18-08-2025

2001CMD303033250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find Vnet, if

Vnet =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The greatest value of 5cosθ – 12sinθ is :-

(1) 17
(2) 13
(3) 12
(4) 5

3)

Graph of y – 3x2 + 5 = 0 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4)

If sinθ = then tanθ = ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)

If x1 = 8 sinθ and x2 = 3 cosθ then x1x2 = .... :-

(1) 24 sinθ
(2) 12 cos2θ
(3) 24 sin2θ
(4) 12 sin2θ

6)

Value of is :-

(1) 10 ω

(2)

(3)

(4) 5ω

7)

Find maximum value of Y is Y = 10x – 5x2 + 5 :-

(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) None

8) log(sin(2x + 1)) = ?

(1)

(2) 2 cot (2x + 1)

(3) 2 tan (2x + 1)

(4)

9) The following curve represents a function y = f(x). Find average value of y when x changes from 0

to 6.

(1) 20/3
(2) 25/3
(3) 35/3
(4) 40/3

10) Magnitude of slope of the shown graph.

(1) First increases then decreases

(2) First decreases then increases
(3) Increases
(4) Decreases

11) Area under curve y = 3x2 + 2x + 1 from x = 0 to x = 1 is :-

(1) 2 unit
(2) 3 unit
(3) 4 unit
(4) 5 unit
12)
If (μ = 0.5) then find out acceleration of block :

(1) 25 m/s2
(2) 12 m/s2
(3) 7.2 m/s2
(4) 0

13) A block of mass 10 kg is kept over a rough surface and a force F = (4t) N is applied on it. Then
the minimum value of t for which the block will start moving is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 4 sec.
(2) 10 sec.
(3) 8 sec.
(4) 5 sec.

14) A block of mass M is kept stationary on an inclined plane as shown. Forces acting on it are:-

(a) Mg (b) Normal Reaction (c) Friction

(1) only a
(2) only a & b
(3) only b & c
(4) All a, b & c

15) For the arrangement shown in the figure the tension in the string is :-

(1) 5.0 N
(2) 5.2 N
(3) 0.2 N
(4) 0
16) A small mass slides down an inclined plane of inclination θ with the horizontal. The coefficient of
friction is μ = μ0 x, where x is the distance through which the mass slides down and μ0, a constant.
Then the speed is maximum after the mass covers a distance of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Find out maximum value of force F such that blocks remain stationary in the given figure

(1) F = μmg
(2) F = μMg
(3) F = 2μmg
(4) F = 2μMg

18) An uniform chain is placed over a table such that part of it overhangs as shown. If chain
remains in equlibrium, then coefficient of static friction between chain and table will satisfy

following condition :

(1) µ ≥ 1
(2) µ ≥ 0.75
(3) µ ≥ 0.5
(4) µ ≥ 0.3

19) The given diagram shows a horizontal force of 12 N applied to a wooden block of mass 0.60 kg
on a rough horizontal surface, and the block accelerating at 4.0 ms–2. What is the magnitude of the

frictional force acting on the block?

(1) 2.4 N
(2) 9.6 N
(3) 14 N
(4) 16 N

20) Two springs have their force constant as K1 and K2 (K1 > K2) when they are stretched by the
same force then :

(1) No work is done by this force in case of both the springs

(2) Equal work is done by this force in case of both springs
(3) More work is done in case of second spring
(4) More work is done in case of first spring

21) A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M by a distance d with constant downward

acceleration . Work done by the cord on the block is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Mgd

22) Velocity of a particle of mass 1 kg moving rectilinearly is given by v = 25 – 2t + t2. Find the
average power of the force acting on the particle between time interval t = 0 to t = 1 sec.

(1) 49 W
(2) 24.5 W
(3) –49 W
(4) –24.5 W

23) Statement-1: Frictional forces are conservative forces. Statement-2: Potential energy can be
associated with frictional forces.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true

(2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false

24) An object of mass 5 kg is acted upon by a force that varies with position of the object as shown.
If the object starts out from rest at a point x = 0. What is its speed at x = 50 m.
(1) 12.2 ms–1
(2) 18.2 ms–1
(3) 16.4 ms–1
(4) 20.4 ms–1

25) Find out point of stable equillibrium in given figure.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) Not possible

26) A particle is moving along straight line by a machine delivering a constant power then choose
correct option
(a) v = constant
(b)
(c)
(d)

(1) Only a
(2) b, c
(3) b, d
(4) c, d

27) A car of mass m is moving with constant power P. If at any instant its velocity is v. Find distance
travelled by the car until its velocity becomes double :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

28) The rate of doing work by force acting on a particle moving along x-axis depends on position x of
particle and is equal to 2x. The velocity of particle is given by expression :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A uniform flexible chain of mass m and length 2ℓ hangs in equilibrium over a smooth horizontal
pin of negligible diameter. One end of the chain is given a small vertical displacement so that the
chain slips over the pin. The speed of chain when it leaves pin is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) A mass m, lying on a horizontal frictionless surface is connected to a mass M as shown in figure.
The system is now released. The velocity of mass m when mass M descends a distance h is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A bob hangs from a rigid support by an inextensible string of length ℓ. If it is displaced through a
distance ℓ (from the lowest position) keeping the string straight & then released. The speed of the

bob at the lowest position is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a
weightless spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the spring would be :-

(1) 0.12 m
(2) 1.5 m
(3) 0.5 m
(4) 0.15 m

33) If U = x2y + yz + xz2 then find force acting on the particle at (1,2,1)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) The potential energy of a particle varies with x according to the relation U(x) = x2–4x. The point
x = 2 is a point of

(1) stable equilibrium

(2) unstable equilibrium
(3) neutral equilibrium
(4) none of above

35) The potential energy of an object is given by U(x) = 3x2 -2x3, where U is in joules and x is in
meters.

(1) x = 0 is stable and x = 1 is unstable.

(2) x = 0 is unstable and x = 1 is stable.
(3) x = 0 is stable and x = 1 is stable.
(4) x = 0 is unstable and x = 1 is unstable.

36) A particle of mass 2 kg is moving along a straight line. Its velocity time graph is as shown in
figure. Work done by the resultant of all forces acting on the particle from t = 4 to t = 8 s is
(1) 25 J
(2) 50 J
(3) Zero
(4) 12.5 J

37) Only one force is acting on a 5 kg object which is at rest, as indicated in the figure. Find the total

work done by force :-

(1) 90 J
(2) 120 J
(3) 180 J
(4) 60 J

38) What will be work done on a body of mass 5 kg to increase its speed from 4 m/s to 8 m/s ?

(1) 60
(2) 180
(3) 240
(4) 120

39) A 300 g mass has a velocity of m/s at a certain instant what is its K.E.?

