Chemistry Question Set

1. What is the molar concentration of a solution prepared by dissolving 15.0\,\text{g} of sodium

chloride (\text{NaCl}) in enough water to make 250.0\,\text{mL} of solution?

a) 0.257\,\text{M}

b) 0.513\,\text{M}

c) 1.026\,\text{M}

d) 2.052\,\text{M}

2. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. What is the relationship between the work done on the
gas (w) and the heat absorbed by the gas (q)?

a) w = q

b) w = -q

c) w = 0

d) q = 0

3. Which of the following best describes the bonding in a covalent network solid like diamond?

a) A lattice of positive ions surrounded by a sea of delocalized electrons.

b) Atoms held together by strong, directional covalent bonds in a rigid lattice.

c) Discrete molecules held together by weak intermolecular forces.

d) Positive and negative ions held together by electrostatic attraction.

4. Predict the major product of the reaction between propene and \text{H}_2\text{O} in the presence
of an acid catalyst (\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4).

a) 1-propanol

b) 2-propanol

c) Propanal

d) Propanone
5. What is the \text{pH} of a 0.1\,\text{M} acetic acid solution (K_a = 1.8 \times 10^{-5})?

a) 1.0

b) 2.87

c) 3.25

d) 4.74

6. The solubility of calcium phosphate (\text{Ca}_3(\text{PO}_4)_2) in water is decreased by adding

a solution of calcium chloride (\text{CaCl}_2). This is an example of which principle?

a) Le Châtelier's principle

b) The common ion effect

c) The solubility product principle

d) The law of mass action

7. What is the oxidation state of sulfur in the sulfite ion (\text{SO}_3^{2-})?

a) +2

b) +4

c) +6

d) +8

8. The Haber process, N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3(g), is an exothermic reaction.

How would increasing the temperature affect the equilibrium?

a) Shift to the right, favoring product formation.

b) Shift to the left, favoring reactant formation.

c) No effect on the equilibrium position.

d) Increase the reaction rate without shifting equilibrium.

9. Which of the following is an example of an aromatic compound?

a) Cyclohexane

b) Benzene

c) Butane

d) Ethene

10. What is the hybridization of the central carbon atom in a molecule of carbon dioxide (\text{CO}
_2)?

a) sp

b) sp^2

c) sp^3

d) sp^3d

11. A reaction has a rate law of Rate = k[\text{A}]^2. What is the overall order of the reaction?

a) First order

b) Second order

c) Third order

d) Fourth order

12. Which of the following is a characteristic of a buffer solution?

a) It has a constant pH of 7.

b) It resists changes in pH when small amounts of acid or base are added.

c) It is a solution with a strong acid and a strong base.

d) Its pH changes significantly upon dilution.

13. According to the Brønsted-Lowry theory, an acid is a substance that:

a) Accepts a proton
b) Donates an electron pair

c) Donates a proton

d) Accepts an electron pair

14. Which of the following elements has the lowest first ionization energy?

a) Lithium (\text{Li})

b) Sodium (\text{Na})

c) Potassium (\text{K})

d) Rubidium (\text{Rb})

15. What is the IUPAC name for the compound with the formula \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}
_2\text{COOH}?

a) Butanoic acid

b) Propanoic acid

c) Butanal

d) Butanone

16. What is the product of the complete combustion of propane (\text{C}_3\text{H}_8) in excess
oxygen?

a) \text{C} and \text{H}_2\text{O}

b) \text{CO} and \text{H}_2\text{O}

c) \text{C}_3\text{H}_7\text{OH}

d) \text{CO}_2 and \text{H}_2\text{O}

17. The process of converting a liquid to a gas at a constant temperature is called:

a) Condensation

b) Evaporation
c) Sublimation

d) Deposition

18. In an electrochemical cell, where does oxidation occur?

a) At the cathode

b) At the anode

c) In the salt bridge

d) In the electrolyte solution

19. What is the name of the process in which a solid changes directly into a gas without passing
through the liquid state?

a) Melting

b) Evaporation

c) Sublimation

d) Condensation

20. Which of the following is a structural isomer of n-butane?

a) Cyclobutane

b) Isobutane

c) Butene

d) Propane

21. The boiling point of water is abnormally high due to which type of intermolecular force?

a) London dispersion forces

b) Dipole-dipole interactions

c) Hydrogen bonding
d) Covalent bonding

22. Which of the following is a property of noble gases?

a) High reactivity

b) High electron affinity

c) High ionization energy

d) Tendency to form strong covalent bonds

23. What is the \text{pH} of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 \times 10^{-4}\,
\text{M}?

a) 1

b) 4

c) 7

d) 10

24. The reaction of a carboxylic acid with an alcohol to form an ester is known as:

a) Hydrolysis

b) Saponification

c) Esterification

d) Neutralization

25. What is the mass percentage of carbon in methane (\text{CH}_4)? (Atomic mass of C=12.01,
H=1.01)

a) 75.0\%

b) 25.0\%

c) 80.0\%

d) 20.0\%
26. Which of the following types of radiation has the highest penetrating power?

