CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION human rights

Institutional Corrections (1–40) C) Absolute isolation

1. The primary mission of corrections in D) Voluntary confinement
the Philippines is best described as: 9. Rehabilitation programs inside prisons are
A) Pure punishment aimed primarily at:
B) Safekeeping and rehabilitation of A) Retribution
offenders B) Deterrence
C) Community protection only C) Reformation and reintegration
D) Political neutrality D) Incapacitation alone
2. Prisons (national) are administered by: 10. Prison vs jail distinction:
A) BJMP A) Prison = pre-trial; jail = convicted
B) BuCor B) Prison = convicted long-term; jail = pre-
C) PNP trial/short-term
D) DSWD C) Prison = local; jail = national
3. Jails (city/district/municipal) are under: D) No practical distinction
A) BuCor 11. Security classifications usually include:
B) BJMP A) Super-min, min, med only
C) DOJ B) Max, medium, minimum
D) DILG–PNP C) Max and minimum only
4. Lock-up facilities for freshly arrested D) Single classification
persons (short-term holding) are primarily 12. Inmate classification is used to
operated by: determine:
A) BJMP A) Media access
B) PNP B) Housing, security, and program needs
C) BuCor C) Voting rights
D) BPP D) Court jurisdiction
5. The BuCor Act of 2013 is: 13. Contraband means:
A) RA 10591 A) Any inmate property
B) RA 10575 B) Any item prohibited inside the facility
C) RA 9263 C) All food items
D) RA 6975 D) Only weapons
6. The law that created BJMP (with PNP 14. Prisonization refers to:
and BFP under DILG) is: A) Transfer to prison
A) RA 6975 B) Adoption of inmate subculture and norms
B) RA 9263 C) Outdoor work details
C) RA 10575 D) Parole processing
D) PD 968 15. Sykes’ “pains of imprisonment” are
7. RA 9263 primarily concerns: associated with which model?
A) GCTA rules A) Importation model
B) Professionalization of BJMP and BFP B) Deprivation model
C) Creation of Parole and Probation C) Differential association
Administration D) Routine activities
D) Juvenile justice 16. Administrative segregation is used
8. Safekeeping refers to: primarily for:
A) Pure custody without programs A) Punishment after due process
B) Safe, secure custody consistent with B) Protective custody or security reasons
C) Granting privileges A) BJMP
D) Court testimony B) BuCor
17. Disciplinary segregation differs C) DSWD
because it: D) PNP
A) Has no due process 25. A penal farm primarily serves to:
B) Is a sanction after a rules violation A) Isolate inmates from programs
hearing B) Provide agricultural work and
C) Is voluntary rehabilitation
D) Is only for maximum-security inmates C) Serve as transit hub
18. A count in correctional facilities is: D) Train jail officers
A) A kitchen inventory 26. Inmate rights include:
B) The formal accounting of inmates’ A) Unrestricted movement
presence B) Reasonable visitation consistent with
C) Roll call of staff security
D) Court attendance list C) Access to weapons for self-defense
19. The head of a BuCor prison is D) Unlimited internet access
commonly titled: 27. Use of force in a facility must be:
A) Warden A) Routine
B) Superintendent/Chief of Institution B) Progressive, necessary, and proportionate
C) Director General C) Punitive
D) Shift Commander D) For minor disobedience
20. The head of a BJMP jail is the: 28. A disciplinary offense inside a facility
A) Superintendent is typically resolved through:
B) Warden/Jail Warden A) Criminal court only
C) Director General B) Administrative due process with
D) Sheriff sanctions
21. Good Conduct Time Allowance C) Executive clemency
(GCTA) is intended to: D) Private arbitration
A) Replace parole 29. Count times are scheduled to:
B) Reduce service of sentence for good A) Reduce staff workload
behavior and participation in programs B) Ensure accountability of inmates
C) Grant absolute pardon C) Announce meals
D) Apply only to detainees D) Facilitate visitations
22. Preventive detention is: 30. Dynamic security emphasizes:
A) Post-conviction confinement A) Walls and bars only