(1) 1.35 J
(2) 2.4 J
(3) 3.75 J
(4) 7.35 J

40) Two blocks of mass 2 kg are connected by a massless ideal spring of spring constant K = 10
N/m. The upper block is suspended from roof by a light string A. The system shown is in equilibrium.
The string A is now cut, the acceleration of upper block just after the string A is cut will be (g = 10
m/s2)

(1) 0 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 15 m/s2
(4) 20 m/s2

41) A system consists of two identical cubes, each of mass m, linked together by a compressed
weightless spring of force constant k. The cubes are also connected by a thread which is burnt at a
certain moment. The minimum value of initial compression x0 of the spring for which lower cube

bounce up after the thread is burnt is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A particle A of mass is moving in the positive direction of x. Its initial position is x = 0 and
initial velocity is 1 m/s. The velocity of particle at x = 10 is v m/s. Find value of v ? (Use the graph

given)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) A block of mass m = 0.1 kg is released from a height of 4 m on a curved smooth surface. On the
horizontal surface, path AB is smooth and path BC offers coefficient of friction μ = 0.1. If the impact
of block with the vertical wall at C be perfectly elastic, the total distance covered by the block on the
horizontal surface before coming to rest will be : (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 29 m
(2) 49 m
(3) 59 m
(4) 109 m

44) For a body of mass 1 kg U-x graph is shown in figure. If the body is released from rest at x = 2m,
then its speed when it crosses x = 5m is:-

(1) ms–1
(2) 1 ms–1
(3) 2 ms–1
(4) 3 ms–1

45) Two masses m1 = 2kg and m2 = 5kg are moving on a frictionless surface with velocities 10m/s
and 3m/s respectively. An ideal spring is attached on the back of m2. The maximum compression of

the spring will be.

(1) 0.51m
(2) 0.062m
(3) 0.25m
(4) 0.72m

CHEMISTRY

1) Which is the pH of a 0.20 M HA solution (Ka = 1.0 × 10–6) that contains 0.40 M NaA?

(1) 3.15
(2) 3.35
(3) 5.70
(4) 6.30

2) A 50 mL solution of pH = 1 is mixed with a 50 mL solution of pH = 2. The pH of the mixture will

be nearly:

(1) 0.76
(2) 1.26
(3) 1.76
(4) 2.26

3) Which of the following solutions will have pH = 10 at 298 K?

(1) 1 × 10–10 M HCl solution

(2) 1 × 10–4 M NaOH solution
(3) 1 × 10–10 M NaOH solution
(4) Both (1) and (2)

4) The pH of a dilute solution of acetic acid was found to be 4.3. The addition of a small crystal of
sodium acetate will cause pH to :-

(1) Become less than 4.3

(2) Become more than 4.3
(3) Remain equal to 4.3
(4) Unpredictable

5) Which solution has the highest pH?

Ka
CH3COOH 1.8 × 10–5
HCN 5.8 × 10–10
(1) 0.10 M CH3COOH
(2) 0.10 M HCN
(3) 0.10 M CH3COOK
(4) 0.10 M NaBr

6) Dissociation constant of NH4OH in water is 1.8 × 10–5, then hydrolysis constant of NH4Cl is:
(1) 1.8 × 10–5
(2) 1.8 × 10–10
(3) 5.55 × 10–5
(4) 5.55 × 10–10

7)

Which of the following options is correct ?

(1) pH at half equivalent point of a weak acid (HA) is equal to pKb of its conjugate base
(2) Aqueous solution of ammonium formate will be acidic
(3) An aqueous solution of sodium acetate will be basic due to cationic hydrolysis
(4) On dilution of a solution of a weak acid, degree of ionisation will increases, [H+] also increases

8) Degree of ionisation of water at 90°C is :-

(Kw at 90°C = 10–12)

(1) 1.8 × 10–7 %

(2) 0.8 × 10–9 %
(3) 1.8 × 10–6 %
(4) 3.6 × 10–7 %

9) At 25°C, the OH– ion concentration of a solution is less than 10–7, the nature of solution will be :-

(1) Basic
(2) Acidic
(3) Neutral
(4) May be acidic, basic or neutral

10) The value of the ion product constant for water, (Kw) at 60oC is 9.6 × 10–14 M2. What is the [H3O+]
of a neutral aqueous solution at 60oC and an aqueous solution with a pH = 7.0 at 60oC are
respectively :-

(1) 3.1 × 10–8 acidic

(2) 3.1 × 10–7, neutral
(3) 3.1 × 10–8 basic
(4) 3.1 × 10–7 basic

11) pH of water is 7.0 at 25°C. If water is heated to 70°C, the

(1) pH will decreases and solution becomes acidic

(2) pH will increase
(3) pH will remain constant as 7
(4) pH will decrease but solution will be neutral

12) 10–2 mole of NaOH was added to 10 litre of water. The pH will change by :
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 11
(4) 7

13) Which of the following solution will have pH close to 1.0?

(1) 100 mL of M/10 HCl + 100 mL of M/10 NaOH

(2) 55 mL of M/10 HCl + 45 mL of M/10 NaOH
(3) 10 mL of M/10 HCl + 90 mL of M/10 NaOH
(4) 75 mL of M/5 HCl + 25 mL of M/5 NaOH

14) Which of the following salt undergo anionic hydrolysis ?

(1) CuSO4
(2) NH4Cl
(3) AlCl3
(4) K2CO3

15) Ka for the acid HA is 1 × 10–6. The value of equilibrium constant for the reaction :-
A– + H2O ⇌ HA + OH– is

(1) 1 × 10–6
(2) 1 × 10–8
(3) 1 × 106
(4) 1 × 108

16) Which of the following can act both as bronsted acid as well as bronsted base ?

(1) H2SO4
–
(2) HCO3
(3) O2–
+
(4) NH4

17) Match the following

Column-I Column-II

(1) Strong acid-Strong base Titration (P) Not performed practically

(2) Strong base-Weak acid Titration (Q) NH4OH Vs HCl

(3) Strong acid-Weak base Titration (R) NaOH Vs HCl

(4) Weak acid-Weak base Titration (S) NaOH Vs CH3COOH

(1) 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
(2) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
(3) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P
(4) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-P

18) Which of the following is the strongest conjugate base?

(1) Cl–
–
(2) CH3COO
–
(3) SO4
–
(4) ClO4

19) Consider the following data for series of hydrogen halide Bronsted acids :-

Acid HF HCl HBr HI

Ka 7.2 × 10–4 1 × 106 1 × 109 3 × 1011

Which of these Bronsted acids would have the weakest conjugate base ?
(1) HF
(2) HCl
(3) HBr
(4) HI

20) The ionization constant of the weak acid is 2 × 10–5 and for the weak base is 5 × 10–6. pKh for the
salt of the weak acid and weak base is :-

(1) 4
(2) 10–4
(3) 10–5
(4) 5

21) The ionization constant for a weak acid HA is 10–5, then what is pKb for its conjugate base ?

(1) 10–10
(2) 9
(3) 10–9
(4) 5

22) What is the percentage degree of hydrolysis (approx) of KCN in solution when the
dissociation constant for HCN is 1.6 × 10–9 and Kw = 10–14 ?

(1) 5.26
(2) 2.24
(3) 8.2
(4) 1.02

23) The hybrid state of C-atoms which are attached to a single bond with each other in the
following structure are :
CH2=CH–C≡CH

(1) sp2, sp
(2) sp3, sp
(3) sp2, sp2
(4) sp2, sp3

24) The higher homologue of dimethylamine (CH3—NH—CH3) has the structure :-

(1)

(2) CH3—CH2—CH2—NH2
(3) CH3—NH—CH2—CH3

(4)

25) The no. of σ and π bonds are present in given compound.