a) Alpha particles

b) Beta particles

c) Gamma rays

d) Neutrons

27. The process of adding a catalyst to a reaction primarily affects its:

a) Equilibrium position

b) Heat of reaction (\Delta H)

c) Activation energy

d) Rate of reaction

28. What is the primary product of the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of sodium
chloride (\text{NaCl})?

a) Hydrogen gas at the anode

b) Chlorine gas at the cathode

c) Sodium metal at the cathode

d) Chlorine gas at the anode

29. The Law of Conservation of Mass is demonstrated by which of the following?

a) A substance changing its state from solid to liquid.

b) A balanced chemical equation.

c) An object's mass decreasing due to evaporation.

d) The volume of a gas changing with temperature.

30. What is the geometry of the methane (\text{CH}_4) molecule?

a) Square planar

b) Trigonal planar

c) Tetrahedral

d) Linear

31. What is the molar mass of sulfuric acid (\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4)?

a) 98.08\,\text{g/mol}

b) 64.07\,\text{g/mol}

c) 32.06\,\text{g/mol}

d) 49.04\,\text{g/mol}

32. Which of the following is a physical change?

a) Burning wood

b) Rusting iron

c) Melting ice

d) Digesting food

33. What is the conjugate base of the carbonic acid (\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3)?

a) \text{CO}_3^{2-}

b) \text{H}_3\text{O}^+

c) \text{H}_2\text{O}

d) \text{HCO}_3^-

34. A reaction is at equilibrium. If the concentration of a reactant is increased, the equilibrium will
shift to the side of the:

a) Products
b) Reactants

c) Catalyst

d) Neither, it will have no effect

35. What is the product of the reaction between ethene and hydrogen gas in the presence of a
platinum catalyst?

a) Ethane

b) Ethyne

c) Ethanol

d) Acetic acid

36. The term "allotrope" refers to different forms of the same element in the same physical state.
Which of the following is an example?

a) Diamond and graphite

b) Water and ice

c) Salt and sugar

d) Oxygen and ozone

37. Which of the following is a characteristic of a transition metal?

a) They are typically very unreactive.

b) They can form multiple oxidation states.

c) They are located in Group 18 of the periodic table.

d) They are poor conductors of heat.

38. What is the primary purpose of a salt bridge in a galvanic cell?

a) To allow electrons to flow between the half-cells.

b) To prevent the flow of ions.

c) To maintain charge neutrality in the half-cells.

d) To increase the cell voltage.

39. Which of the following is a strong base?

a) \text{NH}_3

b) \text{CH}_3\text{COOH}

c) \text{NaOH}

d) \text{H}_2\text{O}

40. What is the oxidation number of chromium (\text{Cr}) in the compound potassium dichromate
(\text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7)?

a) +2

b) +3

c) +6

d) +7

41. The entropy of a system is a measure of its:

a) Temperature

b) Disorder

c) Pressure

d) Concentration

42. What is the Graham's law of diffusion?

a) The rate of diffusion is directly proportional to molar mass.

b) The rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to molar mass.

c) The rate of diffusion is directly proportional to the square root of molar mass.
d) The rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to the square root of molar mass.

43. Which of the following is a Markovnikov's rule reaction?

a) Addition of \text{H}_2 to an alkene

b) Addition of \text{HBr} to an alkene

c) Dehydration of an alcohol

d) Substitution reaction of an alkane

44. The process of saponification is used to produce:

a) Esters

b) Soaps

c) Alcohols

d) Ethers

45. What is the geometry of the water (\text{H}_2\text{O}) molecule?

a) Linear

b) Bent

c) Trigonal planar

d) Tetrahedral

46. The Octet Rule is primarily a guide for understanding the stability of which group of elements?

a) Halogens

b) Noble gases

c) Alkaline earth metals

d) Transition metals
47. A first-order reaction has a rate constant of 2.5 \times 10^{-2}\,\text{s}^{-1}. What is the half-life
of the reaction?

a) 13.8\,\text{s}

b) 27.7\,\text{s}

c) 39.5\,\text{s}

d) 48.2\,\text{s}

48. What is the ground state electron configuration of a neutral magnesium atom (\text{Mg})?

a) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^1 3p^1

b) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2

c) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5 3s^2 3p^1

d) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3d^2

49. What is the IUPAC name for the compound \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{OH}?

a) Methanol

b) Ethanol

c) Propanol

d) Butanol

50. The phenomenon of osmosis can be defined as:

a) The movement of solute molecules from high to low concentration.

b) The movement of solvent molecules from low to high solute concentration across a
semipermeable membrane.

c) The movement of solvent molecules from high to low solute concentration across a
semipermeable membrane.

d) The movement of solvent and solute molecules to equalize pressure.

