PREFACE

Bismillahirrahmanirrahim
Praise be to Allah SWT because with His permission and grace this module can
be completed properly. This module refers to the World Civilization Leaders Curriculum
which prioritizes meaningful, differentiated learning and trains students' 21st century skills,
namely critical thinking, creativity, collaboration, and communication. The material
presented is essential material with the hope that there is still time for the development of
students' critical thinking skills. In addition, the teaching and learning process using this
module can trigger students to get used to asking questions, investigating skills, synthesizing
skills, expressing skills, and reflecting skills.
This module is not perfect so constructive input is needed for module perfection.
Hopefully this module can provide the best for the progress of learning at SMA Islam
Sabilillah Malang Boarding School Sistem Pesantren.

Malang, 25 June 2024

Head of SMA Islam Sabilillah Malang
Boarding School Sistem Pesantren,

Idi Rathomy Baisa, [Link]., [Link].

NIPY. 19731129990711023

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 TABLE OF CONTENT

Preface …………………………………………………………………………………….… 1
Table of Content ……………………………………………………………………….…… 2
SNBT’s Material Distribution ……………………………………………………….…….. 4
Unit 1 Reading Comprehension in General
Understanding The Reading Comprehension ………….……………………………...…. 5
Unit 2 Reading Comprehension Sample Questions
Reading Comprehension Sample Questions …………………………………………….. 8
Unit 3 Reading Comprehension Exercises
Exercise 1 ……………………………………………………………………………….. 26
Exercise 2 ……………………………………………………………………………….. 33
Exercise 3 ……………………………………………………………………………….. 40
Exercise 4 ……………………………………………………………………………….. 49
Exercise 5 ……………………………………………………………………………….. 55
Exercise 6 ……………………………………………………………………………….. 62
Exercise 7 ……………………………………………………………………………….. 69
Exercise 8 ……………………………………………………………………………….. 76
Exercise 9 ……………………………………………………………………………….. 82
Exercise 10 ………………………………………………………………………..…….. 88
Exercise 11 ……………………………………………………………………………… 95
Exercise 12 …..………………………………………………………………………… 102
Exercise 13 …………………………………………………………………………….. 109
Exercise 14 …………………………………………………………………………….. 115
Exercise 15 …………………………………………………………………………….. 121
Reflecting ………………………………………………………………………………… 129
References ……………………………………………………………………………….. 130

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 SNBT’S MATERIAL DISTRIBUTION

Content/Material Objectives
Students are able to identify the main idea and purpose of
Reading Comprehension the text.
Students are able to identify the detailed information.
- Main idea of the text Students are able to identify the stated and unstated
- Purpose of the text information.
- Detailed information Students are able to identify the inference and summary.
- Stated and unstated
Students are able to identify the tone of the author.
information
Students are able to identify the pronoun reference and
- Inference and summary
summary.
- Tone of the author
Students are able to identify the preceding and following
- Pronoun reference
paragraph.
- Synonym
- Preceding and following Students are able to identify the double passage.
paragraph Students are able to identify the table and thread.
- Double passage Students are able to identify and analyse the correct
- Table and Thread answer from all of the materials that have studied.

3
 UNIT 1
READING
COMPREHENSION
IN GENERAL

4
Understanding The Reading Comprehension
The ability to comprehend and derive meaning from written texts is known as reading
comprehension. It requires a variety of abilities, including the ability to decipher words,
comprehend vocabulary, identify key concepts, draw conclusions, and determine the author's
intended meaning. Before, during, and after reading a specific piece of writing, reading
comprehension is a deliberate, dynamic, and interactive process. Which elements do we need
to understand more to master our reading comprehension? Here they are

1. Main idea of the text

The main idea of a paragraph is the author's message about the topic. It is often expressed
directly or it can be implied. Knowing how to find main ideas allows you to understand and
think critically about what you're reading. The main idea of a paragraph is the primary point
or concept that the author wants to communicate to the readers about the topic. In a
paragraph, when the main idea is stated directly, it is expressed in what is called the topic
sentence. It gives the overarching idea of what the paragraph is about and is supported by the
details in subsequent sentences in the paragraph. In a multi-paragraph article, the main idea is
expressed in the thesis statement, which is then supported by individual smaller points.
Think of the main idea as a brief but all-encompassing summary. It covers everything the
paragraph talks about in a general way, but does not include the specifics. Those details will
come in later sentences or paragraphs and add nuance and context; the main idea will need
those details to support its argument.

2. Purpose of the text

When we talk about the purpose of a text, we are talking about what the writer wants to
achieve. Writers use language and structural features to deliberately appeal to their intended
audience. The purpose of a text is simply the writer's reason for writing. Readers have the job
of determining the purpose or purposes of a text and understanding why the writer is writing
and what the writer wants the reader to do with the text.

3. Detailed information
It is basically some information about someone or something consists of sentences that
support the main idea. It usually addresses the Who, What, Where, When and Why
(sometimes How). It gives a lot of information with many details regarding the issue or topic
of the text.

4. Stated and unstated information

A stated detail question asks about one piece of information in the passage rather than the
passage as a whole. The answers to these questions are generally given in order in the
passage, and the correct answer is often a restatement of what is given in the passage. This
means that the correct answer often expresses the same idea as what is written in the passage,
but the words are not exactly the same.

While sometimes you will be asked in the Reading Comprehension, to find an answer that is
not stated or not mentioned or not true in the passage. It is called unstated detail question.
This type of questions really means that three of the answers are stated, mentioned, or true in
the passage, while one answer is not. Your actual job is to find the three correct answers and
then choose the letter of the one remaining answer. You should note that there are two kinds
of answers to this type of question: (1) there are three true answers and one answer that is not

5
discussed in the passage, or (2) there are three true answers and one that is false according to
the passage.

5. Inference and summary

'Inference' is the act or process of reaching a conclusion about something from known facts or
evidence. An idea or conclusion that's drawn from evidence and reasoning. An inference is an
educated guess. An inference is a guess that a reader makes by combining details from a text
and personal knowledge. A reader makes an inference about what is happening.
While, summarizing’ is taking a lot of information and creating a condensed version that
covers the main points. It is also a brief statement that gives the most important information
about something

6. Tone of the author

When we talk about an author’s tone, we’re referring to the attitude or feeling that their
writing conveys. It’s like when someone talks to you; their voice, choice of words, and way
of speaking can show if they’re excited, sad, or joking. In writing, tone is created through the
author’s choice of words, their sentence structure, and even the imagery they use.
● Tone refers to the author’s attitude—how they feel about their subject and their
readers. It expresses something of the author’s persona, the aspects of their
personality they wish to show to their readers. For example, are they being funny or
serious? Are they writing with fondness or with derision?
● Mood refers to the overall atmosphere or feeling of a piece of writing. It is often
closely related to tone, because the author’s attitude influences the overall feeling of a
text. It’s difficult, for instance, to take a jovial tone if the overall mood of the piece
ought to be somber, or vice versa.

7. Pronoun reference
Pronouns are words that refer to “something else” - usually a noun - earlier in the sentence or
in a previous sentence. A pronoun should refer clearly to one, clear, unmistakable noun
coming before the pronoun. A pronoun is like an actor’s double on a movie set: it is a
simplified version of the noun it is standing in for.
The mother called the daughter. (The mother called her.)
Her is a pronoun representing the daughter in a simple construction that causes no confusion.

8. Synonym
one of two or more words or expressions of the same language that have the same or nearly
the same meaning in some or all senses. In the literacy subject, the synonym might be
difficult to find. That is because we need to understand the context also, not just the similar
meaning.

9. Preceding and following paragraph

Preceding and following mean next before and next after. “Preceded by” refers to
happen/occur before something. Come before someone. “Followed by" means to come after
someone or something.

10. Double passage

In English literacy, there are kinds of texts that are presented together. Usually these kinds of
questions are followed by 2 texts as the material to answer several questions related to text
relation. Text relation means that you need to understand the context for each text and notice

6
some point that might be related from one to another text. It can be the similar or different
point or else.

11. Table and thread

While other text is presented in the form of draft or narration just like general text, this last
type of question presents the text in the form of table and/or thread.

For a better understanding on how these concepts applied in Reading Comprehension

Questions, please go to UNIT 2.

7
 UNIT 2
READING
COMPREHENSION
SAMPLE QUESTIONS

8
Here is the sample question for each sub of reading comprehension you need to know.

● Sample of question and discussion of main idea of the paragraph

Link for another

sources:

[Link]
how-to-find-the-main-
idea/

[Link]
m/getting-the-main-
idea/

[Link]
.com/how-to-find-the-
main-idea-3212047

[Link]
GRhQoMI?si=awjtWTYa
xBM4TbGb

9
● Sample of question and discussion of purpose of the paragraph

Link for another sources:

[Link]
esize/guides/z9jhsg8/revisi
on/1

[Link]
[Link]/repos/pdfs/tsl15
/L2_Understanding_the_pu
[Link]

[Link]
xc?si=dYx6QaU8v6i8c8KH

10
● Sample of question and discussion of inference and summary

Link for another sources:

[Link]
[Link]
[Link]
11
● Sample of question and discussion of pronoun reference

Link for another sources:

[Link]
m/blog/pronoun-
reference/

[Link]
u/ows/[Link]

[Link]
6M?si=Sr4KrQcSc-DzoIjA

● Sample of question and discussion of detailed information

12
 Link for another sources:

[Link]
L7g?si=Y7VvirwOENvjLhuD

[Link]
FiCI?si=NPV2WspP3wZKFhS
B

[Link]
esize/topics/zs44jxs/article
s/zbtn6g8

● Sample of question and discussion of stated and unstated information

13
 Link for another sources:

[Link]
/asepah/reading-stated-
unstated-detail-
zakiyatuddin

[Link]
/ruangbelajar/sma-kelas-
11-kurikulum-
merdeka/bahasa-
inggris/reading-
comprehension-new/the-
stated-and-the-unstated

[Link]
live/3pG16Y91LYw?si=6VjK
W_8z51guz9Tz

● Sample of question and discussion of preceding and following paragraph

14
15
Link for another sources:

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

[Link]

16
● Sample of question and discussion of synonym

Link for another sources:

[Link]
bRRs?si=TJ0on31BivEOR15
G

[Link]
YRdU?si=43wSqKnax4q-
54r9

17
● Sample of question and discussion of author’s tone and attitude

Link for another sources:

[Link]
/how-to-identify-authors-
tone/

[Link]
.org/test-prep/praxis-
reading/praxis-reading-
lessons/gtp--praxis-
reading--articles--quick-
guides-for-praxis-
reading/a/gtp--praxis-
reading--subtype--article--
authors-attitude

18
● Sample of question and discussion of restatement

19
● Sample of question and discussion of paragraph’s/sentence’s relation

20
● Sample of question and discussion of prediction

21
● Sample of question and discussion of double passage

22
● Sample of question and discussion of table and thread

23
For this kind of question, it usually presented along with 4-6 questions about the context and
detail.

Next, please go to UNIT 3 to do some exercises and let’s check your understanding!

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 UNIT 3
READING
COMPREHENSION
EXERCISES

25
 EXERCISE 1
Text for number 1-4
There are many habits I’ve gained while working from home: snacking when desired, taking
the dog for a midmorning walk, talking to myself and settling in for a daily nap. That last one
will be especially painful to give up if or when I return to an office; my naps have become
essential downtime that act as afternoon pick-me ups. Why do my naps feel so needed and so
revitalising? And will I have to live without?
There are two biological processes that contribute to daily drowsiness, says Sara Mednick, a
professor of cognitive science at the University of California at Irvine and author of Take a
Nap! Change Your Life.
The first system is the circadian: It prompts you to stay awake when it’s light out and asleep
when it’s dark. In the middle of the day, it causes the hormone cortisol to start decreasing
from its morning high and your core body temperature to slightly dip; losing heat helps you
fall and stay asleep. The second is the homeostatic: It makes you sleepier the longer you’ve
been awake. As the day progresses, it continually increases your “sleep pressure,” causing
you to have a growing need for sleep. Together, at midday, these create “kind of a perfect
storm that makes people tired,” Mednick says.
For many people who are sleep-deprived, a short shut-eye session is the ticket, Mednick says.
“Your mood gets better, your creativity, your perceptual processing, your memory
processing.”
Mednick has found that nappers perform as well on a pattern-recognition task as people who
have slept overnight. She has found that naps enhance creative problem-solving. Naps can
boost and restore brain power. Toddlers who nap express more joy. Adults’ nappers can
tolerate frustration longer and feel less impulsive. Naps may help protect older people from
cognitive decline and dementia. Runners
can use naps to improve endurance. People who nap once or twice a week have a lower risk
of cardiovascular disease. Memory is better after a nap. And on it goes.
Source: [Link]
1. What can we conclude from the effects of taking a nap discussed in paragraph 5?
A. The effects of napping include both psychological and physiological advantages.
B. If done correctly, napping can have a huge range of health benefits.
C. Taking a nap does not only help with metabolism, but also with mood regulation.
D. Children are more affected by naps than adults are.
E. The advantages of napping for the human brain are its most significant effects.

2. The author uses the word ‘daily’ in the 2nd paragraph mainly to….
A. demonstrate the intensity of drowsiness
B. put forward an idea about drowsiness
C. emphasize the importance of the word drowsiness
D. show that the drowsiness must occur everyday
E. indicate which specific drowsiness

26
3. What do the processes in paragraph 3 tell us about our body?
A. The sleep pressure is one of our body’s weaknesses.
B. Sleep is a relaxing mechanism of the brain.
C. The body regulates sleep through biological processes.
D. There are two ways for our body to take a nap.
E. We can control the body’s need for sleep in two ways.

4. Which question is answered by paragraph 5?

A. Why do many people take naps?
B. What are the benefits of naps?
C. What are the drawbacks of taking naps?
D. What makes naps better than sleeping overnight?
E. Why does our body need naps?
Text for number 5-6
A complete skeleton of a 19- or 20-year-old Homo sapiens was found during 2020
excavations at a site called Liang Tebo, in remote Sangkulirang-Mangkalihat region of
eastern Kalimantan. Early human remains are scarce in the region, and the researchers
involved in this study suggest this may be the oldest known burial of a modern human that
has ever been found in the region’s islands. During the dig, the find took on a whole new
level of intrigue as the team discovered that the skeleton’s lower leg was entirely missing.
The limb had been not broken or smashed, but cleanly removed, and the archaeologists found
unusual bony overgrowth on the remaining fragments of the tibia and fibula. That overgrowth
matched overgrowth seen in modern clinical cases of amputations.
Further investigations showed that the bone developed atrophy, indicating the part of the limb
that remained was a stump with limited use. Investigations into this remodeling of bone
structure showed some six to nine years of such changes. “This confirms that the surgery was
not fatal, not infected and likely occurred during late childhood,” says Tim Maloney, who
specializes in the archaeology of Borneo at Griffith University, in Australia, and co-authored
the study.
To perform a successful operation, prehistoric surgeons must have had knowledge of
anatomy. They sliced through not only bone but muscles, veins and nerves in such a way that
the patient didn’t bleed to death or go into a fatal state of shock. Their scalpels were likely the
flaked lithic edges common to the era: a stone called chert, which can produce extremely
sharp edges. Afterwards the surgeons may have employed a tourniquet or cauterizing, though
neither would leave clear evidence on the skeleton and so remain unknown possibilities.
What seems certain, however, is that the patient enjoyed a considerable level of post-op care.
“It is highly unlikely that this individual could have survived the procedure without intensive
nursing care, including blood loss and shock management, and regular wound cleaning,”
Maloney notes. He believes the successful operation implies that the community also had
some understanding of antiseptic and
antimicrobial management to prevent fatal infection. In this, their foraging lifestyle and forest
environment might have proved to be advantages.

27
 Source: [Link] (with modifications)
5. Which information indicates the assertion that the early human survived the suggested
amputation?
A. The skeleton does not include a lower leg part.
B. The bone of the amputated leg shrunk in size.
C. The amputated part was cleanly removed.
D. The remaining part of the leg shows no signs of infection.
E. There could have been a post-up care.

6. What is the significance of the expression “the find took on a whole new level of
intrigue”?
A. To emphasize the importance of the information that follows
B. To provide an example for the findings of the early human remains in Liang Tebo
C. To elaborate the finding of the oldest modern human burial site
D. To introduce the information about the finding of an advanced surgery method
E. To introduce the comparison between early and modern methods of amputation
Text for number 7-13
The researchers set up a mock prison in the basement of Stanford University's psychology
building and then selected 24 undergraduate students--with no criminal background, lacked
psychological issues, and had no significant medical conditions--to play the roles of both
prisoners and guards. The volunteers agreed to participate during a one to two-week period in
exchange for $15 a day.
The simulated prison included three six by nine-foot prison cells. Each cell held three
prisoners and included three cots. Other rooms across from the cells were utilized for the jail
guards and warden. One tiny space was designated as the solitary confinement room, and yet
another small room served as the prison yard.
The 24 volunteers were then randomly assigned to either the prisoner group or the guard
group. Prisoners were to remain in the mock prison 24-hours a day during the study. Guards
were assigned to work in three-man teams for eight-hour shifts. After each shift, guards were
allowed to return to their homes until their next shift. Researchers were able to observe the
behavior of the prisoners and guards using hidden cameras and microphones.
While the Stanford Prison Experiment was originally slated to last 14 days, it had to be
stopped after just six due to what was happening to the student participants. The guards
became abusive, and the prisoners began to show signs of extreme stress and anxiety. While
the prisoners and guards were allowed to interact in any way they wanted, the interactions
were hostile or even dehumanizing. Five of the prisoners began to experience severe negative
emotions, including crying and acute anxiety and had to be released from the study early.
According to Zimbardo and his colleagues, because the guards were given total freedom, they
began to behave in ways they would not usually act in their everyday lives or other situations.
The prisoners, placed in a situation where they had no real control, became passive and
depressed.
Source: [Link] (with modifications)

28
 7. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Putting people in isolated cells damages their brain.
B. Possession of power and control alters human behavior.
C. People enjoy pleasure from others’ stress and anxiety.
D. The researchers had planned the outcome of the experiment.
E. Money incentives don’t help people to endure torture.

8. What is the main idea of paragraph 4?

A. The experiment was stopped early due to dangerous reactions of the participants.
B. Prison guards will always be hostile toward prisoners.
C. The researchers had already predicted how the guards and prisoners would behave.
D. The guards and prisoners showed wholesome behavior towards each other.
E. The experiment was stopped because it did not produce the desired results.

9. What can be concluded from the behavior of the participants?

A. Their behavior was influenced by the situation they were put into.
B. Both the guards' and the prisoners' behavior took an unexpected turn.
C. The participants are well-adjusted to their new environment.
D. The prisoners had a hard time developing an assertive behavior.
E. The guards' unpredictable behavior was probably brought on by past trauma.

10. The sentence “... the interactions were hostile or even dehumanizing” implies ....
A. the isolated condition of prisoners was dangerous for their mental health
B. the prisoners rebelled and started attacking the guards
C. the guards became aggressive and abusive toward the prisoners
D. both the guards and the prisoners felt depressed and anxious
E. the guards started to sympathize more with the prisoners

11. If we were to add a beginning paragraph preceding the text, what would it most likely
talk about?
A. The researchers’ academic credentials
B. The psychology faculty of Stanford University
C. The selection of the volunteers
D. The background of the experiment
E. The mechanism of the experiment
12. Which of the following is true about the experiment?
A. The participants must be free of criminal records and not have any health issues.
B. The guards were divided into three teams that worked eight-hour shifts.
C. The experiment was cancelled not even halfway of the initial schedule.
D. The prisoners started to get abusive due to the excessive freedom they had.
E. The researchers doing the experiment used the volunteer guards to observe the
prisoners.

13. The experiment involved volunteers who _______ to take part as guards and prisoners in
exchange for money. Which of the following best fills the blank?
A. Consented

29
 B. Yielded
C. Dissented
D. Abided
E. Obeyed
Text for number 14-20
More than two billion cups of coffee are drunk every day and for many, working life would
feel impossible without it. As traditionally tea-drinking countries like China are seduced by
coffee’s charms, it may soon become the world’s favourite drink. What is driving this
insatiable thirst, and how has the beverage come to conquer the world? Coffee’s story starts
in the lush highlands of Ethiopia, the natural homeland of the delicate Coffee arabica plant.
Although they are called “coffee beans”, the plant is not a legume, and the fruits of the coffee
tree look more like cherries when they are first picked. The seeds inside are extracted and
dried before the process of roasting turns them into the hard, nutty nodules we feed into our
grinders.
The Oromo people from Ethiopia are thought to have been the first to have noticed the
stimulating effects of these “beans”, and coffee still remains an important element of their
traditional cuisine. Exactly how and when it spread beyond Ethiopia is still the subject of
many legends, but the available historic records suggest that the Sufis of Yemen were the first
truly devoted drinkers outside Africa in the Middle Ages. Its caffeine helped them to continue
their practices late into the night, while the roasting of the bean was apparently taken as an
analogy for the transcendence of the human soul. Coffee houses soon spread across the
Middle East and the Ottoman Empire, where they caught the attention of Western traders,
who took the beguiling drink back to their home countries in the 17th Century. (...). One
newspaper advert in 1657 described the drink as “having many excellent virtues, closes the
orifice of the stomach, fortifies the heart within, helps digestion, brights up the spirit.”
Some studies suggest that coffee can offer some protection from certain common diseases. A
recent review of the evidence by Susanna Larsson at the Karolinska Institute in Sweden
found that each cup of coffee per day is associated with a 6% reduction in the risk of type 2
diabetes. Laura Van Dongen at Wageningen University, meanwhile, has found that regular
coffee drinkers were at least 20% less likely to die from heart disease.
source: [Link]
14. People often mistakenly classify coffee as a type of plant to which peanuts, chickpeas
or lentils belong. Is this statement supported by the passage? Which information can
prove it?
A. Supported, the passage mentions that coffee is grown in Ethiopia, a place where the
other plants are mentioned to not grow in.
B. Supported, the passage states that coffee is not a legume, unlike the other plants
which fit the definition of the word.
C. Not supported, the passage mentions how coffee was spread to the westerners
through the Middle East, same as the other plants.
D. Not supported, coffee was stated to be able to reduce someone’s risk of dying from
heart problems, much like the other plants.

30
 E. Supported, it is mentioned that coffee is beguiling, which is a quality the other
plants are not exactly known for.

15. Which of the following statements is incorrect about coffee based on the text?
A. China is gradually becoming an emerging market for coffee.
B. Coffee became more popular in the western world thanks to the Yemeni sufis that
drank coffee outside Africa.
C. How coffee first got produced and consumed outside Ethiopia is still a question yet
to be answered.
D. Coffee can prevent us from getting some dangerous diseases such as diabetes.
E. Coffee had come out of Africa even before the westerners found out about it.

16. Which sentence below is the best fit for the blank in paragraph three?
A. Many businesses grew out of these specialized coffee houses.
B. The early drinkers were firm believers in its medicinal properties.
C. Not only did the patrons drink coffee and engage in conversation, but they also
listened to music, watched performers, played chess and kept current on the news.
D. Coffee began to replace the common breakfast drink beverages of the time — beer
and wine.
E. Missionaries and travellers, traders and colonists continued to carry coffee seeds to
new lands, and coffee trees were planted worldwide.

17. “Coffee was first spread and consumed outside of Ethiopia by the sufis in Yemen.” Is it
possible to dispute this statement using information mentioned in the passage?
A. Yes, since it’s mentioned that the Middle East and Ottoman Empire also contributed
to its spread.
B. Yes, as it is stated that the Oromo people were the first to discover the benefits of
coffee.
C. No, as it is especially stressed how the historic records indicated that they were the
first drinkers of coffee.
D. No, because all other peoples mentioned in the passage started consuming coffee
after the Sufis.
E. Yes, since it is hinted that there exist mixed accounts about how coffee spread
outside of Africa.

18. If coffee houses ______ to the middle east and Ottoman Empire, Western traders
probably wouldn’t have brought coffee back home.
A. didn’t spread
B. hadn’t spread
C. wouldn’t spread
D. wouldn’t have spread
E. were not spread

19. “More than two billion cups of coffee are drunk every day and for many, working life
would feel impossible without it.” What meaning does the modal ‘would’ carry in this
context?

31
 A. it shows a possibility
B. it shows a request
C. it shows a habit in the past
D. it shows a hypothetical situation
E. it shows a wish

20. According to the passage, coffee is proven to have many _____ including association
with lower risk of getting diabetes and death from heart diseases. Which one is the best
fit to fill the blank?
A. Perks
B. Gratifications
C. Comforts
D. Welfares
E. Conveniences

32
 EXERCISE 2
Read the text below to answer the questions
In addition to being pleasant and reducing thirst, drinking tea turns out to be also
beneficial for health. Some research results show that drinking tea is beneficial for health if
the amount of tea consumed is not excessive.
Female First writes that a new study in the United Kingdom shows that drinking tea
regularly can help reduce the risk of developing breast cancer. To analyze the relationship
between tea consumption and the reduced risk of breast cancer, researchers conducted 39
studies of the benefits of tea consumption in 13,204 breast cancer patients. Based on the
results of these studies, antioxidant properties in tea can help reduce the risk of breast cancer.
Taking tea regularly causes a 21% reduction in breast cancer risk. According to a female
health specialist, Dr. Catherine Hood from “The Tea Advisory Panel (TAP)” to Female First,
this finding is related to the level of polyphenols in tea. Tea is rich in polyphenols, including
catechins and gallocatchins, which have been known to function as antioxidants and to have
anti-tumor effects.
The latest esearchh conducted by Dr. Tim Bond from The Tea Advisory Panel (TAP)
shows that consuming black tea lowers cardiovascular risks. Flavonoid in tea helps improve
blood vessel functions. In this study, 20 healthy people consumed tea three times a day for
one week. The result shows that the blood vessel function of these people increases after
consuming tea that is not brewed with hot water.
According to the Daily Mail, scientists from Taiwan reported that consuming three
cups of tea a day helps prevent heart disease and improves blood circulation. Drinking
more than 450 ml of tea every day will reduce the risk of arteries becoming stiff, with a
reduced risk of 22%. Research conducted by the Harvard School of Public Health,
America, also shows that tea has many health benefits. Besides being able to lower blood
pressure, tea can also help prevent the ovaries and digestive system cancer. Consuming
three cups of black tea or green tea every day can help prevent strokes. Drinking green tea,
in particular, can help reduce the risk of breast, prostate, and endometrial cancer.