(1) 8 σ and 4 π
(2) 10 σ and 5 π
(3) 8 σ and 3 π
(4) 9 σ and 4 π

26) "Iso" can not be used for structure :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Find the number of 1°, 2°, 3° Hydrogen in given compound ?

(1) 3, 14, 1
(2) 3, 14, 2
(3) 3, 12, 3
(4) 3, 12, 2

28) The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional group in the IUPAC system of
nomenclature of :-

(1) –CONH2, –CN, –CHO, –COOR

(2) –COOR, –CN, –CONH2, –CHO
(3) –CONH2, –COOR, –CN, –CHO
(4) –COOR, –CONH2, –CN, –CHO

29) The IUPAC name of the given structure is :-

(1) 3–Methyl–3–isopropyl hexane

(2) 3–Isopropyl–3–methyl hexane
(3) 3–Ethyl–2,3–dimethyl hexane
(4) 2,3–Dimethyl–3–ethyl hexane

30) The IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 3–Carboxy–2–pentene
(2) 2–Ethylidene butanoic acid
(3) 2–Ethyl–2–butenoic acid
(4) 3–Ethyl–2–buten–4–oic acid

31) What is the correct IUPAC name of the compound given below ?

(1) 6-bromo-2-hydroxy benzaldehyde

(2) 2-bromo-6-hydroxy benzaldehyde
(3) 3-bromo-2-formyl phenol
(4) 2-formyl-3-hydroxy bromobenzene
32) The IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH = CHC ≡ CH is

(1) Pent-l-yn-3-ene
(2) Pent-4-yn-2-ene
(3) Pent-3-en-1-yne
(4) Pent-2-en-4-yne

33)

(1) 1, 1, 5–Trichlorocyclohex–5–ene
(2) 1, 3, 3–Trichlorocyclohex–1–ene
(3) 1, 1, 3–Trichlorocyclohex–2–ene
(4) 2, 6, 6 –Trichlorocyclohex–1–ene

34) Arrange these compounds in decreasing order of basic strength

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(4) (iv) > (i) > (ii) > (iii)

35)

The correct order of acidic strength is :-

(1) Chloroacetic acid > Acetic acid > Fluoroacetic acid

(2) Chloroacetic acid > Fluoroacetic acid > Acetic acid
(3) Fluoroacetic acid > Chloroacetic acid > Acetic acid
(4) Acetic acid > Fluoroacetic acid > Chloroacetic acid

36)
Compare acidic strength

(1) a > c > d > b

(2) d > a > c > b
(3) d > c > a > b
(4) d > c > b > a

37) Arrange the following alkenes in increasing order of their heat of hydrogenation :-

(1) R < Q < S < P

(2) R < S < P < Q
(3) P < Q < R < S
(4) P < Q < S < R

38) Tautomerism is exhibited by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C, D
(3) C, D
(4) A, D

39) Consider the following carbanions:-

Correct decreasing order of stability is :

(1) III > IV > I > II

(2) II > III > IV > I
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) I > II > III > IV

40) The decreasing order of stability of following cation is :-

(1) P > Q > R > S
(2) Q > S > R > P
(3) Q > P > S > R
(4) Q > P > R > S

41) Which of following is the correct order of stability of the carbocation?

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I > II > IV > III
(3) II > I > IV > III
(4) II > I > III > IV

42) Which of the following compounds is most basic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which of the following compound is most acidic ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

44) How many of following are nonaromatic molecules?

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

45) Which of the following compounds are aromatic in nature :-

(1) a, c
(2) c, d
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d

BIOLOGY

1) The main criteria for five Kingdom classification are :-

(A) Cell structure
(B) Thallus organization
(C) Mode of nutrition
(D) Reproduction
(E) Phylogenetic relationships
(1) A, B & D only
(2) A,B & E only
(3) A, C & D only
(4) A,B,C,D & E

2) Carl Woese proposed 3 domain system, it was based on :-

(1) 30 - s - Ribosome
(2) 16 - s-r-RNA
(3) 28-s-r-RNA
(4) 5-s-r-RNA

3) In both plants and animals the most convenient method of nomenclature system is :-

(1) Polynomial nomenclature

(2) Binomial nomenclature
(3) Trinomial nomenclature
(4) More than one option is correct

4) A biological name is made of -

(1) Generic name only

(2) Generic name & Specific epithet
(3) Generic name, Specific epithet & strain
(4) Specific epithet & Subspecies

5) Which of the following statement is not true regarding biological nomenclature of plants ?

(1) Biological names are generally in latin or derived from latin irrespective of their origin.
(2) The first word in a biological name represents the genus.
(3) Both the words in a biological name, when hand written are separately underlined.
(4) Name of author appears after the specific epithet and underlined.

6) Triple crown of biology known as –

(1) Carolus linnaeus

(2) [Link]. candolle
(3) Ernest mayer
(4) Theophrastus

7) Which of the following option have correct information regarding Mango and Wheat?

Mango Wheat
(1) Family Poaceae Anacardiaceae
(2) Class Dicotyledonae Monocotyledonae
(3) Division Angiospermae Gymnospermae
(4) Genus Indica Astivum
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(1) 'Animals', 'Mammals' and 'Dogs' represent taxa at different level.

(2) Cats, Rice, Plants, Animals all are taxa
(3) Systematics means systematic arrangement of organisms.
(4) Classification is the first step of taxonomy.

9) Read the following points :

(a) Increase in mass
(b) Differentiation
(c) Increase in number of individuals
(d) Response to stimuli
Which two points are known as the twin characteristics of growth ?

(1) a and b
(2) a and d
(3) b and c
(4) a and c

10) As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common

characteristics :-

(1) Will decrease

(2) Will increase
(3) Remain same
(4) May increase or decrease

11) Study the following table which shows different organisms with their taxonomic categories :-

Common
Family Order Class Phylum / Division
name

Man Hominidae Primata Mammalia A

Housefly Muscidae Diptera B Arthropoda

Mango C Sapindales Dicotyledonae Angiospermae

Wheat Poaceae Poales D Angiospermae

Select the correct option for A, B, C and D.

A–Chordata, B–Insecta,
(1)
C–Anacardiaceae, D–Monocotyledonae
 A–Animalia, B–Arachnida,
(2)
C–Anacardiaceae, D–Dicotyledonae
A–Chordata, B–Arachnida,
(3)
C–Polygonaceae, D–Monocotyledonae
A–Non-chordata, B–Insecta,
(4)
C–Anacardiaceae, D–Dicotyledonae

12) Consider the following four statement (a-d) and select the option which include all the incorrect
one only :-
(a) Biology is not the story of life on earth
(b) All living organism present, past & future are linked to one another by the sharing of common
genetic material but to varying degrees.
(c) The coma patient has no consciousness.
(d) Ernst Mayr, is called "The Darwin of 20th century".