Physics Question Set

1. A force of 10\,\text{N} is applied to a block of mass 2\,\text{kg} on a frictionless surface. What is
the acceleration of the block?

a) 20\,\text{m/s}^2

b) 10\,\text{m/s}^2

c) 5\,\text{m/s}^2

d) 2\,\text{m/s}^2

2. A car travels at a constant speed around a circular track. Which of the following statements is
true about the net force acting on the car?

a) The net force is zero.

b) The net force is directed radially outward.

c) The net force is directed radially inward.

d) The net force is directed tangential to the path.

3. What is the SI unit of power?

a) Joule

b) Newton

c) Watt

d) Ampere

4. The area under a velocity-time graph represents:

a) Acceleration

b) Displacement

c) Distance

d) Speed

5. A ball is thrown vertically upward. At the highest point of its trajectory, its velocity and
acceleration are, respectively:

a) Zero, zero

b) Maximum, zero

c) Zero, 9.8\,\text{m/s}^2 downwards

d) Maximum, 9.8\,\text{m/s}^2 downwards

6. Which of the following describes the relationship between a blackbody's total radiated power and
its temperature?

a) The power is directly proportional to the temperature.

b) The power is directly proportional to the square of the temperature.

c) The power is directly proportional to the fourth power of the temperature.

d) The power is inversely proportional to the temperature.

7. A heat engine operates between a hot reservoir at 500\,\text{K} and a cold reservoir at 300\,
\text{K}. What is the maximum possible efficiency of this engine?

a) 20\%

b) 40\%

c) 60\%

d) 80\%

8. What is the primary method of heat transfer in a fluid that involves the bulk movement of the fluid
itself?

a) Conduction

b) Convection

c) Radiation

d) Absorption

9. The First Law of Thermodynamics is a statement of the conservation of:

a) Momentum

b) Mass

c) Energy

d) Entropy

10. Which of the following is a physical property that changes with temperature and is used in a
thermometer?

a) Density

b) Thermal expansion

c) Specific heat capacity

d) Latent heat

11. A transformer is used to change the voltage of an alternating current. If the primary coil has 200
turns and the secondary coil has 40 turns, what is the ratio of the secondary voltage to the primary
voltage?

a) 5:1

b) 1:5

c) 1:4

d) 4:1

12. A 12\,\text{V} battery is connected to a circuit with a resistance of 4\,\Omega. What is the
current flowing through the circuit?

a) 3\,\text{A}

b) 4\,\text{A}

c) 12\,\text{A}

d) 48\,\text{A}

13. The Faraday's Law of Induction states that the magnitude of the induced electromotive force
(EMF) is proportional to the rate of change of:
a) Electric current

b) Magnetic flux

c) Electric field

d) Electric charge

14. A person with hyperopia (farsightedness) can be corrected by using a:

a) Convex lens

b) Concave lens

c) Cylindrical lens

d) Prism

15. The Doppler effect for sound waves is a change in perceived frequency due to:

a) Changes in the temperature of the medium.

b) Relative motion between the source and the observer.

c) Changes in the amplitude of the sound wave.

d) Changes in the humidity of the air.

16. Which of the following describes the relationship between the horizontal range and vertical
height of a projectile launched at a 45^\circ angle?

a) Horizontal range is equal to the vertical height.

b) Horizontal range is twice the vertical height.

c) Horizontal range is four times the vertical height.

d) Vertical height is four times the horizontal range.

17. The Law of Conservation of Momentum applies to which of the following?

a) A single object moving in a circle.

b) An object slowing down due to friction.

c) A collision between two objects.

d) A car accelerating from rest.

18. A capacitor is a device used to store:

a) Electric current

b) Electric charge

c) Magnetic field

d) Electric potential

19. What is the SI unit of electric potential?

a) Ampere

b) Volt

c) Ohm

d) Watt

20. The phenomenon of total internal reflection occurs when light travels from:

a) A denser medium to a rarer medium.

b) A rarer medium to a denser medium.

c) Air to water.

d) Glass to water at an angle less than the critical angle.

