousands) Population Growth (%)
1931 2,072 33,456.0 11.99 19.12
1941 2,250 44,153.3 13.86 31.97
1951 2,843 62,443.7 17.29 41.42
1961 2,365 78,936.6 17.97 26.41
1971 2,590 1,09,114 19.91 38.23
1981 3,378 1,59,463 23.34 46.14
1991 4,689 2,17,611 25.71 36.47
2001 5,161 2,85,355 27.78 31.13
(23.1) Mention the increase in number of towns/UAs in 1991 in
comparison to 1941. 1
(23.2) In which decade is the minimum increase in the percentage of
urban population recorded ? 1
(23.3) Describe the decennial growth of urbanisation. 1

SECTION D
Questions no. 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions. 5 5=25
24. Analyse any five factors influencing the distribution of world
population. 5 1=5
25. (a) the
Examine the statement. 5
OR
(b)
Examine the statement. 5

64/5/1 # 17 P.T.O.
26. ( )
? 5

( ) 5

27. ( )
1+4=5

( ) 5

28. ( )
5

( )
5

29 30 - 2 5=10

29. - 25 A, B, C,
D, E, F G
: 5 1=5
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G. -

64/5/1 # 18
26. (a) How does personal communication system enable the user to
establish direct contact with the world of knowledge and
information ? Analyse. 5
OR
(b) Analyse the changing pattern of imports in India. 5

27. (a)
four characteristics of common property resources in India. 1+4=5
OR
(b) Distinguish between irrigated and rainfed agriculture in India
with examples. 5

28. (a) .
the statement with examples. 5
OR
(b) pattern
Explain the statement with examples. 5

SECTION E

Questions no. 29 and 30 are Map-based Questions. 2 5=10

29. On the given political outline map of the world (on page 25), seven
geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G.
Identify any five with the help of the following information and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5 1=5
A. An area of nomadic herding
B. A major sea port
C. An area of extensive commercial grain farming
D. A major airport
E. An inland waterway
F. A major airport
G. A terminal station of a trans-continental railway

64/5/1 # 19 P.T.O.
 : 29

: 5 1=5

(29.1)

(29.2) -

(29.3)

(29.4)

(29.5)

(29.6)

(29.7) -

30. - 27
: 5 1=5

(30.1)

(30.2)

(30.3)

(30.4)

(30.5)

(30.6)

(30.7)

64/5/1 # 20
Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Question No. 29.

Answer any five questions out of the following : 5 1=5

(29.1) Name the area of nomadic herding in Southern Africa.

(29.2) Name a major sea port located in South-eastern part of

Australia.

(29.3) Name an area of extensive commercial grain farming of South

America.

(29.4) Name a major airport in Mexico.

(29.5) Name the inland waterway of Egypt.

(29.6) Name the major international airport of Japan.

(29.7) Name the terminal station of the western end of Trans-Siberian

Railway.

30. On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label
any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate
symbols : 5 1=5

(30.1) The state leading in the production of rice

(30.2) An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh

(30.3) The sea port situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal

(30.4) Important bauxite mines located in southern Odisha

(30.5) The international airport in Assam

(30.6) Important iron ore mines located in southern Chhattisgarh

(30.7) Important copper mines located in southern Rajasthan

64/5/1 # 21 P.T.O.
 : 30

: 5 1=5

(30.1)

(30.2)

(30.3)

(30.4)

(30.5)

(30.6)

(30.7)

64/5/1 # 22
Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Question No. 30.

Answer any five questions out of the following : 5 1=5

(30.1) Name the state leading in the production of rice.

(30.2) Name the place where an oil refinery is located in Uttar Pradesh.

(30.3) Name the sea port situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal.

(30.4) Name the place where important bauxite mines are located in
southern Odisha.

(30.5) Name the international airport in Assam.

(30.6) Name the place where important iron ore mines are located in
southern Chhattisgarh.

(30.7) Name the place where important copper mines are located in
southern Rajasthan.

64/5/1 # 23 P.T.O.
64/5/1 # 24
 29 For question no. 29

64/5/1 # 25 P.T.O.
64/5/1 # 26
 30 For question no. 30

-
Outline Map of India (Political)

64/5/1 # 27 P.T.O.