(1) b, c & d
(2) a, b & d
(3) a & c
(4) b & d

13) Mark the incorrect pair:

(1) Hydra - Budding

(2) Planaria- Regeneration
(3) Amoeba - Fragmentation
(4) Yeast - Budding

14) Assertion: Generally order and other higher taxonomic categories are identified based on the
aggregates of characters.
Reason: As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number of common characteristics goes on
decreasing.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) Biology can-be defined as :-

(1) Study of livings on earth

(2) Study of life on earth
(3) Study of life forms and living processes on earth
(4) All of the above

16) In Mangifera indica Linn, the specific epithet is

(1) Mangifera
(2) indica
(3) Linn.
(4) Both 1 and 2

17) Which of the following is correct about venation?

A. Parallel venation generally found in monocot
B. Parallel venation generally found in dicot
C. Reticulate venation generally found in monocot
D. Reticulate venation generally found in dicot

(1) A and D only

(2) B and C only
(3) B and D only
(4) A and C only

18) In cymose type of inflorescence :-

A. Main axis terminates into flower
B. Flower born in basipetal order
C. Main axis not terminates into flower
D. Flower born in acropetal order

(1) A and B only

(2) C and D only
(3) A and C only
(4) B and C only

19) Which one of the following pair is correct about aestivation ?

(1) Valvate - Cotton

(2) Twisted - Calotropis
(3) Imbricate - Gulmohar
(4) Vaxillary - China rose

20) Thorn is modified stem as :-

(1) It originates from leaf

(2) It develops from axillary bud
(3) It forms from stipules
(4) It is tough structure

21) Which one of the following option give the correct adelphy with respect to their examples :

Monoadelpho
Diadelphous Polyadelphous
us

(1) Pea Mustard Mustard

(2) Mustard China rose Pea

 China
(3) Pea Citrus
rose

(4) Citrus Citrus China rose

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Consider the following statements :-

(i) Caryopsis is characteristic feature of Asteraceae
(ii) Perianth are present in Liliaceae
(iii) Flowers are epigynous in Solanaceae
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) (i) only

(2) (ii) only
(3) (i) and (ii) both
(4) (ii) and (iii) both

23) Epipetalous condition can be seen in which family ?

(1) Brassicaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Fabaceae

24) Perianth and diadelphous conditions are found in :-

(1) Fabaceae & liliaceae, respectively

(2) Solanaceae & liliaceae, respectively
(3) Liliaceae & solanaceae, respectively
(4) Liliaceae & fabaceae, respectively

25) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Epipetalous stamen (i) Citrus

(b) Epiphyllous stamen (ii) Pea

(c) Monoadelphous stamen (iii) China rose

(d) Diadelphous stamen (iv) Lily

(e) Polyadelphous stamen (v) Brinjal

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) (v) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

 (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (v)

(4) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Multicarpellary and apocarpus gynoecium occurs in ?

(1) Tomato & brinjal

(2) Lotus and rose
(3) Salvia & Mustard
(4) Dianthus and Primrose

27)

How many from following have axile placentation ?

Pea, Mustard, Tomato, Lemon, Cucumber

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5

28) Which of the following is/are not common for both mango and coconut ?

(1) Presence of stony endocarp

(2) Presence of differentiated pericarp
(3) Fibrous mesocarp
(4) All of these

29) Berry is a fruit which is commonly :-

(1) Dry and multiseeded

(2) Dry and single seeded
(3) Fleshy and multiseeded
(4) Dry and seedless

30) Example of drupe fruits are :-

(1) Wheat & Rice

(2) Gram & Pea
(3) Mango & Coconut
(4) Carrot & Radish
31) Which is not a modification of stem ?

(1) Corm of colocasia

(2) Rhizome of ginger
(3) Pitcher of Nepenthes
(4) Tuber of potato

32) Stilt root are found is :-

(1) Rice
(2) Sugarcane
(3) Groundnut
(4) Gram

33) When stem modified into a fleshy, flat and green leaf like structure is called :-

(1) Phylloclade
(2) Phyllode
(3) Cladode
(4) Pulvinus

34) In cocoonut edible part is :-

(1) Epicarp
(2) Mesocarp
(3) Endosperm
(4) Endocarp

35) Identify the incorrect match for plant and the phyllotaxy
 Plant Phyllotaxy

(1) a Sunflower Alternate

(2) b Mustard Opposite

(3) b Calotropis Opposite

(4) d Alstonia Whorled

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) In papilionaceous 'Keel' is :-

(1) Posterior petal

(2) Lateral petal
(3) Anterior petal
(4) Both (1) & (3)

37) The figure below shows position of floral parts on thalamus (A, B, C). Select the option giving

correct identification together with what it represents ?

(1) C - Epigynous flower having inferior ovary

(2) A- Hypogynous flower having inferior ovary
(3) B- Perigynous flower having superior ovary
(4) A- Epigynous flower having inferior ovary

38) Identify the placentation shown below as well as related plants of its occurrence and select the
right option for the two together :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Roots helps in water and mineral absorption from soil

(2) Roots provide a proper anchorage
(3) Roots store food material and synthesize plant growth regulators
(4) Roots lack meristematic activity

40) Match the column with respect to zonation in roots

Column-I Column-II
(A) Root cap (i) Lengthwise growth
(B) Meristematic zone (ii) Root hairs
(C) Elongation zone (iii) Fast cell division
(D) Maturation zone (iv) Thimble like structure
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

41) Fibrous root system originates from ?

(1) Radicle
(2) Base of the stem
(3) Branches of the stem
(4) Whole stem

42) Assertion:- In racemose type of inflorescence limited growth of floral axis occur
Reason :- In racemose inflorescence main axis (Peduncle) terminates in a flower.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
(1)
the assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of
(2)
the assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

43) Assertion :- In mustard, one chambered ovary becomes two chambered.

Reason :- In mustard ovary false septum is present.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

44) Identify the types of leaves given in the diagram A and B.

(1) A – palmately compound leaf (silk cotton), B – pinnately compound leaf (neem)
(2) A – pinnately compound leaf (silk cotton), B – palmately compound leaf (neem)
(3) A – pinnately compound leaf (neem), B – palmately compound leaf (silk cotton)
(4) A – palmately compound leaf (neem), B – pinnately compound leaf (silk cotton)

45) On the basis of position of ovary in flower, which angiosperm is having similarity with guava?

(1) Peach
(2) Ray florets of sunflower
(3) Plum
(4) China rose

46) Which of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?

(1) Cortisons
(2) Acetylcholine
(3) Epinephrine
(4) Nor epinephrine

47) Type of neuron in which one axon & only one dendron is present is called :-

(1) Bipolar neuron

(2) Unipolar neuron
(3) Apolar neuron
(4) Multipolar neuron

48)

In resting stage :-

(1) Positive charge is more outside

(2) Membrane is neutral positive charge is more outside
(3) Negative charge is more outside
(4) Na+ ions movement through diffusion is not possible

49) Read the following statements (A-D)

(A) Bipolar neurons with one axon and one dendron are found in retina of eye.
(B) In CNS myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped with Schwann cells.
(C) Unmyelinated nerve fibres found in autonomous and somatic neural system are not enclosed by
Schwann cells.
(D) Multipolar neurons with many axons are found in cerebral cortex.
How many of the above statements are true:-

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

50) Integrative system in the body are:-

(1) Endocrine system

(2) Nervous system
(3) Blood vascular system
(4) Both 1 & 2

51) Which of the following tissue exerts the greatest control over the body's responsiveness to
changing conditions?