21. What is the Young's modulus of a material a measure of?

a) Its resistance to flow

b) Its resistance to deformation

c) Its thermal conductivity

d) Its density

22. Which of the following is an example of a scalar quantity?

a) Velocity

b) Force

c) Mass

d) Acceleration

23. The principle of superposition for waves states that the resultant displacement is the:

a) Sum of the individual displacements.

b) Difference of the individual displacements.

c) Product of the individual displacements.

d) Average of the individual displacements.

24. An object with a mass of 5\,\text{kg} is lifted to a height of 10\,\text{m}. What is its gravitational
potential energy? (Take g = 9.8\,\text{m/s}^2)

a) 49\,\text{J}

b) 490\,\text{J}

c) 50\,\text{J}

d) 500\,\text{J}

25. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of a longitudinal wave?

a) The particle oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.

b) The particle oscillations are parallel to the direction of wave propagation.

c) The wave requires a vacuum to propagate.

d) The wave propagates through a medium without any particle oscillation.

26. The Joule's law of heating states that the heat produced in a resistor is proportional to the:

a) Current

b) Square of the current

c) Square of the resistance

d) Voltage

27. A monochromatic light source emits light of a single:

a) Amplitude

b) Polarization

c) Wavelength

d) Intensity

28. The Carnot cycle consists of four reversible processes: two isothermal and two:

a) Isochoric

b) Isobaric

c) Adiabatic

d) Isentropic

29. The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon where electrons are ejected from a material when:

a) It is heated.

b) Light of sufficient frequency shines on it.

c) A magnetic field is applied.

d) It is cooled to a low temperature.

30. A concave lens is used to form a virtual and erect image when the object is placed:
a) At the focal point.

b) Between the focal point and the lens.

c) Beyond the focal point.

d) At any distance from the lens.

31. The Law of Universal Gravitation states that the force between two objects is:

a) Directly proportional to the product of their masses.

b) Inversely proportional to the product of their masses.

c) Directly proportional to the distance between them.

d) Inversely proportional to the square root of the distance between them.

32. A series circuit is characterized by:

a) All components having the same voltage.

b) The total resistance being the sum of the individual resistances.

c) The current splitting into different paths.

d) A voltage drop across each component being zero.

33. Which of the following is a unit of magnetic flux?

a) Tesla

b) Weber

c) Gauss

d) Henry

34. What is the relationship between the period (T) and frequency (f) of a wave?

a) T=f
b) T=1/f

c) T=f^2

d) T=1/f^2

35. A blackbody is an idealized object that:

a) Absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation.

b) Reflects all incident electromagnetic radiation.

c) Transmits all incident electromagnetic radiation.

d) Emits no radiation.

36. The Bernoulli's principle is a statement of the conservation of energy in:

a) A solid.

b) A stationary fluid.

c) A moving fluid.

d) A closed system.

37. A simple pendulum has a period of oscillation that depends on its:

a) Mass and length.

b) Length and gravity.

c) Mass and amplitude.

d) Length and amplitude.

38. What is the root mean square (RMS) velocity of the molecules in a gas at a given temperature?

a) Proportional to the temperature.

b) Inversely proportional to the temperature.

c) Proportional to the square root of the temperature.

d) Independent of the temperature.

39. The Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics is concerned with:

a) The conservation of energy.

b) The direction of heat flow.

c) Thermal equilibrium.

d) The measurement of entropy.

40. A fuse is an electrical safety device that protects a circuit by:

a) Increasing the voltage.

b) Decreasing the current.

c) Melting and breaking the circuit when current exceeds a limit.

d) Storing excess charge.

41. The Lorentz force is the force exerted on a charged particle moving through a:

a) Magnetic field.

b) Electric field.

c) Both an electric and magnetic field.

d) Gravitational field.

42. The Kinetic Theory of Gases assumes that gas particles have:

a) Strong attractive forces.

b) Volume.

c) Perfectly inelastic collisions.

d) Random motion.
43. What is the fundamental property of a particle that is measured in Coulombs?

a) Mass

b) Charge

c) Velocity

d) Momentum

44. The principle of conservation of angular momentum is a consequence of:

a) The absence of net external torque.

b) The absence of net external force.

c) The presence of a constant angular velocity.

d) The presence of a constant angular acceleration.

45. What is the main principle behind the operation of a refrigerator?

a) It transfers heat from a cold reservoir to a hot reservoir.

b) It converts heat into work.

c) It creates coldness.

d) It is a perfect insulator.

46. A sound wave is an example of a:

a) Transverse wave.

b) Longitudinal wave.

c) Standing wave.

d) Electromagnetic wave.