B) Confinement of an accused pending trial B) Staff–inmate interaction and intelligence-
C) Administrative segregation led security
D) Post-parole revocation C) Cameras only
23. A search that respects dignity but D) Randomness without planning
ensures safety is: 31. Direct supervision jails are
A) Strip search characterized by:
B) Body cavity search A) Remote surveillance
C) Pat/frisk search B) Officers stationed inside housing units
D) Unrestricted rummage interacting with inmates
24. The Correctional Institution for C) No staff contact
Women (CIW) is under: D) Military drill style
32. Indirect supervision relies more on: 40. Volunteer programs (e.g., literacy) are:
A) Barriers and remote monitoring A) Generally prohibited
B) Peer councils B) Encouraged with screening and
C) Open campuses supervision
D) Civilian volunteers only C) Unregulated
33. Overcrowding most directly impacts: D) Only for maximum-security units
A) Food cost only
B) Violence, disease, program delivery, staff Non-Institutional Corrections (41–
stress 70)
C) Transport fuel 41. Probation in the Philippines is governed
D) External crime rates only by:
34. Key control is critical because: A) PD 968 (as amended)
A) Keys are souvenirs B) RA 6975
B) Compromise allows escapes and hostage C) RA 10575
situations D) RA 10592
C) Keys are replaceable anytime 42. Probation is granted by:
D) It’s symbolic only A) President
35. Tool control programs prevent: B) Court of origin/sentencing court
A) Breakdowns only C) BJMP Director
B) Tools being used as weapons or escape D) BuCor Director
aids 43. An application for probation generally:
C) Staff maintenance A) Suspends execution of sentence while the
D) Budget overspending court evaluates suitability
36. Fire safety priority in facilities is: B) Ends the case permanently
A) Locking exits C) Transfers case to BPP
B) Evacuation planning and periodic drills D) Converts to fine
C) Relying on external responders only 44. Parole is granted by:
D) Using inmates as firefighters only A) The sentencing court
37. Inmate grievance procedures exist to: B) Board of Pardons and Parole (BPP)
A) Encourage rebellion C) BuCor
B) Provide formal avenues to resolve D) BJMP
complaints 45. Parole eligibility under the
C) Replace courts Indeterminate Sentence Law generally
D) Avoid documentation requires:
38. Inmate classification instruments A) Serving the maximum
commonly assess: B) Serving the minimum, with good conduct
A) Horoscope signs and favorable evaluation
B) Risk, needs, and responsivity C) Acquittal
C) Political views D) Presidential order
D) Family wealth 46. Pardon is an act of:
39. Religious programs inside facilities are: A) Judiciary
A) Prohibited B) Legislature
B) Allowed on a nondiscriminatory basis C) Executive (President)
consistent with security D) BuCor Director
C) Mandatory 47. Conditional pardon means:
D) Limited to one faith A) No conditions
B) Subject to terms; breach may revoke sentence
liberty C) Promotion of grade
C) Only monetary condition D) Presidential pardon
D) Only travel restrictions 55. Halfway houses are designed to:
48. Commutation of sentence is: A) Hold pre-trial detainees
A) Expungement B) Provide transitional residential support
B) Reduction of penalty duration/degree for reintegration
C) Transfer of venue C) Train police
D) Parole denial D) Serve as penal farms
49. Community-based diversion primarily 56. Parole differs from probation mainly
applies to: because:
A) High-risk adult inmates A) Both are pre-conviction
B) Children in conflict with the law (RA B) Parole follows prison term; probation is
9344, as amended) community sentence instead of
C) Parole violators imprisonment
D) Death row inmates C) Probation follows parole
50. Recognizance generally refers to: D) No practical difference
A) Post-conviction custody 57. Electronic monitoring in community
B) Release to custody of a responsible corrections is used for:
person/entity pending case disposition A) Health tracking