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) Muscular tissue

52) Assertion : Myelinated nerve fibre are enveloped with Schwan cells, which form a myelin
sheath around the axon.
Reason : Unmyelinated nerve fibre is not enclosed by a Schwan cell and hence does not form a
myelin sheath around the axon.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

53) In which part of neuron Nissl’s granules are present–

(1) Cell body

(2) Dendrites
(3) Axon
(4) Both (1) and (2)

54) The structure that is associated with the axon of neuron and possess vesicles containing
neurotransmitters :-

(1) Dendrites
(2) Synaptic knob
(3) Node of ranvier
(4) Schwann cells

55) When the neuron is not conducting any impulse, the neural membrane is :-

(1) Polarised
(2) Hyperpolarised
(3) Depolarised
(4) Apolarised

56) Assertion (A) : When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, it is said to be at resting state.
Reason (R) : At resting state the neural membrane is depolarised.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

57)

Identify A, B and C in the given diagram.

(1) A-Schwann cell, B-Dendrites, C-Myelin sheath

(2) A-Schwann cell, B-Myelin sheath, C-Synaptic knob
(3) A-Cell body, B-Myelin sheath, C-Node of ranvier
(4) A-Cell body, B-Dendrites, C-Axon terminal
58) The _____transmit nerve impulses away from the cell body to a synapse.

(1) Dendrites
(2) Nodes of ranvier
(3) Axons
(4) Neurotransmitters

59) Unipolar neuron possess –

(1) Cell body with one axon only

(2) Cell body with one axon and one dendrite
(3) Cell body with one axon and two dendrites
(4) Only one cell body

60) Identify X and Y.

(1) X → Chemical synapse; Y → Electrical synapse

(2) X → Stimulatory synapse; Y → Inhibitory synapse
(3) X → Inhibitory synapse; Y → Stimulatory synapse
(4) X → Electrical synapse; Y → Chemical synapse

61) Assertion : The cerebral cortex is referred to as grey matter.

Reason : The cerebral cortex contains myelinated nerve fibers.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

62) Which of the following events is involved in the transfer of information across a chemical
synapse?
(i) Neurotransmitters bind to the receptors present on membrane of synaptic knob.
(ii) Calcium channels open in the pre synaptic neuron.
(iii) Ion channels open in the post synaptic membrane.
(iv) Direct flow of ions from one neuron to the next.

(1) (i) and (ii) only

(2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(4) All of the above
63) Brain is absent in –

(1) Hydra
(2) Cockroach
(3) Human
(4) Frog

64) The correct sequence for depolarization and repolarization is -

A. Increase in permeability for Na+
B. Stimulus applied at a site on polarized membrane
C. Generation of A.P. (Action Potential)
D. Increase the permeability for K+
E. Restoration of membrane potential

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) B → A → C → D → E
(3) A → D → C → B → E
(4) A → B → D → C → E

65) In depolarized membrane, the polarity of the membrane is reversed as-

(1) Both inner and outer surface of the membrane possess negative charge.
(2) Inner surface possess negative charge and outer surface possess positive charge.
(3) Outer surface possess negative charge and inner surface possess positive charge.
(4) Both inner and outer surface of the membrane possess positive charge.

66) The electrical potential difference across the resting plasma membrane is called -

(1) Action potential

(2) Resting potential
(3) Neural potential
(4) Axon potential

67) Statements-I : Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters.

Statements-II : Impulse transmission through a chemical synapse is faster than that of electrical
synapse.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

68) Fill in the blanks :-

a. The ...1... provides a point-to-point rapid coordination among organs.
b. The ...2... coordination is fast but short-lived.
c. As the ...3... do not innervate all cells of the body and the cellular functions need to be
continuously regulated; a special kind of corrdination and integration has to be provided.
This function is carried out
by ...4...

(1) 1–endocrine system, 2–neural, 3–nerve fibres, 4–hormones

(2) 1–neural system, 2–nerual, 3–nerve fibres, 4–hormones
(3) 1–neural system, 2–endocrine, 3–hormones, 4–neurons
(4) 1–endocrine system, 2–neural, 3–hormones, 4–neurons

69) Select the incorrect statement:

Coordination is the process through which two or more organ interact and complement the
(1)
function of one another,
Neural system provides an organized network of point to point connection for quick
(2)
coordination.
(3) Neural organization is complex in lower invertebrates
(4) Vertebrates have more developed neural system.

70) How many statements are correct regrading neural tissue?

(i) Neurons. the unit of neural system are excitable cells.
(ii) Neurons, the unit of neural system are non-excitable cells.
(iii) Neuroglia make up more than one half the volume of neural tissue in our body
(iv) Neuroglia cell are supporting cell

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

71) Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of a
few cells of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells?

(1) Osteocytes
(2) Malpighian layer of the skin
(3) Liver cells
(4) Neurons

72) _______ is the process through which two or more organs intract and complement the function of
one another :-

(1) Control
(2) Co-ordination
(3) Connection
(4) Integration

73) For the maintenance of homeostasis human have ?

(1) Nervous system

(2) Endocrine system
(3) Excretory system
(4) Neuro endocrine system

74)

(1) A → Central neural system; B → Smooth muscles; C → Voluntary organs

(2) A → Sympathetic neural system; B → Skeletal muscles; C → Involuntary organs
(3) A → Visceral nervous system; B → Involuntary organs; C → Smooth muscles
(4) A → Central neural system; B → Skeletal muscles; C → Involuntary organs

75)

Match the following (Action Potential Phases) :-

Column A Column B

(a) Resting Phase (1) Negative inside, positive outside

(b) Depolarization (2) Sodium ions influx

(c) Repolarization (3) Potassium ions efflux

(d) Hyperpolarization (4) More negative than resting state

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(3) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)

76) Which of following leucocyte secrete the histamine, serotonin and heparin ?

(1) Mast cell

(2) Neutrophils
(3) Basophils
(4) Lymphocyte

77) Read the following statements (a-d) :-

(a) Parasympathetic neural signals decrease the cardiac output.
(b) Parasympathetic neural signals increase the rate of heartbeat and speed of conduction of action
potential.
(c) Sympathetic neural signals decrease the cardiac output.
(d) Adrinal medullary hormones can also increase the cardiac output.
On the above statements select the correct option which includes all the correct statements ?

(1) Statements (a) & (b)

(2) Statements (a), (b) and (d)
(3) Statements (a) & (d)
(4) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

78) Blood groups are controlled by antigens which are present :-

(1) On RBC membrane

(2) In cytoplasm of RBC
(3) In plasma
(4) In yellow bone marrow

79) Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid value caused by:

(1) increase in ventricular pressure during ventricular systole

(2) decrease in ventricular pressure during ventricular diastole
(3) decrease in atrial pressure during atrial diastole
(4) increase in atrial pressure during atrial systole

80) SAN is called pacemaker because :

(1) It is present in right upper corner of right atrium

(2) It is autoexcitable
(3) It can generate maximum number of action potential
(4) It is responsible for initiating and maintaing the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart.