1. ln which paragraph does the writer emphasize the effect of drinking tea on breast
cancer?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

2. Why does the author argue that drinking tea can reduce the risk of heart disease?
A. Tea contains important nutrients.
B. The result of the study reveals this.
C. There is a polyphenol content in tea.
D. Tea produces catechins and gallocatchins.
E. The compound in tea raises blood pressure.

3. What conclusion can we draw from the passage especially on people who are non-tea
drinkers?
A. They tend to easily get various degenerative diseases.
B. They are physically as good as those who drink tea.

33
 C. They cannot be associated with drinking tea.
D. They tend to be free from breast cancer.
E. They are prone to heart diseases.

4. Which group of readers can take the positive side of the passage?
A. Tea drinkers
B. Heart surgeons
C. Teenage readers
D. People with cancer
E. Researchers on tea

Read the text below to answer the questions

Most people may not think that knitting, crocheting, and jam-making are thrilling.
However, they turn out to be very good wellbeing. A study has found that people who
participate in arts and crafts feel happier, calmer, and more energetic the next day. The
researchers also listed other activities which include cooking, baking, performing music,
painting, drawing, sketching, design, and creative writing. All of them make participants
relaxed and creative.
Many of the more traditional activities on the researchers’ list are popular with Women’s
Institute members. Janice Langley, chairman of the National Federation of Women’s
Institute, told the Daily Mail, “WI members have enjoyed creative activities and crafts since
the very first WI meeting in 1915. It is great to hear this study has found some evidence that
these interests could lead to increased wellbeing and creativity. We encourage everyone to
try and get involved.” The WI celebrated its 100th anniversary last year and now it has more
than 212,000 members. Even the Queen is one of its members.
The study took place at Otaqo University, New Zealand. In this interesting study, 658
students kept diaries of their experiences and emotional states over 13 days. According to
Dr. Tamlin Connor, the study’s lead author, psychology research is starting to recognize
that creativity is associated with emotional functioning. However, most of his work focuses
on how emotions are good or bad for creativity. It does not focus on whether creativity is
positive or negative for emotional wellbeing. Engaging in creative behavior causes
increase in well-being the next day. This increased well-being is likely to help creative
activity on the same day. Overall, these findings support the new emphasis on everyday
creativity as a means of supporting positive psychological functioning. The result shows
that the students showed more enthusiasm and happiness in the days following creative
activities.

5. What topic does the paragraph preceding the passage most likely discuss?
A. Creative and energetic people
B. Popular traditional activities
C. Thrilling psychological research
D. The history of Women’s Institute
E. Activities commonly considered exciting

6. Based on the passage, students will be happy and enthusiastic learners if arts and crafts
...
A. are mandatory subjects in their schools
B. are taught in a thrilling way
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 C. become the main part of the curriculum
D. are actively promoted by members of the Woman Institute at school
E. are included in their daily lessons at school

7. Which of the following is the best summary of the passage?

A. Arts and crafts have positive impacts on people’s wellbeing. These creative
activities and arts have been popular among Women’s Institute members, and
they believe more people should try them. Researchers discovered that
participating in arts and crafts helped increase wellbeing in the following day.
B. Knitting, crocheting, and jam- making are exciting activities for Women’s Institute.
They state that they are pleased to know these arts and crafts are gaining popularity.
Many people are interested in trying them because they are good for improving
sense of creativity.
C. A study found that doing activities that are usually done by women can help people
increase their happiness. The activities are usually boring and uninteresting.
However, they are actually good for improving intelligence and maintaining
psychological condition.
D. Dr. Tamlin Connor found that traditional feminine activities enjoyed by Women’s
Institute’s members could be enjoyable and excellent for stabilizing people’s
emotions. In his research, students did various creative activities and wrote about
their feelings in their diaries. The diaries showed they felt more peaceful and
calmer every time they had some arts and crafts in the previous day.
E. Performing creative activities, such as knitting, crocheting, and jam-making are
surprisingly thrilling for many people. Most of them join the National Federation of
Women’s Institute and promote the advantages of arts and crafts for wellbeing.
They collaborate with psychology researchers and prove that creative activities
significantly improve happiness.

Read the text below to answer the questions

Ebola virus causes a severe and frequently lethal disease. There is no carrier state.
Because the natural reservoir of the virus is unknown, the manner in which the virus first
appears in a human at the start of an outbreak has not been determined. However,
researchers have hypothesized that the first patient become infected through contact with
an infected animal.
After the first case-patient in an outbreak setting is infected, the virus can be
transmitted in several ways. People can be exposed to Ebola virus from direct contact with
the blood and/or secretions of an infected person. Thus, the virus is often spread through
families and friends because they come in close contact with such secretions when caring
for infected persons. People can also be exposed to Ebola virus through contact with
objects, such as needles, that have been contaminated with infected secretions.
Nosocomial transmission refers to the spread of a disease within a health-care
setting, such as a clinic or hospital. It occurs frequently during Ebola HF outbreaks. It
includes both types of transmission described above. In African health-care facilities,
patients are often cared for without the use of a mask, gown, or gloves. Exposure to the
virus has occurred when health care workers treated individuals with Ebola HF without
wearing these types of protective clothing. In addition, when needles or syringes are used,
they may not be of the disposable type, or may not have been sterilized, but only rinsed
before reinsertion into multi-use vials of medicine.

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8. In presenting the ideas, the author starts by ...
A. Exposing how acutely the Ebola virus infects patients
B. Revealing the first case of Ebola virus infecting human
C. Stating how the first Ebola virus infection on human took place
D. Affirming the confusion of researchers about the unknown virus
E. Describing no clear date about the first outbreak of the virus infection

9. In other words, the sentence “Nosocomial

transmission refers to the spread of a disease within a health-care setting, such as a
clinic or hospital.” (paragraph 3) may be restated as …
A. nosocomial transmission is a specific disease that only infects medical settings
B. nosocomial transmission takes place in inappropriate settings of medical equipment
C. nosocomial infections refer to a health center not well- equipped with medical
standards
D. nosocomial transmission is the disease transmission from infected health centers to
humans
E. nosocomial infections are the transmission of diseases from patients to their
family members

10. The part following the passage will likely discuss …

A. Directions to carefully exploit the virus for medical purposes
B. Details to prevent the occurrence of nosocomial infections
C. Procedures to sterilize medical equipment thoroughly
D. Ways to locate source of nosocomial transmission
E. Hints to improve conditions of African health-care facilities

Read the text below to answer the questions

Mobile devices do not just cause distraction these days. You no longer have to
memorize phone numbers. All that information is neatly stored in our phone’s contact list.
If you have questions about the world around you, you can just grab your phone and google
the answers.
Some experts warn that this over-dependence on your mobile device for all the
answers might cause mental laziness. In fact, one recent study has an interesting finding. It
has found that there is actually a connection between depending on a smartphone and mental
laziness. Smartphones do not necessarily turn people from deep thinkers into lazy thinkers.
However, it suggests that intuitive thinkers tend to depend on their phones more frequently;
intuitive thinkers are people who act based on instinct and emotion.
“If you depend on the internet too much, you can’t know how you have the correct
answer, except if you think about it logically” explained Gordon Pennycook, one of the
study’s co- authors. “Our research supports the connection between heavy smartphone use
and lowered intelligence,” said Pennycook. “Whether smartphones actually decrease
intelligence is still an open question; it requires future research.”
The researchers warn, however, that the use of mobile devices has been so
progressive. It is much more progressive than the available research on the subject.
Researchers are just at the beginning stages of understanding the potential effects of
smartphone use on the brain. Mobile devices certainly have some disadvantages. However,
the researchers also suggest the possible benefits of smartphone use to the brain.

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11. What is the topic of the passage?
A. Mobile phone reliance and mind inactivity
B. Smartphone use and thinking ability
C. Hand phone addict and stupidity
D. Communication technology and brain
E. Internet use and illogical thinking

12. The word google in paragraph 1 can be replaced by ...

A. Type
B. Discover
C. Detect
D. Inquire
E. Search

13. Based on the passage above, which of the following statement is NOT correct?
A. There is relation between frequent use of smartphone and a decrease in IQ.
B. Thinkers who tend to use their intuition depend a lot on their phones.
C. Smartphones enable our brain to be stimulated and find a solution to a problem.
D. Research on the use of mobile devices has been lacking behind the actual use of
device.
E. Researchers are in their early stage of understanding the impacts of using
smartphones on the brain.

Read the text below to answer the questions

Flocks of chattering African Grey parrots, more than a thousand flashes of red and
white on grey at a time, were a common site in the deep forests of Ghana in the 1990s. But
a 2016 study published in the journal Ibis reveals that these birds, in high demand around
the world as pets, and once abundant in forests all over West and Central Africa, have almost
disappeared from Ghana.
According to the study, the pet trade and forest loss— particularly the felling of large
trees where the parrots breed— are major factors contributing to the decline. Uncannily good
at mimicking human speech, the African Grey is a prized companion in homes around the
world. Research has shown that greys are as smart as a two-five year-old human child—
capable of developing a limited vocabulary and even forming simple sentences.
The grey parrot has a wide historic range across West and Central Africa—1.1
million square miles (nearly three million square kilometers)— from Cote d’Ivoire and
Ghana in West Africa, through Nigeria and Cameroon and the Congo forests, to Uganda and
Western Kenya. Ghana accounts for more than 30,000 square miles (75,000 square
kilometers) of that range, but losses of greys there have not been some of the most
devastating. These African Grey parrots were rescued from smugglers and released on
Ngamba Island in Lake Victoria. These African Grey parrot is the single most heavily traded
wild bird.
“The Grey parrot population in Ghana has increased catastrophically, and the species
is now very rare across the country,” said Nigel Collar, of Bird Life International, a global
partnership dedicated to conserving birds and their habitat. Collar was one of the authors of
the paper, which notes that since 1992 Ghana has lost 90-99 percent of its African greys.
“Dedicated searching, including visits to roosts, which had as many as 1,200
individuals 20 years ago, yielded just a handful of grey parrot sightings,” said Nathaniel
Annorbah, a Ghanaian graduate student at Manchester Metropolitan University, in

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England, who was the study’s lead author.

14. The author first quotes collar’s statement and then the statement is followed by …
A. an explanation about Collar’s study
B. a claim from bird life international
C. a supporting statement from Annorbah
D. a contrasting finding about grey parrots
E. a description of bird conservation and habit

15. Which of the following obviously shows the author's false idea in the passage?
A. The African Grey is a prized companion in homes around the world.
B. the journal reveals that these birds are in high demand around the world.
C. The grey parrot has a wide historic range across West and central Africa.
D. The Grey parrot population in Ghana has increased catastrophically.
E. Since 1992 Ghana has lost 90-99 percent of its African greys

Read the text below to answer the questions

It is common knowledge that as women get older, pregnancy becomes a riskier

enterprise. Advanced maternal age is linked to a number of developmental disorders in
children, such as Down’s syndrome. Now, a study has confirmed that older mothers are less
likely to give birth to a child with autism, too. The authors of the epidemiology study,
published February 8 in Autism Research, examined the parental age of more than 12,000
children with autism and nearly five million “control” children, all living in California. The
researchers found that mothers over 40 had 51 percent higher risk of having a child with
autism than mothers 25 to 29, and a 77 percent higher risk than mothers under 25.
Autism – a developmental disorder characterized by impaired social interaction and
communication – appears to be on the rise. The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention now estimates that as many as one in 110 children in the U.S. has an autistic
spectrum disorder – a group of developmental disorders in California in 2007 was 12 times
that from 1987, representing an average annual growth of 13 percent, according to a report
from the California Department of Developmental Services. Only a fraction of these extra
cases can be explained by changes to diagnostic criteria and earlier diagnoses.
Maternal age is also increasing in the U.S. A California-based study reported a three-
fold increase in the number of births to women aged 40 to 44. But this trend toward delayed
childbearing accounted for less than 5 percent of the total increase in autism diagnoses in
California over the decade, according to the study—a finding that surprised Janie Shelton, a
doctoral student in University of California, Davis’s Department of Public Health Sciences
and the study’s lead author. “I would have expected to see more of a contribution, because
age is risk factor and women are having kids later,” she says.

16. What conclusion can we draw from the passage especially on autism in children?
A. It is genetically transmitted.
B. It makes children antisocial.
C. It is getting more infectious.
D. It was among Californian children.
E. It has not been detected up to now.

17. The sentence “A California- based study reported a three- fold increase in the

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 number of births to women aged 40 to 44.” in paragraph 4 can best be restated as …
A. the number of Americans giving birth in their 40s each year is increasing
B. a study reported that the rate of women in advanced maternal age giving birth is
increasing
C. studies show that mothers aged 40 years or older giving birth is increasing
dramatically in numbers
D. the ability to have a child at an older age indicates that a woman’s reproductive
system is aging slowly
E. a study found that women who had children after the age of 40 were three times
more likely to live longer

18. What topic does the paragraph following the passage most likely discuss?

A. The increase of autism risk and older parents

B. Older women at high risk of having a child with autism
C. The higher rate of autism with older mothers
D. Paternal age as another factor which is linked to a child with autism
E. More explanation of how maternal age is related to autism

19. The author’s attitude towards the topic in the passage is ...
A. Critical
B. Doubtful
C. Assertive
D. Convinced
E. Informative

20. Which of the following obviously shows the author's false idea in the passage?
A. Older mothers are less likely to give birth to a child with autism.
B. As many as one in 110 children in the U.S. has an autistic spectrum disorder.
C. Mothers over 40 had 51 percent higher risk of having a child with autism than
mothers 25 to 29.
D. Only a fraction of these extra cases can be explained by changes to diagnostic
criteria and earlier diagnoses.
E. But this trend toward delayed childbearing accounted for less than 5 percent of
the total increase in autism diagnoses.

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 EXERCISE 3
The text below is to answer the questions
Technology-based online learning platforms in Indonesia have committed to help
students, especially those living in areas impacted by the novel coronavirus (COVID-19)
outbreak, to continue their learning process at home. A number of regions in Indonesia have
decided to close schools, including Jakarta, Surakarta in Central Java, Bandung in West Java
and other places in Indonesia. To help students continue their education, the following list
comprises e- learning platforms that are accessible by the public, as compiled by [Link]
Technology-based education platform Zenius Education is allowing students to access
its 80,000 learning videos for free. The videos contain learning materials for elementary to
senior high school students. "Aside from being accessible for free, the majority of the videos
require minimum internet quota," said Rohan Monga, CEO of Zenius Education, in a
statement. "Hopefully, students can learn by themselves and prepare for the UN [national
exam]." Zenius Education has also opened access to hundreds of thousands of exercises.
Teachers can share the videos and exercises with their students and parents via various
platforms, including WhatsApp. The platform is also preparing for free try out exams on its
website and app, to be held on March 26.
The Education and Culture Ministry has developed a long-distance learning service
available on its website and app on Google Play. Dubbed Rumah Belajar (The Learning
House), it can be accessed by both teachers and students from early-childhood learning center
(PAUD) to senior high and vocational schools. The platform provides main features such as
Sumber Belajar (Learning Sources) with learning materials in the form of images, videos,
animations, simulations and games; Kelas Digital (Digital Class) to facilitate virtual classes
among teachers and students; Laboratorium Maya (Virtual Laboratory) that contains
interactive simulation practicum activities; and Bank Soal (Questions Bank), which provides
collections of exercises for students.
Initiated by Google, G Suite Education helps students and teachers who want to
conduct remote classes in areas with limited internet access. Schools can use Hangouts Meet,
a video conference platform available for G Suite users, and Google Classroom, a web
service to facilitate teachers in creating, scoring and distributing assignments. Google has
allowed schools to use Hangouts Meet for free until July 1. Schools are able to hold video
conferences with up to 100,000 participants within one domain and hold a large meeting with
up to 250 participants in each class. The sessions can be recorded and kept on Google Drive
to be accessed later on.
Benny Kusuma, education lead of PT Microsoft Indonesia, said it had opened Office
365 access for education, which includes word processor software Microsoft Word,
spreadsheet software Excel, presentation program PowerPoint, information gathering
program OneNote and communication platform Teams. Schools are required to provide an
institution domain as a digital identity for teachers and students. Office 365 will facilitate the
virtual-learning activities by video conference. "Teachers are able to send teaching materials
in a form of text or video through [Microsoft] Teams to their students," Benny said. "Students
can also discuss with their teachers within the teams."

40
 Online learning start-up Quipper Indonesia has opened access and materials for free
for schools, teachers and students, including videos, modules and exercises for the national
exam, computer-based exam (UTBK) and entrance test for state universities (SBMPTN).
Teachers and schools can use the Quipper School service to distribute assignments and
exams, as well as monitoring the results. "The service is for schools that are affected [by
COVID-19] and will be available from Tuesday," said Hanani Faiza, content associate
manager of Quipper.
Indonesian education technology startup Ruangguru has made its Sekolah Online
Ruangguru program available for free on its app on Google Play and App Store. Starting on
Monday, the program allows students to join live teaching sessions from Mondays to Fridays
from 8 a.m. to 2 p.m. Fifteen live teaching sessions are available to be selected, on all
subjects for elementary and senior high school students. Participants will be able to join live-
chats during sessions and discuss the subjects with other students. The sessions are also
available to be watched later on after 12 p.m. at the same day. Students can also use other
features for free, such as Bank Soal and Online Tryout. Additionally, Ruangguru provides
Pelatihan Guru Online (online teacher training) on the app for free for one month. Around
250 videos and training modules are available for teachers to learn about different topics,
including class management and project-based learning implementation.
Sekolahmu is a technology-based school that implements blended-learning system,
meaning that it has integrated learning activities with technology and a school-like
ecosystem. It also has offline and online learning programs tailored to the students' needs.
Following the temporary closure of schools, Sekolahmu is providing home-learning classes
for preschool and senior high school students for free. "We've also facilitated schools and
teachers to teach based on the curriculum in more flexible ways," said Radinka Qiera,
director of Sekolahmu. (wir/wng)

1. The author would apparently agree that…

A. The effort of central government in educational system has been appreciated by many
parents.
B. The management of learning at home in pandemic condition has to be wisely
considered by the local government.
C. Seven online learning platforms for students can assist them study from home
comfortably.
D. Learning at home during pandemic can be merely conducted and finished by online
learning platforms.
E. The local authority has never been involved in creating online learning platforms due
to the different overview to overcome it.

2. Which of the following best restates the sentence 'Sekolahmu is a technology-based

school that implements a blended-learning system, meaning that it has integrated
learning activities with technology and a school-like ecosystem' in the passage?
A. The teachers should be initially introduced about the integrated learning activities
with high technology
B. The blended and integrated learning system must consider the school ecosystem
which involving the role of teachers and students to use its technology
C. The role of parents at home can't be separated to supervise students using technology

41
 at home when they are learning
D. The participation of school authorities has been appreciated by the parents in
improving technology in the classroom
E. Not only the teachers but also parents and students will be informed about the
implementation of the integrated learning system

3. What topic does the paragraph preceding the passage most likely discuss?
A. The class management to supervise the students
B. The integrated of technology into curriculum
C. The strict of supervision in the classroom
D. The implementation of learning through technology
E. The traditional learning situation in the classroom

4. The author highlights the importance of Technology-based online learning platforms in

Indonesia followed by....
A. exposing the supporting of certain authorities in learning at home
B. presenting some e-learning platforms that can be easily accessed by the public
C. elaborating the main function of learning technology at home
D. showing to the public how technology is important part of our living
E. mentioning some accuracy of distance learning technology

5. Based on the passage, it can be hypothesized that the existence of technology - based
online learning platforms in our country, it ...
A. can be automatically applied in transforming knowledge to students
B. should be wisely used by the school authorities and parents
C. will assist and encourage students to continue their education independently
D. ought to be compelled to public to recognize the technology
E. could be perfectly implemented in big and metropolitan cities

Questions are 6-10 based on this following text.

The COVID-19 pandemic has forced people to engage in new habits, including learning,
working and conducting other activities online from home, causing a surge in the use of
internet data.

To help conserve internet data, Gadjah Mada University (UGM) information technology
expert Ridi Ferdiana has shared some tips on how to operate gadgets efficiently to avoid
spending extra money.

"Savings can be made through two approaches: gadget and application approaches," Ridi said
as quoted in a statement made available to The Jakarta Post recently.

He said the gadget approach was related to the available default features that were already
active or could be activated on computers and smartphones - the two gadgets that most
students use to access online teaching and learning activities.

42
Saving internet data on smartphones, he added, could be done by activating data-saving
features, namely data limit and billing cycle, then turning off the auto-sync feature, auto
download feature and background data feature.

He also suggested internet users update applications manually and selectively.

"Stream less or watch at a low resolution of 5 Mbps," said Ridi, who is also head of the
undergraduate information technology study program at the university's School of Technical
Engineering.

He continued that on a computer, saving internet data could be done by activating the
metered connection while tethering, then set the data limit, restrict background data and turn
off automatic updates and the auto-sync facility.

Data saving through an application approach, he said, could be done by using data
compression while using browser applications. Then, when in a video conference/meeting,
turn off the video and audio facilities, and turn them on only when needed.

"Reduce the video resolution to 720 pixels, because high-resolution video/HD is relatively
data consuming," he said.

He added that turning off auto-upload and notification facilities on social media and using
only data-saving applications also help conserve internet data consumption.

For example, for WhatsApp, users can choose WhatsApp Lite instead, or for Skype they can
pick Skype Lite.

Salsabila Ramadhani, a student of UGM's School of Engineering majoring in geodetic

engineering, said the online lecturing activities that she had been engaging in for the last two
semesters had indeed forced her to spend more money on internet data packages.

"Alhamdulillah *Thank God+, since last month I have been receiving 50 GB of free internet
data per month from the Education and Culture Ministry's learning quota program," said
Salsabila, referring to the free internet data provided by the ministry, which she received after
registering for it through the university's website. (swa)

6. What is the topic of the passage?

A. Central government has effectively contributed to online learning for children in
isolated area
B. Online learning system has been swiftly encouraged by UGM expert since 2020
C. UGM expert shares tips on conserving internet data during pandemic
D. Education and culture ministry will always support all government schools to hold
distance learning
E. One of outstanding universities in Indonesia has encouraged government to do online
learning during pandemic

7. The main information of the text will be closely related to…

A. Modern lifestyle

43
 B. Art and culture
C. Education system
D. Distance learning
E. Science and technology

8. The author would apparently agree that…

A. Saving internet data can be made through two approaches: gadgets and application
approaches
B. Conserving internet data is only supported by high technology and expensive
smartphones
C. Sophisticated technology is always applied on distance learning in pandemic
situation
D. The government has ignored the teacher role in developing online learning
E. The local government merely encourages private schools in supporting distance
learning

9. What is the first step for us if we want to save internet data on our computer?
A. Reducing the data limit
B. Restricting the background data
C. Updating and continuing the recent data
D. Activating the metered connection while tethering
E. Activating and updating data saving features

10. The author’s attitude regarding conserving internet data during pandemic is …
A. Cynical
B. Sceptical
C. Informative
D. Neutral
E. Comparative

Questions are 11-13 based on this following text.

Today's technology is designed to make life easier. In the past, we had to use a book and a
pen or a pencil to write things down, but now we tend to turn to a note-taking application on
our smartphones or laptops.

Despite the modern conveniences, [Link] reports that writing by hand is actually good
for the brain as it improves cognitive abilities.

Deborah Dewi, an expert in handwriting analysis, said that there was a significant difference
between processing information by typing or writing, saying that the more people use their
hands to write, the more the brain cognitive area is improved.

She also mentioned that hand-writers are more likely to remember better than those who use
devices to take notes, explaining that writing by hand is considered more complex when
compared with typing as it involves different parts of the body, including fingers and arms,
stimulating different areas of the brain.

44
"Have you ever felt like your brain goes blank? That's because our mind is overloaded," said
Deborah, the only Indonesian graphologist recognized by the American Association of
Handwriting Analysts (AAHA) and the American Handwriting Analyst Foundation (AHAF).

She said that writing by hand could also help to empty the mind.

Deborah suggested bringing back a handwriting culture, saying that typing was not supposed
to eliminate handwriting. (jes/wng)

11. Based on the passage, it can be hypothesized that we write a lot by hand, …
A. it can support our general knowledge
B. it will be effectively used for learning
C. it can improve our cognitive abilities
D. it will strengthen our writing skill
E. it will widen our performance in front of public

12. Today's technology is designed to make life easier (paragraph 1). Which is the activity
not related to the statement?
A. Online grocery shopping
B. Safer online payments
C. Improved healthcare
D. GPS makes it easy to get lost
E. Instant answers to everything

13. Despite the modern conveniences, [Link] reports that writing by hand is actually
good for the brain as it improves cognitive abilities. The joining of the two sentences
states... meaning.
A. Contradictive
B. Augmentative
C. Comparative
D. Cause effect
E. Superlative

Questions 14-16 are based on the following text.