C) Mandatory parole B) Curfew/location compliance
D) Executive clemency C) Voting
51. The lead agency for probation and D) Work promotions
parole supervision is: 58. Restorative justice programs often
A) BuCor include:
B) Parole and Probation Administration A) Victim–offender mediation and
(PPA) under DOJ community reparation
C) BJMP B) Solitary confinement
D) DILG C) Military drill
52. A pre-sentence investigation (PSI) D) Boot camps only
report is prepared to: 59. A case management plan in community
A) Replace trial supervision is:
B) Assist the court in probation decisions A) Static document
and conditions B) A dynamic plan with goals, interventions,
C) Increase penalties and reviews
D) Serve as plea bargain C) A police blotter
53. A typical probation condition is: D) A financial statement
A) Possess firearms 60. Graduated sanctions in community
B) Maintain employment/education and corrections aim to:
report to officer A) Punish all violations equally
C) Travel abroad freely B) Apply proportional, swift responses to
D) Ignore curfew noncompliance
54. Violation of probation conditions may C) Avoid documentation
result in: D) Use jail only
A) Automatic acquittal 61. Revocation hearing standards generally
B) Revocation and service of original require:
A) No due process C) Medical discharge only
B) Minimal due process (notice, opportunity D) Fee collection
to be heard) 69. Risk–Need–Responsivity (RNR) in
C) Jury trial community settings means:
D) Supreme Court review A) Same level of control for all
62. Community service as a sanction is: B) Match intensity to risk; target
A) Always voluntary criminogenic needs; tailor to individual
B) A court-ordered non-custodial penalty characteristics
benefitting the community C) Focus on static factors only
C) Parole condition only D) Prioritize punishment only
D) Illegal 70. Casework in probation/parole centers
63. Home detention/house arrest usually on:
includes: A) Evidence handling
A) Unrestricted movement B) Assessment, planning, counseling,
B) Curfew and monitoring referral, monitoring
C) Open prison camp C) Litigation
D) Work release ban D) Facility maintenance
64. The primary advantage of non-
institutional corrections is: Therapeutic Modalities (71–100)
A) Higher cost 71. Therapeutic Community (TC)
B) Better reintegration and lower programs emphasize:
institutional crowding A) Hierarchical community, peer feedback,
C) No supervision needed structured daily regimen
D) Guaranteed zero recidivism B) Isolation and silence
65. Special conditions (e.g., treatment, no C) Legal lectures only
alcohol) are imposed to address: D) Martial drills
A) Criminogenic needs 72. Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
B) Voter registration targets:
C) Tax filing A) Income level
D) Political views B) Thinking patterns and behaviors linked to
66. Technical violation refers to: crime
A) New crime C) Fingerprint patterns
B) Breach of supervision rules without a D) Diet
new crime 73. The RNR principle says effective
C) Media interview treatment should:
D) Court acquittal A) Ignore risk
67. A parole officer primarily: B) Target criminogenic needs and match
A) Prosecutes crimes intensity to risk, considering responsivity
B) Supervises, assists, and monitors parolees C) Focus only on punishment
C) Serves as defense counsel D) Use uniform programs
D) Writes laws 74. Motivational Interviewing (MI)
68. Aftercare in community corrections primarily aims to:
means: A) Confront and shame
A) Final court hearing B) Elicit and strengthen intrinsic motivation
B) Continued support/services post-release for change
to prevent relapse/recidivism
C) Diagnose mental illness outcomes
D) Replace CBT C) No measurable effect
75. A case plan should be SMART D) Only good for youth
meaning: 82. Family-based interventions in
A) Short, Mixed, Average, Real, Timed corrections aim to:
B) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, A) Reduce all visits
Relevant, Time-bound B) Strengthen pro-social support and
C) Standard, Mandatory, Aggressive, reintegration