81) In which of the following animal have incomplete double circulation :

(1) fish
(2) cyclostome
(3) Amphibia
(4) Birds

82) ____ Plays an important role in blood clotting :-

(1) Na+
(2) Cl–
(3) Ca++
(4) K+

83) Which of the following cell resist infections and are also associated with allergic reactions :-

(1) Thrombocytes
(2) Basophils
(3) Eosinophils
(4) Lymphocytes

84) Most active phagocytic cells of blood are :-

(1) Monocytes and Lymphocytes

(2) Neutrophils and Monocytes
(3) Neutrophils and Lymphocytes
(4) Basophile and Monocytes

85) Match the following correctly :-

(i) Stroke volume (a) 5000 ml. blood

(ii) Cardiac output (b) 120 ml. blood

(iii) End systolic volume (c) 70 ml. blood

(iv) End diastolic volume (d) 50 ml. blood

(1) i(d), ii(a), iii(b), iv(c)
(2) i(b), ii(d), iii(a), iv(c)
(3) i(c), ii(a), iii(d), iv(b)
(4) i(a), ii(c), iii(d), iv(b)

86) What will happen if a Rh– person donate blood to a Rh+ person for the first time

(1) Rh– person will die

(2) Rh+ person will die
(3) Nothing will happen to both
(4) Rh– will live and Rh+ would die

87) If the stroke volume of heart increases with the cardiac output remaining the same, the heart
beats per minute will

(1) decrease
(2) remain unaltered
(3) increase
(4) become erratic

88) The amount of blood that actively flows from atria to ventricle in human :–

(1) 25% – 30%

(2) 35% – 45%
(3) 70% – 78%
(4) 90%
89) Figure show plan of blood circulation in human with label A to D. Select the option which give
correct identificaiton of label and function of the part :-

(1) B - Capillary-thin, without muscle layer and wall is two cell thick
(2) C - vein - thin walled and blood flow with high pressue
(3) D - Pulmonary vein - takes oxygenated blood to heart
(4) A - artery-thick walled and blood flow slowly

90)

In fishes the blood circulation is represented as -

The above flow of blood indicates it is a -

(1) Double circulation
(2) Single circulation
(3) Incomplete single circulation
(4) Incomplete double circulation
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 1 1 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 4 3 3 3 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 4 1 3 3 2 1 2 3 1 4 2 1 1 1 1 4 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 3 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 2 2 3 4 2 3 2 4 4 1 4 4 2 2 3 2 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 1 3 1 3 3 4 3 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 1 2 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 1 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 2 2 4 3 2 4 4 1 1 3 3 1 4 2 1 1 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 2 4 4 2 2 3 3 3 3 2 1 3 2 3 1 2 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 1 3 2 1 1 1 2 4 3 3 4 2 1 3 3 3 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 1 2 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 2 4 4 1 3 3 1 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 3 2 3 3 1 1 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

Greatest value =

3)

y = 3x2 + 5

4) Explanation: In this question we have to find the value of tan if sin is given

Concept:

By Pythagoras theorem
H2 = P2 + B2

Formula: , , ,

Calculation:
∴
⇒
⇒ ⇒ B2 = 8 ⇒ B =

Conclusion: The Correct answer is option 1.

5)

Question Explanation:
We are given two expressions,x1 = 8 sin θ and x2 = 3 cosθ. We need to determine the value of
their product x1 x2 and match it with the given options.
Concept Based:
This question is based on trigonometric identities.
Formula Used:
2 sin θ cos θ = sin 2θ
Calculation:
x1x2 = (8 sin θ) × (3 cos θ)
= 24 sin θ cos θ
Using the identity sin 2θ — 2 sin θ cos θ, we rewrite:

= 12 sin 2θ
Thus, the correct answer is option 4: 12 sin 2θ.

6)

7) Explain : determine the largest possible out put (Y value) that this equation can produce.

Concept : The maximum value,

Formulas :
Calculation : y = 10x – 5x2 + 5

= 10 – 10x = 0 ⇒ x = 1
ymax = 10 (1) – 5(1)2 + 5
ymax = 10

Final Answer : (2)

8)

y = log (sin(2x + 1))

= 2 cot(2x + 1)

9)
10)
From A to B : θ is acute and decreases, so slope (tanθ) will decreases.
From B to C : θ is obtuse and increases
but magnitude will be positive.
So, B to C magnitude will increases.

11)

Area =

=
= (13 – 03) + (12 – 02) + (1 – 0)
= 3 unit

12)

13)

For motion F ≥ fmax

4t ≥ μs Mg
4t ≥ 0.4 (10)(10)
t ≥ 10 sec
Hence tmin = 10 sec.

14) Three forces acting on the block of mass M, that are

(i) gravitational force = Mg
(ii) Normal reaction
(iii) Friction

15)

Concept:
When block at rest fnet = 0

Formula:
 Calculation
As angle of repose is greater then the angle of inclination. Block will not slide.
tan 30° < 0.6
So, Tension = 0

16)

Acceleration of mass at distance x,

a = g (sinθ – μ0 x cosθ)
Speed is maximum, when a = 0
⇒ g (sin θ – μ0 x cos θ) = 0

∴x=

17) F = T + f...(ii)

...(i)

F = 2f

18) Let µ be the minimum value of friction.

⇒µ ⇒µ=

19) 12 – fK = 0.6 × 4
fK = 9.6 N

20) Question Explanation: Which spring requires more work when same force is applied.
Concept : Work done on a spring is the energy stored in it when stretched.
Solution :
 w=
F = kx

As k1 > k2
So
Final Answer : option (3). More work is done in case of second spring

21)

Mg – T =

W = Fs Cos θ

22) Average power, ' Here, v = 24 m/s, u = 25 m/s Δt = 1s

Therefore,

23) Question Explanation (30 words)

We are asked to assess the truth of two statements about friction:

A. Whether frictional forces are conservative.

B. Whether potential energy can be associated with frictional forces.

Concept-Based (Conservative and Non-Conservative Forces)

Analysis of the Statements

A. Statement-1: Frictional forces are non-conservative because they always dissipate energy as
heat and are path-dependent. Therefore. Statement-1 is false.
B. Statement-2: Potential energy cannot be associated with friction because the force is path-
dependent and leads to energy dissipation. Statement-2 is false.

Final Answer : Option 4: Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false.

24)

By WET
W = ΔKE

2 × 375 = 5[v2 – 0]
v2 = 150

25) At C : = –Ve ⇒ = +Ve ⇒ Umin ⇒ Stable equilibrium

26) P = constant ⇒ P = V∝
FV = P

⇒m

1/3
=V∝x

27) P =

Px =

28) P = 2x
⇒ F.v = 2x ⇒ mav = 2x

⇒ m.

⇒ v2dv = xdx
on integrating both sides

⇒v=
Hence option (1)

29)
Uf = mg(–l) = –mgl
decrease in P.E. = increase in K.E.
30)

Loss in PE = gain in KE

Mgh =

31)
h = ℓ – ℓ cos60°

=
∴ loss in P.E. = gain in K.E.