47. The phenomenon of beats in sound is produced by the superposition of two sound waves with:

a) The same amplitude and frequency.

b) Slightly different amplitudes.

c) Slightly different frequencies.

d) The same frequency but different phases.

48. The viscosity of a fluid is a measure of its:

a) Density.

b) Resistance to flow.

c) Volume.

d) Temperature.

49. What is the product of the reaction between an alkene and hydrogen gas in the presence of a
catalyst?

a) An alkyne

b) An alcohol

c) An alkane

d) An ether

50. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine is highest when the temperature difference between the
hot and cold reservoirs is:

a) Zero.

b) Small.

c) Large.

d) Negative.

Zoology Question Set

1. Which of the following is the primary function of the nephron in the human kidney?

a) To store urine.
b) To produce hormones.

c) To filter blood and form urine.

d) To transport urine to the bladder.

2. The glomerulus is a cluster of blood vessels located in the kidney. Its primary function is:

a) Reabsorption

b) Secretion

c) Filtration

d) Excretion

3. What is the role of the hypothalamus in the human body?

a) To regulate body temperature, hunger, and thirst.

b) To control voluntary movements.

c) To process sensory information.

d) To produce red blood cells.

4. Which part of the human eye contains photoreceptor cells (rods and cones)?

a) Cornea

b) Iris

c) Lens

d) Retina

5. A patient with anemia is suffering from a deficiency of:

a) White blood cells

b) Red blood cells or hemoglobin

c) Platelets

d) Plasma

6. Which of the following best describes the process of meiosis?

a) The division of a somatic cell into two identical daughter cells.

b) The division of a gamete into four haploid cells.

c) The process of forming four haploid cells from a single diploid cell.

d) The fusion of two haploid gametes to form a diploid zygote.

7. The mitochondria are known as the "powerhouses of the cell" because they:

a) Produce hormones.

b) Store genetic information.

c) Synthesize proteins.

d) Generate energy (ATP) through cellular respiration.

8. The term "extinction" refers to the:

a) Formation of a new species.

b) Disappearance of a species from Earth.

c) Gradual change in a species over time.

d) Movement of a species to a new habitat.

9. A herbivore is an organism that feeds on:

a) Other animals

b) Both plants and animals

c) Fungi

d) Plants
10. Which of the following is a characteristic of all mammals?

a) Laying eggs

b) Possessing mammary glands

c) Living on land

d) Having a backbone

11. The process of cellular respiration occurs in which organelle?

a) Nucleus

b) Mitochondria

c) Cytoplasm

d) Ribosomes

12. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of insects?

a) A body divided into two parts: a cephalothorax and an abdomen.

b) A body divided into three parts: head, thorax, and abdomen.

c) The presence of gills for respiration.

d) A body covered in scales.

13. The epithelial lining of the stomach is specialized to:

a) Absorb nutrients.

b) Produce enzymes and acid for digestion.

c) Store bile.

d) Filter blood.

14. What is the primary function of the hormone adrenaline?

a) To regulate blood sugar levels.

b) To stimulate the "fight or flight" response.

c) To control the body's growth.

d) To regulate sleep cycles.

15. The "vertebral column" is a defining characteristic of which group of animals?

a) Invertebrates

b) Vertebrates

c) Arthropods

d) Mollusks

16. Which of the following best describes the concept of a food chain?

a) A network of interconnected food relationships.

b) A linear sequence of organisms showing feeding relationships.

c) A representation of the flow of energy through an ecosystem.

d) The primary source of energy in an ecosystem.

17. The nervous system is composed of two main parts, the Central Nervous System (CNS) and the:

a) Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

b) Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

c) Somatic Nervous System (SNS)

d) Sympathetic Nervous System (SyNS)

18. The term "allele" refers to:

a) A type of chromosome.

b) A gene that codes for a specific trait.

c) A different form of a gene.

d) A segment of a DNA molecule.

19. The study of the interactions between organisms and their environment is known as:

a) Anatomy

b) Physiology

c) Genetics

d) Ecology

20. Which of the following is the final link in a food chain?

a) Producers

b) Primary consumers

c) Secondary consumers

d) Decomposers

21. What is the primary role of DNA in a cell?

a) To provide energy.

b) To store genetic information.

c) To transport nutrients.

d) To regulate cell division.

22. The "Lamarckian theory" of evolution is based on the idea of:

a) Natural selection.

b) The inheritance of acquired characteristics.

c) Genetic mutation.
d) Punctuated equilibrium.

23. What is the term for an organism that has two identical alleles for a particular trait?

a) Heterozygous

b) Homozygous

c) Dominant

d) Recessive

24. Which of the following is an example of a parasitic relationship?

a) A bird nesting in a tree.

b) A tick feeding on a dog.

c) A bee pollinating a flower.

d) A lichen growing on a rock.