Realistic, Tested C) Promote dependency
D) Simple, Major, Accurate, Reliable, Tight D) Replace supervision
76. Substance use disorder treatment 83. Mental health screening on admission
typically includes: is to:
A) Detox, counseling (CBT/MI), relapse A) Assign meals
prevention, aftercare B) Identify suicide risk and treatment needs
B) Detox only early
C) Punishment only C) Reduce staff
D) Vitamins only D) Assign dorms only
77. Anger management programs often 84. A treatment dosage principle suggests:
employ: A) Same hours for all
A) Phrenology B) Higher-risk persons require more
B) CBT skills (triggers, cues, coping) intensive, structured hours
C) Astrology C) Low-risk need the most hours
D) Polygraph D) Dosage is irrelevant
78. Trauma-informed care requires: 85. Program fidelity refers to:
A) Ignoring trauma history A) Staff loyalty
B) Recognizing trauma impact and ensuring B) Delivering an intervention as designed
safety/choice (adherence to model)
C) Medical treatment only C) Inmate attendance only
D) Seclusion D) Budget compliance
79. Relapse prevention planning focuses 86. Sex offender treatment often uses:
on: A) Shame tactics
A) Identifying high-risk situations and B) CBT with relapse prevention and
coping strategies accountability
B) Court appeals C) No therapy
C) Weapon training D) Hypnosis only
D) Pure abstinence pledges only 87. Crisis intervention in facilities
80. Vocational training in corrections addresses:
supports: A) Budget issues
A) Institutional escape B) Acute psychological episodes (e.g.,
B) Employability and reintegration suicide risk)
C) Political campaigning C) Legal drafting
D) Hobby only D) Staff promotions
81. Educational programs (e.g., ALS, 88. Group therapy benefits include:
literacy, college) are linked to: A) Peer learning, accountability, social skills
A) Higher recidivism B) Guaranteed success
B) Lower recidivism and better post-release
C) No facilitator needed 95. Criminogenic needs are:
D) Replacing individual therapy in all cases A) Needs unrelated to crime
89. Cultural competence in programs B) Dynamic risk factors linked to offending
means: (e.g., antisocial cognition)
A) One-size-fits-all C) Static factors only
B) Services respectful of culture, language, D) Medical needs only
and background 96. Informed consent in treatment means:
C) Ethnicity-based segregation A) Coerced agreement
D) Eliminate interpreters B) Client understands purpose, risks,
90. Case notes must be: benefits, and alternatives
A) Vague to protect privacy C) Verbal nod only
B) Accurate, objective, timely D) Staff signature only
C) Written by clients 97. Confidentiality in programs is:
D) Opinionated A) Optional
91. Clinical supervision for program staff B) Essential with defined limits (safety,
ensures: court orders) explained to clients
A) Payroll accuracy C) Unlimited secrecy
B) Quality, ethics, and continuous skill D) Non-existent in prisons
development 98. Outcome evaluation measures:
C) Discipline only A) Food quality
D) Court compliance B) Program impact (e.g., recidivism,
92. Dual diagnosis refers to: employment, drug use)
A) Two crimes C) Staff uniforms
B) Co-occurring mental illness and D) Court speed
substance use disorder 99. Case closure (successful) in community
C) Two probation terms corrections is usually when:
D) Two case managers A) Fees paid only
93. Desistance is: B) All conditions met, risk reduced, no
A) The legal term for parole revocation, case goals achieved
B) The process of ceasing offending over C) Officer transfers
time D) Client moves abroad
C) A mental health diagnosis 100. The ultimate goal of correctional
D) Instant cure rehabilitation is:
94. Protective factors include: A) Institutional order only
A) Impulsivity B) Public safety through reduced
B) Stable employment, positive peers, reoffending and successful reintegration
supportive family C) Perfect behavior inside only
C) Antisocial attitudes D) Longer sentences
D) Substance abuse
✅ ANSWER KEY WITH CONCISE EXPLANATIONS (1–
100)