China Great Wall is the longest building ever made by human which is located in
Tiongkok or China. The Great Wall of China is considered as one of seven wonders in the
world. In 1987, this building was listed in the world treasure site of UNESCO. The great wall
is not only long, but it is also a collection of short walls which follow the shape of North
Tiongkok mountain range. On April 18, 2009, the government of China announced after the
accurate investigation that this great wall has length 8,851 km.
In 2009, the department of survey and mapping and the department of culture treasure
of China conducted a research to recount the length of the great wall. The result of the
research showed that the great wall was longer than what is already known. According to the
count, the overall length reached 8,850 km. that project also had found the other parts of wall
in which the length is 359 km, ditch 2,232 km, and also the natural gate like hills and river
2,232 km. The average length of China great wall is 5000 km. The Great Wall of China is

45
called as human- made building which can be seen with bare eyes from the space. However,
after it is investigated by the astronauts, that perception is wrong. From the low orbit, human-
made building such as road, ship, and city is indeed can be seen, but when it goes through the
earth on thousands of feet height, nothing can be seen, including the Great Wall of China.
The first China astronaut who went to the space in 2004, Yang Li-wei, also stated that
he couldn't see that building. Perception about the great wall which was seen from the space
already became a myth. Even, it is written in the China school book. The earliest evidence
was written by an antique stuff’s collector from England, named William Stukeley in 1754
which compared the Great Wall of China and Hadrian Wall in England by stating that
Hadrian Wall could only be defeated by the great wall of China, which was the most
important building in the world, so that it could be seen from the moon. The book of Richard
Halliburton, an adventurer from America in 1938 entitled "Second Book of Marvels" made
people more believe that the Great Wall of China could really be seen from the space.
The history of the walls building was to limit the city areas and residents' house. The
other theory also said that it is for being the defense fort, the sign of limitation and line of
communication to deliver message. The beacon tower was used to deliver military message
by making smoke signal in the afternoon and fire at night to inform the enemy movement.
This is one of the most important parts of the Great Wall, and this structure was made in
every part of Great Wall by using local material. In the mountain area, there were bricks
arranged on meadow or desert which was made of clay. The shape can be round, oval, or
square. There are three kinds of tower, one which was built on the wall, in the wall, or
separated to keep eyes on the enemy.

14. It is clear from the passage that the author’s purpose of writing the passage above is to …
A. Highlight the designing and the history of the walls building
B. Describe the buildings of China Great Wall specifically
C. Expose the function of one of seven wonders in the world
D. Demonstrate how the amazing building of the China Great Wall
E. Explain the achievement of China in constructing the great wall

15. The history of the walls building was to limit the city areas and residents’ house. The
underlined word can also be replaced by …
A. Reach
B. Isolate
C. Border
D. Surround
E. Arrange

16. Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
A. There are three kinds of tower; one which was built on the wall, in the wall, or
separated to keep eyes on the enemy
B. The structure of the great wall was amazingly made by using local material
C. The great wall of China is considered as one of seven wonders in the world
D. After being investigated and convinced by the scientists, the Great Wall of China can
be easily noticed with bare eyes from the space
E. The beacon tower was used to deliver military message by making smoke signal

46
Read the table below
Vito and Maahs, 2015. Most social problems, particularly violent
and antisocial behaviors, result from
criminal actions. Several factors such as
inadequate housing, poverty, high levels of
social inequality, low self-esteem, and low
educational attainment might be the
significant causes of individual involvement
in criminal behaviors. The above types of
criminality are related to an increased risk
of conviction due to other factors such as
environmental, psychological, and social
issues.
Robert and Burgess, 1920. The criminology to sociology and presented
ideas on concentric zones where individuals
try to engage themselves in criminal
activities than others. The school also
suggests that offenses tend to be initiated by
older criminals whom individuals may be
related to either professionally or
personally.
Chyna Goodwin, 2021. Society develops social control, which they
use to prevent and sanction behaviors that
violate social standards. The U.S has
informal and formal social control whereby
informal social control deals with actions
that violate informal norms and later control
behaviors violating the formal norms.
McCaghy et al., 2016. In most cases, deviance involves behaviors
that violate social norms and lead to adverse
social reactions. Some characters in society
are considered harmful by the authority,
which leads to the creation of written laws
that prohibit such behaviors.
Piquero et al., 2015. Several trajectories make an individual
perform delinquent behavior at higher rates
than other trajectories. The theory
determines possible trajectories such as
biological, psychological, sociological,
behavioral, and environmental, leading
people towards delinquent behaviors.

17. What is the similar topic that discussed in the table above?
A. Level of social interraction
B. Social problem behavior
C. Criminality in environment
D. Illegal activities by teenager
47
 E. Theories of crime

18. Who said that violence often results in individuals straying from established societal
expectations, prompting negative social responses?
A. Vito and Maahs, 2015.
B. Robert and Burgess, 1920.
C. Chyna Goodwin, 2021.
D. McCaghy et al., 2016.
E. Piquero et al., 2015.

19. Which is the idea that unmatched with what the researchers said?
A. The social problems can be affected by many factors both internal and external of
each individual.
B. It is need to make a social control in society to avoid the crime that might occur.
C. The violence usually happens to violate the social norm.
D. There are many ways to lead people in doing crimes.
E. The social issues mainly done by the highschoolers.

20. From the table above, we can know that …

A. Punishment is the best option to make people not commit crimes within the society.
B. The illegal actions resulted from the surroundings such as their social and economic
status.
C. The analysis of criminal activities and behavior is important to define the implication
of rules in society.
D. Social-historical and geographical location examines how people's development in
character.
E. Criminals cannot control themselves either due to mental or physical disability, that
is why norm is needed.

48
 EXERCISE 4
Read the text below to answer the questions

According to UNODC's World Drug Report 2021, cannabis potency has quadrupled
in some parts of the world over the last two decades. Meanwhile, the percentage of
adolescents who perceived the drug as harmful fell by as much as 40 per cent. This
perception gap prevails despite evidence that cannabis use is associated with a variety of
health and other harms. This is especially among regular long-term users. Moreover, most
countries have reported a rise in the use of cannabis during the pandemic.
"Lower perception of drug use risks has been linked to higher rates of drug use. The
findings of UNODC's 2021 World Drug Report highlight the need to close the gap between
perception and reality to educate young people and safeguard public health," said UNODC
Executive Director, Ghada Waly.
The COVID-19 crisis has pushed more than 100 million people into extreme poverty.
It has greatly exacerbated unemployment and inequalities as the world lost 255 million jobs
in 2020. Mental health conditions are also on the rise worldwide. These factors have the
potential to encourage a rise in drug use disorders. Moreover, changes have already been
observed in drug use patterns during the pandemic. This includes increases in the use of
cannabis and the non-medical use of pharmaceutical sedatives. Underlying socioeconomic
stressors have also likely accelerated demand for these drugs.
In parallel, the report reveals that drug traffickers have quickly recovered from initial
setbacks. These initial setbacks have been caused by lockdown restrictions. The drug
traffickers are operating at pre-pandemic levels once again. The rise in the use of technology
and cryptocurrency payments which are used to operate outside the regular financial system
drives it.
Access to drugs has also become simpler than ever with online sales. Major drug
markets on the dark web are now worth some $315 million annually. Contactless drug
transactions such as through the mail are also on the rise. A trend is possibly accelerated by
the pandemic. Drug traffickers are now agile and adaptable in using new online platforms to
sell drugs and other substances. The combination of this situation and rapid technological
innovation may increase the availability of illicit drugs.
Adapted from [Link]

49
1. Which of the following best restates the sentence "This perception gap prevails despite
evidence that cannabis use is associated with a variety of health and other harms." in
paragraph 1?
A. The perception of the danger of cannabis on a variety of health and other harms
varies.
B. There is a perception that cannabis is beneficial although it has a variety of health
and other harms.
C. Despite evidence indicating cannabis use is linked to health and other consequences,
the perception gap persists.
D. Cannabis proves its positive impact on health and other harms; therefore, its use
keeps increasing.
E. The views about cannabis keep changing whereas its use is still associated with
destruction.

2. The author’s attitude regarding cannabis is …

A. Supporting
B. Neutral
C. Loving
D. Thankful
E. Patronizing

3. This passage can be generally found in …

A. A popular magazine
B. A scholarly journal
C. Conference proceedings
D. Reference works
E. A newspaper report

The text below to answer the questions number 4-7

Is it important to know what your kids are watching? Of course. Television can
expose things you have tried to promote them from, especially violence, pornography,
consumeristic. A study demonstrated that spending too much time to watching TV during the
day or at bedtime often causes bedtime disruption, stress, and short of sleep duration.
Another research found that there is a significant relationship between the amount of
time spent for watching television during adolescence and early adulthood, and the possibility
being aggressive. Meanwhile, many studies have identified a relationship between kids who
watch TV a lot and being inactive and overweight. Considering some facts mentioned above,
protect your child with the following tips:
1. Limit television viewing to 1 – 2 hours each day
2. Do not allow your children to have a TV set in their bedroom
3. Review the rating of TV shows that your children watch
4. Watch television with your children and discuss what happening in the show

50
4. What is the text about?
A. The program shown on TV
B. Watching TV is disadvantageous
C. The effects of watching television on kids
D. Reviewing the ratings of TV shows is important
E. The importance of knowing the program watched by our children

5. The following are the effects of watching TV a lot EXCEPT ....

A. Stress
B. Being active
C. Being aggressive
D. Bedtime disruption
E. Shorten sleep duration

6. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the text?

A. All TV programs are good for children
B. Children know what programs to watch
C. It is good for a kid to watch TV all day long
D. It is very important for children to have a TV set in their bedrooms
E. Spending too much time for watching TV may cause kids inactive

7. It is hard for a child to sleep because ....

A. The parents review TV’s program
B. The parents limit the time to watch TV
C. The kid watches TV with his/her parents
D. The kid watches too much TV at bedtime
E. The kid discusses the program with his/her parents

The text if for questions 8-10

Maura, who liked to be thought of as the most beautiful and powerful queen of
Arabia, had many suitors. One by one she discarded them, until her list was reduced to just
three sheiks, all equally young and handsome, rich and strong. It was very hard to decide who
would be the best of them.
One evening, Maura disguised herself and went to the camp of the three sheiks, as
they were about to have a dinner, and asked them for something to eat. The First gave her
some leftover food; the second gave her some unappetizing camel’s tail; the third sheik, who
was called Hakim, offered her some of the most tender and tasty meat.
After dinner, the disguised queen left the sheik’s camp. The following day the queen
invited the three sheiks to dinner at her palace. She ordered her servants to give each one
exactly what they had given her the evening before. Hakim, who received a plate of delicious
meat, refused to eat it if the other two could not share it with him, and this act finally
convinced Queen Maura that he was the man for her.

51
 “Without question, Hakim is the most generous of you”, she announced her choice to
the sheiks, “So, it is Hakim I will marry”.
8. The three sheiks were not ....
A. Rich
B. Young
C. Kind
D. Strong
E. Handsome

9. Which statement is TRUE about the queen?

A. The queen was the most powerful queen in Africa
B. The queen was very proud of her beauty and riches
C. The queen herself served the sheiks with delicious food
D. The queen was very careful in deciding whom she would marry
E. The queen was very satisfied with the food given by the sheiks

10. “Without question, Hakim is the most generous of you”, she announced her choice …. .
The bold word has similar meaning to?
A. Liberal
B. Plentiful
C. Kind-hearted
D. Open-minded
E. Paradox

Text below is for questions number 11-15

Scientists have discovered the bones of what may be the largest meat-eating dinosaur
ever to walk the earth. The discovery was made by a team of researchers from Argentina and
North America in Patagonia, a desert on the eastern slopes of the Andes in South America.
Besides the interesting fact that the dinosaur was huge and horrifying, it is even more
astounding that the bones of a number of the dinosaurs were found together. This discovery
challenges the prior theory that the biggest meat-eaters lived as loners and instead indicates
that they may have lived and hunted in packs. The Tyrannosaurus Rex, lived in North
America and was believed to hunt and live alone.
The newly discovered meat-eater appears to be related to the Giganotosaurus family,
being as closely related to it as a fox would be a dog. It is actually not of the same family at
all as the Tyrannosaurus Rex, being as different from it as a cat is from a dog.
The fossilized remains indicate that the animals lived about 100 million years ago.
With needle-shaped noses and razor-sharp teeth, they were larger than the Tyrannosaurus
Rex, although their legs were slightly shorter, and their jaws were designed to be better able
to cut body of their prey into pieces quickly and precisely.

11. The main information of the text is about …

A. the discovery made in Patagonia
B. the research on dinosaurs

52
 C. the bones of dinosaurs
D. the types of dinosaurs
E. the meat-eating dinosaur

12. The bones of the dinosaurs discovered recently shows that the newly-discovered
dinosaurs.....
A. are closely related to those living in North America
B. have the same bone structure as those of foxes and dogs
C. eat their prey in neat pieces due to the shape of their jaws
D. lived a hundred million years earlier than other dinosaurs
E. belong to the same family and original as th Giganotosaurus

13. The researchers found the bones of a new type of dinosaur in......
A. Argentina.
B. The Andes Forests
C. North America
D. South America
E. East Patagonia

14. Which of the following is true about the newly discovered dinosaurs?
A. They are called Tyrannosaurus Rex.
B. They liked living as loners.
C. They are called Giganotosaurus.
D. They used to live in groups.
E. They were not as huge as other dinosaurs

15. From the text we may conclude that.

A. The jaws of dinosaurs were shaped the same
B. Dinosaurs' characteristics and way of life are different
C. North America was the origin of all dinosaurs
D. Dinosaurs could not live together with their own kind
E. All dinosaurs have the same bones and the same height

Read the passages below

Text 1
One of the most famous carnivals in the world is in New Orleans, USA. It is called Mardi
Gras, which is French for 'Fat Tuesday', the day when people would traditionally eat up all
the fat before starting the Lent fast. The celebration in New Orleans lasts around two weeks,
with a parade every day. Groups of people, called 'krewes', dress up in special costumes and
ride on decorated floats. They throw small gifts to the people watching, especially strings of
beads. There are also many balls, especially masked balls. Mardi Gras is very popular with
tourists, and it is estimated that well over a million people visit every year to join the
celebrations.
Text 2
The carnival in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, is considered the biggest in the world, with around two
million people celebrating on the streets each day. Rio Carnival is famous for its samba music

53
and for the amazing costumes and floats. In 1984, the government decided to give the
carnival a special stadium, called the Sambadrome, where people could buy tickets to go and
see the parades. However, there are still plenty of street parties and parades happening all
over the city.
The parades are a kind of competition and the samba 'schools', or groups, are judged on their
costumes, dancing, floats and music. Some samba schools spend millions of dollars on their
preparations, but it is estimated that carnival makes over $40 million from ticket sales and
advertising.
16. What is the relation between Text 1 and Text 2?
A. It is about the parade of each country
B. It is about the carnival in the city
C. It is about the celebration of the area
D. It is about the amazing costumes and floats
E. It is about the parties in the city

17. What role does geography play in shaping the atmospheres of Mardi Gras in New
Orleans and Rio Carnival in Rio de Janeiro?
A. Geography has no impact on the carnival celebrations.
B. Both are influenced similarly by their geographical locations.
C. New Orleans' location is more influential than Rio de Janeiro's.
D. Rio de Janeiro's location is more influential than New Orleans'.
E. The geographical factor is crucial for Mardi Gras but not for Rio Carnival.

18. In what ways do the cultural influences of French traditions in New Orleans and
Brazilian samba in Rio de Janeiro contribute to their carnival celebrations?
A. French traditions and Brazilian samba equally shape both carnivals.
B. French traditions have a more significant influence on Mardi Gras.
C. Brazilian samba has a more significant influence on Rio Carnival.
D. Both carnivals are minimally influenced by their respective cultures.
E. The cultural influences are irrelevant to the carnival celebrations.

19. How do the traditions of 'krewes' in New Orleans and the competitive nature of samba
'schools' in Rio de Janeiro impact the dynamics of their carnivals?
A. Both 'krewes' and samba 'schools' contribute equally to carnival dynamics.
B. 'Krewes' have a more significant impact on Mardi Gras dynamics.
C. Samba 'schools' have a more significant impact on Rio Carnival dynamics.
D. Both elements have a minimal impact on their respective carnivals.
E. 'Krewes' and samba 'schools' are not relevant to carnival dynamics.

20. What is the similar meaning of “floats” in text 2 paragraph 1?

A. Travel
B. Hover
C. Aircraft
D. Cart
E. Cork

54
 EXERCISE 5
Read the text below to answer the questions
Generally, by people’s own accounts, the public idea of women at home is that they
are dull and boring. The stereotype of a working woman is of hard, ambitious, selfish
creatures. It is not just that you are either gen, and dull or selfish and interesting. It is that you
are either a good mother or you are an interesting woman.
‘Young women now seem to get a very clear picture that they have got a choice. If
they are going, to mothering well, they have got to pay for it by not being interesting women.
If you are an interesting working woman, you are a bad mother.’ Lyn Richards puts the blame
for such notions and for resulting family tensions the failure of people to talk enough about
them. The media, too, are guilty. ‘There is a lot of media coverage successful career women
and still a lot, especially in women’s magazines, on the joys of motherhood. There’s no that
much about the trouble of either role and precious little about combining the roles. Yet half
the women who a married in our society are working.’
Nor is much thought given to the task of loosening the ties entrapping men. Lyn
Richards, a working mother grateful for the privilege of genuinely choosing and being able to
afford the role, criticizes the systematic exclusive of men from ‘child rearing and the really
pretty fabulous aspects of having children’. She condemns as ludicrous the idea of the 9 to 5
treadmill of work as an absolute duty for men. ‘The sheer irony to me is that the women
movement has told women the way to be liberated is to get into the 9 to 5 tied work force that
men have be fighting against for a century. Really, we should be using changes in women’s
values to shake up all the oppression and rigidity that men have been under.’
Indeed, there has been a change. ‘The new thing since I married is that it’s normal for
both husband and wife to go on working when they marry. Now marriage isn’t a particularly
big deal. Very often it just legalizes something which has been going on anyway and it
certainly doesn’t change a women’s whole basis of life, hermotion of yin she is. The real life
change is raving the first child and when that happens I think that probably most couples at
still reverting to something like the traditional concept of marriage. But the longer people put
off having a child more likely it is that they won’t because they have set up a viable life style.
They don’t need to have kids now to have a good marriage.’
Not that motherhood and raising families are wholly going out of fashion but rather
that people are having smaller families. Consequently, the period in a woman’s life when she
is not required to devote herself to mothering is lengthening. ‘Motherhood - the mother role -
just isn’t a very good identity base today,’ Lyn Richards says ‘Motherhood is a short-terns
appointment now. It doesn’t last long.’
1. The expression combining the roles in ‘... precious little about combining the roles.’ (line
11) in the passage means ....
A. being either a married or a career woman
B. working both in an office and at home
C. serving the family and doing office work
D. enjoying motherhood and caring for the family
E. having a dual role of mother and career woman

55
2. The passage mainly deals with women’s ....
A. alternative role
B. social function
C. natural interest
D. fundamental duty
E. main responsibility

3. A relevant question that can be raised out of the passage would be ....
A. What characterizes a good working woman?
B. How could men and women build eternal marriage?
C. What ways are there to keep a family harmonious?
D. Why would the role of a woman in mothering not last long?
E. What requirements should the working women fulfill?

4. Lyn argues that in rearing children in a family?

A. women’s role should be more dominant
B. both men and women are equally responsible
C. men’s role should be put into account
D. working women share equal work distribution
E. men’s role should be excluded

5. If Lyn is correct, in the future women in families of younger generations …

A. have less children to care for
B. make up career individuals
C. will be more prosperous
D. are more individualistic
E. share an equal responsibility
Read the text below to answer the questions
Sometimes experience in other countries can help people to understand their own
identity better. Mahatma Gandhi was born 1869 at Portandar in Western India, after studying
in India, he dreamt of going to England to study. He was told that his Hindu religion did not
allow voyages abroad. However, Gandhi was very determined and he filially left for England
in 1887. At first he tried to learn to behave like an English gentleman, but he soon learn that
it was better to be himself. He studied law in London, qualifying in 1891. He also learnt
about other religions.
He returned home to India and worked as a lawyer for two years. After some
problems, he was offered a job in South Africa. Here he experienced racism as a member of
the Indian community. He decided to fight for the rights of Indians using “passive
resistance”. He had three main beliefs, namely nonviolence, religious tolerance and truth.
When he finally returned to India in 1915, he became a great political leader. During the fight
for independence he was often put in prison, but his beliefs never changed.
Gandhi had studied in Britain, so he understood the British better than they
understood him. Gandhi’s leadership led to independence, but on Independence Day, 15

56
August, 1947, Gandhi refused to celebrate. He was in favor of Hindu-Muslim unity but
Muslims and Hindus could not agree, so a separate Muslim state was formed in Pakistan. In
1948, Gandhi started fasting to death as a protest against fighting between India and Pakistan.
He was assassinated by a Hindu fanatic on 30th January 1948. India and Pakistan are still
fighting in Kashmir today. The fight for independence was a difficult one, but not as difficult
as the fight for nonviolence, religious tolerance and truth.
6. The following statements are true about Mahatma Gandhi, except ...
A. Mahatma Gandhi is studying in Britain was against Hinduism principles.
B. Mahatma Gandhi believed in nonviolence, religious tolerance and truth.
C. Mahatma Gandhi learned and understood about some religions well.
D. Mahatma Gandhi fought hard for unity of his nation.
E. Mahatma Gandhi did not like the idea of Hindu-Muslim unity in India.

7. The passage above mainly deals with Mahatma Gandhi’s ....

A. search for principles of his three main beliefs
B. fighting against racism in South Africa
C. political career as an important national leader
D. experience to identify his life principle
E. political struggle for India’s independence

8. We can infer from the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi, except ....
A. he understood Hinduism and Islam equally well
B. he knew well the characteristic of English people
C. he had good knowledge issues
D. he had the hardest time fighting for independence of his nation
E. he experienced racism when he was in South Africa

9. Mahatma Gandhi got his university degree in ....

A. 1887
B. 1947
C. 1915
D. 1948
E. 1891

10. The word nonviolence in ‘He had three main beliefs, nonviolence, religious tolerance and
truth’ (line 9 10) can best be replaced by ...
A. favorable conducts
B. peaceful actions
C. political spirits
D. religious prejudices
E. passive behaviors

The text below is for questions 11-12

Due to the cases of Salmonella food poisoning in Europe, the sale of duck eggs reached its
lowest point in the 1970’s. Although it was never conclusively shown that duck eggs were to
blame, the egg-eating public stopped buying and many egg producers went bankrupt. Indeed,

57
there is a risk of Salmonella poisoning when ducks lay their eggs in damp conditions, such as
on ground that is constantly wet, but the same can be said for the eggs of hens. Moreover,
commercial duck production in France and England, where the outbreaks of Salmonella
poisoning took place, followed the same standards as those used in the hen industry, which
experienced no Salmonella problems. Storage of eggs, whether those of hen or duck, can also
be a factor in contamination. Studies have found that bacterial growth reaches potentially
dangerous levels at storage temperatures of 50 °C or greater.
_____________________________________ _____________________________________
_____________________________________ _____________________________________
11. What is the topic of the paragraph?
A. Salmonella food poisoning as tile cause of the collapse of duck business in Europe.
B. The increase of commercial duck egg production in Europe in 1970.
C. The effects of Salmonella food poisoning on the sale of duck eggs.
D. Ways to increase the sale of duck eggs in Europe in 1970’s.
E. Wet ground and had storage system of eggs as the causes of Salmonella food
poisoning.

12. With which of the following sentences should the paragraph end?
A. Yet, it has never been clear what caused Salmonella food poisoning in the 1970’s.
B. Because of these, many duck egg producers stopped their business in the 1970’s.
C. As a result, eggs which are laid in damp conditions can cause Salmonella food
poisoning.
D. Consequently, it was also possible that the food poisoning was caused by the bad
storage system of eggs.
E. Therefore, wet ground and bad storage system of eggs could be the causes of
decreased sale of duck eggs the 1970’s
The text below is for questions 13-20
The first ancient DNA sequences to be gathered-34000 base pairs from a 2400-years-
old Egyptian mummy-were a proof of principle. A full genome sequence would be more far
more informative-perhaps explaining what killed King Tut, for instance. At present, Inuk’s is
the only published ancient human genome. However, a team led by Svante Paabo and Green
at the Max Planck Institute for Evolutory Anthropology in Leipzig, Germany will soon
publish the complete genome sequence combined together from several Neanderthals, from
between 38,000 and 70,000 years ago.
Neanderthals are not the only hominids whose genomes could be sequenced, says
Willerslev. Homo erectus, a species that emerged in Africa about 2 million years ago,
survived in East Asia until less than 100.000 years ago. If well preserved bones from Spain
belonging to Homo heidelbergensis, the predecessor to Neanderthals. “We are basically
starting on it right now,” he says. If theses genomes ever materialize- and that’s a big if- they
branched off. If the genetic information is good enough, it may tell us something about the
nature of past people-possibly even what they looked like. Ancient human genomes could
give us insights into the evolution of our species, explaining when genes involved in disease
and higher cognitive skill emerged.

58
 But DNA is not forever. As it ages, its long strands shred into ever smaller pieces.
Eventually they become small to reassemble, and all information is lost. “There seems to be a
time horizon of 100.000 years under most preservation conditions during which intact DNA
survives,” Green says. Stephan Schuster at Pennsylvania State University, who led wooly
mammpeth genome project, thinks ancient genomics is already plateauing. Large chunks of
Inuk’s genome.
13. With reference to the whole text, the writer mainly deals with topic on .…
A. DNA research on the Neanderthals.
B. The past life of the Neanderthals.
C. The use of ancient DNA in anthropology.
D. The role of DNA fossil studies.
E. DNA engineering in the Max Planck Institute.

14. The writer is mainly of the opinion that tracing, ancient humans’ life using their DNA
.…
A. Is technologically possible though it has natural challenges.
B. Promises a new horizon of understanding past illness.
C. Is a new breakthrough in modern anthropological studies.
D. Provides a better picture of old peoples DNA structures.
E. Requiring a longer chain of complete DNA sequences.