25. Which of the following is a characteristic of an exoskeleton?

a) It is found in vertebrates.

b) It is an internal support structure.

c) It is a hard, external covering that supports and protects.

d) It is made of bone.

26. The presence of cartilage is a characteristic of which group of vertebrates?

a) Bony fishes

b) Cartilaginous fishes (e.g., sharks)

c) Amphibians

d) Reptiles

27. The "Mendel's Law of Segregation" states that:

a) Alleles for a trait separate during gamete formation.

b) Traits are inherited together.

c) Dominant alleles always mask recessive alleles.

d) The inheritance of one trait is independent of the inheritance of another.

28. What is the primary function of the circulatory system?

a) To break down food.

b) To transport nutrients, gases, and hormones.

c) To filter waste products from the blood.

d) To provide structural support.

29. A disease caused by a virus is:

a) Malaria

b) Measles

c) Tuberculosis

d) Tetanus

30. The process of gestation in mammals is:

a) The period of embryonic development inside the mother's womb.

b) The period of time an animal spends in hibernation.

c) The process of metamorphosis.

d) The process of finding a mate.

31. The "lungs" are a defining characteristic of which group of animals?

a) Fish
b) Birds

c) Amphibians

d) Reptiles

32. Which of the following is a monosaccharide?

a) Glucose

b) Sucrose

c) Starch

d) Cellulose

33. What is the primary function of red blood cells?

a) To fight infections.

b) To clot blood.

c) To transport oxygen.

d) To produce antibodies.

34. The term "autotroph" refers to an organism that:

a) Feeds on other organisms.

b) Produces its own food.

c) Feeds on dead organic matter.

d) Feeds on fungi.

35. The "pituitary gland" is often called the "master gland" because it:

a) Is the largest gland in the body.

b) Controls the function of other endocrine glands.

c) Produces only growth hormones.

d) Regulates the body's metabolism.

36. The "tympanic membrane" is also known as the:

a) Eardrum

b) Pupil

c) Vocal cord

d) Thyroid gland

37. The study of the different types of tissues in an organism is called:

a) Cytology

b) Histology

c) Physiology

d) Embryology

38. Which of the following is a characteristic of a protist?

a) It is always a multicellular organism.

b) It can be either a single-celled or multicellular organism.

c) It is a prokaryote.

d) It is always a parasite.

39. The "sympathetic nervous system" is responsible for which of the following?

a) The "rest and digest" response.

b) The "fight or flight" response.

c) Voluntary muscle movements.

d) The regulation of heart rate.

40. Which of the following is the primary site of nutrient absorption in the human body?

a) Stomach

b) Small intestine

c) Large intestine

d) Liver

41. The "pancreas" is a dual-purpose gland that acts as both an endocrine and an exocrine gland. As
an exocrine gland, it secretes:

a) Saliva

b) Bile

c) Pancreatic juice

d) Adrenaline

42. What is the primary function of the circulatory system?

a) To break down food.

b) To transport nutrients, gases, and hormones.

c) To filter waste products from the blood.

d) To provide structural support.

43. The "Lamarckian theory" of evolution is based on the idea of:

a) Natural selection.

b) The inheritance of acquired characteristics.

c) Genetic mutation.

d) Punctuated equilibrium.

44. Which of the following is the correct definition of a gene?

a) A complete set of chromosomes in a cell.

b) A segment of a DNA molecule that codes for a specific protein.

c) A type of protein.

d) A basic unit of inheritance.

45. What is the term for an organism that has two identical alleles for a particular trait?

a) Heterozygous

b) Homozygous

c) Dominant

d) Recessive

46. The process of gastration in embryogenesis is best described as:

a) Formation of the blastula from the zygote.

b) Formation of three germ layers.

c) Fusion of male and female gametes.

d) Development of the notochord.

47. The "epiglottis" is a flap of cartilage located at the back of the throat. Its primary function is to:

a) Produce sound.

b) Prevent food from entering the trachea.

c) Facilitate swallowing.

d) Filter incoming air.

48. The "radula" is a chitinous, toothed ribbon used for feeding, and it is a characteristic feature of
which invertebrate phylum?

a) Annelida
b) Arthropoda

c) Mollusca

d) Platyhelminthes

49. What is the primary advantage of a closed circulatory system over an open one?

a) It allows for faster and more efficient transport of oxygen and nutrients.

b) It requires less energy to operate.

c) It is found in all vertebrates.

d) It allows for direct exchange of fluids with tissues.