1. B – PH corrections mandate both secure custody and rehabilitation.
2. B – BuCor (under DOJ) runs national prisons.
3. B – BJMP (under DILG) runs city/district/municipal jails.
4. B – PNP operates police lock-ups for newly arrested persons.
5. B – RA 10575 is the BuCor Act of 2013.
6. A – RA 6975 (DILG Act) created PNP, BJMP, BFP.
7. B – RA 9263 professionalizes BJMP/BFP.
8. B – Safekeeping = secure, humane custody consistent with rights.
9. C – Rehabilitation/reintegration is a core aim.
10. B – Prisons = post-conviction long-term; jails = pre-trial/short-term.
11. B – Typical security levels: max/medium/minimum.
12. B – Classification assigns housing, security, and programs.
13. B – Contraband = prohibited items.
14. B – Prisonization = adopting inmate subculture.
15. B – Sykes’s deprivation model explains “pains of imprisonment.”
16. B – Admin seg = protective/security (non-punitive).
17. B – Disciplinary seg follows due-process finding of violation.
18. B – Count = formal verification of inmate presence.
19. B – BuCor institutions are led by superintendents/ heads of prison.
20. B – BJMP facilities are led by Jail Wardens.
21. B – GCTA reduces sentence credit for good conduct/programs.
22. B – Preventive detention is pre-trial confinement.
23. C – Pat/frisk is the least intrusive safety search.
24. B – CIW is a BuCor facility.
25. B – Penal farms blend custody, work, and rehab.
26. B – Visitation is a qualified right consistent with security.
27. B – Use of force must be necessary, proportional, progressive.
28. B – Facility rule breaches are handled administratively.
29. B – Counts ensure inmate accountability.
30. B – Dynamic security = relationships + intel + pro-social control.
31. B – Direct supervision places officers inside housing units.
32. A – Indirect supervision relies on barriers/cameras.
33. B – Crowding worsens violence, disease, programs, stress.
34. B – Key compromise = escapes/hostage risk.
35. B – Tool control prevents weaponization/escapes.
36. B – Evacuation + drills are essential for fire safety.
37. B – Grievances offer formal, safe complaint channels.
38. B – RNR domains guide classification/programming.
39. B – Religious exercise allowed, security permitting, non-discriminatory.
40. B – Volunteers help, but require screening/supervision.
41. A – Probation Law: PD 968 (amended by RA 10707, etc.).
42. B – The sentencing court grants probation.
43. A – Filing for probation suspends execution while court evaluates.
44. B – BPP (under DOJ) grants parole/CP recommendations.
45. B – Parole needs service of minimum + good conduct/assessment.
46. C – Pardon is an executive act of the President.
47. B – Conditional = liberty subject to terms; breach can revoke.
48. B – Commutation reduces penalty/time.
49. B – Diversion applies to CICL under RA 9344 (as amended).
50. B – Recognizance = release to custodian pending case.
51. B – PPA supervises probationers and parolees.
52. B – PSI aids court in decisions/conditions.
53. B – Typical conditions: work/school, reporting, law-abiding conduct.
54. B – Violations can lead to revocation and service of sentence.
55. B – Halfway houses support transition to the community.
56. B – Parole = post-prison; probation = prison alternative.
57. B – EM enforces curfew/location limits.
58. A – RJ uses VOM, restitution, community repair.
59. B – Case plans are living documents.
60. B – Graduated sanctions = swift, certain, proportional responses.
61. B – Revocation hearings require minimal due process.
62. B – Community service is a court-ordered non-custodial penalty.
63. B – House arrest uses curfews/monitoring.
64. B – Community options improve reintegration, reduce crowding.
65. A – Special conditions target criminogenic needs.
66. B – Technical = rule breach without a new crime.
67. B – Parole officers supervise, assist, and monitor.
68. B – Aftercare continues supports post-release.
69. B – RNR = match intensity to risk; target needs; tailor delivery.
70. B – Casework covers assessment, planning, counseling, monitoring.
71. A – TC = structured peer-driven community with feedback.
72. B – CBT changes thinking/behavior patterns.
73. B – Effective treatment follows RNR.
74. B – MI strengthens intrinsic motivation to change.
75. B – SMART = Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound.
76. A – Full SUD care includes detox, therapy, relapse prevention, aftercare.
77. B – Anger programs are CBT-based.
78. B – Trauma-informed care centers on safety/choice/trust.
79. A – Relapse prevention = high-risk ID + coping plans.
80. B – Vocational training boosts employability/reintegration.
81. B – Education correlates with lower recidivism.
82. B – Family work builds pro-social supports.
83. B – Early screening reduces suicide and unmet needs.
84. B – Higher risk = more structured treatment hours.
85. B – Fidelity = delivering programs as designed.
86. B – Sex offender treatment is CBT-based with relapse prevention.
87. B – Crisis intervention addresses acute psychological risk.
88. A – Group work yields peer learning/accountability.
89. B – Cultural competence adapts services appropriately.
90. B – Case notes must be accurate/objective/timely.
91. B – Clinical supervision ensures quality/ethics/skills.
92. B – Dual diagnosis = mental illness + SUD.
93. B – Desistance = process of stopping offending.
94. B – Protective factors buffer against recidivism.
95. B – Criminogenic needs are dynamic risk factors tied to crime.
96. B – Informed consent = knowing, voluntary, and documented.
97. B – Confidentiality is core but with clear safety/legal limits.
98. B – Outcome evaluation measures program impact.
99. B – Successful closure = conditions met, risk down, no revocation.
100. B – Ultimate goal = public safety via reduced reoffending/reintegration.