15. The physical look of hominid species can even be reconstructed using the DNA
technology under the condition that .…
A. The DNA forms a solid fossil in a good shape.
B. The genetic information in the DNA is high quality.
C. The DNA had not been smaller in chunk
D. The sequence of the DNA pieces is systematic.
E. The DNA sequences can be easily reassembled.

16. Based on the text, the following would be the kind of information that could be revealed
about ancient people through modern genome analysis, except…
A. Typical illness.
B. Thinking potentials.
C. Evolutionary phases.
D. Migratory directions.
E. Nutritional patterns

17. Based on the text, soon Darwin’s human evolution theory will be most likely empirically
validated, if contemporary DNA analysis are supported by the following factors,
except.…
A. More discovery of early human remains.
B. Modern genomic laboratories.
C. Expertise associated with ancient DNA.
D. Better management in fossil excavation.
E. Availability of complete ancient human genomes

59
18. What is the significance possible of the 34,000 base pairs gathered from a 2,400-year-old
Egyptian mummy in terms of ancient DNA research?
A. What does the 34,000 base pairs from a 2,400-year-old Egyptian mummy
demonstrate about ancient DNA research?
B. In terms of ancient DNA studies, why are the 34,000 base pairs from a 2,400-year-
old Egyptian mummy important?
C. Why is the collection of 34,000 base pairs from a 2,400-year-old Egyptian mummy
considered a crucial development in ancient DNA research?
D. What role does the 34,000 base pairs from a 2,400-year-old Egyptian mummy play in
advancing ancient DNA studies?
E. How does the 34,000 base pairs from a 2,400-year-old Egyptian mummy contribute
to the progress of ancient DNA research?

19. What challenges and limitations are associated with the preservation of ancient DNA,
and how might these impact the future of genomic research on ancient hominids?
A. Discuss the obstacles and constraints linked to the preservation of ancient DNA and
their potential effects on future research into the genomes of ancient hominids.
B. Elaborate on the difficulties and limitations related to the conservation of ancient
DNA and their implications for upcoming studies on the genomes of ancient
hominids.
C. What are the challenges and drawbacks connected to the longevity of ancient DNA,
and how might they influence forthcoming investigations into the genomes of
ancient hominids?
D. Explore the difficulties and constraints associated with ancient DNA preservation
and their potential impact on future genomic inquiries into ancient hominids.
E. Describe the hurdles and restrictions in preserving ancient DNA and discuss how
these factors could shape the direction of future research on the genomes of ancient
hominids.

20. What insights can be gained from sequencing the complete genomes of Neanderthals and
other ancient hominids, and what are the potential implications for understanding the
evolution of the human species?
A. Examine the potential insights derived from sequencing complete genomes of
Neanderthals and other ancient hominids, and their implications for understanding
human evolution.
B. Investigate the possible revelations obtained by sequencing the complete genomes of
Neanderthals and other ancient hominids, and the impact on comprehending the
evolution of the human species.
C. What can we learn from sequencing the entire genomes of Neanderthals and other
ancient hominids, and how might this knowledge contribute to our understanding of
human evolution?
D. Analyze the insights that may emerge from the complete sequencing of Neanderthals'
and other ancient hominids' genomes and the potential consequences for
understanding the evolution of the human species.

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E. Delve into the potential revelations resulting from the complete sequencing of
Neanderthals' and other ancient hominids' genomes and their implications for
unraveling the evolution of the human species.

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 EXERCISE 6
Read the text below to answer the questions
More than one-third of foreign students graduating from Australian universities,
mainly Asians. have such poor English skills they should never have been admitted, research
showed. A study by demographer Bob Birrell found that more than 50 percent of South
Korean and Thai students did not have sufficient English to work professionally in Australia,
along with more than 43 percent of Chinese graduates. Some 17 percent of students from
Singapore and India, where English is more widely spoken, also failed to reach the required
level. Overall, 34 percent of the graduating foreign students offered permanent residence
visas in 2006 did not have competent English.
Birrell of Melbourne’s Monash University, said almost all the 12,000 graduates tested
for the survey were from Asia because these students are the most likely to apply for
permanent residency on completing their studies. However, he said that he believed the study
to be representative of all foreign students, partly because Asia was a major source of fee-
paying overseas students for Australian universities. ‘It does raise questions about university
standards,’ Birrell told AFP. Tertiary institutions are reliant on international students because
they provide 15 percent of funding, leading to suggestions that academic standards are
sacrificed in favor of financial rewards.
Education Minister Julie Bishop described the survey as “an extraordinary attack by
Professor Birrell on our universities.” ‘International students must meet international
benchmarks in language in order to get a place in a university in Australia,’ she said. The
study found all graduates tested had enough command of the language to cope in most
situations. ‘But people who have reached this standard are still not capable of conducting a
sophisticated discourse at the professional level,’ it said.
In his report, Birrell said there was a “mountain of anecdotal material” that many
overseas students struggle to meet their course requirements and that universities cope by
lowering the English demands of the courses. ‘There is widening recognition of the English
problem,’ he said. ‘But universities were hesitant to make students take extra language
courses because this would make them more expensive and therefore less attractive than rival
institutions,’ he said. However, Professor Gerard Sutton, the president of the Australian Vice-
Chancellors Committee, said most foreign students would be proficient in reading, writing
and listening to English. ‘What I think has been highlighted is a deficiency in spoken
language told AFP, adding that a deficiency in this area would not prevent them from
completing a university course.
1. The respondents of the survey were ....
A. students entering Australian universities from Asia
B. all foreign students graduating from Australian universities
C. mostly Asian students who graduated from Australian universities
D. foreign students at graduate programs in Australian universities
E. Australian and foreign graduates of all Australian universities

2. This passage is probably taken from ....

A. a demographic report for the Australian Ministry of Education “

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 B. a handbook for foreign university students in Australia
C. an article in the education column of a newspaper
D. a brochure about tertiary education in Australia
E. a popular life-style magazine for young people

3. Which of the following statements is FALSE about Asian students studying in Australian
universities?
A. Most of these students do not meet the requirements for Australian universities.
B. Students from Singapore and India are better in their English that, those from China.
C. They pay the highest fees for their education compared to other foreign students.
D. There is no problem for graduating foreign students to get permanent resident visas.
E. Australian universities consider Asian students as the major source of their income.

4. From the text we can infer that Australian universities ....

A. are lowering their standards to get more foreign students
B. are making it easier for Asian students to learn English
C. are willing to provide English language courses for students
D. are hesitant to admit students with insufficient English skills
E. don’t require foreign students to take courses in English

5. The minister of Education thinks that the report is an attack on Australian universities
because it ....
A. was made to undermine the position of the Australian Minister of Education
B. could damage the good reputation of Australian universities
C. aims at destroying the image of the universities accepting foreign students
D. has been published without getting the approval of the Ministry of Education
E. shows that Australian universities are not successful in teaching Englis

Read the text below to answer the questions

Some have to do with the environment. For example, coffee that is grown in the shade
supports a wide variety of bird species. But few or no birds live among plants grown in full
sun. For this reason, many people support the “shade” method of growing coffee. Other
issues are related to labor. Although coffee consumers often lead very comfortable lives, in
the coffee-producing communities of Latin America and Africa, life can be very difficult,
with hard physical work, little income and few basic services. History shows us that violent
conflict can occur when groups fight each other for control of important resources such as oil,
gold, and water. Sadly, areas where coffee is grown are sometimes also places of political
unrest and hardship.
6. With which of the following sentences should the paragraph begin?
A. There are several methods of producing coffee.
B. Latin America and Africa are coffee producing countries.
C. Coffee-production methods are influenced by certain factors.
D. Several issues are related to the production of coffee.
E. Growing coffee depends on various required conditions.

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7. What is the paragraph following the above text most probably about?
A. The causes of various problems existing in the coffee plantation.
B. The economic and political problems that exist in the coffee producing areas.
C. How coffee producers should handle the conflict among their workers.
D. The easy and happy life of the coffee consumers in big cities.
E. How to implement the “shade” method of growing coffee to save bird species.

The text below is for questions 8-10

(1) Vaccines are developed to fight diseases. (2) For example, when the disease bacteria are
dead, or they have lost their danger, they can be used for good purposes. (3) Pasteur
discovered that inactive ‘bacteria, if introduced back into the body by means of inoculation,
car, have beneficial effects and speed up the development of our natural defences, the
antibodies are of fighting and blocking an invading disease. (4) So the same bacteria that
produce a disease can also produce in us the extra defences our both heads to fight against the
disease. (5) Louis Pasteur was the great French chemist and biologist who saved a nineyears
old boy from Alsace in France.
8. The sentence which is irrelevant to the topic in the text above is sentence number ....
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

9. The main information of the text tells us about ....

A. how vaccines protect people from a disease
B. the use of dead bacteria for vaccines
C. what Pasteur did to kill active bacteria
D. the inventor of the first vaccine
E. when vaccines are needed to fight disease

10. Which term from the text can be used as a synonym for "inactive" in the context of
Pasteur's discovery about bacteria and their beneficial effects on the development of
natural defenses against diseases?
A. Dormant
B. Lethal
C. Virulent
D. Potent
E. Active

Read the text below to answer the questions

Further research, conducted by Dean Mobbs, then at Stanford University in
California, uncovered a second point of activity in brain’s limbic system associated with
dopamine release and reward processing-which may explain the pleasure felt once you “get”
a joke. Examining on particular part of the limbic system-the ventral striatum-was especially

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revealing, as its level of activity corresponded with the perceived funniness of a joke. “It’s
the same region that is involved in many different types of reward, from drugs, to sex and our
favourite music,” says Mobbs, now at the MRC Cognition and Brain Sciences Unit in
Cambridge, UK. “Humour thus taps into basic reward systems that are important of our
survival”.
Yet humor a far more multifaceted process than primeval pleasure like food. In
addition, the two core processes of getting the joke and feeling good about it, jokes also
active regions of the frontal and cingulated cortex, which are linked with association
information, learning and decision making. The team also found presenting humans and, in a
less developed form, great apes. Indeed, the fact that these regions are involved suggest that
humour is an advanced ability which may have only evolved in early human, says Watson,
who conducted the research.
No two brains are the same, however, and how these differences are reflected in our
sense of humour is the subject of much research. Men and women, for example, seem to
process jokes slightly differently. Although both sexes laugh at roughly the same number of
jokes, women show greater activity in the left prefrontal cortex than men. “This suggest a
greater degree of executive processing and language-based decoding,” says Mobbs. As result,
women take significantly much longers than men to decide whether they find something
funny, though that does notseem to spoil their enjoyment of the joke. Indeed, women show
greater response in the limbic system than men, suggesting they feel a greater sense of
reward.
11. Which of the following statements in the text above contains an opinion?
A. Basic rewards system associated with humor are vital to human continued existence.
B. The interior cingulated cortex and the frontinsular cortex region belongs to humans.
C. Woman’s limbic system reacts more responsively that men’s does to a humor
stimulus.
D. Different types of reward like drugs and our favorite music are linked to the ventral
stratum.
E. Joke funnies relates with the amount of dopaminesrelease an reward processing.

12. The part that comes before the text would most likely describe .…
A. Mobb’ssamestudy conductedonhumans’ brain limbic system sensitiveness.
B. Another activity found in brain’s limbic system of Mobbs’ different system.
C. A researcher’s study other than Mobb’s on another activity found in the brain limbic
system.
D. The importance of conducting a study on responses by humans’ brain limbic system.
E. The timely reaction of humans’ brain limbic system to perception on humor.

13. The scientistssee that the internal mechanism in a human’s brain related with enjoyment
in having a good meals are .…
A. More explainable thanthose inperceiving a joke.
B. Less observable than pleasures in getting a prize.
C. As quick as those in seeing funniness of a joke.
D. More complex than those in perceiving a joke.
E. Less clear than those of enjoyment in winning a prize

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14. Humor is worth in these four facest, except .…
A. Experiencing the sense of the humor itself.
B. Having good feelings about the humor.
C. Activating parts of the frontal and cingulated cortex.
D. Enhancing activities in two humans’ cortex areas.
E. Triggering more dynamic responses in all cells.

15. Which chart below most Kelly indicates the response time needed by women and men to
laugh a joke?

A.

B.

C.

D.

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 E.

Read the text below to answer the questions

Forget lions, tigers, and bears. When it comes to the art of war, army ants are among
the most frightening creatures on earth. With powerful mouth parts, these fighters can
skilfully cut creatures much larger than themselves into pieces. Acting together in great
numbers, army ant colonies succeed at making tens of thousands of such kills each day. Their
capabilities do have limits, though. Contrary to popular belief, they almost never take down
large animals or people.
One of the best places to observe army ants is Barro Colorado, an island in a lake
created by Panama Canal. The island is home to as many as 50 colonies of Eciton burchellii,
the most studied army ant in the world. It is one of 150 types of army ants in the New World;
more 170 other types live in Asia, Africa, and Australia.
The colonies of this army ant are huge, ranging from 300.000 to 700.000 ants. They
never stay in one place, moving from nest site to nest site. Linking legs together, they use
their own bodies to form enormous nests called bivouacs, which they hang beneath a fallen
tree. There they stay for about 20 about 20 days as the queen lays as many as 300.000 eggs.
When the ants go hunting as many as 200.000 of them leave the nest in a group that
broadens into a fan as wide as 14 meters. This swarm raid takes a slightly different course
each day, allowing the hunter to cover fresh ground each time.
Protecting the ants wherever they go are soldiers, recognizable by their oversized
jaws. If their frightening looks do not scare enemies away, soldiers also have a powerful bite
and the attack is often suicidal. Because their jaws are shaped like fishhooks, the soldiers
cannot pull them out again. Amazonian tribes have used soldiers ants to close wounds,
breaking off the bodies and leaving the head in place.
Eciton burchellii are blind and cannot see what is a head of them, but they move
together in such great numbers that they can easily kill the non army ants, insect and other
small creatures that constitute their prey. When the groups happen upon a break in the path,
ants immediately link legs together and form living bridges so that the groups can move
forwards without any delay.
In Japanese the word ant is written by linking two character: one meaning "insect",
the other meaning "loyalty". Indeed, individual ants are completely loyal to their fellow ants.
They display many examples of selfless cooperation that, while certainly extreme, cannot fail
to win human admiration.

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16. In which lines of the text does the author mention the sight of army ants?
A. 2-3
B. 11-12
C. 16-17
D. 18-19
E. 20-21

17. Which of the following statements about soldier ants is not true?
A. People can use them to close wounds
B. They can see nothing a head of them
C. They have powerful bites
D. They lay many eggs
E. They link their legs together to form a living bridge

18. The phrase “happen upon” (paragraph 6) is closest in meaning to ...

A. Meet
B. Find
C. Avoid
D. Need
E. Occur

19. “... Universities in Australia have been welcoming international students for more than a
century, and today most campuses boast an ethnic mix in the student body of 50 or more
nationalities …”
The word boast in the passage means ...
A. Promote
B. Allow
C. Offer
D. Possess
E. Praise

20. Which term from the passage is most synonymous with "skilfully cut creatures much
larger than themselves into pieces"?
A. Precisely sever
B. Expertly dissect
C. Carefully slice
D. Cautiously carve
E. Skilfully fragment

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 EXERCISE 7
Read the text below to answer the questions
Bipolar disorder is a brain disorder. It is also known as manic-depresssive illness. It
causes unusual shift mood, energy, and activity levels. It also affects the ability to carry out
day-to-day tasks. There are four basis type of bipolar disorder. All of them involve clear
changes in mood, energy, and activity levels. These moods range, periods of extremely "up"
to "down" periods. During the “up" periods one shows energized behavior. During "down"
periods he/she is very sad or hopeless. The "up" periods are known as manic episodes. The
down" period are known as depressive episodes. Less severe manic periods are known as
hypomanic episodes.
People with bipolar disorder experience periods of extremely intense emotion. They
also experience changes sleep patterns and activity levels. They show unusual behaviors.
These periods are called "mood episodes". Most episodes are extremely different from the
person's ordinary moods and behaviors. During the mood episodes there are extreme changes
in energy, activity, and sleep.
Sometimes a mood episode includes both manic and depressive symptoms this is
called an episode with features. People experiencing an episode with mixed features may feel
very sad, empty, or hopeless and extrem energized at the same time.
Bipolar disorder can be present even when the mood swings are less extreme. For
example, some people bipolar disorder experience hypomania, It is a less severe form of
mania. During a hypomanic episode, an indivie may feel very good. The person may not feel
that anything is wrong. However, family and friends may recognize mood swings. Without
proper treatment, people with hypomania may develop severe mania or depression.
1. The word "intense" in bold means...
A. Non-stop
B. Broad
C. Constant
D. Tough
E. Strong

2. One of the symptoms of manic episodes is feeling....

A. Very lively
B. Extremely happy
C. Really Powerful
D. Unusually strong
E. Awfully active

3. What are the four basic types of bipolar disorder, and how do they differ in terms of
mood episodes?
A. Hypomanic, depressive, mixed, and manic
B. Mild, moderate, severe, and extreme
C. Depressive, anxious, psychotic, and elated
D. Up, down, sideways, and erratic

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 E. Euphoric, dysthymic, cyclothymic, and melancholic

4. What potential consequences or risks are mentioned in the passage regarding individuals
experiencing hypomania without proper treatment?
A. Increased risk of hallucinations
B. Possible development of severe mania or depression
C. Enhanced cognitive abilities
D. Improved sleep patterns
E. Decreased energy levels

5. How does the passage describe the periods of extreme mood shifts experienced by
individuals with bipolar disorder, and what are these periods commonly referred to as?
A. Times of erratic behavior known as hyper episodes
B. Episodes of heightened mood swings referred to as mood fluctuations
C. Periods of intense emotion known as mood swings
D. Phases of excessive energy known as emotional roller coasters
E. Instances of euphoria referred to as mood bouts

Read the text below to answer the questions

Nowadays, our lives are practically dependent on the Information Communications
Technology (ICT). Data from the Communications and Information Ministry show that
Internet users in Indonesia increased from 74 million people in 2013 to 111 million in 2014.
In Indonesia. Internet burst has been mainly used for accessing social media. Indonesia
ranked third among countries with the highest number of Facebook users, below the US and
India.
The popularity of the Internet and social media unfortunately has not extended to the
education sector. ICT has not become a backbone of improving the country's competitiveness
through education. The Ministry of Education and Culture recorded that only about 50
percent of the 234,919 primary and secondary schools in Indonesia had access to the Internet
in mid 2014.
Advancement of ICT should ideally be able to revolutionalize education. Technology brings
new sources of learning beyond teachers. Moreover, the divide between students and subjects
is further narrowed by the availability of educational content through ICT. A revolution in
education is also possible through ICT as students can learn at the appropriate speed
according to their capacity. Interactive digital content allows students to pick particular topics
that they want to explore more. In a nutshell, there is a democratization of the learning
process.
Unfortunately, it is still a long road to revolutionize education in Indonesia through ICT. In
addition to building technology infrastructure across the country's island. ICT literacy for
teachers, parents and students is also of importance. Without it, we are constrained from
reaping the full benefits of ICT in education.
(Adapted from: [Link]
[Link])

70
6. What does the passage mainly deal with?
A. The access to ICT for Indonesian students
B. The positive impact of ICT on modern life
C. The use of ICT for life
D. The benefit of ICT for life
E. ICT and modern life

7. Based on the passage, the word ‘burst’ in paragraph 1 means …

A. Penetration
B. Connection
C. Presence
D. Benefit
E. Device

8. What word in the passage gives the idea that technology provides students with freedom
to use varied learning resources?
A. Democratization
B. Competitiveness
C. Revolution
D. Advancement
E. Importance

9. Which option best describes the author’s overall tone in this passage?
A. Optimistic
B. Pessimistic
C. Neutral
D. Critical
E. Enthusiastic

10. What level of importance does the author assign to ICT literacy for teachers, parents and
students?
A. High importance
B. Moderate importance
C. Low importance
D. Optimistic
E. Concerned
The text below is for questions 11-15
The integration of technology and media can enhance early childhood practice. Successful
integration of technology and media into early childhood programs involves the use of
resources such as computers and the internet in daily classroom practices. Truu integration
occurs when the use of technology and media becomes routine and transparent – when the
focus of a child or educator is on the activity or exploration itself and not on the technology
or media being used. Technology integration has been successful when the use of technology
and media supports the goals of educators and programs for children provides children with
digital tools for learning and communicating and helps improve child outcomes.

71
As the lives of children, parents, families, and educators are infused with technology and
media, early childhood classrooms can benefit from the possibilities of extending children's
learning through judicious use of these tools. As part of the overall classroom plan,
technology and interactive media should be used in ways that support existing classroom
developmental and educational goals rather than in ways that distort or replace them. For
example, drawing on a touch screen can add to children's graphic representational
experiences; manipulating colorful acetate shapes on a light table allows children to explore
color and shape.
By focusing on technology and interactive media as tools-not as ends in and of themselves-
teachers can avoid the passive and potentially harmful use of non-interactive, linear screen
media that is inappropriate in early childhood settings. Intentionality is a key to
developmentally appropriate use.
Exciting new resources in today's technology-rich world represent the next frontier in digital
learning for our youngest citizens. leaving it to talented educators and caring adults to
determine how best to leverage each new technology as an opportunity for children's learning
in ways that are developmentally appropriate.
(Adapted from: [Link]
11. The author holds an assumption that....
A. the interactive media as a learning tool should be used to replace the existing
classroom practice
B. the successful integration of new technology in education requires helpful and good
teachers
C. the benefits of technology and media in childhood classrooms can be achieved by
decreasing the use of those tools in teaching and learning
D. manipulating the colorful shapes to explore color and shapes using technology is the
best way to develop interactive learning
E. the use of paints, markers, crayons and other graphic art materials should be replaced
by the integration of technology and media

12. Which paragraph(s) explain(s) the importance of using technology and media wisely so
that it can support existing classroom practice?
A. 1
B. 2 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4
E. 4

13. How does the first sentence relate to the other sentences in paragraph 1?
A. The other sentences in paragraph 1 explain further the kinds of integration of
technology and media that can be of benefits to young learners.
B. The other sentences in paragraph I explain the impact of the integration of
technology and media in early education explained in the first sentence.
C. The other sentences in paragraph I are examples of the use of technology in
education.

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 D. The first sentence contains information that is contrary to the information in the other
sentences.
E. The other sentences vaguely support part of the statement in the first sentence.

14. The author would apparently agree that....

A. successful integration of technology and media is determined by the quality of the
computers and the connection of the Internet.
B. the integration of technology and media occurs when the teacher focuses only on the
technology itself
C. the successful integration of technology and media in early childhood education
really depends on good educators.
D. educators should be selective in choosing educational goals to be integrated with the
use of technology and media.
E. both passive and interactive uses of technology and media are needed as a key to
successful learning in early childhood settings.