50. The "pituitary gland" is often called the "master gland" because it:

a) Is the largest gland in the body.

b) Controls the function of other endocrine glands.

c) Produces only growth hormones.

d) Regulates the body's metabolism.

Botany Question Set

1. Which part of the plant is primarily responsible for the transport of sugars produced during
photosynthesis?

a) Xylem

b) Phloem

c) Cambium

d) Epidermis

2. The stomatal opening and closing is regulated by:

a) The movement of sodium ions in and out of the guard cells.

b) The turgor pressure of the guard cells, regulated by potassium ion transport.

c) The process of osmosis in the stomatal cells.

d) The presence of a waxy cuticle on the leaf surface.

3. What is the purpose of a test cross in genetics?

a) To determine if a trait is dominant or recessive.

b) To determine the genotype of an organism with a dominant phenotype.

c) To determine the sex of an organism.

d) To determine the number of chromosomes in a plant.

4. The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen into usable forms, such as ammonia, by
microorganisms is known as:

a) Nitrification

b) Denitrification

c) Nitrogen fixation

d) Ammonification

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of a monocot plant?

a) A taproot system

b) Reticulate venation

c) Flowers with parts in multiples of three

d) Two cotyledons

6. The endosperm in a seed serves the primary function of:

a) Protecting the embryo.

b) Storing food for the developing embryo.

c) Facilitating germination.

d) Aiding in water absorption.

7. What is the primary function of the chloroplasts in a plant cell?

a) To store water.

b) To provide structural support.

c) To carry out photosynthesis.

d) To break down waste products.

8. The process of transpiration in plants is best described as:

a) The transport of water from the roots to the leaves.

b) The loss of water vapor from the leaves.

c) The absorption of water by the roots.

d) The process of food production.

9. A plant that produces flowers and seeds but does not have a true fruit is known as a:

a) Gymnosperm

b) Angiosperm

c) Pteridophyte

d) Bryophyte

10. What is the primary function of root hairs?

a) To anchor the plant in the soil.

b) To absorb water and nutrients.

c) To facilitate photosynthesis.

d) To protect the root tip.

11. The Law of Independent Assortment states that:

a) Alleles for different traits are inherited together.

b) Alleles for different traits are inherited independently of each other.

c) A dominant allele always masks a recessive allele.

d) A recessive allele is expressed only when the dominant allele is not present.

12. The phenomenon of phototropism is a plant's directional growth response to:

a) Gravity

b) Touch

c) Light

d) Water

13. The calyx of a flower is composed of individual units called:

a) Petals

b) Sepals

c) Stamens

d) Pistils

14. What is the purpose of the waxy cuticle on a plant leaf?

a) To absorb sunlight.

b) To prevent water loss.

c) To facilitate gas exchange.

d) To provide structural support.

15. The process of pollination is the transfer of pollen from the anther to the:
a) Stigma

b) Ovary

c) Ovule

d) Style

16. Which of the following describes the condition where a plant's seeds require a period of rest
before germination?

a) Vernalization

b) Photoperiodism

c) Dormancy

d) Tropism

17. The mitochondria in a plant cell are responsible for:

a) Photosynthesis

b) Cellular respiration

c) Water storage

d) Protein synthesis

18. The xylem is responsible for the transport of:

a) Sugars

b) Hormones

c) Water and minerals

d) Lipids

19. The apical meristem is responsible for which of the following?

a) Secondary growth
b) An increase in stem girth

c) Primary growth (increase in length)

d) Formation of cork

20. Which of the following is a characteristic of a fungus?

a) It is a photosynthetic autotroph.

b) It has a cell wall made of cellulose.

c) It is a heterotroph that obtains nutrients by absorption.

d) It is a prokaryote.

21. A symbiotic relationship where one organism benefits and the other is neither helped nor
harmed is called:

a) Mutualism

b) Commensalism

c) Parasitism

d) Saprophytism

22. The "greenhouse effect" is a natural process that:

a) Cools the Earth's surface.

b) Heats the Earth's surface.

c) Decreases atmospheric pressure.

d) Increases the ozone layer.

23. What is the primary function of a lichen?

a) Nitrogen fixation.

b) Primary decomposer.
c) Pioneer species in ecological succession.

d) Photosynthetic producer in aquatic systems.

24. The process of biomagnification refers to the:

a) Accumulation of toxic substances in living organisms.

b) Increase in the concentration of toxic substances at higher trophic levels.

c) Breakdown of pollutants by microorganisms.

d) Release of pollutants into the atmosphere.

25. What is the primary function of the cell wall in a plant cell?

a) To control what enters and leaves the cell.

b) To provide structural support and protection.

c) To carry out photosynthesis.

d) To store genetic information.