⇒ = mv2 ⇒ v =

32)

According to question

= 0.15 m

33)

34)
 stable equilibrium

35) = 6x – 6x2 = 0 → x = 0
6x (1 – x) = 0 → x = 1

Now = 6 – 12x

At x = 0, ⇒ ⊕ means stable

x=1 ⇒ ⊝ means unstable

36)

37) Area of F-t graph = ΔP

20 × 2 – 1 × 10 = m(vf – vi)
40 – 10 = 5(vf – 0)
vf = 6 m/s

38)

W = ΔK

W = 120 J

39)
 =
= 3.75 J

40)

41)

N will be zero
kx = mg for lower block to bounce

By conservation of energy of upper block

x0 → Initial compression

Putting value of x from (1)

we get

Solving this →

not possible

42)

P = 0.2x + 2

mv2 dv = (0.2x + 2) dx
Integrating
v = 4 m/s

43)

Let number of trips on frictional surface n

So,
Work done by all forces = change in K.E
wg + wfr = 0 + 0 = 0
mgH + n (-fk . (2)] = 0

n = 20
So total distance covered on rough surface = 20 × 2 = 40 m
Total trips on smooth horizontal surface = 19
so, total distance = 19 × 1 m = 19 m
Total distance on horizontal = 40 + 19 = 59 m

44) From graph ΔU = 4J from x1 = 2 to x2 = 5

Now ΔK = 4 J

⇒ × 1 × V2 – 0 = 4

⇒ v2 = 4 ⇒

45)

By energy conservation, for max. compression. v becomes same

...... (1)
By conservation of momentum

v=5
Putting in (1)
 m

CHEMISTRY

46) pH = 6 + log = 6.3

47) pH = 1, [H+] = 10–1 M

pH = 2, [H+] = 10–2 M
M1V1 + M2V2 = MR(V1 + V2)
10–1 × 50 + 10–2 × 50 = MR × 100
MR = 5.5 × 10–2 M
(Resultant molarity of H+ ions)
pH = –log 5.5 × 10–2 = 1.26

48)

A. Question Explanation:

We need to determine which solution has a pH = 10 at 298 K (25°C)

The pH scale is defined as:
pH = -log[H+]
Similarly, for bases:
pOH = -log[OH-]
and using the relationship:
pH + pOH = 14

B. Given Data:
1. 1 × 10-10 M HCI
2. 1 × 10−4 M NaOH
3. 1 × 10-10 M NaOH

C. Concept:
1. pH of Strong Acid (HCI):

A. Normally, pH = -\log [H*].

However, at very low concentrations (< 10-7 M), we must consider the self-ionization of water:
[H+]total = [H+]acid + [H+]water = 10-10 + 10-7 ≈ 10-7M
So, pH = 7, not 10.

2. pH of Strong Base (NaOH):

A. For 1 × 10−4 M NaOH:

pOH = -log(10-4) = 4
pH = 14 - 4 = 10
A. For 1 × 10-10 M NaOн:

Similar to HCI, at extremely low concentrations, water's ionization dominates:

[OH-]total = [OH-]base + [OH-]water = 10-10 + 10−7 ≈ 10-7м
So, pOH = 7, meaning pH = 7, not 10.

D. Mathematical Calculation (Optional):

For 1 × 10−4 M NaOH:
pOH = 4, pH = 14 - 4 = 10
E. Question Level: MEDIUM

49)

Explanation
Concept
Common lon Effect: The addition of a common ion, to a weak acid solution suppresses the
ionization of the weak acid. Common lon Effect: The increased concentration of CH3COO– ions
The dilute acetic acid solution has a pH of 4.3. This indicates a certain concentration of H+
ions.
When sodium acetate is added, it dissociates into Na+ and CH3COO– ions.
shifts the equilibrium of the acetic acid dissociation to the left:
CH3COOH ⇌ H+ +CH3COO–
This shift reduces the concentration of H+ ions in the solution.
Since pH = –log[H+], a decrease in [ H+ ] results in an increase in pH.
Answer Option 2, (become more than 4.3).

50) CH3COOK is basic.

51)
Kh = 5.55 × 10–10

52) Formic acid is stronger acid than acetic acid.

53)

[H+] = cα = 10–6

or 18 × 10–7%
= 1.8 × 10–6%

54) [OH–] < 10–7 at 25°C

If [OH–] = 10–7.5 then pOH = 7.5 &
pH = 6.5 ⇒ Acidic solution
 55) In neutral solution
[H+] =

56)

On heating water Kw increases and thus pH scale for neutrality changes from 7 to some lower
value, depending upon Kw value.

57)

pH of water= 7; pOH = 3 or pH = 11
∴ pH change = 4

58)

59)

WA-SB salt shows anionic hydrolysis

60) Kh =

61)

62) As per theory

63)

Concept

To determine the strongest conjugate base, we need to identify the weakest parent acid among
the conjugate acids of the given options:

A. Cl⁻ is the weak conjugate base of HCl (strong acid).

B. CH₃COO⁻ is the strong conjugate base of CH₃COOH (weak acid).
C. SO₄²⁻ is the weak conjugate base of HSO₄⁻ (weak acid).
D. ClO₄⁻ is the weak conjugate base of HClO₄ (strong acid).

Answer option 2, (CH3COO ).

–
64)

65)

=
= 10–4

66) Ka = 10–5
pKa = –log Ka
pKa = –log 10–5
pKa = 5
pKa + pKb = 14
pKb = 14 – pKa
= 14 – 5
pKb = 9

67)

h = 0.02236
% h = 0.02236 × 100
= 2.236

68)
So, Hybridisation of C–atoms which are attached to a single bond with each other is
→ sp2, sp

69) Question Explanation :

Higher homolegue of dimethylamine (CH3–NH–CH3) has the structure.

Concept :
This question is based on Homolegous series.
Solution :
Members of homologous series have same functional group and differ by CH2 units.
A 2° amine has homologue having 2° amine since functional group should be same.
Higher homologue of CH3–NH–CH3 is CH3–CH2–NH–CH3.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : CH3—NH—CH2—CH3

70)
σ-bond = 8 π-bond = 4

71)

Iso group:

In , this iso group structural unit is not present.

72)

1°H = 3, 2°H = 12, 3°H = 3

73)

NCERT-XI; Page 337 (Table)

74)

Longest chain = Hexane;

75)

Main chain includes –COOH and C = C, at C2 an ethyl substituent

76)

Present = Benzaldehyde, C-2, Br and C-6, hydroxy

77)

Pent-3-en-1-yne
78)

Double bond get 1, 2, number to minimize substituent locants

79)

Basic strength

80)

81) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about acidic strength compassion.

Concept :

This question is based on

Solution :

Ka = d > c > a > b

Final Answer :
Option (3)

82) Explanation:
Heat of hydrogenation order of given alkene.