Read the emails below to answer the questions

Text 1
Hi,
Sorry for sending this to all the staff in the company, but my list of people who are going to
the Signmakers’ Conference in Dartmouth is not up-to-date, so I thought I’d mail it to
everyone just to be on the safe side.
The company has agreed to pay for transport by rail which means you won’t have to drive
there yourselves. We’ve booked seats on the 0630 from Stanton Heath which goes direct to
Dartmouth. We should arrive there by 0845, and we can then share taxis to get to the venue,
which I understand is just a 15 minutes drive, so we should easily make the 0930 start.
Hotel accommodation has been booked at the Premium Inn, Dartmouth. The management
have agreed that all delegates should have their own rooms. It’s likely that some of you will
have singles, while others will have doubles and twins. I can’t take request for double rooms,
I’m, afraid. It will be the luck of the draw. All rooms will have en suites, and should be very
comfortable.
We’re planning return transport on the 2010 from Dartmouth which will get us back to
Stanton Heath at 2200.
I’ll be booking transport on Friday morning (14th March), so if you have any queries or
problems, make sure you contact me before then.
James Roxford

Text 2
Dear James

73
Sorry, I didn’t get back to you in time. I was off sick last week and didn’t get your message
until this morning. I hope you haven’t booked the train tickets yet. I’m planning to go to the
conference by car, as I’m not returning to Stanton Heath after the conference. I’m going on to
visit my family.
Is there any chance you can reserve a double room for me at the Premium Inn? I find it hard
to sleep in single beds.
Thanks
Mindy Jacques

15. James’s email was sent to:

A. Mindy Jacques
B. staff who are attending a conference
C. visitors to James’s company
D. everyone in the company
E. the family

16. Which of the following is true about the journey James has planned?
A. Delegates will take a different route on the return journey.
B. The delegates will arrive just after the conference starts.
C. The return journey is faster than the outbound journey.
D. The delegates will need to change trains on the outbound journey.
E. None above

17. When did Mindy send her email?

A. Monday (17th March)
B. Thursday (13th March)
C. Friday morning (14th March)
D. Friday afternoon (14th March)
E. Tuesday (18th March)

18. What is James likely to do after receiving Mindy’s message?

A. reserve a double room
B. buy another conference ticket
C. phone a taxi company
D. cancel a train ticket
E. reply for another text

19. The word up-to-date in the first text has a similar meaning with …
A. In touch
B. Vague
C. Fashioned
D. Aware of
E. Recent

74
20. The word “then” in “if you have any queries or problems, make sure you contact me
before then.” is refer to …
A. Monday (17th March)
B. Thursday (13th March)
C. Friday morning (14th March)
D. Friday afternoon (14th March)
E. Tuesday (18th March)

75
 EXERCISE 8
Read the text below to answer the questions
Having known the benefit of seasonal detoxification, it is then important for us to know how
to do it. The best way to begin a spring cleanse, and to optimize results, is to incorporate
cleansing and alkalizing foods, nutrients, botanicals, and mind-body healing practices into a
gentle program. Whether the cleanse lasts for three days, three weeks, or longer, these tips
can help align us with the seasonal transitions. They also allow healing and transformation to
spring forth naturally.
According to Traditional Chinese Medicine (TCM) philosophy, every season correlates to
different "elements" or organ systems in the body. For example, winter correlates with the
water element and the kidneys/bladder system. From a Western naturopathic perspective,
cold weather can put stress on your adrenal and thyroid glands. As a result, the blood
becomes more acidic and there is a build-up of lactic acid. This can lead to sluggishness,
muscle and joint pain, and arthritis.
Both Eastern and Western naturopathic medical systems agree that the transition from winter
to spring offers an ideal opportunity to shed extra weight. It is also a good time to gently
cleanse accumulated toxins from the body. This excess build-up can be the result of
numerous factors. The main causes include unhealthy diet, poor digestion, lack of exercise,
winter dehydration, normal metabolic processes, and environmental pollution.
In TCM, spring corresponds to the liver and the gall bladder. A gentle spring cleanse
effectively supports the liver's vital detoxification processes. It also eliminates toxins stored
in organs and tissues, helps shed excess weight, alkalizes the body, and gets your circulation
and energy moving. Digestion is improved and inflammation is reduced. Moreover, blood
sugar is balanced and immune functions better.
A cleansing diet is the most critical component of any detoxification program. Animal
protein, particularly red meat, should be minimized during a cleanse. It emphasizes on
lighter, organic plant-based proteins that are easier for the body to digest. Below are the
critical components of a detox diet which can help improve digestion and enhance
detoxification, resulting in greater energy and vitality.
(Adapted from: [Link]
1. The author’s attitude regarding detoxification is …
A. Doubtful
B. Positive
C. Critical
D. Realistic
E. Neutral

2. About seasonal detoxification, which topic does the paragraph preceding the passage
most likely discuss?
A. Its advantage
B. Its definition
C. Its side effect

76
 D. Its origin
E. Its process

3. According to the passage, the worse the environmental condition, the …

A. Harder people have to work to lower the level of toxins in their bodies
B. Longer the seasonal effect of detoxification people will experience
C. Higher the level of toxins people will have in their bodies
D. More components of a detox diet are needed
E. Longer detoxification program people will have to do

4. What is the best summary of the passage?

A. To achieve the best results, a detoxification program needs to be done in between
April and May. To do this, people need to combine cleansing with alkaline-based diet
that relies heavily on organic foods.
B. To obtain the best outcome for health, a detoxification program can only be done
during winter or spring for three days up to three weeks. An effective way to do this
is by combining cleansing and alkaline foods with light exercises.
C. Seasonal detoxification should be done during the transition from winter to spring
since it is the right time to get rid of toxins, shed extra weight and alkalize the body.
To do this, people should incorporate cleansing and organic plant-based diet and
combine them with mind-body healing practices.
D. Traditional Chinese Medicine (TCM) philosophy believes that seasonal
detoxification is a crucial practice for a holistic mind-body healing. This is because
every season correlates to our body differently. According to this philosophy, our
body is craving for a spring cleanse every year, and we must listen to our body.
E. Cleansing and alkalizing foods, nutrients, botanical and mind-body healing practices
are the foundations of Traditional Chinese Medicine. To incorporate a TCM
philosophy, every person must do a fast-cleansing program in the spring.

5. In the passage, what does the pronoun "it" in "it is then important for us to know how to
do it" refer to?
A. Seasonal detoxification
B. Spring cleanse
C. Optimal results
D. Gentle program
E. Alkalizing foods
Read the email below to answer the questions
Dear Mr. Thompson,
At Matino Wear, we appreciate you placing your order with us. Regrettably, there will be a
slight delay in the delivery because of the recent wildfire in the southern part of the country.
Unfortunately, the incident has caused several road closures. We are working closely with the
government and drivers to resume our regular deliveries as soon as possible. Notable
adjustments have already been made, as the employees who can't commute are advised to

77
work from home, and we expect to resume our deliveries at full capacity within 24 hours. We
can guarantee that your order will be shipped at the end of the week.
Please bear with us. As a token of our appreciation, all the shipping fees for this order will
not be charged, and the shipment of your next three orders will also be free of charge.
Thank you for your patience!
Best regards,
Stephen Warren
Customer Relations Manager
6. Why is the order late?
A. The payment has still not been received
B. The firm has used an inaccurate mailing address
C. The government has imposed sanctions on shipping
D. Unexpected circumstances have affected the delivery
E. The delivery was lost in track

7. What will Mr. Thompson receive?

A. A full refund of the price of the order
B. Free shipping on several orders in the future
C. Coupons for the next three orders
D. A free replacement for the items ordered
E. A gift from the company as an apologize

8. The word “adjustments” in bold can be replaced with ..

A. Situation
B. Movement
C. Accommodation
D. Adaptation
E. Conformation
Read the text below for questions 9-20
What is exploration?
We are all explorers. Our desire to discover, and then share that new-found knowledge, is
part of what makes us human – indeed, this has played an important part in our success as a
species. Long before the first caveman slumped down beside the fire and grunted news that
there were plenty of wildebeest over yonder, our ancestors had learnt the value of sending out
scouts to investigate the unknown. This questing nature of ours undoubtedly helped our
species spread around the globe, just as it nowadays no doubt helps the last nomadic Penan
maintain their existence in the depleted forests of Borneo, and a visitor negotiate the subways
of New York.
Over the years, we’ve come to think of explorers as a peculiar breed – different from the rest
of us, different from those of us who are merely ‘well-travelled’, even; and perhaps there is a
type of person more suited to seeking out the new, a type of caveman more inclined to risk

78
venturing out. That, however, doesn’t take away from the fact that we all have this enquiring
instinct, even today; and that in all sorts of professions – whether artist, marine biologist or
astronomer – borders of the unknown are being tested each day.
Thomas Hardy set some of his novels in Egdon Heath, a fictional area of uncultivated land,
and used the landscape to suggest the desires and fears of his characters. He is delving into
matters we all recognise because they are common to humanity. This is surely an act of
exploration, and into a world as remote as the author chooses. Explorer and travel writer
Peter Fleming talks of the moment when the explorer returns to the existence he has left
behind with his loved ones. The traveller ‘who has for weeks or months seen himself only as
a puny and irrelevant alien crawling laboriously over a country in which he has no roots and
no background, suddenly encounters his other self, a relatively solid figure, with a place in
the minds of certain people’.
In this book about the exploration of the earth’s surface, I have confined myself to those
whose travels were real and who also aimed at more than personal discovery. But that still
left me with another problem: the word ‘explorer’ has become associated with a past era. We
think back to a golden age, as if exploration peaked somehow in the 19th century – as if the
process of discovery is now on the decline, though the truth is that we have named only one
and a half million of this planet’s species, and there may be more than 10 million – and that’s
not including bacteria. We have studied only 5 per cent of the species we know. We have
scarcely mapped the ocean floors, and know even less about ourselves; we fully understand
the workings of only 10 per cent of our brains.
Here is how some of today’s ‘explorers’ define the word. Ran Fiennes, dubbed the ‘greatest
living explorer’, said, ‘An explorer is someone who has done something that no human has
done before – and also done something scientifically useful.’ Chris Bonington, a leading
mountaineer, felt exploration was to be found in the act of physically touching the unknown:
‘You have to have gone somewhere new.’ Then Robin Hanbury-Tenison, a campaigner on
behalf of remote so-called ‘tribal’ peoples, said, ‘A traveller simply records information
about some far-off world, and reports back; but an explorer changes the world.’ Wilfred
Thesiger, who crossed Arabia’s Empty Quarter in 1946, and belongs to an era of
unmechanised travel now lost to the rest of us, told me, ‘If I’d gone across by camel when I
could have gone by car, it would have been a stunt.’ To him, exploration meant bringing back
information from a remote place regardless of any great self-discovery.
Each definition is slightly different – and tends to reflect the field of endeavour of each
pioneer. It was the same whoever I asked: the prominent historian would say exploration was
a thing of the past, the cutting-edge scientist would say it was of the present. And so on. They
each set their own particular criteria; the common factor in their approach being that they all
had, unlike many of us who simply enjoy travel or discovering new things, both a very
definite objective from the outset and also a desire to record their findings.
I’d best declare my own bias. As a writer, I’m interested in the exploration of ideas. I’ve done
a great many expeditions and each one was unique. I’ve lived for months alone with isolated
groups of people all around the world, even two ‘uncontacted tribes’. But none of these
things is of the slightest interest to anyone unless, through my books, I’ve found a new slant,
explored a new idea. Why? Because the world has moved on. The time has long passed for
the great continental voyages – another walk to the poles, another crossing of the Empty

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Quarter. We know how the land surface of our planet lies; exploration of it is now down to
the details – the habits of microbes, say, or the grazing behaviour of buffalo. Aside from the
deep sea and deep underground, it’s the era of specialists. However, this is to disregard the
role the human mind has in conveying remote places; and this is what interests me: how a
fresh interpretation, even of a well-travelled route, can give its readers new insights.

9. The writer refers to visitors to New York to illustrate the point that
A. exploration is an intrinsic element of being human.
B. most people are enthusiastic about exploring.
C. exploration can lead to surprising results.
D. most people find exploration daunting.
E. the interest to explore New York.

10. According to the second paragraph, what is the writer’s view of explorers?
A. Their discoveries have brought both benefits and disadvantages.
B. Their main value is in teaching others.
C. They act on an urge that is common to everyone.
D. They tend to be more attracted to certain professions than to others.
E. They are moving to certain places continuously.

11. The writer refers to a description of Egdon Heath to suggest that

A. Hardy was writing about his own experience of exploration.
B. Hardy was mistaken about the nature of exploration.
C. Hardy’s aim was to investigate people’s emotional states.
D. Hardy’s aim was to show the attraction of isolation.
E. Hardy was the main character of the story

12. In the fourth paragraph, the writer refers to ‘a golden age’ to suggest that
A. the amount of useful information produced by exploration has decreased.
B. fewer people are interested in exploring than in the 19th century.
C. recent developments have made exploration less exciting.
D. we are wrong to think that exploration is no longer necessary.
E. the peak moment of the exploration in the century.

13. In the sixth paragraph, when discussing the definition of exploration, the writer argues
that
A. people tend to relate exploration to their own professional interests.
B. certain people are likely to misunderstand the nature of exploration.
C. the generally accepted definition has changed over time.
D. historians and scientists have more valid definitions than the general public.
E. the discovering of new things is important for certain people.

14. In the last paragraph, the writer explains that he is interested in

A. how someone’s personality is reflected in their choice of places to visit.
B. the human ability to cast new light on places that may be familiar.

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 C. how travel writing has evolved to meet changing demands.
D. the feelings that writers develop about the places that they explore.
E. the journey of the explorer when discovering new places.

15. Identify the synonym for “expeditions” as used in the passage

A. Journeys
B. Ventures
C. Excursions
D. Odysseys
E. Pioneering

16. The phrase “isolated groups of people” can best restate as …

A. Segregated communities
B. Alone with local inhabitants
C. Solitary individuals
D. Remote social circles
E. Disconnected populations

17. In the context of the author’s expeditions, what does the term “Empty Quarter” refer to
A. Unexplored region
B. Isolated island
C. Desert landscape
D. Remote village
E. Polar region

18. According to the passage, what does the author, as a writer, find most interesting to
explore?
A. Uncharted territories
B. Isolated tribes
C. Exploration of ideas
D. Microbial habitats
E. Continental voyages

19. According to the author, why is exploration of the land surface now focused on details?
A. Lack of interest in grand voyages
B. The world has moved on
C. Discovery of isolated tribes
D. The era of specialist
E. Emphasis on deep-sea exploration

20. What specifically interest the author about conveying remote places?
A. Physical landscapes
B. Exploration of tribes
C. Human mind’s role
D. Continental voyages
E. The habits of microbes

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 EXERCISE 9
Text for number 1-7
Everyone has it tough during the COVID-19 pandemic, and we are all in the same boat – this
has been a common refrain throughout the crisis. It is true that we are all onboard the Titanic
together. However, some are riding first class, some are riding third class, and others are in
the galley below rowing... Oh, and there are not enough lifeboats to go-round.
In reality, the super-rich are not only shielded from this crisis by their wealth, which enables
them to shelter from the virus on superyachts or escape it on private jets, some are even
enjoying an unprecedented bounty during these difficult times. This is especially the case in
the United States.
During the coronavirus crisis, US billionaires accrued a huge windfall of more than 434
dollars bn in the two months between mid-March and mid-May. This comes at a time when at
least 40 million Americans are out of work, struggling to get by, and 256 million people
around the world are at risk of dying of hunger. while front-line workers risk their health
hand lives to keep society functioning and care for the sick, the biggest financial winner by
far is the world's richest man, Jeff Bezos, who has seen his fortune expand by nearly 35
dollars bn thanks to the surge in the value of his company Amazon, as people trapped in
lockdown have turned to online shopping.
Whenever anyone, including myself, criticises the obscene wealth of billionaires, there are
those who rush in to defend them, arguing that critics are just envious and that billionaires
deserve this success and earned their vast fortunes.
Like a superhero origin myth, there is a typical narrative that surrounds billionaires,
especially those in the tech industry. It goes something like this: X, working in their
bedroom/garage/dorm, came up with a brilliant idea, against the odds, brought it to market
and is now enjoying the fruits of their brilliance. However, is the acumen of these
entrepreneurs really worth so much more than everyone else’s labour – combined?
1. What does the expression “... others are in the galley below rowing” in paragraph 1
mean?
A. The ship is going to sink sooner than expected.
B. The lower class of society are preparing to riot and disrupt the situation.
C. The lower class of society are gravely struggling to get by.
D. The upper class is safe because society will eventually survive the crisis.
E. The upper class should support the lower class in the middle of crisis.

2. What is the purpose of paragraph 2 and 3?

A. To justify the sacrifices made by the lower class with economic growth
B. To show the indistinguishable situations between lower and upper class
C. To provide context of why the elites need to be protected for the economy
D. To exhibit the earnings of billionaires in the United States
E. To contrast the divergent situation between the elite class and everyone else

3. What can be inferred from the text above?

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 A. The socioeconomic inequality in the US is atrocious.
B. Billionaires are heartless sociopaths that leech off society, especially in the US.
C. The current economic system is detrimental to the upper class.
D. Socioeconomic inequality has slightly improved during the crisis.
E. During the crisis, the US economy came crumbling down.

4. Which paragraph shows the best evidence for the answer in the previous question?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
E. Paragraph 5

5. What is the writer’s stance regarding billionaires?

A. Billionaires should not exist to equalize society.
B. Billionaires should redistribute their huge wealth to society.
C. The elites do not deserve any of their wealth.
D. In the middle of crisis, they should stop gaining more profits.
E. The worthiness of their ridiculous wealth needs to be challenged.

6. The word ‘acumen’ in the last paragraph most nearly means ....
A. Belligerence
B. Intelligence
C. Immorality
D. Ineptness
E. Guile

7. According to the text, a part of the rich is revealing in even more wealth than any time
before the pandemic. Is this statement true? Which part supports this statement?
A. Yes, it’s mentioned that they’re shielded from the pandemic effect by their wealth.
B. No, it’s mentioned that more than 40 million people in the US are losing their jobs.
C. Yes, it’s mentioned that Jeff Bezos even added 35 billion dollars to his wealth during
the pandemic.
D. No, it’s not mentioned nor implied anywhere in the text that the rich are gaining more
than before.
E. Yes, it’s mentioned that some of the rich are even enjoying an unprecedented bounty.

Text for number 8-14

Do you play video games? If so, you aren't alone. Video games are becoming more common
and are increasingly enjoyed by adults. The average age of gamers has been increasing.
Changing technology also means that more people are exposed to video games. Many
committed gamers play on desktop computers or consoles, but a new breed of casual gamers
has emerged, who play on smartphones and tablets at spare moments throughout the day, like
their morning commute. So, we know that video games are an increasingly common form of
entertainment, but do they have any effect on our brains and behavior?

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Over the years, the media have made various sensationalist claims about video games and
their effect on our health and happiness. "Games have sometimes been praised or demonized,
often without real data backing up those claims. Moreover, gaming is a popular activity, so
everyone seems to have strong opinions on the topic," says Marc Palaus, first author on the
review, recently published in Frontiers in Human Neuroscience.
Palaus and his colleagues wanted to see if any trends had emerged from the research to date
concerning how video games affect the structure and activity of our brains. They collected
the results from 116 scientific studies, 22 of which looked at structural changes in the brain
and 100 of which looked at changes in brain functionality and/or behavior.
The studies show that playing video games can change how our brains perform, and even
their structure. For example, playing video games affects our attention, and some studies
found that gamers show improvements in several types of attention, such as sustained
attention or selective attention. The brain regions involved in attention are also more efficient
in gamers and require less activation to sustain attention on demanding tasks.
8. What can be inferred from the passage above?
A. Gamers are more likely to have brain damage due to the change in their brain
structures.
B. Given its benefits, gaming will now be continuously praised on the media.
C. Gamers will find it easier to focus on tasks that require a lot of energy or attention.
D. Gaming will continue to become increasingly popular and will render other forms of
entertainment useless.
E. Gamers are healthier and happier compared to people who don’t play video games.

9. Why does the writer use the word "sensationalist" in paragraph 2?

A. Because video games are getting more popular among adults
B. Because games have been praised and demonized
C. Because games have been covered a lot by the media
D. Because video games are a sensational phenomenon
E. Because the media has made extreme claims, usually with no actual evidence

10. What can we say about the author’s objective in writing this article?
A. The writer denies any claims on the negative effects of games.
B. The writer agrees that games ruin our brain functions.
C. The writer proves the media’s claims on the negative effects of games.
D. The writer explains how video games change the brain’s performance.
E. The writer shows that video games alter the brain’s performance and structure.

11. Which of the following questions cannot be answered by the passage?

A. How did the media frame video games over the years?
B. What are video games criticized for?
C. Are video games gaining popularity among adults?
D. Why are video games so polarizing?
E. What are the advantages of playing video games?

12. Which option uses the word "committed" in the same way that it is used in sentence 6?

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 A. Ken committed a peculiar and uncharacteristic mistake.
B. After throwing a tantrum in public, Amber is finally committed to a psych ward.
C. Felix is committed to continuing his study in the education field.
D. Charlie has committed much of his career is the gaming industry.
E. My family has been committed members of the city council.

13. What can we say about the result of the study?

A. The researchers collected the results from previous studies examining brain structure
and functionality.
B. More than changing how our brains perform, playing games can also alter brain
structure.
C. The study shows that gamers have better performance in conducting cognitive tasks
compared to non-gamers.
D. The number of gamers is increasing due to the inclusion of the new type of gamers
who play on mobile devices.
E. Playing video games on mobile devices can alter the functionality and structure of
the brain.

14. What is the significance of the expression “...but a new breed of casual gamers has
emerged...”?
A. To illustrate the important role of mobile gamers in the study
B. To introduce one of the types of gamers examined in the study
C. To introduce the group that promotes the expansion of video games
D. To specify which type of gamers is included in the study
E. To introduce the group of gamers that is on the rise in popularity

Text for number 15-20

Scientists from the Cetacean Ecology Group at the University of Queensland, and colleagues,
studied song patterns of humpback whales from various regions between 2009 and 2015 and
found that not only do they collaboratively create songs within a defined population, but they
also share those songs over the ocean waves, where they are picked up by disparate
populations from other regions. Over the six years scientists were observing whale
populations, they identified six unique songs which were transmitted eastward beginning with
the west Australian population and traveling to east Australia.
The songs follow a complex, language-like structure. Individual animals singcom positions
consisting of moans, cries, and other vocalizations called song units. Song units are
composed into larger phrases, which are repeated to form themes. Different themes are
produced in a consistent sequence to form a song cycle that are then repeated for hours, or
even days. Over time, songs evolve through small changes which are adopted by all singers
in a population. As a result, songs change year over year and vary by population.
It was proposed that song transmission might occur as humpbacks leave their breeding
grounds and migrate to foraging grounds close to Antarctica. On that journey, a male
humpback may end up swimming alongside males from another population. When they hear

85
his radically different song, they may borrow some themes or steal the entire song. They will
keep singing their new song when they return to their breeding grounds.
Notably, no one is certain why the whales sing. Most research suggests a courtship display, a
conclusion supported at least partially by the fact that singing is the exclusive ability of male
humpbacks. Embellishing a song may be a way for him to stand out. “These big changes
jump out of the water at us, to our ears,” Dr. Garland said. “So I would assume they would be
noticeable to females.”
15. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. Changes to humpback whale song may occur when males embellish their own song
through addition, substitution or deletion at any hierarchical level.
B. Humpback songs can morph and migrate within and between whale populations in a
stepwise fashion.
C. Underwater recordings have revealed that humpback males sing during migration
between breeding and feeding habitats.
D. Whale songs travel in a linear pattern with certain variances as some individuals are
sung differently with very minor differences.
E. When songs have significant changes performed by an individual whale, other pod
members apply the said changes.

16. All of the following can be inferred from the passage, except ...
A. Male humpback whales go through a cultural revolution by picking up new songs
when sharing the same space as other whales.
B. During the song, humpbacks produce an intricate series of sounds that can be
deconstructed into hierarchical elements.
C. Some song learning can occur between whale populations that are in close proximity
and may be able to hear the other population’s song.
D. Humpback whales can learn an entire song pattern from another population very
quickly, without leaving anything out.
E. One whale finds mating success by tinkering with the song style, the rest of the guys
imitate it to better their chances.

17. According to the passage, humpback songs have similar structure to that of a language
because ....
A. it is organized in a specific pattern using a clear set of rules
B. it displays variations among geographically separated populations
C. it can convey information and assert dominance with other males
D. it evolves and spreads across populations over course of years
E. it is made up of repeated phrases and themes

18. As used in the last paragraph, the word “embellishing” is closest in meaning to ....
A. taking something without permission and without intending to return it
B. forming something by putting parts together or combining elements
C. creating something more difficult by causing it to be more complex
D. making something more interesting by adding extra features
E. representing something as being than it really is

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19. It is most reasonable to conclude that the complexity of humpback songs can be analyzed
by measuring:
I. the sound the whales make
II. the length of the sound patterns
III. the duration of a song session
IV. the distance of whale migratory route
Which statements are correct?
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, and III
E. All of the above

20. “When they hear his radically different song, they may borrow some themes or steal the
entire song.” What meaning does the modal ‘may’ carry in this context?
A. It shows permission.
B. It shows suggestion.
C. It shows possibility.
D. It shows polite offer.
E. It shows ability.

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 EXERCISE 10
The text is for the following questions
Television was once the newest technology in our homes, and then came videos and
computers. Today’s children are growing up in a rapidly changing digital age that is far
different from their parents. A variety of technologies are all around us in our homes, offices,
and schools. When used wisely, technology and media can support learning children’s
relationships both with adults and their peers.
Based on some evidence by research, there has never been a more important time to apply
principles of development and learning when considering the use of cutting-edge
technologies and new media as the so-called interactive media. Interactive media refers to
digital and analog materials, including software programs, applications (apps), some
children’s television programming, e-books, the Internet, and other forms of content designed
to facilitate active and creative use by young children and to encourage social engagement
with other children and adults.
When the integration of technology and interactive media in early childhood programs is
built upon solid developmental foundations, and early childhood professionals are aware of
both the challenges and the opportunities, educators are positioned to improve program
quality by intentionally leveraging the potential of technology and media for the benefit of
every child.
This statement provides guidance for early childhood educators about the use of technology
and interactive media in ways that can optimize opportunities for young children’s
development. In this statement, the definition of technology tools encompasses a broad range
of digital devices such as computers, tablets, multi-touch screens, interactive whiteboards,
mobile devices, cameras, audio recorders, electronic toys, games, e-book readers, and older
analog devices still being used such as tape recorders, record and cassette players, projectors,
and microscopes.
By appropriately and intentionally using the technology of his day—broadcast television—to
connect with each individual child and with parents and families, it demonstrated the positive
potential of using technology and media in ways that are grounded in principles of child
development.
NAEYC and Fred Rogers Center. (2012). Technology and Interactive Media as Tools in
Early Childhood Programs Serving Children from Birth through Age 8 [PDF]. Accessed and
adapted on 11 July, 2022 from [Link]
shared/downloads/PDFs/resources/position-statements/ps_technology.pdf.
1. The author would apparently agree on the idea that ….
A. digital media can harm learning and relationships
B. technology provides children with enjoyable experiences
C. technology may bring more good than harm when it is used wisely
D. technology can influence the relationships between children and their friends
E. technology minimizes the potential for children’s learning and engagement with
others

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2. The author holds the assumption that ….
A. any forms of content designed to facilitate creative children to learn will challenge
them
B. interactive media are any kind of media that include hardware and artifacts of
education
C. the integration of technology and interactive media in childhood programs leads to
improved program quality
D. applying principles of development and learning of children is secondary in the use
of the interactive media
E. technology and media can be used to facilitate learning and establish better
relationships with other children and adults

3. What is the primary focus of incorporating technology and interactive media in early
childhood education?
A. Entertainment
B. Developmental foundations
C. Rapid technological changes
D. Parental involvement
E. Analog devices

4. Which devices are considered part of the definition of technology tools in early
childhood education?
A. Television only
B. Computers and tablets
C. Interactive whiteboards
D. Tape recorders and cassette players
E. All of the above

5. How can early childhood educators improve program quality when integrating
technology?
A. By prioritizing entertainment over education
B. Ignoring developmental foundations
C. Unawareness of challenges and opportunities
D. Intentionally leveraging technology's potential
E. Avoiding the use of interactive media entirely

The question is based on the following passage

Around 2.8 million Indian students sat university examinations from the end of August to
September 13 as the country approached the grim milestone of 5-million total COVID-19
cases. Despite pleas from civil society to defer examinations, including by Swedish climate
activist Greta Thunberg, a Supreme Court ruling on August 17 gave the government the
green light to keep the original schedule for the engineer and medical colleges entrance
exams.