26. The process of meiosis in a plant results in the formation of:

a) Gametes

b) Spores

c) Zygotes

d) Seeds

27. Which of the following is a key component of the cell membrane that aids in its fluidity and
selective permeability?

a) Cellulose

b) Glycoproteins

c) Phospholipid bilayer
d) Starch

28. The process of transcription is best defined as the synthesis of:

a) DNA from an RNA template.

b) DNA from a DNA template.

c) RNA from a DNA template.

d) Protein from an RNA template.

29. The term "autosome" refers to a chromosome that is:

a) A sex chromosome.

b) A non-sex chromosome.

c) A homologous chromosome.

d) An X or Y chromosome.

30. The breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones, releasing energy, is called:

a) Anabolism

b) Catabolism

c) Metabolism

d) Photosynthesis

31. What is the term for a plant that flowers only once in its lifetime?

a) Annual

b) Biennial

c) Monocarpic

d) Polycarpic

32. The "glyoxylate cycle" is a metabolic pathway found in plants that is used to convert:
a) Sugars to fatty acids.

b) Fatty acids to carbohydrates.

c) Amino acids to proteins.

d) Carbon dioxide to oxygen.

33. Which of the following plant hormones is primarily responsible for promoting cell elongation and
cell division?

a) Auxins

b) Gibberellins

c) Cytokinins

d) Abscisic acid

34. What is the purpose of the "testa" in a seed?

a) To store food.

b) To protect the embryo.

c) To absorb water.

d) To facilitate germination.

35. The presence of a notochord is a defining characteristic of which group of animals?

a) Invertebrates

b) Cnidaria

c) Chordates

d) Arthropods

36. The "pleiotropy" phenomenon in genetics describes:

a) The interaction of multiple genes affecting a single trait.

b) The influence of a single gene on multiple seemingly unrelated traits.

c) The blending of parental traits in offspring.

d) The masking of one gene's effect by another.

37. The "symbiotic" relationship where one organism benefits and the other is neither helped nor
harmed is called:

a) Mutualism

b) Commensalism

c) Parasitism

d) Saprophytism

38. What is the primary function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the kidney?

a) Regulation of blood pressure.

b) Filtration of blood plasma.

c) Reabsorption of glucose.

d) Secretion of urea.

39. The "dikaryophase" in some fungal life cycles is a state where each cell contains:

a) One diploid nucleus.

b) Two genetically distinct haploid nuclei.

c) One haploid nucleus.

d) Two identical diploid nuclei.

40. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of a prokaryotic cell?

a) The presence of a nucleus.

b) The presence of membrane-bound organelles.

c) The absence of a nucleus.

d) The presence of a cell wall.

41. The term "macrolecithal" describes a condition where a developing egg:

a) Contains a small amount of yolk.

b) Contains a large amount of yolk.

c) Is not provided with any nutritive fluid.

d) Has a nutritive fluid.

42. The phenomenon of biomagnification refers to the:

a) Accumulation of toxic substances in living organisms.

b) Increase in the concentration of toxic substances at higher trophic levels.

c) Breakdown of pollutants by microorganisms.

d) Release of pollutants into the atmosphere.

43. What is the primary purpose of asexual reproduction?

a) To increase genetic variation.

b) To produce genetically diverse offspring.

c) To produce genetically identical offspring.

d) To form gametes.

44. In the nitrogen cycle, the process of converting nitrates (\text{NO}_3^-) back into atmospheric
nitrogen (\text{N}_2) is called:

a) Nitrification

b) Denitrification

c) Nitrogen fixation
d) Ammonification

45. A plant is observed to have a thick, waxy cuticle and deeply sunken stomata. These
characteristics are adaptations to which type of environment?

a) Mesic

b) Hydric

c) Xeric

d) Halophytic

46. The "punnett square" is a graphical tool used to predict the outcome of a genetic cross. It is
based on the principle of:

a) Independent assortment.

b) Segregation.

c) Dominance.

d) Codominance.

47. Which of the following is a key component of the cell membrane that aids in its fluidity and
selective permeability?

a) Cellulose

b) Glycoproteins

c) Phospholipid bilayer

d) Starch

48. The process of transcription is best defined as the synthesis of:

a) DNA from an RNA template.

b) DNA from a DNA template.

c) RNA from a DNA template.

d) Protein from an RNA template.

49. The term "autosome" refers to a chromosome that is:

a) A sex chromosome.

b) A non-sex chromosome.

c) A homologous chromosome.

d) An X or Y chromosome.

50. The breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones, releasing energy, is called:

a) Anabolism

b) Catabolism

c) Metabolism

d) Photosynthesis