Concept:

Heat of hydrogenation

Solution:
[P] :- ∝ – C – H ⇒ 1

[Q] :- ∝ – C – H ⇒ 7

[R] :- ∝ – C – H ⇒ 10

[S] :- ∝ – C – H ⇒ 6
∴ stability of Alkene is :- R > Q > S > P
∴ order HOH is :- P > S > Q > R.

Final Answer:
Option (1)

83) Explanation:
Compound exhibited tantomerism.

Concept:
This question is based on condition for tantomerism.
(1) electron withdrawing group (–m) must be present.
(2) At least one α–H must be present (H–attached to α sp3 carbon).

Solution:

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

Final Answer:
Option (2)

84)
ERG intensifies –ve charge
EWG disperses –ve charge
Intensification makes system unstable
Dispersal makes system stable

85)

Stability of carbocation
∴ order of stability ⇒ Q > P > R > S
 86)
So stability order → I > II > IV > III

87)

88) –I effect increase acidic strength.

89)

NCERT-XI, Page no. # 391

90)

NCERT-XI, Page no. # 391

BIOLOGY

91)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the primary criteria used by R.H. Whittaker
to establish his Five Kingdom Classification system.

Concept : This question is based on R.H. Whittaker - Five Kingdom Classification system.

Solution : "Whittaker's classification is based on five major criteria: cell structure, thallus
organization, mode of nutrition, reproduction, and phylogenetic relationship."

Final Answer : option (4)

92)

Solution:

The correct answer is:

2. 16-s-r-RNA

Carl Woese proposed the 3-domain system based on differences in the 16S ribosomal RNA
(rRNA) sequences, which helped differentiate the three domains: Bacteria, Archaea, and
Eukarya

93) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 6

94) NCERT Pg. # 6

95) NCERT Page # 7

96) NCERT-XIth, page no.02

97)

NCERT Pg. # 11/1.1

98) NCERT Pg. # 7, 1.2

99) NCERT XIth Pg.#3

100) NCERT XI(E)/(H) Page No. # 10 (1.37) last para

101) NCERT XI(E)/(H) Page No. # 11, Table-1.1

102)

The correct answer is 3. a & c.

Explanation: Let's analyze each statement:
• (a) Biology is not the story of life on earth.
• Incorrect. Biology is indeed the study of life on Earth, including the structure, function, and
behavior of living organisms.
• (b) All living organisms present, past & future are linked to one another by the sharing of
common genetic material but to varying degrees.
• Correct. All living organisms share common genetic material (DNA/RNA), though the degree
of similarity may vary between species.
• (c) The coma patient has no consciousness.
• Incorrect. While a coma patient has a reduced level of consciousness, it is not entirely
absent. There may still be some limited awareness or response to stimuli, depending on the
severity of the coma.
• (d) Ernst Mayr is called "The Darwin of the 20th century".
• Correct. Ernst Mayr is known as the "Darwin of the 20th century" due to his significant
contributions to the modern theory of evolution.
Thus, the incorrect statements are (a) and (c). Therefore, the correct option is 3. a & c.

103)
NCERT Pg. # 4

104) NCERT Pg. # 10, 11

105)

106)

The correct answer is 2. indica.

Explanation: In the scientific name Mangifera indica Linn., "indica" is the specific epithet,
which refers to the species. The name Mangifera is the genus, and Linn. refers to the person
who first described the species, Carl Linnaeus. Therefore, the specific epithet is indica.

107) NCERT (XIth) Eng, Pg. # 70, para-2, line-6,7,8,9

108) NCERT (XIth) Eng, Pg. # 72, para-2

109) NCERT XI, Pg.# 74

110) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 68 (E)

111) NCERT-XI [Link]. 75

112) NCERT XI, Page # 77,80,81

113) NCERT 11, Pg.# 38

114) NCERT XI Page # 79, 81

115) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 75 (E & H)

116) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 75

117) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 75

118)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which characteristic(s) are not common to both
mango and coconut fruits. It provides options related to fruit structure, and the goal is to
identify the feature uniquely present in one but not both.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves understanding the anatomy of fruits, specifically
the terms related to fruit parts such as endocarp, pericarp, and mesocarp. Mango and coconut
are types of fruits with different structural features: the pericarp is the part of the fruit formed
from the ovary wall and can be differentiated into three layers-exocarp, mesocarp, and
endocarp. The question focuses on which of these features differ between mango and coconut.

Tips and Tricks: Remember the fruit anatomy: Mango is a drupe with a fleshy mesocarp, and
coconut has a fibrous mesocarp that is distinct. This distinction will help identify the correct
answer.

Common Mistakes: Students may confuse the presence of stony endocarp or differentiated
pericarp as unique, but these are common features in both mango and coconut.
Misunderstanding the fibrous nature of the coconut mesocarp is a frequent error.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: 'Presence of stony endocarp' and 'Presence of
differentiated pericarp' are common to both fruits because both have these features, so
choosing these would be incorrect. Only 'Fibrous mesocarp' is not common to both.

119) Module-4 Pg. # 26

120) NCERT XI Pg.# 46

121) NCERT XI Pg.# 68

122) NCERT XI Pg.# 68

123) NCERT Pg.# 71

124) NCERT XI Pg.# 76

125) NCERT XI Pg.# 71

126) NCERT XI Pg.# 74

127) NCERT XI Pg.# 73

128) NCERT XI Pg.# 75

129) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 66

130) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 67

131) NCERT XI Pg. # 66

132)

NCERT XI Pg. No.#72

133) NCERT-XI Page No. # 75

134)

NCERT Pg. No. 70

135) NCERT pg. no. 75

136)

Cortisons

137)

Bipolar neuron

138)

Positive charge is more outside

139)

Options is (2)

140)

Both 1 & 2

141) NCERT page-105

142) NCERT page.-317

143)

Both (1) and (2)

144)

Synaptic knob

145)

Polarised

146)

A is true but R is false.

147)

A-Cell body, B-Myelin sheath, C-Node of ranvier

148)

Answer is Axons

149)

Cell body with one axon only

150)

X → Electrical synapse; Y → Chemical synapse

151)

NCERT-XI, Page # 236

152) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 234

153) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 231

154) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 232.233

155) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 233

156) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 233

157) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 234

158)

1–neural system, 2–nerual, 3–nerve fibres, 4–hormones

159)

Neural organization is complex in lower invertebrates

160)

NCERT [Link].105

161)

Neurons

162) NCERT, Pg. # 315

163)

NCERT, Pg. # 315

164)

A → Central neural system; B → Skeletal muscles; C → Involuntary organs

165)

a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

166) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 279

167) NCERT XI Pg.# 283

168) NCERT XI Pg # 280

169) NCERT-XIth Pg# 284

170)

NCERT-XIth Pg# 284

171) NCERT-XIth Pg# 282

172) NCERT XI Pg.# 281

173)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 279

174) NCERT Pg. # 279

175)

i(c), ii(a), iii(d), iv(b)

176) NCERT XI PAGE : 281

177) NCERT XI PAGE : 284

178) NCERT para : 18.3.2 pg. 284

179) NCERT-XI, Pg # 287, Figure-18.4

180) Single circulation the type of circulatory system that occurs in fishes, in which the blood
passes only once through the heart in each complete circuit of the body.