89
The JEE and the NEET, how university exams for those two careers are called, are India’s
most competitive — they sprawl industries of their own, with preparation courses generating
millions of dollars annually. The court bench headed by Justice Ashok Bhushan said that “the
career of the students cannot be put on peril for long, and a full academic year cannot be
wasted.” The court will not hear any further petitions regarding postponing future exam
dates.
According to the Ministry of Education, 74 percent of the students registered to the first of
the JEE took the exam, while an above 80-percent attendance was observed for the NEET
exam. Students are now gearing up for the second stage of the JEE (the JEE Advanced),
which will take place on September 27. Protests against the exam date have dwindled since
the Supreme Court decision.
Manve, Vishal Yashoda. (2020). Millions of Indian Students Sit University Entrance Exams
After Government Disregards Protests to Postpone Them. Accessed on July 18, 2020 from
[Link]
exams-after-government-pushes-back-protests-to-postpone-them/.
6. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Indian students were reluctant to join university preparation courses.
B. Indian students were forced to sit the JEE and the NEET exam.
C. The JEE and the NEET are annually held by the Supreme Court.
D. The Supreme Court considered the pleas from society.
E. The university entrance tests were finally rescheduled.

7. Which statement is CORRECT based on the passage above?

A. The first stage of the JEE Advanced was held after September 27.
B. The exams may be postponed due to the protests against the exam date.
C. NEET is an entrance university test for both medical and engineering colleges.
D. Justice Ashok Bhushan wasn’t concerned about students’ academic and future
careers.
E. Many Indians demanded rescheduling the exams because of the high rate of COVID-
19 cases.

8. The author’s attitude towards the civil’s protest regarding the exam schedule is …
A. Critical
B. Positive
C. Objective
D. Subjective
E. Informative

The question is based on the following passage

Supply chain weaknesses were brought to the forefront during the COVID-19 pandemic,
especially for industries relying on electronics, as the flow of raw materials slowed or
sometimes stopped. On top of that, shifting consumer values and tougher environmental
regulations have resulted in more people buying hybrid vehicles. The batteries in these cars

90
require rare metals that, depending on their supplies, can have volatile and unpredictable
prices. However, there are other scarce elements and materials that may be used in smaller
amounts in hybrid models versus conventional gas vehicles, raising the question of how these
vehicles really compare with regard to supply chain vulnerabilities. Randolph Kirchain and
colleagues wanted to develop a comprehensive comparison of the elements and compounds
that go into all the parts in gas-powered, self-charging hybrid and plug-in hybrid cars,
calculating each of the three vehicles' materials cost vulnerability.
The researchers collected information on the compounds in the more than 350,000 parts used
to build seven vehicles from the same manufacturer with different levels of electrification,
including four sedans and three sport utility vehicles (SUVs). Then, they calculated the
amount of the 76 chemical elements present, as well as a few other materials, in each car
type. To develop a monetary metric for vulnerability, the team considered the weight of each
component, along with its average price and price volatility between 1998 and 2015. The
results showed that self-charging hybrid and plug-in hybrid vehicles have twice the raw
material cost risks. The largest contributors to the increase in cost risks were battery-related
elements, such as cobalt, nickel, graphite and neodymium. The researchers say that as
manufacturers ramp up electric vehicle production to meet demand, reducing raw material
cost risks with long-term supplier contracts, substituting some materials or recycling others
will be a good idea.
9. The author would apparently agree that the relationship between environmental
regulations and the purchase of hybrid vehicles in paragraph 1 is similar to the
phenomenon of ....
A. cars and traffic
B. oil and gas stations
C. people and vehicles
D. gasoline and transportation
E. modern life and electric cars

10. What is the primary conclusion of the research study on supply chain vulnerabilities in
different types of vehicles?
A. Gas-powered vehicles have the lowest supply chain vulnerabilities.
B. Self-charging hybrid and plug-in hybrid vehicles exhibit twice the raw material cost
risks compared to gas-powered vehicles.
C. Plug-in hybrid cars are less vulnerable to supply chain disruptions than self-
charging hybrid cars.
D. The study suggests increasing reliance on battery-related elements to mitigate
supply chain vulnerabilities.
E. The research emphasizes the importance of reducing overall vehicle weight to
address supply chain vulnerabilities.

11. What details were not explicitly mentioned in the summary, regarding the challenges
faced by the electronics industry during the COVID-19 pandemic and their implications
for supply chains?
A. The impact of supply chain disruptions on electronics manufacturing capacities.
B. Specific examples of electronic components that experienced shortages.

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 C. How shifting consumer values affected the demand for electronic products.
D. The measures taken by the electronics industry to address pandemic-related
challenges.
E. The role of government policies in mitigating challenges faced by the electronics
sector during the pandemic.

12. Were there any recommendations in the study regarding material substitutions for
reducing raw material cost risks?
A. The study highlighted the importance of material substitutions to mitigate raw
material cost risks.
B. The researchers suggested avoiding material substitutions due to potential drawbacks.
C. The study did not provide any recommendations on material substitutions.
D. Material substitutions were deemed unnecessary in the context of reducing raw
material cost risks.
E. The researchers recommended exploring material substitutions as a strategy to
mitigate raw material cost risks.

13. How did the study address the potential effects of raw material cost risks on consumer
preferences for hybrid vehicles?
A. The study indicated that raw material cost risks have no impact on consumer
preferences for hybrid vehicles.
B. Consumer preferences for hybrid vehicles were not considered in the study.
C. The study explored the potential effects of raw material cost risks on consumer
preferences for hybrid vehicles.
D. Consumer preferences for hybrid vehicles were found to be solely influenced by
shifting environmental regulations.
E. Raw material cost risks were deemed irrelevant to the study's focus on consumer
preferences for hybrid vehicles.

14. How does the study shed light on the importance of long-term planning and proactive
measures by manufacturers to secure raw materials for hybrid and electric vehicle
production?
A. The study recommends manufacturers to prioritize short-term solutions over long-
term planning for raw material procurement.
B. Long-term planning and proactive measures were deemed unnecessary in the study's
findings.
C. The study suggests that manufacturers need not be concerned about securing raw
materials for hybrid and electric vehicle production.
D. By emphasizing raw material cost risks, the study highlights the importance of long-
term planning and proactive measures for manufacturers in securing raw materials
for hybrid and electric vehicle production.
E. The study suggests that raw material procurement is not a critical factor for
manufacturers producing hybrid and electric vehicles.

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15. What role does the research play in emphasizing the need for manufacturers to address
supply chain vulnerabilities in the context of shifting consumer values and tougher
environmental regulations?
A. The research downplays the significance of addressing supply chain vulnerabilities in
the context of shifting consumer values and tougher environmental regulations.
B. The research suggests that manufacturers should prioritize other factors over
addressing supply chain vulnerabilities.
C. By highlighting the impact of shifting consumer values and environmental
regulations, the research emphasizes the need for manufacturers to address supply
chain vulnerabilities.
D. The research argues that supply chain vulnerabilities are independent of changing
consumer values and environmental regulations.
E. The research suggests that addressing supply chain vulnerabilities is only relevant for
gas-powered vehicles.
This text is for question number 16 to 20.
Elon Musk, the billionaire CEO of Tesla and SpaceX and a longtime Twitter provocateur,
now owns a 9.2 percent share of Twitter and has been offered a board seat at the company.
Parag Agrawal, Twitter’s CEO, wrote a welcome post on the platform today, noting that
Musk is “both a passionate believer and intense critic of the service, which is exactly what we
need on Twitter, and in the boardroom, to make us stronger in the long-term.”
According to a filing with the Securities and Exchange Commission, Musk’s board term will
expire in 2024. And as long as he continues to serve on the board, he cannot own more than
14.9 percent of the company’s common stock. Twitter’s move to appoint Musk a board seat
may be a tactic to prevent him from taking over the company by buying a controlling share.
As his investment was announced days after he publicly questioned the company’s
commitment to free speech and suggested that he might start his own social platform, several
outlets are speculating that Musk could be preparing to take on an activist investor role at
Twitter. Activist investors buy big shares in companies to influence how they’re run. A
traditional activist investor takes an important position in a company, installs board members
aligned with a certain point of view, and uses their new power to make financial and
operational changes with the goal of increasing the company’s share price.
Musk might seek to use his position to change Twitter products, content moderation rules
(what gets labeled and removed), and enforcement practices (such as when to deplatform a
user). In addition, he has also previously voiced his belief that users should be allowed to
choose what types of tweets they see and what order they see it in, challenging Twitter’s core
algorithm. This resonates with the interest expressed by many Twitter executives to
decentralize the platform and enable users to customize their own feed algorithms.
Adapted from [Link] with modifications
16. What is the main topic of the passage above?
A. changes in Twitter following Elon Musk’s appointment as a board member
B. Elon Musk’s views regarding how Twitter should run as a platform
C. appointment of Elon Musk as a strategy to prevent him from taking over
D. predictions around Musk’s appointment as a new board member of Twitter

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 E. Twitter’s transformation motivating Musk’s decision to be a board member

17. “Twitter’s move to appoint Musk a board seat may be a tactic to prevent him from taking
over the company by buying a controlling share.”

Which of the following uses the word “may” most similarly to the statement above?
A. If the anti-feminist candidate gets elected, he may use his power to abolish the law
that protects women.
B. Whenever a student feels sick, they may get excused from coming to class by
showing a doctor’s note.
C. I’m not sure where they will have their holiday this summer, they may go to Bali, or
go on a Europe tour.
D. Nobody knows what makes her do that, it may be her way to seek revenge on people
who betrayed her.
E. Since we are all done here, Jeno is asking if he may leave the party because he has
another appointment.

18. According to what Elon Musk believes mentioned in the text, Twitter users might be able
to do the following, except ….
A. speak their stance on Russian-Ukrainian war, regardless of what their views might be
on the matter
B. see the tweets on their feed in descending order according to the time the tweets are
posted
C. filter out tweets related to K-Pop because they don’t want those to interrupt their
anime-focused feed
D. not see the tweets coming from certain people who undermine the struggle of
marginalized people
E. modify the layout theme of their Twitter feed to their favorite American series, Game
of Thrones

19. What is the relationship between paragraph 1 and 2?

A. Paragraph 1 states a situation, paragraph 2 explains the motive behind the situation.
B. Paragraph 1 states an argument, paragraph 2 gives statements that strengthen it.
C. Paragraph 1 states an opinion, paragraph 2 provides an argument that opposes it.
D. Paragraph 1 states a situation, paragraph 2 provides the details of the situation.
E. Paragraph 1 states a situation, paragraph 2 gives the chronology of the situation.

20. Suppose we are adding a new paragraph to conclude the passage. What could the
paragraph be about?
A. Musk’s resolving a trouble for his past Tesla-related tweets on Twitter
B. The looming uncertainty about what Musk might do to the platform
C. Musk possibly making Twitter a platform with more freedom to its users
D. Musk’s next move to provide users with an edit button to their tweets
E. Twitter receiving criticism from lawmakers for restricting freedom of speech

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 EXERCISE 11
Read the passage below.
Malnutrition among children in refugee is a critical public health concern due to the
heightened vulnerability. The rate of malnutrition in refugees’ camp needs to be viewed as
not just a health issue but as a serious protection and access to basic rights failure. The
magnitude of acute malnutrition among refugee camps in Ethiopia is relatively well-
documented. A nutritional survey done in 2014 among south Sudanese refugee camps
showed that the prevalence of acute malnutrition was almost two-fold the emergency
threshold of 15%.
Acute malnutrition is not only a condition that kills but also has long term health and
developmental consequences among recovered children after receiving appropriate treatment.
These long-term consequences include an increased risk of stunted growth, impaired
cognitive development and a greater chance of developing non-communicable diseases in
adulthood. This demonstrates that it is of utmost importance to invest not only in the
treatment of acute malnutrition but also in its prevention.
The problem, as well as the solution to malnutrition, is multi-faceted. In addition to an actual
shortage of food; poor sanitation, a lack of available potable water, caring practices and
insufficient health services are all significant factors contributing to the population’s overall
nutritional status and health. There is no single silver bullet that will instantly eradicate
malnutrition from the refugee camps but only through a holistic approach and strong group
effort. Effective policies and programs to alleviate malnutrition requires an understanding of
the determinants of acute malnutrition in the refugee camps.
Adapted from: [Link]

1. Which of the following can best replace the word magnitude in “The magnitude of acute
malnutrition …” (paragraph 1)?
A. Capacity
B. Importance
C. Weight
D. Amount
E. Power

2. What is the primary focus of the text regarding malnutrition in refugee camps in
Ethiopia?
A. The long-term consequences of malnutrition
B. The prevalence of acute malnutrition in South Sudanese refugee camps
C. The multifaceted nature of the malnutrition problem
D. The need for immediate treatment of malnourished children
E. The specific causes of acute malnutrition in Ethiopian refugee camps

3. What is not explicitly mentioned in the text but can be inferred about the consequences
of acute malnutrition among recovered children?

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 A. Immediate recovery after treatment
B. Higher risk of infectious diseases
C. Improved cognitive development
D. Reduced chances of developing non-communicable diseases
E. The absence of any long-term effects

4. What is the overall message conveyed in the text regarding addressing malnutrition in
refugee camps?
A. Immediate treatment is the only solution to malnutrition.
B. Malnutrition is a complex issue requiring a holistic approach.
C. Long-term consequences of malnutrition are overemphasized.
D. Malnutrition is solely caused by a shortage of food.
E. The prevalence of malnutrition is decreasing in refugee camps.

5. How can the main idea of malnutrition in Ethiopian refugee camps be succinctly
summarized based on the information provided in the text?
A. Malnutrition is exclusively a health issue in Ethiopian refugee camps.
B. The primary concern in Ethiopian refugee camps is the immediate treatment of
malnutrition.
C. Malnutrition in Ethiopian refugee camps is not just a health challenge but a failure in
protecting and ensuring basic rights, requiring a comprehensive approach.
D. Ethiopian refugee camps primarily face a shortage of food, contributing to the
malnutrition crisis.
E. The text emphasizes the long-term consequences of malnutrition rather than
addressing its immediate treatment and prevention.

Read the passage below.

When exploratory divers discovered the underwater Mexican cave site known as Hoyo
Negro, the conditions of the cave were so pristine and stable, but there was evidence that at
least one person had been inside the cave before the divers: A Paleoamerican girl nicknamed
Naia, who had fallen to her death while presumably collecting water from the cave during the
late Pleistocene era, between 13,000 and 12,000 years ago. The divers found her skeleton, as
well as the remains of several Ice Age animals, on the cave floor. According to Rissolo and
project co-director, James Chatters, it was like the La Brea tar pits without the tar.
This remarkable discovery represents the first and only example of human remains found in
direct association with extinct megafauna in the Americas, says Rissolo, who is a visiting
scholar at UC San Diego from the Waitt Institute and a research associate at the Scripps
Institution of Oceanography. The remains of two gomphotheres (extinct elephant-like
creatures), two Shasta ground sloths, a pair of saber-toothed cats and numerous other animals
were also found with Naia in the underwater pit, which measures 200 feet in diameter and is
located in the far Southeast of the country, on the Yucután Peninsula.
Computer science Ph.D. student Vid Petrovic – a member of the Center’s Integrative
Graduate Education and Research Traineeship (IGERT) program in cultural heritage
diagnostics – is using photos taken by the scientific dive team to create 3D structure-from-

96
motion (SfM) models of the cave site, and he has used the same technique to recreate Naia’s
mandible.
SfM is an imaging technique that, in this case, uses two-dimensional photographs taken
underwater at the cave site. Petrovic tracks and aligns features in the photos (such as corner
points) to ‘stitch together’ and reconstruct the objects digitally in 3D.
Rissolo says that given the proper lighting, camera set-up and protocols, SfM is a relatively
straightforward and cost-effective imaging and visualization method, especially for
documenting archaeological sites that are not easily accessible or are threatened with
destruction, either natural or human-derived.
Adapted from: [Link]

6. According to the text, what remains are not found in Hoyo Negro? The remains of…
A. Gomphotheras
B. Elephants
C. Shasta ground sloths
D. saber-toothed cats
E. Paleoamerican girl

7. How would you describe the author's tone in presenting the discovery of Hoyo Negro
and the Paleoamerican girl Naia?
A. Objective and impartial
B. Humorous and sarcastic
C. Emotional and sentimental
D. Critical and judgmental
E. Informative and analytical

8. What is the primary purpose of the passage?

A. To entertain readers with a fictional story about an underwater cave.
B. To provide a detailed analysis of underwater cave ecosystems.
C. To inform readers about the discovery of the Paleoamerican girl Naia and the Hoyo
Negro site.
D. To persuade readers to participate in future archaeological expeditions.
E. To criticize the methods used by the scientific dive team in exploring the cave.

9. What information is provided in the paragraph preceding the passage?

A. Details about the author's background and qualifications.
B. An overview of the Hoyo Negro cave site and the discovery of Naia.
C. The geological features of the Yucatán Peninsula.
D. A discussion on the challenges faced by underwater exploratory divers.
E. Information about the history of the La Brea tar pits.

10. In the passage in paragraph 1 “The divers found her skeleton, as well as the remains of
several Ice Age animals, on the cave floor”, to whom does the pronoun "her" refer?
A. The Paleoamerican girl Naia

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 B. The computer science Ph.D. student Vid Petrovic
C. The project co-director James Chatters
D. The gomphotheres (extinct elephant-like creatures)
E. The scientific dive team

Read the text to answer the questions

In the southeastern Pacific Ocean, on the piece of land known as Easter Island (now a
territory of Chile), stand several hundred massive stone monoliths. These carvings, called
“moai,” are recognizable by their oversized heads, with their heavy brows, long noses,
elongated ears, and protruding lips. While they average four meters in height and 12.5 tonnes,
the largest is almost 10 meters tall and the heaviest weighs a full 86 tons. The upright
sculptures are scattered around Easter Island, many installed on platforms called “ahu” along
the coast, while others are more inland and several stand near the main volcanic quarry of
Rano Raraku. The Rapa Nui people of the island built a total of 887 of these impressive
statues between the 12th and 16th centuries. They were, it is said, symbols of religious and
political authority, embodiments of powerful chiefs or ancestors which faced inland toward
the island’s villages, perhaps watching over their creators, keeping them safe.
While the very creation of such monoliths – most out of volcanic ash with stone hand
chisels – is an impressive feat, what is more remarkable (not to mention mysterious) is
how they were transported to their resting places. In the past, most researchers associated
the building and transportation of the moai with widespread deforestation on the island and
eventual collapse of the Rapa Nui civilization. This hypothesis is based, in part, on the fact
that the pollen record suddenly disappears at the same time as the Rapa Nui people stopped
constructing the moai and transporting them with the help of wooden logs. How exactly
would logs facilitate the movement of the statues? Most proponents of this method believe
that the people created “rollers” by arranging parallel logs on which the prone statues were
pulled, or pushed. They would not have required an entire roadway of logs, since logs from
the back could be placed at the front, creating a moving platform of sorts. To make it easier to
roll, and keep in position, the statue would be placed on two logs arranged in a V shape.
One proponent of this idea of rolling the statues in a prone position is Jo Anne Van Tilburg,
of UCLA. Van Tilburg created sophisticated computer models that took into account
available materials, routes, rock, and manpower, even factoring in how much the workers
would have to have eaten. Her models supported the idea that rolling prone statues was the
most efficient method. As further evidence, Van Tilburg oversaw the movement of a moai
replica by the method she had proposed. They were successful, but evidence that it was
possible is not necessarily evidence that it actually happened. Van Tilburg was not the only
one to have experimented with rolling the statues. In the 1980s, archaeologist Charles Love
experimented with rolling the moai in an upright position, rather than prone, on two wooden
runners. Indeed, a team of just 25 men was able to move the statue a distance of 150 feet in a
mere two minutes. However, the route from the stone quarries where the statues were built to
the coast where they were installed was often uneven, and Love’s experiments were
hampered by the tendency of the statues to tip over. While Love’s ideas were dismissed by
many, the idea of the statutes tipping over along the route was consistent with the many moai
found on their sides or faces beside the island’s ancient roads. And local legend held that the

98
statues “walked” to their destinations, which would seem to support an upright mode of
transportation. In fact, rolling was not the only possible way of transporting the moai in an
upright position.
In the 1980s, Pavel Pavel and Thor Heyerdahl had experimented with swiveling the statues
forward. With one rope tied around the head and another around the base, they were able to
move a five-ton moai with only eight people, and a nine-ton statue with 16. However, they
abandoned their efforts when their technique proved too damaging; as they shuffled the
statues forward, the bases were chipped away. This confounding factor led most to believe
that an upright, rope-assisted walking method was incorrect.
But many now believe that they were, in fact, transported upright. In 2012, Carl Lipo of
California State University Long Beach and Terry Hunt of the University of Hawaii teamed
up with archaeologist Sergio Rapu to refine the upright walking idea. They found that the
statues that appeared to be abandoned in transit had bases with a curved front edge. This
meant they would naturally topple forward and would need to be modified once they reached
their destinations. But that curved edge also meant that they could easily be rocked forward
using a small team of people and three ropes attached to the head. Indeed, their experiments
demonstrated the feasibility of this method, and their theory has gained traction.
11. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentence in the second paragraph?
A. The transportation of the moai is both remarkable and mysterious, but nit as
impressive as the actual creation of the statutes.
B. The moai were carved with stone hand chisels, which is an impressive
accomplishment, but it is still unknown whether the people actually transported them.
C. The creation of the moai is amazing, but not as amazing as how they were
transported.
D. The transportation of the moai is remarkable, mysterious, and as impressive as their
creation with simple hand tools.
E. The essential movement of moai culture is parallel with the spread of mobilization of
people.

12. In paragraph 2, what does the author say about past theories of how the moai were
transported from quarries to their resting places?
A. The theories claimed that use of natural resources for transporting moai had
devastating effects on the land and society.
B. The theories relied on evidence of log roadways that remained long after the Rapa
Nui people has disappeared.
C. The theories were supported by oral accounts of the use of wood by the Rapa Nui
people at the time the moai were constructed and transported.
D. The theories were based on inaccurate estimates of the amount of wood required to
transport moai over long distances.
E. None of above

13. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to

A. Proponents
B. The people

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 C. Rollers
D. Statues
E. Believe

14. Why does the author mention “sophisticated computer models” developed by Jo Anne
Van Tilburg in paragraph 3?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of theorizing about the activities of people in the remote
past
B. To demonstrate that van Tilburg’s hypothesis appeared to be supported by evidence
C. To cast doubt on theories that relies more on experimentation that on effective digital
modelling
D. To show how archaeology can apply modern tools to ancient mysteries
E. To develop the idea of rolling statues to the society

15. In paragraph 3, what does the author NOT suggest about Jo Anne Van Tilburg’s
hypothesis concerning the method of transporting the moai?
A. The use of computer modelling provides evidence that rolling statues on logs would
have been a very efficient method of transportation.
B. It was supported by successful attempts at replicating how the Rapa Nui people may
have rolled the statues on logs.
C. It provides conclusive evidence that the Rapa Nui people used log-rolling techniques
to move the moai.
D. With all the variables taken into account, there still wasn’t enough to provide
reasonable justification for the log-rolling method.
E. All is correct

16. What can be inferred from paragraph 5 about the statues found at their eventual resting
places?
A. They showed signs of having been tipped over on their sides at some point on transit.
B. The people intended for them to be located elsewhere but constrained by their
transportation methods.
C. Many were, in fact, created where they were installed rather than at the quarries that
were originally assumed to be place of creation.
D. They did not have curved front edges.
E. They believe that Carl Lipo and Terry Hunt teamed up with Sergio Rapu to develop
idea.

17. The word “abandoned” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to

A. Damaged
B. Tipped
C. Left
D. Altered
E. Omitted

18. Which of the following methods of transportation does the author say is supported by the
most compelling evidence?

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 A. The rolling of moai in an upright position on logs.
B. The shuffling of moai with ropes tied to the head and base.
C. The rolling of moai in a prone position.
D. The rocking of moai with ropes tied to the head.
E. None of above

19. What are moai, and what is their significance on Easter Island according to the passage?
A. Massive stone carvings; symbols of religious and political authority
B. Volcanic ash sculptures; transportation tools
C. Wooden logs; religious artifacts
D. Ancient statues; architectural decorations
E. Computer models; cultural symbols

20. According to the passage, what were the main methods proposed for transporting the
moai, and which one has gained support in recent times?
A. Rolling prone and swiveling forward; swiveling forward
B. Upright walking and rolling upright; upright walking
C. Rolling prone and rolling upright; rolling upright
D. Swiveling forward and rolling prone; rolling prone
E. Upright walking and rolling prone; rolling prone

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 EXERCISE 12
The questions number 1-3 are based on the following passage.
Loneliness and social isolation in older adults are serious public health risks affecting a
significant number of people in the United States and putting them at risk for dementia and
other serious medical conditions. A report from the National Academies of Sciences,
Engineering, and Medicine (NASEM) points out that more than one-third of adults aged 45
and older feel lonely, and nearly one-fourth of adults aged 65 and older are considered to be
socially isolated. Older adults are at increased risk for loneliness and social isolation because
they are more likely to face factors such as living alone, the loss of family or friends, chronic
illness, and hearing loss.
Although it's hard to measure social isolation and loneliness precisely, there is strong
evidence that many adults aged 50 and older are socially isolated or lonely in ways that put
their health at risk. Recent studies found that social isolation significantly increased a
person's risk of premature death from all causes, a risk that may rival those of smoking,
obesity, and physical inactivity. Poor social relationships (characterized by social isolation or
loneliness) was also associated with a 29% increased risk of heart disease. Loneliness among
heart failure patients was associated with a nearly 4 times increased risk of death, 68%
increased risk of hospitalization, and 57% increased risk of emergency department visits.
1. The writer's intention in writing the passage is to ....
A. disseminate the information about the impacts loneliness and social isolation in the
elderly
B. encourage people to be more concerned about the elderly who are lonely and socially
isolated
C. prove that the elderly experiencing loneliness and social isolation actually exist in the
United States
D. convey the pain and sadness experienced by lonely and socially isolated elderly
based on research
E. tell about the loneliness and unhappiness felt by the elderly who are socially isolated,
as well as research findings

2. To whom is the text likely addressed?

A. Families staying with elderly
B. People living around elderly
C. Pensioners who have just left their jobs
D. Senior citizens living alone in the suburbs
E. Employers having old workers in their companies

3. From the last paragraph, we can infer that ...

A. Those who experience loneliness may develop heart disease.
B. Feeling lonely aggravates the heart condition of the elderly.
C. Heart disease is the worst ailment that a lonely older person will suffer from.
D. The older people get, the more lonely they will feel.
E. Loneliness and social isolation that people experience makes them unable to survive.

102
The questions number 4-5 are based on the following passage.
Those in the retail industry that are successful in digitally transforming will be ones that
leverage technology to innovate around an immersive and disruptive customer experience.
These "lighthouse" retailers are the ones driving innovation, adopting emerging technologies
early, and showing the industry what works and is possible. They are the ones experimenting
with new models and store formats, playing with recombinations/reconfigurations of scale,
assets, product, place, and people. The "store of the future" is the keystone of this effort.
The store of the future will combine multiple formats to deliver an immersive and unique
experience across all customer touchpoints online and in the store. It will be heavily
instrumented for operational efficiency and digitally connected end-to-end to leverage a
single view of customer, product, and order. The store of the future - despite its reliance on
sophisticated technology and infrastructure - will be trying to look smaller and less
intimidating, more personalized, and frictionless.
The deployment of these and other digital technologies in disruptive ways can turn visitors
into shoppers and shoppers into brand-loyal customers. However, understanding which
consumers want personalization and which want contextualized and relevant experiences,
while protecting everyone's privacy, has grown more difficult. With so much at stake, data
privacy has become a challenge for every party involved.
4. Who needs to see the passage?
A. Online customer
B. Businessperson
C. Manufacturer
D. Importer
E. Distributor
The text if questions number 5-6
Measles, a childhood disease, has caused suffering to mankind for thousands of years.
However, the search for an effective measles vaccine lasted two hundred years and has
finally ended in success. Now, for the first time, measles is a preventable disease. You may
ask, "How is this important to children?" Every year measles kills twice as many Americans
as polio does. More children die from measles than from any other common childhood
disease. Also complications of some degree occur in about one child out of six. Most
complication include pneumonia and ear disorders. Another after-effect of measles-brain
damage is less common, but it can have such serious consequence that it deserves special
attention. Brain damage due to measles sounds like something far away from our experience.
In reality, it is not. Like other injury, damage to the brain can be very slight or very severe. It
is quite possible that we have never seen or heard a child who has severe brain damage - the
child would either have died or would be in an institution. However, in medical research a
relation has been found between measles and such things as behavior problems, personality
changes and dulling of metal ability. For example, a child may be bad-tempered or a little
slow to learn after he has recovered from measles
5. One of the important findings of the research on measles is that ....

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 A. children who have got measles may become difficult to handle because of their
behavior.
B. in reality, there are no measles patients who get brain damage.
C. personality changes already occur at the time a child has measles.
D. measles can cause children to become physically handicapped.
E. measles is the first killer of childhood disease in the world

6. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Customers demanded stores with cutting-edge infrastructure to be user-friendly.
B. The more advanced the technology is, the more successful the retailers will be.
C. Each customer will receive a better and more unique experience in online shopping.
D. Providing a one-of-a-kind shopping experience will require a combination of
formats.
E. Stores of the future are trying to achieve the ultimate goal that is to attract more
visitors.

The questions number 7-16 are based on the following passage.

In the following article, the author speculates about a connection between the low-fat, high-
carbohydrate diet recommended by the medical establishment in the last twenty years and the
increasing rate of obesity among Americans.
American dietitians and members of the medical community have ridiculed low-carbohydrate
diets as quackery for the past thirty years, while extolling a diet that cuts down on fat, limits
meat consumption, and relies on carbohydrates as its staple. Many Americans are familiar
with the food pyramid promoted by the U.S. government, with its foundation of
carbohydrates such as breads, rice, and pasta, and its apex allotted to fats, oils, and sweets.
Adhering to the government's anti-fat, pro-carbohydrate gospel, food manufacturers have
pumped out fat-free grain products that lure consumers with the promise of leaner days.
Then, why are Americans getting so fat? Could the dietary recommendations of the last
twenty years be wrong? And what's more, could the proponents of diets that push protein and
fat be right?
Fact: Obesity rates have soared throughout the country since the 1980s. The United States
Centers of Disease Control reports that the number of obese adults has doubled in the last
twenty years. The number of obese children and teenagers has almost tripled, increasing
120% among African-American and Latino children and 50% among white children. The risk
for Type 2 diabetes, which is associated with obesity, has increased dramatically as well.
Disturbingly, the disease now affects 25% to 30% of children, compared with 3% to 5% two
decades ago.
What is behind this trend? Supersized portions, cheap fast food, and soft drinks combined
with a sedentary lifestyle of TV watching or Internet surfing have most likely contributed to
the rapid rise of obesity. Yet, there might be more to it: is it a coincidence that obesity rates
increased in the last twenty years-the same time period in which the low-fat dietary doctrine
has reigned? Before the 1980s, the conventional wisdom was that fat and protein created a
feeling of satiation, so that overeating would be less likely. Carbohydrates, on the other hand,

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were regarded as a recipe for stoutness. This perception began to change after World War II
when coronary heart disease reached near epidemic proportions among middle-aged men. A
theory that dietary fat might increase cholesterol levels and, in turn, increase the risk of heart
disease emerged in the 1950s and gained increasing acceptance by the late 1970s. In 1979,
the focus of the food guidelines promoted by the United States Department of Agriculture
(USDA) began to shift away from getting enough nutrients to avoiding excess fat, saturated
fat, cholesterol, and sodium-the components believed to be linked to heart disease. The anti-
fat credo was born.
To date, the studies that have tried to link dietary fat to increased risk of coronary heart
disease have remained ambiguous. Studies have shown that cholesterol-lowering drugs help
reduce the risk of heart disease, but whether a diet low in cholesterol can do the same is still
questionable. While nutrition experts are debating whether a low-fat, carbohydrate-based diet
is the healthiest diet for Americans, nearly all agree that the anti-fat message of the last
twenty years has been over-simplified. For example, some fats and oils like those found in
olive oil and nuts are beneficial to the heart and may deserve a larger proportion in the
American diet than their place at the tip of the food pyramid indicates. Likewise, some
carbohydrates that form the basis of the food pyramid, like the "refined" carbohydrates
contained in white bread, pasta, and white rice, are metabolized in the body much the same
way sweets are. According to one Harvard Medical School researcher, a breakfast of a bagel
with low-fat cream cheese is "metabolically indistinguishable from a bowl of sugar."
So, what about those high-fat, protein diets that restrict carbohydrates like the popular Atkins'
diet and others? A small group of nutrition experts within the medical establishment find it
hard to ignore the anecdotal evidence that many lose weight successfully on these diets. They
are arguing that those diets should not be dismissed out of hand, but researched and tested
more closely. Still others fear that Ameri-cans, hungry to find a weight-loss regimen, may
embrace a diet that has no long-term datal about whether it works or is safe. What is clear is
that Americans are awaiting answers and in the meantime, we need to eat something.
7. The passage is primarily concerned with
A. questioning the dietary advice of the past two decades.
B. contrasting theories of good nutrition.
C. displaying the variety of ways one can interpret scientific evidence.
D. debunking the value of diets that restrict carbohydrates.
E. isolating the cause of the rising rate of obesity.

8. The author's attitude toward the medical experts who ridiculed low-carbohydrate diets as
quackery and praised low-fat diets is one of
A. bemused agreement.
B. seeming ambivalence.
C. unconcerned apathy.
D. implicit objection.
E. shocked disbelief.

9. The term gospel as it is used in the passage most nearly means

A. one of the first four New Testament books.
B. a proven principle.

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 C. a message accepted as truth.
D. American evangelical music.
E. a singular interpretation.

10. The author uses the word Fact in order to

A. draw a conclusion about the USDA'S dietary recommendations.
B. imply that statistical information can be misleading.
C. hypothesize about the health effects of high-fat, protein diets.
D. introduce a theory about the increased rate of obesity.
E. emphasize a statistical reality regardless of its cause.

11. The passage suggests that the obesity trend in the United States is
A. partly a result of inactive lifestyles.
B. the predictable outcome of cutting down on saturated fat.
C. a cyclical event that happens every twenty years.
D. unrelated to a rise in diabetes cases.
E. the unfortunate by product of the effort to reduce heart disease.

12. In lines 26-31, the author implies that the government's 1979 food guidelines
A. relied more on folk wisdom than on scientific study.
B. was based on the theoretical premise that eating less dietary fat reduces heart disease.
C. was negligent in not responding to the increasing incidence of heart disease.
D. no longer bothered to mention nutrient objectives.
E. was successful in reducing heart disease rates.

13. The author characterizes the anti-fat message of the last twenty years as
A. elusive.
B. questionable.
C. incoherent.
D. beneficial.
E. inventive.

14. The author cites the example of a breakfast of a bagel with low-fat cream cheese in order
to …
A. show that getting a nutritional breakfast can be fast and convenient.
B. demonstrate that carbohydrates are the ideal nutrient.
C. overturn the notion that a carbohydrate-based breakfast is necessarily healthy.
D. persuade readers that they should eat eggs and sausage for breakfast.
E. argue that Americans should greatly restrict their carbohydrate intake.

15. The author of the passage would most likely agree with which statement?
A. The federal government knowingly gave the public misleading advice.
B. Soaring obesity rates are most certainly a result of low-fat diets.
C. Nutritionists should promote high-fat, protein diets like the Atkin's diet.
D. Scientists should investigate every fad diet with equal scrutiny.
E. There is no definitive evidence connecting dietary fat to heart disease.

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 16. The tone of the last sentence of the passage is one of
A. optimism.
B. resolve.
C. indulgence.
D. irony.
E. revulsion.

17. Some of the most notorious of the CIA’s operations to kill world leaders were those
targeting the late Cuban president, Fidel Castro. Attempts ranged from snipers to
imaginative plots worthy of spy movie fantasies, such as the famous exploding cigars
and a poison-lined scuba-diving suit.
But although the CIA attempts proved fruitless in the case of Castro, the US intelligence
agency has since 1945 succeeded in deposing or killing a string of leaders elsewhere
around the world – either directly or, more often, using sympathetic local military,
locally hired criminals or pliant dissidents.
Given the long list of US involvement in coups and assassinations worldwide, the agency
was forced to cut back on such killings after a US Senate investigation in the 1970s
exposed the scale of its operations.
Following the investigation, then president Gerald Ford signed in 1976 an executive
order stating: “No employee of the United States government shall engage in, or conspire
in, political assassination.”
Source: [Link]
Which of these sentences best summarizes the passage?
A. The CIA had been trying to kill world leaders until president Ford found out about its
operations.
B. The CIA had been targeting world leaders after an executive order was signed.
C. The CIA has been engaging in assassinations until the US Senate investigated its
operations.
D. The CIA had been investigating assassinations until the US Senate exposed its
operations.
E. The CIA had been engaging in assassinations until president Ford signed an executive
order.
This text for question number 18-20
[ ...]
The term also applies to human behavior, and it usually describes large numbers of people
acting the same way at the same time. It often has a connotation of irrationality, as people's
actions are driven by emotion rather than by thinking through a situation. [1] Human herd
behavior can be observed at large-scale demonstrations, riots, strikes, religious gatherings,
sports events, and outbreaks of mob violence. [2] When herd behavior sets in, an individual
person's judgment and opinion-forming process shuts down as he or she automatically
follows the group's movement and behavior.

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Herd behavior in humans is frequently observed at times of danger and panic; for example, a
fire in a building often causes herd behavior, with people often suspending their individual
reasoning and fleeing together in a pack. People in a crisis that requires escape will attempt to
move faster than normal, copy the actions of others, interact physically with each other, and
ignore alternative strategies in favor of following the mass escape trend.
Herd behavior does not always have such harmful effects; it can be influential in people's
everyday, simple decisions. For example, suppose that a family is walking down the street
looking for a restaurant to have dinner. If they pass a restaurant that is empty and one that is
relatively crowded with patrons, they are far more likely to choose the crowded one, on the
assumption that it's better because there are more people there. Herding can be subtle in this
way; it simply involves people's tendency to follow a crowd rather than carve out an
individual path in many situations.

18. The previous passage is most likely about ....

A. how to spot herd behavior during a social activity
B. herd behavior in other living beings
C. the definition of human behavior
D. herd behavior found in humans
E. scientists' proof of herd behavior

19. How are sentences 1 and 2 related?

A. Sentence 1 talks about the effects of herd behavior and sentence 2 describes the
consequences.
B. Sentence 1 states the consequences of herd behavior occurring and sentence 2
provides further elaboration.
C. Sentence 1 provides situations of herd behavior possibly occurring and sentence 2
describes its effects on an individual.
D. Sentence 2 provides the effects happening to an individual due to the consequences
in sentence 1 taking place.
E. Sentence 1 provides places of possible herd behavior and sentence 2 explains the
negative disadvantages

20. What is the author's attitude towards the topic?

A. Dismissive
B. Vindictive
C. Skeptical
D. Objective
E. Doubtful

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 EXERCISE 13
Read the text below to answer the question!
A team led by UC Riverside geologists has discovered the first ancestor on the family tree
that contains most familiar animals today, including humans. The tiny, wormlike creature,
named Ikaria wariootia, is the earliest bilaterian, or organism with a front and back, two
symmetrical sides, and openings at either end connected by a gut. The paper is published
today in Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences.
For 15 years, scientists agreed that fossilized burrows found in 555 million-years-old
Ediacaran Period deposits in Nilpena, South Australia, were made by bilaterians. However,
there was no sign of the creature that made the burrows, leaving scientists with nothing but
speculation. Then, Scott Evans, a recent doctoral graduate from UC Riverside; and Mary
Droser, a professor of geology, noticed miniscule, oval impressions near some of these
burrows. With funding from a NASA exobiology grant, they used a three-dimensional laser
scanner that revealed the regular, consistent shape of a cylindrical body with a distinct head
and tail and faintly grooved musculature. The animal ranged between 2-7 millimeters long
and about 1-2.5 millimeters wide, with the largest the size and shape of a grain of rice -- just
the right size to have made the burrows.
"We thought these animals should have existed during this interval, but always understood
they would be difficult to recognize," Evans said. "Once we had the 3D scans, we knew that
we had made an important discovery."
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. the descendant on the family tree of familiar animals found in Australia
B. a team led by UC Riverside geologists
C. Australian geologists finding most animals
D. the small ancestor of familiar animals identified in Australia
E. the geologists’ discovery of a worm in Australia

2. The purpose of the passage is ….

A. to announce how great a team of geologists is
B. to deliver the information about several ancestors
C. to advertise an ancient animal found in Australia
D. to inform the readers about the important discovery
E. to reveal the sophisticated new science technology

3. Which of the following is a synonym for the term "bilaterian" as used in the text?
A. Unilateral
B. Multicellular
C. Symmetrical
D. Primitive
E. Invertebrate

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4. How can the term "speculation" be restated in the context of the sentence "there was no
sign of the creature that made the burrows, leaving scientists with nothing but
speculation"?
A. Hypothesis
B. Certainty
C. Evidence
D. Discovery
E. Confirmation
Read the passage below.
The study of songbirds has revealed a variety of fundamental properties of biological
systems. In particular, neurobiological studies carried out in songbirds have revealed the
presence of newly born neurons in the adult brain, how steroid hormones affect brain
development, the neural and mechanistic bases of vocalizations, and how experience
modifies neuronal physiology. More evidently, however, songbirds have been extensively
used as a model for imitative vocal learning, a behavior thought to be a substrate for speech
acquisition in humans. Now an international consortium has unveiled the genome of the zebra
finch (Taeniopygia Guttata).
Sequencing the zebra finch genome was initiated in 2005 under the Large Scale
Genome Sequencing Program of the National Human Genome Research Institute. The prior
work in the research community characterizing the zebra finch brain transcriptase. These
initiatives, along with new zebra finch genome sequences, have resulted in the complete
genome sequenced with 17,475 protein-coding genes identified, as well as regulatory regions
and non-coding RNAs. The annotation and sequence coverage of the zebra finch genome will
certainly be refined in the years to come, but the initial endeavor is expected to provide a
unique platform for modern genomics research in this organism. Furthermore, this initial
snapshot of the songbird genome should provide critical insights into fundamental scientific
questions, including an array of physiological and evolutionary processes.
Adapted from: [Link]
5. From the sentence ‘… songbirds have been extensively used as a model for imitative
vocal learning, ….’ in paragraph 1, it can be stated that…
A. Songbirds are good models of vocal learning.
B. Human can practice vocal learning through songbird.
C. Songbirds are observed intensively by the scientist.
D. Songbirds imitate human’s speech.
E. Human speech acquisition in inspired by songbird.

6. What is the primary focus of neurobiological studies in songbirds?

A. Vocalization mechanics
B. Steroid hormone effects on songbirds
C. Newly born neurons in the adult brain
D. Genetic makeup of songbirds
E. Mechanisms of imitative vocal learning

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7. Why was the zebra finch genome sequenced under the Large Scale Genome Sequencing
Program in 2005?
A. To study the regulation of non-coding RNAs
B. To identify the number of protein-coding genes in songbirds
C. To explore the neural and mechanistic bases of vocalizations
D. To refine the annotation and sequence coverage of the genome
E. To provide a platform for modern genomics research in zebra finches

8. In the sentence " This initial endeavor is expected to provide critical insights into
fundamental scientific questions," what does the pronoun "This" refer to?
A. The international consortium
B. The zebra finch genome
C. The initial endeavor
D. Critical insights
E. Fundamental scientific questions

9. In the text, what is a synonym for "array" in the phrase "array of physiological and
evolutionary processes"?
A. Collection
B. Disarray
C. Sequence
D. Assortment
E. Scatter

10. The phrase “the initial endeavor” can be replaced by …

A. The primary attempt
B. The preliminary effort
C. The inaugural undertaking
D. The original pursuit
E. The commencing venture
Read the text below to answer the questions
Political education has many connotations. It may be defined as the preparation of a
citizen to take well informed, responsible and sustained action for participation in the national
struggle in order to achieve the socio-economic objectives of the country. The predominant
socio- economic objectives in India are the abolition of poverty and the creation of a modern
democratic, secular and socialist society in place of the present traditional, feudal,
hierarchical and in egalitarian one.
Under the colonial rule, the Congress leaders argued that political education was an
important part of education and refused to accept the official view that education and politics
should not be mixed with one another. But when they came to power in 1947 they almost
adopted the British policy and began to talk of education being defiled by politics. ‘Hands off
education’ was the call to political parties. But in spite of it, political infiltration into the
educational system has greatly increased in the sense that different political parties vie with
each other to capture the mind of teachers and students. The wise academicians wanted
political support, without political interference. What we have actually received is infinite

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political interference with little genuine political support. This interference with the
educational system by political parties for their own ulterior motives is no political education
at all and with the all round growth of elitism, it is hardly a matter for surprise that real
political education within the school system (which really means the creation of a
commitment to social transformation) has been even weaker than in the pre- independence
period.
During that time only, the struggle for freedom came to an end and the major non-
formal agency of political education disappeared. The press played a major role by providing
some political education. But it did not utilize the opportunity to the full and the strangle hold
of vested interests continued to dominate it. The same can be said of political parties as well
as of other institutions and agencies outside the school system which can be expected to
provide political education. After analyzing all these things, it appears that we have made no
progress in genuine political education in the post-education period and have even slided
back in some respects. For instance, the education system has become even more elite-
oriented. Patriotism has become the first casualty. The father of the nation gave us the
courage to oppose government when it was wrong, in a disciplined fashion and on basic
principles. Today, we have even lost the courage to fight on basic issues in a disciplined
manner because agitational and anarchic politics for individual, group or party
aggrandizement has become common. In the recent times the education system continues to
support domination of the privileged groups and domestication of the under- privileged ones.
The situation will not change unless we take vigorous steps to provide genuine political
education on an adequate scale. This is one of the major educational reforms we need, and if
it is not carried out, mere linear expansion of the existing system of formal education will
only support the status quo and hamper radical social transformation.
11. Which word is nearly opposite in meaning as “defile” as used in the passage?
A. Disparage
B. Forgery
C. Degenerate
D. Sanctify
E. Consciousness

12. According to the passage, what should be the main purpose of political education?
A. To champion the cause of elitism
B. To bring qualitative change in the entire education system
C. To create an egalitarian society
D. To prepare the young generation with high intellectual acumen
E. To amuse the young generation with the education system

13. How was politics been related to educational institutions after independence?
A. Although they got political support but there was no interference of politics.
B. It is clear that they got almost no political support as well as political interference.
C. They got political support at the cost of political interference.
D. There was substantial interference without political support.
E. Not all above

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14. Based on the passage, which is the major drawback of the present education system?
A. The education system mainly represents the oppressed sections of the society.
B. The present education system promotes the domination of the privileged few.
C. It is based on the British model of education.
D. It is highly hierarchical and egalitarian in nature.
E. It is based on the society where the model is used.

15. Which is the most opposite in meaning to the word “hamper” as use in the passage?
A. Accelerate
B. Envision
C. Foster
D. Initiate
E. Grind

This text is for question number 16 to 20

Tech company Gogle’s popular word processing software, Gogle Docs, will be equipped with
a feature that suggests ways to improve the quality of your writing in addition to fixing
straightforward grammar and spelling errors. A purple squiggly line will helpfully appear
under suggestions to help make your writing more concise, inclusive, active, or to warn you
away from inappropriate words.
“The feature will give you suggestions when there are opportunities to structure a sentence
with an active voice or when a sentence can be more concise, helping to make your writing
more impactful. Potentially discriminatory or inappropriate language will be flagged, along
with suggestions on how to make your writing more inclusive and appropriate for your
audience,” reads the official blog post about the nifty addition.
These kinds of suggestions have long been available via third-party writing assistant
applications like Grammarlee, which is able to integrate with Gogle Docs and aims to help
improve the quality of your writing. Depending on the quality of Gogle Docs’s native
suggestions, it could vastly reduce the need for these third-party services. This is not the first
time that Gogle has turned third-party services unnecessary, and it’s kind of awful of Gogle
to keep doing that, but then again, fierce competition is always to be expected in the world of
tech.
The catch is that Gogle isn’t rolling out this assistive writing feature to all Gogle Docs users.
It says that the feature, called Tone and Style Assistant, will be available for subscribers of
the enterprise and education plans, including “Business Standard, Business Plus, Enterprise
Standard, Enterprise Plus, [and] Education Plus”. Gogle’s internal list of eligible users has
shown that more than ten million Gogle Docs users are subscribed to those plans, and
therefore will get the upcoming assistive writing feature. However, that means if you’re on a
more basic plan like Gogle Workspace Essentials, you won’t
get this neat feature.
[...]
Source: [Link] (with modifications)

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16. What does the passage mainly talk about?
A. Gogle’s word processing software
B. a replacement to third-party writing assistant applications
C. the Tone and Style Assistant
D. the features of Gogle Docs
E. improving writing quality

17. What is the author’s attitude towards the upcoming writing quality improvement feature
in Gogle Docs?
A. Understanding
B. Objective
C. Critical
D. Positive
E. Uncertain

18. From the information provided in paragraph 4, we know that if someone is in the list of
users eligible for the upcoming assistive writing feature, ….
A. they subscribe to the enterprise or education plan
B. they subscribed to the enterprise or education plan
C. they will subscribe to the enterprise or education plan
D. they would subscribe to the enterprise or education plan
E. they would have subscribed to the enterprise or education plan

19. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses ….

A. what makes an assistive writing feature good
B. third-party writing assistant applications
C. how to earn money to purchase the enterprise and education plans
D. how to improve tone and style in writing
E. what Gogle Docs’s upcoming assistive writing feature does

20. What most likely motivates the author to write the passage?
A. Public awareness of Gogle Docs is low.
B. The author is an employee of Grammarlee.
C. People’s general writing quality is on the decline.
D. Gogle is receiving acclaim for releasing its word processing software.
E. There is a recent announcement from Gogle

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 EXERCISE 14
The text below is to answer the questions
Whether you are an adult who never completed your primary education or the parent
of a child in need of special attention and flexibility, getting a diploma from an online high
school may be the right choice for you. With this option, you will have a number of benefits.
You will be able to take control of your education. You can learn everything you would be
taught in a classroom in the comfort of your own home. You can take charge of the decisions
that you make and the path that you will take during your education.
An online high school can offer an array of advantages. Mostly, you will have
complete control over your education. You will have the ability to study your own
assignments at your own pace. You can focus on the assignments that may take you a bit
longer to complete, while easily and quickly going through assignments that are easier for
you. The flexibility on education on the Internet is unmatched. Most programs allow you
attend your virtual class at any time of the day, so you can work around your busy schedule.
Many people that take classes on the Internet have busy schedules and often full time jobs.
This form of education will allow you to work on your own terms and on your own time.
Traditional education for many people means more than just learning. When getting
your diploma on the Internet, you can avoid the distractions that come along with the
traditional classroom. You won't have to deal with the cliques and other distracting students
while you work on your own time. You can study when you want and where you want. Plus,
many times a teacher in a traditional classroom just cannot spend extra time during class time
helping each individual student with his or her own specific problems. When working within
the online high school, if you do not understand a particular topic, you can take your time and
pace yourself to gain a better understanding of the subject.
Whether you are an adult with a full-time job, and you want to move up in the world,
or you think that your child would benefit from the pacing and attention involved in an online
high school, this educational choice may be the one for you. There are a variety of options
out there, so do some research and find out which one will work best for your circumstances.

1. The passage can be best summarized as follows.....

A. traditional education can solely be applied and implemented in isolated area.
B. we can obtain many benefits of education from an online high school.
C. online high school program has to be improved to reach the quality of education.
D. standard and system of education doesn't affect the successful of online high school.
E. online high school gives many drawbacks to the student's thinking and opinion.

2. Some benefits of online high school are stated in the text, except .....
A. we can take charge of the decisions in learning process that we make by ourselves.
B. we attend our virtual class at any time of the day therefore we can work in our busy
schedule.
C. we can learn everything we would be taught in a classroom in the comfort of our own
home.
D. we will be directly allowed to work on our own terms and on our own time.

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 E. we cannot find out the right solution of the complicated lesson if we don't understand
the particular topic.

3. Whether you are an adult who never completed your primary education or the parent of a
child in need of special attention and flexibility (paragraph 1). The underlined word can
also be replaced by ....
A. Constraint
B. Inelasticity
C. Adjustability
D. Quality
E. Consistency

4. The author presents some advantages from online high school by...
A. making a prediction and comparison
B. elaborating the real examples
C. discussing more than one research
D. exposing some expert's opinions
E. explaining cause effect of the issue

Text below is for questions number 5-9

During the nineteenth century, women in the United States organized and participated
in a large number of reform movement, including movements to reorganize the prison
system, improve education, ban the sale of alcohol, and most importantly, to free the slaves.
Some women saw similarities in the social status of women and slaves. Women like
Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were feminists and abolitionists who supported the
rights of both women and blacks. Number of male abolitionists, including William Lloyd
Garrisonad, Wendell Philips, also supported the rights of women speak and participate
equally with men anti slavery activities. Probably more than any other movement,
abolitionism offered women a previously denied entry into politics. They became involved
primarily in order to better their living conditions and the conditions of others.
When the Civil War ended in 1865, the fourteenth and fifteenth Amendments to the
Constitution adopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to blacks but not to
women. Discourage but resolved, feminists influenced more and more women to demand the
right to vote. In 1869 the Wyoming Territory had yielded to demands by feminists, but
eastern states resisted more stubbornly than before. A women's suffrage bill had been
presented to every Congress since 1878 but it continually failed to pass until 1920, when the
Nineteenth Amendment granted women the right to vote.
5. When were women allowed to vote throughout the United States?
A. in 1865
B. after 1868
C. after 1870
D. after 1878
E. after 1920

6. What is mainly discussed in the second paragraph?

A. The process of giving right to vote to women.

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 B. The effect of the civil war
C. The right to vote to black people
D. The nineteenth amendment
E. The Wyoming Territory

7. What is the topic of the passage primarily concerned with?

A. Abolitionists.
B. The Civil War.
C. Women's suffrage.
D. The Wyoming Territory.
E. The Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendment.

8. According to the passage, why did women become active in politics?

A. To be elected to public office.
B. To be famous throughout the world.
C. To amend the Declaration of Independent.
D. To support Elizabeth Cady Stanton for president
E. To improve the condition of the life that existed at the time.

9. “A women's suffrage bill had been presented to …” (paragraph 2). The closest meaning
to the underlined word is …
A. Freedom from slavery
B. The right to vote
C. Citizenship
D. Expectation
E. Pain

The text below is for questions 10-15

The green movement is catching on in many pockets of the world. This is especially true in
the construction industry. Today's buzz words, which include global warming and zero
emission, are causing everyday people to look for ways to reduce their carbon footprint.
Purchasing environmentally-friendly property is a good investment for those who are
concerned about their own health and the well-being of the earth. Based on this trend, entire
districts, known as eco-communities, are being designed with green initiatives in mind.
Dockside Green in Victoria, British Columbia, is one of these communities. Its goal is to
become the world's first zero-emissions neighborhood.
Builders of Dockside Green have the environment in mind with every choice they make.
They ensure proper ventilation, and guarantee residents 100% fresh indoor air. Interior and
exterior building materials, such as paints and wood, are natural and non-toxic. Eco-
conscious builders use bamboo wherever possible because it is durable and does not require
pesticides to grow.
Energy efficiency is one of the top priorities in eco-communities, such as Dockside Green.
Not only do energy-efficient appliances and light fixtures reduce the environmental impact of
heating and hot water, they also save residents and business owners money. Dockside Green
claims that home owners will use 55% less energy than average residents in Canada. Though
they are sharing space by investing in condo-style living, residents will have individual utility
metres. Studies show that people use approximately 20% less energy when they are billed for

117
exactly what they use. In addition, water is treated at Dockside Green and reused on site for
flushing toilets.
Planners of eco-communities such as Dockside Green must take the future into account.
Dockside Green will reuse 90% of its construction waste. They also plan to continue using
local suppliers for all of their transport and maintenance needs. This is a great way to reduce
emissions. Dockside residents will be encouraged to make use of a mini transit system and
buy into the community's car share program. Finally, plans are in the works for a high-tech
heating system that will use renewable biomass instead of fossil fuels.
(Adapted from: [Link]
10. By saying "Today's buzz words, which include global warming and zero/emissions, are
causing everyday people to look for ways to reduce their carbon footprint.' in lines 1-3,
the author implies that.....
A. environmental issues have made people more cautious of their actions
B. global warming and zero emissions become everyone's concern
C. people have to take care of their greenhouses carefully
D. eco-friendly environmental programs should be strongly enforced
E. all people around the world are aware of global warming

11. Which of the following best restates the sentence 'The green movement is catching on in
many pockets of the world.' in line 1?
A. Many people consider it crucial to have eco-friendly environments.
B. People who are aware of environmental issues love safe and healthy surroundings.
C. House designers should consider the importance of green materials.
D. Everyone should understand the effect of global warming and zero emissions well.
E. Environmentalists are concerned with the green environment.

12. The false idea that the author may hold about Dockside Green is that....
A. it provides all eco-friendly properties
B. it is a good asset to buy a property in it
C. it encourages all houses to utilize efficient energy
D. it reduces global warming and emissions
E. it is where more natural livings can exist

13. The author organizes the ideas in the passage by....

A. describing a new housing trend and providing a detailed example
B. discussing an environmental issue and providing ways to solve the issue
C. identifying a community problem and discussing possible solutions to the problem
D. explaining an environmentally friendly initiative and discussing the impacts of the
initiative
E. establishing a new community initiative that is eco-friendly and explaining the ideas
behind the initiative

14. According to the passage, the author primarily emphasizes the …

A. Challenges of green initiatives
B. Negligible impact of green initiatives

118
 C. Success and importance of green initiatives
D. Inconsistencies in green initiatives
E. Complexity of green initiatives

15. From the passage, it can be inferred that eco-communities like Dockside Green:
A. Disregard construction waste management
B. Struggle to manage construction waste effectively
C. Tend to recycle a significant portion of construction waste
D. Avoid using local suppliers for construction needs
E. Rely solely on non-renewable resources for construction
The text is for the following questions
Exercise is painful. As the cliché goes, “No pain, no gain.” When the body exerts itself,
pumping action out of muscles to tear them down and build their mass, it’s left with a
soreness. Doctors, coaches, and mothers all recommend heat for tense sore muscles—warm
baths, moist towels, hot-water bottles, or heated pads as thermotherapy techniques. But how
exactly does applying this heat help the pain and relax the muscles?
While exercising, the body requires more energy than it can produce through aerobic
respiration, or the intake of oxygen. To create enough energy for vigorous movement, the
body goes through another process: anaerobic respiration. This type of energy production
burns sugars without oxygen, producing lactic acid within exerted muscles. Overworked
muscles and a build-up of lactic acid are what cause the pain associated with exercising.
When heat is applied to a sore area of the body, blood vessels widen and blood flow increases
to transport excess lactic acid and other toxins away from tired muscles. These muscles are
also made more elastic by the heat, and nerve endings are stimulated to block pain signals.
16. What is the purpose of the underlined sentence in paragraph 1?
A. Highlight the process of muscle building during exercise
B. Illustrate the cliché related to exercise and pain
C. Explain the sources if pain while exercising
D. Show the process of soreness on muscles
E. Define the cliché “No pain, no gain”

17. What is the primary reason for muscle soreness during and after exercise?
A. Lack of oxygen
B. Accumulation of lactic acid
C. Overhydration
D. Low blood sugar
E. Inadequate warm-up

18. Why does the body go through anaerobic respiration during vigorous exercise?
A. To conserve energy
B. To build muscle mass
C. To produce lactic acid
D. To enhance flexibility
E. To increase oxygen intake

119
19. How does heat therapy contribute to muscle recovery after exercise?
A. By promoting dehydration
B. By causing muscle spasms
C. By decreasing blood flow
D. By reducing lactic acid build-up
E. By inducing inflammation

20. What effect does heat have on blood vessels when applied to sore muscles?
A. Constriction
B. Dilation
C. Dehydration
D. Numbness
E. Oxygenation

120
 EXERCISE 15
Read the passage below
Text 1
Poststructuralist theories of language have become increasingly attractive to identity and
language learning researchers (Norton & Morgan in press). Structuralist theories of language,
often cited as originating with the work of Swiss linguist Ferdinand de Saussure (Reference
de Saussure and Baskin1966), emphasized the study of the linguistic knowledge
(competence) that allowed idealized speakers/hearers to use and understand language's stable
patterns and structures. From this perspective, actual instances of language usage
(performance), which could be affected by memory lapses, fatigue, slips, errors, and so on,
were not seen as revealing of idealized patterns, and thus were of little interest in the
scientific study of language. However, poststructuralist theories of language, proposed by
many, but particularly by Russian literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin (Reference Bakhtin1981,
Reference Bakhtin and Emerson1984, Reference Bakhtin and McGee1986) saw language not
as a set of idealized forms independent of their speakers or their speaking, but rather as
situated utterances in which speakers, in dialogue with others, struggle to create meanings.
Text 2
Language had no independent existence outside of its use, and that usage was of course
social. The researcher used the metaphor of speech communication as a chain, an ongoing
conversation that new speakers (for example, children or newcomers to speech communities)
strive to join. While structural theories might see language learning as a gradual individual
process of internalizing the set of rules, structures, and vocabulary of a standard language, the
researcher saw language learning as a process of struggling to use language in order to
participate in specific speech communities. Using language meant using a tool others had
used before, and saw speakers as constrained by those past usages. However, speakers are
seen as able to use language to express their own meanings (with both custom and innovation
characterizing language use). Further, the social positions outside language might affect any
individual's speaking privilege.
1. According to the text, how do poststructuralist theories, particularly those proposed by
Mikhail Bakhtin, differ from structuralist theories in their approach to language?
A. Structuralist theories prioritize language competence, while poststructuralist theories
focus on memory lapses and errors in language performance.
B. Structural theories view language as an independent set of idealized forms, whereas
poststructuralist theories see language as situated utterances in social contexts.
C. Poststructuralist theories emphasize the internalization of standard language patterns,
whereas structural theories highlight the social aspects of language use.
D. Both structural and poststructuralist theories agree that language learning is an
individual process of internalizing idealized patterns.
E. Structural theories see language learning as a process of struggling to use language,
similar to poststructuralist theories, but with different perspectives on the role of
social interactions.

121
2. In the context of language learning, how does Mikhail Bakhtin's perspective, as
discussed in the text, differ from structural theories?
A. Bakhtin emphasizes the gradual internalization of language rules, while structural
theories see language as situated utterances in social contexts.
B. Structural theories view language as an independent set of idealized forms, while
Bakhtin sees language learning as a process of struggling to use language in specific
speech communities.
C. Bakhtin and structural theories both consider language usage as revealing idealized
patterns, but with different interpretations.
D. Structural theories prioritize individual language competence, whereas Bakhtin sees
language learning as a social process of joining ongoing conversations.
E. Both Bakhtin and structural theories agree that language has an independent existence
outside of its use, but they differ in their views on the constraints of past usages.

3. How does the increasing attractiveness of poststructuralist theories, particularly to

identity and language learning researchers, relate to the historical origins of structuralist
theories?
A. Identity and language learning researchers have abandoned structuralist theories in
favour of poststructuralist ones.
B. Poststructuralist theories emerged as a response to the limitations perceived in
structuralist theories.
C. Structuralist theories gained popularity due to their compatibility with identity
research.
D. The increasing attractiveness of poststructuralist theories has had no impact on
structuralist theories.
E. Structuralist theories and poststructuralist theories are unrelated and developed
independently.

4. How does Bakhtin's view of language learning align with the researcher's perspective on
the social aspect of language use?
A. Bakhtin and the researcher disagree on the social nature of language learning.
B. Bakhtin's view contradicts the researcher's emphasis on the social aspects of
language.
C. Both Bakhtin and the researcher emphasize the social nature of language learning.
D. Bakhtin focuses solely on the internalization of language rules, while the researcher
emphasizes social constraints.
E. The researcher's perspective on social aspects of language use is not discussed in
relation to Bakhtin's view.

Read the text below to answer the questions

Olympic swimmer Nick D'Arcy, 21, had pleaded guilty to a charge of recklessly inflicting
grievous bodily harm on Simon Cowley in a nightclub brawl last year and was sentenced in a
Sydney court today.

122
Prosecutors had asked the court to jail D'Arcy but his lawyers pleaded for a non-custodial
sentence, arguing that D'Arcy had already suffered enough by being excluded from the 2008
Beijing Olympics. The judge in charge of the case agreed and handed D'Arcy a suspended
sentence of 14 months and 12 days, telling the court he had "very good prospects of
rehabilitation."
Magistrate John Favretto said: "There is nothing to suggest that he present a continuing
danger to the community.” (1)
Favretto accepted that D'Arcy had been provoked by Cowley but said his response was
excessive and intended to cause harm.
He placed D'Arcy on a good behaviour bond and ordered him to undergo an unique
counselling for alcohol, stress and anger management (2).
Favretto said: "While there was only one punch, it must have been with considerable force
given the extent of the injury. Simon Cowley must’ve been hurted badly." (3)
Outside the court, D'Arcy told reporters he regretted his actions and hoped Cowley would
eventually forgive him. He said: "It was a terrible situation, which I have apologised for, and
I deeply regret and I do hope one day he will can forgive me."(4) The decision means D'Arcy
may be free to represent Australia at this year's World Championships in Rome after he
qualified by winning the 200 metres butterfly at this month's national trials.
“To hurt a fellow sportsperson is the biggest mistake I have ever made,” (5) D’Arcy was
quoted in the press conference, “I must strive to be a better person, and I will not repeat such
vile behavior.”
Source: [Link] (with modifications)

5. What can be inferred from the passage?

A. The counselling program prescribed for D’Arcy is a common one.
B. Cowley had forgiven D’Arcy for his mistakes.
C. D’Arcy wanted to undergo counselling on his own decision.
D. Cowley was hit repeatedly by D’Arcy in the nightclub.
E. D’Arcy decided to become a better person on his own accord.

6. All but one of the underlined parts of the passage are grammatically incorrect. Which
one is grammatically correct?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

7. There were two striking breakthroughs in recent times in the running world: Stephanie
Davis, a 30-year-old with a fulltime job in finance, running a personal record (PR) of
[Link] to win the British Olympic Marathon Trials in London in March; and Beth

123
 Potter, a 29-year-old Scottish triathlete, running 14:41 at the Podium 5K in Lancashire,
U.K., a second quicker than the previous world record.

Surprisingly, unlike most of their world-class rivals, Davis and Potter are not high-
mileage runners. Speaking to Runner’s World, Potter said she runs just 30 miles a week,
while Davis said her hard practice averaged 88K a week (54 miles) on the buildup to the
Podium 5K.
Source: [Link] (with modifications)
What can be inferred from the passage above?
A. The writer thinks that Davis’s and Potter’s victories were to be expected.
B. Stephanie Davis hardly practiced for the Podium 5K race.
C. Beth Potter is way younger than Stephanie Davis.
D. Stephanie Davis focuses all her effort and energy on racing.
E. Beth Potter finished the race slightly quicker than the previous record holder

The text below to answer the questions

Skies brightened a lot in the afternoon yesterday (1). This Wednesday, we won’t be as lucky.
Wet weather will arrive and it will stick around through the evening. There’s a 75% chance
of rain, which can help the ongoing drought across the region (2).
Thursday will end up being the brightest, most pleasant day (3) with sunshine and seasonable
temperatures. It will most likely be sunny for the whole day (4). Clouds will overspread the
area Thursday night.
A chilly rainfall is definitely coming on Friday evening, followed by a day-long thunderstorm
on Saturday (5). It looks like we will clear out in time for Mother’s Day on Sunday.
Source: [Link] (with modifications)
8. Which of the underlined parts of the passage does not contain an adverb of place or time?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

9. Which of the following sentences uses articles incorrectly?

A. Please evacuate the building in an orderly fashion.
B. I’m in love with the dress that Frances McDormand wore to the Oscars.
C. The 2016 presidential election was pretty tumultuous.
D. My parents are both from the Ivory Coast, but I was born here in Argentina.
E. I think Linda left the General Affairs office about an hour ago.

10. …. If it happens to you one day, don’t despair. Even if you dropped your cell phone into
the sink, toilet, or bathtub, you may be able to save it. The most important thing you can
do is act fast. Take it out of the water as soon as possible. Then, turn it off, take out the
battery, and remove all accessories. Try to remove as much water from it as you can with

124
 either towels or a vacuum cleaner. Focus on drying both the headphone jack and the
charging port. Then, put it in a bowl of instant rice or any other absorbent material for
48-72 hours before turning it on. With a little luck and fast action, your cell phone may
survive its brush with death.
Source: [Link] (with modifications)
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. It is OK to put a wet cell phone in an absorbent material not designed for drying cell
phones.
B. If you dropped your cell phone in water, you’d only have two to three days to save it.
C. A wet cell phone must be dried using towels and a vacuum cleaner.
D. When drying a wet cell phone, you can choose to dry the headphone jack or the
charging port.
E. If a wet cell phone were connected to wired earphones, it would be better to leave the
earphones plugged in

Read the text below

Two years after announcing that he had retired from comics, Alan Moore, the illustrious
author of Watchmen and V for Vendetta, has signed a six-figure deal for a “groundbreaking”
five-volume fantasy series as well as a “momentous” collection of short stories.
Bloomsbury, which published the Harry Potter novels, acquired what it described as two
“major” projects from the 67-year-old. The first, Illuminations, is a short story collection
which will be published in autumn 2022 and which moves from the four horsemen of the
apocalypse to the “Boltzmann brains” fashioning the universe. Bloomsbury editor Ken
Hyland said it was “dazzlingly original and brimming with energy”, promising a series of
“beguiling and elegantly crafted tales that reveal the full power of imagination and magic”.
The second acquisition is a fantasy quintet titled Long London, which will launch in 2024.
The series will move from the “shell-shocked and unravelled” London of 1949 to “a version
of London just beyond our knowledge”, encompassing murder, magic and madness.
Bloomsbury said it “promises to be epic and unforgettable, a tour-de-force of magic and
history”.
Source: [Link] (with modifications)
11. Which of the following questions is answered in the passage?
A. What genre of comics does Alan Moore specialize in?
B. Which publisher published Alan Moore’s V for Vendetta?
C. What year does the book Illuminations take place?
D. Whose editor praised the book Illuminations?
E. Which author wrote the Harry Potter series?

12. Which of the following choices uses phrasal verbs incorrectly?

A. Honey, can you get some butter on your way home? We’ve run out of butter.
B. The caller started threatening me so I had to hang on the phone.
C. My mother cracked up at my brother’s joke. I have to admit, it was really funny.
D. I played along with my sister’s belief that she had a ghost friend.

125
 E. Put the fire out or it’s going to burn the whole kitchen!

12. Which of the following sentences uses an exclusively transitive or intransitive verb?
A. She cried in her mother’s arms in the middle of the night.
B. After that, crack two eggs into the bowl of honey and milk.
C. Cynthia kicked the ball towards the enemy’s goalpost.
D. Did any of you bring an umbrella to school?
E. The bear jumped with joy upon the sight of a giant honeycomb.

13. There were two striking breakthroughs in recent times in the running world: Stephanie
Davis, a 30-year-old with a fulltime job in finance, running a personal record (PR) of
[Link] to win the British Olympic Marathon Trials in London in March; and Beth
Potter, a 29-year-old Scottish triathlete, running 14:41 at the Podium 5K in Lancashire,
U.K., a second quicker than the previous world record.
Surprisingly, unlike most of their world-class rivals, Davis and Potter are not high-
mileage runners. Speaking to Runner’s World, Potter said she runs just 30 miles a week,
while Davis said her hard practice averaged 88K a week (54 miles) on the buildup to the
Podium 5K.
Source: [Link] (with modifications)
What can be inferred from the passage above?
A. The writer thinks that Davis’s and Potter’s victories were to be expected.
B. Stephanie Davis hardly practiced for the Podium 5K race.
C. Beth Potter is way younger than Stephanie Davis.
D. Stephanie Davis focuses all her effort and energy on racing.
E. Beth Potter finished the race slightly quicker than the previous record holder.

Read the conversation below!

Toni : Excuse me, are you Ms. Li?
Ms. Li : Oh my God, Toni? Is that you?
Toni : Yes, it’s me! I thought you wouldn’t remember me!
Ms. Li : I never forget my students! Wow, you’ve gotten so big. Is your sister with
you?
Toni : Um, no, she’s not. She’s in the hospital, actually.
Ms. Li : Sweet child! What happened to her? Is she OK?
Toni : She had an accident last week. She’s OK now, though.

14. What cannot be inferred from the dialogue above?

A. Ms. Li probably feels surprised when she recognizes Toni.
B. In Ms. Li’s eyes, Toni’s sister is such a sweet girl.
C. Ms. Li did not expect Toni to have grown up so much.
D. There may be a moment of hesitation before Toni tells Ms. Li where his sister is.
E. Ms. Li used to be Toni’s teacher.

15. Which of these sentences contain a to-infinitive and is grammatically correct?

126
 A. To Pembroke Castle is where we shall go next month.
B. The rollercoaster is far to scary for me, I will just stick with the Ferris wheel.
C. Edgar agreed to help me with my assignment, as long as I help him study for the
biology exam.
D. During the weekend, Deandra enjoys to bake all sorts of bread and pastries.
E. I will go to campus tomorrow because there’s a huge bazaar happening there.

16. .... That’s why I always keep in touch with my family and my close friends. Plus, their
support is absolutely crucial for my mental wellness.
Which of the following sentences fits the above sentence?
A. I live in a new city which I really love because there are so many fancy restaurants.
B. If you ask me which one is most important to me, I’ll choose my business over
anything.
C. Living with my family does not always mean that I don’t feel lonely.
D. If I really want to be successful, I must sacrifice a lot of things, including my social
life.
E. I don’t want to be labeled as someone whose life purpose is only making money.

The text below is for questions 17-18

The collapse of the colonial empires of the past and proclamation of independence of African
countries did not mean the end of an era of exploitation of former dependent countries, both
from the former colonial powers, and by the other industrialized world-powers. Classic
colonialism, based on military coercion and implying incorporation of colonial territories into
the political system of the metropolis, has given way to neocolonialism.
The latter is a latent form, not based on direct coercion and deprivation of sovereignty
exploitation of developing countries by the developed world-powers. Neocolonialism
included numerous specific methods of political and economic manipulation. These include
the planting of corruption and outright bribery of African political elites, the system of
bonded loans, the use of so-called humanitarian aid as a tool of manipulation, the use of
armed force in the name of maintenance of peace, and the use of inciting tribalist conflict.
Source: [Link] (with modifications)
17. Which of these statements is correct according to the passage?
A. African countries have been exploited by the colonial empires before neocolonialism
arose.
B. Developing African countries have not been totally freed from colonialists.
C. Developed world-powers have used military coercion to exploit African countries
until now.
D. The colonial empires had planted corruption before neocolonialism arose.
E. Developing African countries have been coerced indirectly by the developed world-
powers.

18. Which of these statements is incorrect?

127
 A. Will you have done everything by seven?
B. Will we have arrived by the time it gets dark?
C. This Sunday they’ll have been staying in London for three weeks.
D. I won’t have left by six.
E. I don't know if Sarah is coming. I will have talked to her tomorrow.

The text below to answer the question 19

Restaurante Botin is a cozy, family-owned restaurant in Madrid, Spain, located next to the
Plaza Mayor and known for its traditional Spanish dishes. It also holds the Guinness World
Record for being the oldest restaurant in the world!
The restaurant was opened in 1725 by French chef Jean Botin, initially as an inn and tavern,
under unique conditions and restrictions. Throughout the 18th century, it was illegal for
tavern-owners to sell food themselves. Instead, diners would bring their own meat, wine, and
food, and the restaurant would prepare it for them. This was a common Spanish practice not
exclusive to Botin’s establishment, but Restaurante Botin is one of the few inns and taverns
that has survived to this day, eventually transitioning into a modern-day restaurant.
Source: [Link]
Which of these statements is true according to the passage?
A. Restaurante Botin has already been selling their food for nearly 300 years.
B. Spanish tavern owners have only been preparing diners’ food until now.
C. Jean Botin has been owning the restaurant for nearly 300 years.
D. Restaurante Botin has been serving Spanish dishes for nearly 300 years.
E. Spanish diners have been transitioning to more traditional Spanish restaurants

20. Tama: Perhaps we should sell this cupboard for our next week's expense.
Hana: You know what, ...

Which sentence is correct to fill the blank in Hana's statement?

A. if I had a million dollars, I will divorce you.
B. if I had married the other guy, I would not have gone through this suffering.
C. I would not have known suffering if I don't know you.
D. if they hadn't signed the contract, we would have been rich.
E. if you hadn't been unemployed, I wouldn't have sold my mom's antique earrings.

128
REFLECTION

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